#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 187 of 1
lmk if u think of a counterexample
Is the result true in char 2?
I don't know
its not true in general
But it feels true for F4
it might be true for larger fields
Oh so I do have to take it one step further to get to the contradiction
I guess because my hypothesis wasn't about 2u, it was about u
So I was onto something ... I just was getting lost because I thought I had to work with three vectors
yeah tbh I just figured it out by trying to like think about it as a game
like you are trying to make such a counterexample
but math stops you
so like, first thing I thought about was why your 2-space proof didn't immediatley work for 3
so i was like where does v+w end up
and then I figured that 'felt' like a lot of leverage
I still struggle with that kind of intuition sometimes --- sometimes I get it but sometimes I really hit a brick wall
To show that a transformation T is a linear transformation, I only have to show that it satisfies the addition and scalar multiplication properties for a linear transformation right?
It's a theorem that if U, V, W are subgroups of G whose union is G, then (among other things) G/(U n V n W) is isomorphic to Z2 x Z2. We let G = U + V + W in this case, and take U, V, W to be subspaces of some vector space L. We have dim (U + V + W)/(U n V n W) = 2. We still haven't invoked the assumption on the incomparability of the subspaces.
(L is over F2).
This should imply that we only need to check a two dimensional space over F2.
Actually no
can we modify to work in any field except for F_2 by like
let a and b be nonzero elements of F whose sum is also nonzero
and consider (au + v) and (bu - v) or something
if u is in U but not V or W the same will be true of au and bu
then both of au + v and bu - v must be in W as they can't be in U or V
and then their sum (a+b)u is also in W, and hence u is as well since (a + b) \neq 0
@sleek helm @versed topaz @mystic sentinel
so I think it's not even that "2 = 0" in F_2 that's the problem
but rather that F_2 just doesn't have enough scalars, period
whereas F_4 does
ahh I think that makes sense!
This fits my intuition better
I was thinking of like
Writing down a polynomial or linear equation in the scalars
And finding that it has to be nonempty
But didn't get further
yeah
it was just weird to me that this felt like it should be true in other fields of char 2 but not in F_2
so somehow the issue couldn't just be that 2 = 0
Yeah haha
I think it's like
An intuition about size
In fact, I wonder if we can get more precise about the size of a possible counterexample over F2
well there is a counterexample in (F_2)^2
That's what I meant, sorry
oh sorry I see
Yeah exactly
So the full proof is
Take u in U, v in V, w in W where each element is outside the union of the other two subspaces. Choose nonzero a, b in the scalars such that a+b ≠ 0. Then u+av+bw is not in U cup V cup W?
sorry what are you doing with u + av + bw?
I lost track of what the actual proof was, sorry
so my new idea was look at the vectors au + v and bu - v. These are in U cup V cup W because that's assumed to be a subspace. however, they aren't in U or V, so they must be in W
but then their sum is (a+b)u is in W, and therefore u is in W as well since a+b \neq 0
contradiction
since u, v, w were assumed to be in only their respective subspaces
(which is also why you can't have au + v in U or V)
your typing and backspacing is making me nervous 
Right
assume U cup V cup W is a subspace and assume none is completely contained in any other
and assume dim U > 1
oh wait i need one more assumption
hmm
so what I want to say is
let u1 and u2 be elements of U such that u1 + u2 \neq 0
and neither u1 nor u2 is in V or W
then repeat the proof with u1 + v and u2 - v
since U cup V cup W is a subspace, those are both in U cup V cup W, but they can't be in U or V
therefore they're in W, so their sum is in W
but their sum is some nonzero element of U
which I really want to not be in W hahahaha
Yeah, I see
Hmm
ah right so like
We take u1 = a u and u2 = b u in the previous case, right?
If I'm translating right
yeah
I see
and as long as u is not in V nor W, then no multiple of it will be
so that's why you're fine with like (a+b)u
Yup
I want to sort of say like, "maybe it wasn't that our field didn't have enough scalars, but really that our subspaces just didnt have enough elements"
which was your idea too I think
Yeah, I see
Yup
I feel like there's a really cute proof hiding somewhere thst involves the homology of a complex haha
Hopefully I can think about this tomorrow
Going to log off and prep for my analysis final rn though
Thanks for thinking about this with me!
actually wait no this is still false over F_2 I think, in (F_2)^3
you can have 3 planes
which are distinct but union to the whole thing
grrr
Oh hmm
Please do!
som1 plss help i have a math test tmr and im struggling on these linear equation word problemss
Thanks for the help by the way. 🙂 That's definitely a technique I think I'll be able to use in the future.
