#linear-algebra
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oh oops
to solve this I let $B=(\begin{smallmatrix} a & b \ c & d\end{smallmatrix})$. Then $BB = (\begin{smallmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2\end{smallmatrix})$ which leads to the following 4 equations: $ \
a^2 + bc = 2 \
ab + bd = 2 \
ac + cd = 2 \
cb + d^2 = 2$
my problem is more with how to solve this system
it involves lots of reasoning
That looks wrong.
what part?
az
There you go
the first equation was there but I hadn't a new line after : so it was difficult to spot.
Anyway, what is a methodical way to solve this?
instead of lots of reasoning and substitution etc.
Look very hard at the second and third equation and notice something
factoring b and c?
sorry you're right ill quickly delete that
I didn't see anything
Lmao
i assumed it was one of those things where they know how to do it but their brain is just farting
I can see that a^2 = d^2 from the first and last eq. which implies that a = +-d
Yes, that's good
Now what do you have for third and second equation?
Idk why I swapped second and third, but oh well
if we set a = d, we would have b(2a) = 2 => b = 1/a, and c(2a) = 2 => c = 1/a => c = b
so we have a = d and c = b
I think this solves itself easily from here
Okay, so you got it?
Even without knowing a = d, you could still get b = c. Either way works.
yes, but I still don't know if we could solve this without this type of reasoning
like with an augmented matrix and row operations
I didn't do that bc this isn't linear
@wary lily don't think so
do i need to convert the matrix to rref?
@mortal juniper how do you prove anything is a subspace?
OK, thanks
0 vector and closed under linear combination
Okay, I think it could be helpful to define V in terms of determinants
Expand along the first column and you will get that it belongs to V iff some linear combination of a b c and d is zero
how do i expand along the first column, could you show an example?
wouldn't it suffice to say that V is a linear combination of the other 3 column vectors?
I mean the cofactor/Laplace expansion
determinants are the most horrible way to do this problem
That works too.
It's just what came to my mind first, but you're right lol
the determinant being 0 is a consequence of one of the singular values being 0, so go with that instead
oh so just ignore a,b,c,d?
yeah, i don't think you need to deal with them directly
if one of the columns is lin dep on the others, the matrix is singular. then V is in the span of the other 3 columns
which is a subspace of R4
det of the 4*3 matrix is that correct?
Ignore determinants
no det
V = span of the known columns
๐คฎ
Let V and W be finite dimensional vector spaces. Let $T : V \rightarrow W$ be a linear transformation. Let $T^{t} : W^{v} \rightarrow V^{v}$ denote the dual linear transformation. Prove that $rank(T) = rank(T^{t}).$
Deku
I think I've thought of a way to solve this but I'd love it if someone is down to guide me a bit
sorry, I assumed u guys were done
Let $(v_1, v_2, \dots v_n)$ be a basis for V
Deku
how do i show linear dependence of the other columns
since it's finite dimensional, this is the same as showing that the rank of a matrix T is the same as the rank of its transpose
o-o
elaborate pls?
so show row rank (T) = col rank (T)?
tho idk what that means tbh
column rank
the number of lin indep cols is the same as the number of lin indep rows
true
you can use some sort of decomposition to show it's true
oh yes when i convert it to rref it is linearly dependent
so how do i phrase it such that i can just omit abcd
the 1st col^
first, show that the 3 given columns are linearly independent
then, write a matrix M = (V V1 V2 V3), with V_i being the oclumns you were given
ok yes i did that by reducing it to rref
then as long as aV + bV1 + cV2 + dV3 = 0 has nonzero coefficients, or in other words, V = bV1 + cV2 + dV3, V is lin dep on the other 3 vectors
then ANY matrix M with V_i lin indep and V lin dep is singular, and the vectors V are in the span of V_i, which is a subspace
and it