@hybrid elk do you still need help w/ this?
yeah
would it help if you were to write the actual system (equations and all) represented by this matrix?
no
unless you want to spend an infinite amount of time doing that
$\begin{cases} x + 3y - 4z = -7 \ y - 2z = 3 \ (a+3)z = b-5 \end{cases}$
Ann
here's your system
do you understand that the first two equations can be used to express both x and y in terms of z?
and since the first two equations don't involve a and b, any conclusions made from them are independent of the values of a and b?
so the equation that requires detailed analysis - the one everything hinges on - is the third equation
(a+3)z = (b-5)
notice that if a+3 ≠ 0 then this equation is guaranteed to have a unique solution
if a+3 ≠ 0 then dividing both sides by (a+3) gives you the solution
z = (b-5)/(a+3)
but that only works as long as you aren't dividing by zero
...
i meant like
shit like don't plug in a=4 and b=22 just because you have nothing better to do
if you didnt care about things being legal or not then you would just divide both sides of (a+3)z = (b-5) by (a+3) and get your solution
but obviously you need to think about what could stop you from doing that
and what could stop you is division by zero
find all pairs (a,b) for which the system has infinitely many solutions
yeah?
what about this
Like if you were to say x is -5 and y is -3 it wouldn't be > 0
this just means (-5, -3) ∉ U
nothing more
the way to go about any question that goes "is this set a subspace of <vector space>"
is to check it against the definition of a subspace
i.e. to ask yourself three questions
- is the set nonempty?
- if you take two elements of the set and add them, is the sum still in the set?
- if you take an element of the set and multiply it by a number, is the product still in the set?
if the answers to all three questions are YES then your set is a subspace, if the answer to even one is NO then it is not a subspace
?
yes??? it's literally the definition of a subspace
phrased in a way that lends itself well(ish) to plug n chug
"larger than x" what
...
no?
the elements of your set are vectors in R^2
wdym by that
what are you thinking so far
are you familiar with the terms there though? like what they mean by "span all of R3"
the span of a set of vectors is the set of all of the linear combinations of those vectors
do you know what a linear combination is?
that's right
hmm i would put plus signs instead of commas tho
theres a theorem in linear algebra:
all linearly independent spanning sets of a space are the same size
do you know what "linearly independent" means?
so an easy way to show a set of vectors is not spanning is to show that, if you "force" it to be linearly independent (say by row reducing + removing 0 rows), there are less vectors than the space's dimension
i don't think they have taken linalg yet,
an alternative way is to find a vector that's impossible to express as a linear combination of the other vectors
ah
then the "alternative" way involves less machinery
though often more clever arguments to show that it's actually impossible
how do you do this?
you can say that a set of linearly independent vectors that span a subspace are a "basis" for that subspace
also i dont think this is quite right
or at least is phrased ambiguously
we say a set of vectors is linearly dependent if one of the vector is a linear combination of the other vector_s_
note the plural
i'll leave it to you nami, i have no experience teaching at highschool level, cheers
so $\left{\begin{bmatrix}1\0\0\end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix}0\1\0\end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix}1\1\0\end{bmatrix}\right}$ is linearly dependent
Namington
no, that would prove it does span R^3.
yes, a way to show it doesnt would be to show the set is linearly dependent
since we know the size of a linearly independent spanning set of R^3 is 3
(we call this the space's "dimension")
so if you have a set of 3 vectors and its NOT Linearly independent
then it cant possibly be spanning
since you can remove one of the vectors without affecting the span (since that vector is a linear combination of the others!), and then its not "large enough" to be spanning
i gave one above
its linearly dependent since we can write (1, 1, 0) = (1, 0, 0) + (0, 1, 0)
and hence it cant span R^3
although in this case its "obvious" it cant span R^3
since there's cleaerly no way to add those together to get the vector $\begin{bmatrix}0\0\1\end{bmatrix}
Namington
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because of the last entry
missing $ at the end
im aware
not worth fixing
a less trivial linearly dependent set might be:
[\left{
\begin{bmatrix}3\2\0\end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix}1\2\5\end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix}-1\2\10\end{bmatrix}
\right}]
Namington
this is linearly dependent because:[
-1 \cdot \begin{bmatrix}3\2\0\end{bmatrix} + 2 \cdot \begin{bmatrix}1\2\5\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}-3 + 2\ -2 + 4 \ 0 + 10\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}-1\2\10\end{bmatrix}
]
Namington
the prototypical linearly independent set for $\mathbb{R}^3$ is just[\left{\begin{bmatrix}1\0\0\end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix}0\1\0\end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix}0\0\1\end{bmatrix}\right}]
Namington
of course this is quite uninteresting
you can certainly make more complicated examples:
[\left{\begin{bmatrix}1\\sqrt{2}\0\end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix}0\15\-\frac{\pi}{2}\end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix}3\-3\1\end{bmatrix}\right}]
Namington
they got you buttered up
are you familiar with the criteria for when a linear system has one/zero/multiple solutions?
if i use the jargon "free variables" and "zero rows"
do you know what i mean
because we have the following result on real linear systems in row reduced form:
- A linear system has exactly one solution if it is consistent and has no free variables.
- A linear system has infinitely many solutions if it is consistent and has free variables.
- A linear system has zero solutions if it is inconsistent.
okay so clearly, no matter what a, b are, the first two rows of this system are unaffected
so we only care about the third row
you only get inconsistency when a+3 = 0 but b-5 isn't 0
when you have 0z = (something other than 0) the equation is contradictory
when you have 0z = 0 the equation has every real number as solution
^
and in any other case you have exactly one solution
yes.
a slightly more detailed framing of ann's solution:
first let's suppose a + 3 = 0, so a = -3
then the last equation becomes 0z = b-5
obviously 0 * anything = 0
so if b - 5 is NOT equal to 0, then this equation (hence the system) has no solutions
hence we have no solutions in the case:
a = -3, b ≠ 5
it's stronger than just "infinitely many" but the distinction doesn't come up in linear systems
meanwhile, we have infinitely many solutions in the case:
a = -3, b = 5
why is this? well, because then we have 0z = 0
and so ANY value of z we pick will work
okay, so that deals with the case where a + 3 = 0
now let's assume a + 3 is NOT zero (so a ≠ -3), and therefore we can divide by it
we can then rearrange the last equation to 1z = (b-5)/(a+3)
and so there's exactly one solution for z
which we can compute exactly by computing (b-5)/(a+3)
at least, not linear systems of spaces with infinitely many elements
if your vector space has finitely many elements, of course youll only have finitely many solutions
but that wont come up for ℝ^n
yeah 
anyway, to summarize:
infinitely many: a = -3, b = 5
none: a = -3, b ≠ 5
exactly one: a ≠ -3
does that make sense?
also btw i didnt really explain this at first but
from the beginning i was thinking "linear systems are easier to study if we're looking at simply z = [stuff] rather than [stuff] * z = [stuff], so i want to make the entry with a+3 into a 1"
"the easiest way to do this is to divide by a+3"
"but of course, that only makes sense if a+3 is not 0"
thats why i started off by assuming a+3 = 0
i wanted to deal with that case separately
and then i could deal with a+3 ≠ 0 later
if that helps explain why i took the approach i did.
[since it might seem that i just considered a+3 = 0 randomly; this was my reason.]
you might be tempted to consider an alternate approach, where instead of trying to divide by a+3, we instead subtracted a+3 by a+2
in order to make it 1
and indeed, that seems like it would work
if we subtract both sides of a+3 = b-5 by a+2, we get 1 = -a + b - 7
the problem, of coures, is that we're forgetting about the "z"
we dont ACTUALLY have a+3 = b-5
we have (a+3)z = (b-5)
so we cant actually get rid of the a+3 in such a simple way
im just explaining why i defaulted to division instead of subtraction
subtraction wouldnt work!
(this is why "add/subtract an entire row by some number" isnt a valid operation when row reducing/doing gaussian elimination, BTW)
(i.e. why we only have multiplying and dividing, or adding rows to each other)
anyway, i should get going but feel free to ask your question
someone else might be able to help
just a tip: whenever you look at systems of equations like this, a good strategy is to think "how can i get this into RREF?"
working with RREF matrices is much easier than REF
(im assuming you know what RREF means)
but you just have to be careful not to divide by 0 in this process
hence youll often have to deal with separate cases where things youre dividing by are 0s, if they involve variables.
thats basiclaly what i was doing above, i was just doing it informally.
a more algorithmic phrasing of what i did is just:
if we assume this is nonzero, we can put it into RREF with no free variables [besides the solution column], hence 1 solution; meanwhile if we assume it's 0 we either have a column without a pivot [hence free variable] or an inconsistent row [hence no solutions]
and then reverse-engineer what the values should be in each case
that might help give you a "Strategy" for more complicated forms of this problem
anyway, i really have to leave, good luck!
Crown
that timing
take the hermitian transpose 😛
of A^HA or AA^H?
i don't really know how these two parts are linked
why is it necessary for A^HA to be hermitian in order for AA^H to be hermitian
i don't actually think they are
you can show it separately for both cses using only properties of the hermitian transpose, afaik
this is what i got by hermitian transposing the AA^H
you have to swap the places before you transpose
swap the places of the A's?
Crown
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indeed
thank you very mucho
How are these two spaces isomorphic when the first one has length 2 and the other has length 5.
Isn't a requirement for an isomorphism that both spaces have the same dimension
what do you mean by length
the only thing this is saying is that cartesian products of R2 and R3 are kinda like R5, in very poor and unprecise words
or that a list containing a list of 2 numbers and a list of 3 numbers behaves like a list of 5 numbers
R^2xR^3' elements are (x1,x2) and (x3,x4,x5), that's only dimension 2
R^5 has x1, x2, x3, x4 and x5
He claims it is an isomorphism tho
they said nothing about dimension though
the isomorphism they're mentioning is really just "take the 5 elements and put them in a list"
@acoustic path i think the thing youre missing is that
this isnt an isomorphism between R^2 and R^5
or R^3 and R^5
this is an isomorphism between R² × R³ and R⁵
R² × R³ denotes the product of vector spaces
which is the vector space made up of elements from R² "fused with" elements of R³
(inheriting coordinate-wise addition and multiplication from their respective spaces)
in the finite-dimensional case of spaces over the same field, the dimension of the product is the sum of the dimensions
so dim(R² × R³) = 2+3 = 5 = dim(R⁵)
as expected.
Ah
there is more than one problem though. even if it was a map from R2 to R5, you can make an isomorphism by just embedding the lower dim space into the higher dim space
so that argument was also false
i used dimension wrong, my bad
not as vector spaces, no
there is a bijection in that both have cardinality beth_0.
that's the one i meant
i ignored the very last line of the image they shared cuz i'm dumb
apparently
thx Edd, Nami
i'm gonna go return my degree lol
if W is a mxn complex matrix where $W^HW = I_n$ is there anything i can determine about what $WW^H$ is equal to?
Crown
thanks 😄
They are isomorphic as Q-vector spaces 
i just reread this
this isn't necessarily true, is it?
the matrix isn't square
oh
WW^H is an ortho projection matrix
fuck
not necessarily I
summon the person
hi
uh oh
if the columns are orthonormal, it is also an orthogonal projection matrix
how do i know if the columns are orthonormal?
nvm
but i don't know anything about W's columns
hmm, by the end product i'm supposed to show (WW^H)^2 = WW^H
not too sure how i can put this all together
is all of this dealing with the same W? all the questions from before
because none of this implies that on its own
oh
yeah, no
ya mb misstype
wait a second
which is what they told you
wdym
so W(W^H W)W^H?
associating the terms?
ya
Not sure if I'm using the right channel, but I was reading a proof that proves the existence of an evolutionary stable strategy for all non trivial 2x2 matrices
and I was just wondering how they worked out that we need this value for p
What's an ESS?
Evolutionary stable strategy- I will get the mathematical definition, one moment
Oh
Yeah, idk this stuff but can't you just put it into those inequalities to verify with an arbitrary q
i tried i think, would you have to take E(p, 1-p)
where p'=(p1,p2)
and q=(1-p1,1-p2)^T
Huh? p is the vector (p, 1-p) and q seems to be any vector
Ahhh I see, thats probably why I was getting some weird stuff then hahaha
I will try that
and then i suppose solving for p you would get the value of p required
Oh, I just mean you should verify that is an ESS first
I'm not sure how they got that it is one
yeahh i don't really understand this proof
Repost question so someone else who knows this can help
the one at the bottom?
since S is diagonal, the product USV is equal to the sum of weighted outer products of the columns of U and V^H
it becomes more evident if you notice that a product AB can be written not only as inner products, but also as outer products
then just shove an I matrix between A and B
Kinda stuck on how to show ii, mainly cause not sure how to prove something doesn't hold
ok so I do that for all n greater than equal to 2
yes
there's kinda infinitely many n
okay?
might take me a while to write out all n examples
even doing part (i) needs you to show things for infinitely many vectors
there are infinitely many complex numbers, so how did you do part (i)
yes but you're saying give an example, not prove it
What's the difference? You're proving that it doesn't hold.
I was trying to prove it doesn't hold given the properties
disproof by counterexample is very common in math
$||v+w||_1^2 \leq ||v||_1^2+2||v||_1||w||_1+||w||_1^2$
moshill1
I don't think this will work, you have to use something specific about the norm since there are other norms that do satisfy the parallelogram identity
So you can't only use the properties
yeah ik it doesn't work, cause if I assume the identity holds for contradiction, I get a true ineq
So just give a counterexample for all n
it's not hard to give an example for all infinitely many n
for example maybe you could use (1, 1, ...., 1)^T where there are n ones
Gonna ask again since I'm not sure if people saw this as someone else put a question immediately after:
I was just wondering how they worked out that we need this value for p
can someone explain why yhat or projc w y is just y?
is that because y is in the space spanned by u?
i'm quite confused
that would be it, yes
if y is already in W
projecting it onto W shouldn't change anything
makes sense, thank you
however i am trying this formula
i converted each u to unit vector and applied the formula to get the weights
and also this:
however i got different answers for the weights
am i not supposed to get the same weights?
the former formula requires it to have unit length 1 hence I converted it to unit vector..however i'm getting nowhere similar answer when applying formula 2 which seems to be correct
the two are equivalent
those 2 images show the same thing
y dot u/ (u dot u) is a scalar, so you can move it to the right of the vector u
then rewrite y dot u as u^T y
that leaves you with u u^T y / (u dot u), which normalizes u u^T
i'm getting a weird value though by using the first formula
unit vector of u2:
then i dot product of that vector with y, as in this formula to get the weight
however that weight is not the same as using this formula
lemme matlab it up, i'm too lazy to do it on paper
so sorry to trouble you, i've recalculated it 7 times now i've got totally different weights c
gimme a few min to get to it
sure, thank you
see
same thang
method 1 is your "theorem 10"
method 2 is the ortho decomp. theorem
the weights should be these
oh wait.... the weights should be different for these two formulas
right?
since one uses the unit vector, the other is not
hence the weights differ
they should be identical
in the ortho decomp, you divide by the norm squared of u_i
that normalizes the vector
those are the weights
you can rewrite the ortho decomp. theorem so that the weight is the scalar projection of y on a unit vector in the direction of u_i
as compared to using the non-unit vector the weights differ,no?
and then that weight multiplies another unit vector in the direction of u_i
well but using a non-unit vector would be wrong
both methods are using unit vectors
as i just wrote
this methods gives me 4/3 for C1 and -1/3 for C2
while the other method gave me and 10.xx for C1 and -0.81xxx for C2
and i still got the yhat of -9 1 6 respectively
don't forget the norm squared in the denominator
you can group that cleverly to show that it is equivalent to having used unit vectors u_i
the two methods say exactly the same thing
just with different parentheses to associate different terms
ah
sorry i was referring to this
this is the weight right? for u1
assuming U1 is not unit vector
however when U1 is unit vector, the weight is different
that is my confusion
and it should be different
aha, that is not a unit vector u_1
because you divided by the norm squared
if you realize that u1 dot u1 = norm(u1)^2, you can divide each of the u1s on the numerator by one norm(u1)
it's equivalent because this is a unit u1 and you divide by an extra norm(u1), but the other u1 is not normalized
i.e., again, it is equivalent
just throw some parentheses around
it is the same equation
ah
thank you so much for taking for the detailed explanations, really appreciate it man @lavish jewel
no prob
i got it now, thank you!
does anyone know at least where i may be able to find help with this/ good places to look etc?
Hello, I have a question for myself. Given a matrix A = vv^t where v is an nx1 column vector
I have shown A is idempotent, symmetric and of rank one - it represents the orthogonal projection of R^3 onto Lin{v}
Given B = I - 2A, I have shown B is symmetric, orthogonal and B^2=I
How can I get the determinant of B? and eventually figure out the transformation it represents
yes it is 🙂
B has determinant 0
Can't be, its orthogonal
ah 2A, sorry, thought it was just A
So it's obviously 1 or -1
you could get the determinant from its diagonalization
shouldn't be that difficult to find out what the singular values are
But I wanna know if its orientation preservering / reversing
Would someone be able to help me with this?
I manipulated the A^2 = -I to A+A^-1 = 0
But idk how to continue
A has as singular values 1, and n-1 0s, yes?
2A will have sing val 2, and n-1 0s
you should be able to do something with that. i get the impression it will reverse the orientation, but i can't check rn
(assuming v is unit norm, anyway)
otherwise, a simultaneous diagonalization/generalized eigenvalue approach might help
you could write A=[a,b;c,d] and square it then solve for the system of equations
Nvm, I got this solved
I have another question I need a hand with
how can I find such a matrix?
it T linear map?
are you asked to see if T is linear in the question?
ok so you need to check if 0 maps to 0 and if a linear combination maps to the linear combination of transformations
namely does:
T(0)=0
T(cu+dv)=cT(u)+dT(v)
well f(0) + g(0) = (f+g)(0)
$T[cf+dg]=(cf+dg)(0)=cf(0)+dg(0)=cT[f]+dT[g]$
moshill1
@nocturne jewel what is the c and d?
scalars in the field
is it necessary?
Yes, cause you want to show any linear combination of vectors
Or you test scaling and addition seperately
yeah that works too
is this true?
yes
T(kf)=(kf)(0)=kf(0)=kT(f)
Well if the interval was [1,2] then T wouldn't make sense
why [1,2] ?
I’m listening to a lecture on youtube where the lecturer states that the vector u - v points from the head of v to the head of u.
I’m a bit confused if he means that the tail of vector u - v actually starts at v, or that it’s just the same length. If the former, how can you know when a vector starts out at the span or somewhere else?
you know that the position of vectors is irrelevant, yes?
only their direction and magnitude matters
I’m not sure if the position of vectors is irrelevant, that’s what I’m wondering
it is irrelevant
to better visualize this problem maybe it helps to look at it this way:
He says it starts at one head and goes to the other, and I’m here wondering if it matters that it does so, or if it just matters that it’s length is equivalent
you can describe it this way or another way
you can start from the origin and go to the head of u
then from there draw -v (v in the opposite direction) and travel along it
the vector that you create from the origin to the head of -v is the same
now if you want, you can move -v so that it looks like the teacher is saying in the video
Right, that makes sense. Thank you.
np
why does multiplying a vector by a matrix over and over again converge to the eigenvector span
it might become easy to see if you consider the diagonalization of the matrix
say, A = QDQ^-1
multiplying Q^-1 by a vector v will do a change of basis that tells you how much of each of the vectors in Q was contained in v (you can treat the elements of the resulting vector w as dot products to see why this is)
then these coordinates are multiplied by D, which will scale them by the eigenvalues of the matrix
the result is a weighted set of coordinates that will tell you how to combine the vectors in Q to get the result of Av
already, this means that the result has to be in the span of the eigenvectors of A
but then, if the eigenvalues in D are not all equal, repeating this procedure will make the coordinate of v corresponding to the largest eigenvalue of A grow faster than the others as you multiply by A over and over
until the largest eigenvalue dominates, and you get a result almost parallel to the corresponding eigenvector
(parallel in the limit)
i understand it kinda
but not really
when i multiply v in the basis of Q^-1 a bunch of times with the eigenvalues it must converge to something but its not intuitive for me rn
how can i show that $f'(\lambda) \geq 0$ for $\lambda \geq 0$ where $f(\lambda) = X(\lambda I + X^TX)^{-1}X^T y)$, $X \in R^{d\times n}$, $y \in R^n$?
tramell
im not sure how to work with all these matrices and inverses
if a set is linearly independent, does it mean that a set of vectors which consist of additions of the vectors from the original set is also linearly independent
not necessarily.. in kind of a dumb way
yeah
since u + v = u + v
or even {u, 2u}
...that came out sounding dumb
but
yeah
if you mean "excluding the original vectors", also not necessarily
consider {u_1, u_2, u_3, u_4} as a subset of R^5 and count the number of possible sums
youll note it certainly exceeds 5
the dimension of the space
hence cant be linearly independent
Take that long equation and group the coefficients for each vi so you can use the fact that the original set is linearly independent
if there are 3 distinct basis for R3, does it mean all 3 basis are linearly independent from each other since they are distinct
And if you mean if you put them all together in one set, that set is linearly independent, then the answer is no.
Adding any fourth vector to the basis, nevermind 6 more vectors, would make it linearly dependent
@lavish jewel yeah i meant basis vectors
how do i do part 2 for this qn
i have to make sure. you mean 3 vectors in a set, or putting together 9 vectors?
so if they are distinct,does that mean they are linearly independent
im stuck
in one basis, the vectors are linearly independent
if you look at 2 bases for the same subspace, those are linearly dependent
so assuming the bases only have 1 vector each?
do they all have to be linearly dependent
a basis for R3 contains 3 linearly independent vectors
If a basis has one element, then all vectors are multiples of each other and any set with more than one vector is linearly dependent
to make it more clear, say the basis is Sv = {v1, v2, v3}, with basis vectors v_i
if you have another basis Sw = {w1, w2, w3} for the same subspace, then w1,w2,w3 are linearly dependent on v1,v,2,v3
@lavish jewel so does that mean for the different bases, the respective vectors in them are linearly dependent on the same fixed vectors in other bases
just think of it this way
the basis vectors are in the subspace they span
so any other basis is made up of vectors also in the span, so a set of basis vectors is spanned by another set of basis vectors for the same subspace
ohh
okay i kinda understand
also sorry if im disturbing you but if i have two subspaces U and V where U is a subspace of R5 and V has a dimension of 2, will the dimension of the dot product of the two subspaces be 2 as well cause its the lower number
you mean dot product of vectors in the subspaces
im thinking cause the dimension of S is 2 so since the dot product is 0 , dimension of V should be 2 as well?
no
say you make a matrix S = [u1^T: u2^T] (2 rows, 5 columns)
what you want is Sv = 0
yeah
what's the dimension of the null space of S?
3?
yep
cause 5-2 is 3
that's the dim of V
oh so thats why V has dim 3
so the basis has 3 vectors
thank you for the help lol, bases is so confusing for me
I found the general solution for this.
To find positive integers, I can try and test, but is there a methodical way to do this?
find the kernel/null space of the corresponding matrix
presumably az already found the general sol without the positive integer constraint
im not sure about anything methodical but you might notice that x must be congruent to 4 mod 5 since x + 5(y+2z) = 44
if you wanna do some research on equations like these, they're called diophantine equations
OK, thank you. I'm going to read up on that.
Also, Edd, thanks. I haven't learned kernel/null space yet. But good to know for the future.
it turns out you can find the value of x from here
||x must be 4, since it's congruent to 4 mod 5 and the next lowest value (9) guarantees that the first equation will be violated||
@lavish jewel for any subspace the basis is not unique, but could i use the null space of one basis to find null space of the other basis?
wat do u mean by same
like is there any particular relationship between the null spaces
it is the same null space
yes
oh thks but any particular explanation
like if the basis is not unique shouldnt the null space not be unique
the basis for any subspace isnt unique, wouldnt that suggest that we could get variety of null space too
If the nullspace is the set of inputs which get mapped to the zero vector, then no matter which basis you choose for the space of inputs...
you already started from the premise that you have a subspace with several bases
the same is true for its orthogonal complement
(the null space)
you could use exactly the same basis if you wanted
um any possible videos online where they could visualize it
how would starting from the premise that i have a subspace with several bases affect this?
What exactly do you mean by null space of a basis? Because the null space of a linear map/matrix has nothing to do with a basis.
it doesn't, i 'm just saying exactly the same thing you said
But you say null space of a basis as if it's something to do with the basis
oh i see i think the more appropriate way to say it is the null space is shared among all basis
no
huh
the orthogonal complement of the subspace
you have 1 subspace and its orthogonal complement
each of these have infinitely many bases
wait orthogonal complement means projection right
yes
those two are orthogonal to each other
yeap
any vector in the null space is not in the row space
yes
the null space is the orthogonal complement to the row space
and they both have infinitely many bases
but the null space is related to the row space
not to the basis you chose for the row space
Ax=0 x is the complement is what ur saying
yeah, the vectors x such that Ax = 0 are a subspace
and you can pick whatever basis you like for that subspace
oh wait so basis for any other basis that i pick it gives the same null space
but the main reason is becos the other basis are row equivalent to the row space
and this null space is related to th row space
so basis would only have one kind of null space
The nullspace is the set of all inputs mapped to the 0 vector
And that basis discusses how you wish to generate a space
But regardless of how you wish to generate the space
the null space is a property of an operator
It's still the same space
if you talk only of a subspace in general, then you mean its orthogonal complement
not the null space
they just happen to be the same when looking at a matrix
but if you look only at a basis and the subspace it spans, then you have ortho complement
but wouldnt that imply that orthogonal complement is also unique
it is
whats the original question 
The confusion was over why the nullspace was basis-independent
pretty much
yea like i think i sort of understand
why is the null space the same regardless of which basis you pick for the row space
why wouldnt it be basis-independent
the zero vector is the zero vector no matter how you look at it lol
Null(A) = {v ∈ dom(A) | Av = 0}
that's why i'm pushing for thinking of the subspaces, not the basis you arbitrarily pick
Imo, bringing in orthogonal complements, row-space, even matrices, is quite extra
it's not minimal in its conceptual dependencies
but if the null space was two column would it still be unique or is there now a parameter by which it can change
the thing is that if you say "subspace" and "basis" only, there is no "null space"
Gilbert Strang teaches this perspective only after he goes over the basics first
um guys did gilbert strang explain this in the basis video
vectors and bases can exist separately from matrices that do linear transformations based on them is what i mean
id it under mit course material video on utube
is
If you google "the picture of lienar algebra, gilbert strang"
you'll find his discussion
he is very passionate about this lecture
when he discusses the 4 fundamental subspaces of a matrix, he addresses that
but as i said, you can speak of subspaces and bases without there being a matrix
lol i watched that video but i didnt get the revelation that the null space is unique
maybe cos i had the perception that basis isnt unique
a lot of stuff is being mixed up right now
Let's say I have the vector space generated by [0, 1] and [1, 0].
We can then have all the values of [x, y]
Let's say I have a function which takes some of these values to [0, 0]
is that 2x2 matrix
It doesn't matter how I generated that space
It's still a fact that I map some values to [0, 0]
but could the null space have linear combinations of each other
assuming they are 2 or more columns
You mean, does the nullspace have a basis?
and technically couldnt i say the null space of a "null space" be the basis
or row space
since they are perpendicular
What is a null space of a null space? 
my explanation didn't work
not as simple as I thought
what is even going on anymore
the row space is perpendicular to null space
yes
similarly null space is perpendicular to row space
if i were on the null space or row space
this is why i told you not to use null space
i wouldnt be able to differentiate which is which no?
you mean orthogonal complement
@tulip glacier do you understand that a vector space does not have a null space? It does not make sense to talk of a null space of a vector space. You can talk about a null space of a matrix/linear map.
that is why i used a different word for it
the row and null space are orthogonal to each other
and if you are just given the two spaces with no reference, you cannot tell which is which
only that they are orthogonal to each other
so you have a subspace and its orthogonal complement
and that is all
it doesn't matter what you call each
they are still a subspace and it's ortho comp
@steep sprucenaspace um vector space isnt a matrix?
oh yea the span thing
But you can have subspaces and orthogonal complement without talking about linear maps
they are NOT the same
Idek what this means, but that question is very worrying
holy crap, i'm out. i already explained that like 1000 lines ago
span(set) is a subspace
subspaces exist without the scourge of matrices
set is not a subspace
I'm afraid some of your concepts might be a bit muddied
And you have to clean them up
How are you learning linear algebra? Watching videos, reading a book, in a course?
yea no joke my school messed it up real bad, i see no link between every chapter with how my teachers teach it
like through the notes the school provides
{0} is a subspace
can you show the definitions they gave you
and recently i came across projection vector which is largely different from how gilbert strang taught
yes iknow that
um for basis or null space
for subspace
It's possible the notes are really bad, but they can't be so bad that they have caused this confusion. I suggest you forget about everything you think you know, and go through the notes again. Don't make assumptions. Just read the notes as they are. The question "Isn't a vector space à matrix ?" is genuinely shocking. It seems you don't know what a vector space is at all
i second that
you will have to reread everything and start over
even if the lectures are bad, your notes should have the correct definitions
um if i were to use mit material where should i start?
i think im gonna dump my school nots
like right from eRO?
yes. you can't talk about matrices before first doing vector spaces and subspaces all over again
so from there, i guess
ok i will see what i can do about it, anyway thanks guys
@marble lance , @lavish jewel @tame mural
Np
when finding my P and D matrix when i solve a differential system of eqns do i have to arrange the D vector so that it goes from largest to smallest eigenvalue diagonally top to bottom and similarly align my P matrix so that each corresponding eigenvector is in the correct column?
you dont have to arrange the eigenvalues within D in any way but the eigenvectors do need to be in the same order as the eigenvalues
oh
so even if i have $D= \begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\ ::0&2&0\ ::0&0&3\end{pmatrix}$ thats fine as long as my $\begin{pmatrix}x_1&x_2&x_3\end{pmatrix}$ corresponds with the eigenvalues in D?
ahmad_11
yes
interesting
am i just making this greatest to smallest arrangement up or does this come up somewhere?
if you pay attention to the diagonalization, you're essentially saying that the original matrix is a sum of rank 1 matrices
and sum is commutative, so the order doesn't matter
it is by convention that in the SVD, the singular values are arranged from largest to smallest
it's also not necessary
similarly with the EVD: it's nice, but not necessary, as ann said
sorry i just start diffy eqs yesterday, what are rank 1 matrices and SVD?
oh, ignore everything i said then
xD
it is nice of you if you order it that way, it is often done by convention
but not needed
ah
so lets say i ordered it as $D= \begin{pmatrix}3&0&0\ ::0&2&0\ ::0&0&1\end{pmatrix}$ thats fine too?
ahmad_11
oh
as long as you make sure to reorder the eigenvectors accordingly, as was stated earlier, yeah
bad tex?
whats best way to get good at applied lin alg?
i took a proof based course a while ago and forgot alot of things esp on innor products and actually i havent learn alot of decompositions and stuff
sounds like itd be heavily application-dependent
is there any easier way to do matrices in LaTeX lol
i just end up copying from symbolab
well you could get rid of those weird \:'s peppered all throughout
hmm i think stuff related to ML optimization and numanalysis is good
& separates entries within a row, \\ separates rows
and for this bot theres even a handy command to abbreviate \begin{bmatrix} ... \end{bmatrix}
Ann
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
matlab
if only latex could implement that
i mean just notation wise its less heavy
like this is all you gotta do A=[11/4 -13/10 -4/5 -3/20; 3/4 7/10 -4/5 -3/20; 3/4 -3/10 1/5 -3/20; 63/4 -93/10 -24/5 -23/20]
yea that true
easy computation too
yup
yeah matlab syntax is good
ig latex has to be like that cuz some people need alot of
ldots vdots and whatever
but they could add a command or u could create a macro maybe
i was also thinking abt spectral radius
suppose if rho(A)<1, then let B = diagonal w/ diagonal entries either 1 or 0
can we ensure rho(AB)<1 always, similarly rho(BA)?
How can I solve this?
can't use inverse matrices bc they aren't square.
Tried to reason about it case by case, like what matrix do we need to left multiply with B to give C, AK must give that matrix, but that was too much.
Just write a few linear equations and solve?
hmm
so I need to have a matrix K with proper dimensions
and use variable for all of its entries
multiply out
then I have a system of equations?
like that, right?
or is there an easier way?
guys i got a question
how can i prove this subspace is inf-dimensional?
the orthogonal vector subspace to p(t) = 1 + t with that to product
i ended with that the orthogonal subspace is
3/2 * a0 + 5/6 * a1 + 7/12 * a2 + 9/20 * a3 + ... = 0
maybe because this is 1 equation with infinite params and according to the fundamental theorem of algebra?
i mean, i have inf - 1 possible solutions
just assume the matrix K with a lot of variable according to its order and do normal matrix multiplication and you should be able to arrive at an answer
i think this just legendre polynomials right
yesterday i asked myself why a vector converges to the span of the eigenvector of a matrix when you multiply this vector by the same matrix over and over again
to understand it intuitively im posing a question whether the eigenvector is the vector that gets stretched the most in a single direction
and if every other vector gets stretched towards that eigenvector
and if you do the matrix multiplication with a random vector enough times the dimension collapses onto the eigenvector with the bigger value and bigger impact
can someone tell me if my understanding is correct
answer: no, the eigenvectors are not the vectors that get stretched out the most
and again
i still dont have a clue what the fuck this all means
i havent got to jordan decomp but at least for
matrices that are diagonalizable, any vectors can be a lin combo of eigenvectors so the idea is that when u apply A iteratively the largest eigenvalue will dominate
tbh im not sure as well but i think this make sense
yeah i know its a lin combination of the eigenvectors
but i cant for the love of god visualize it and ive found no visualization program
i guess if u want visualizing then its hard, but if k->infty then pretty much lambda_max^k v_max is the only vector that matters

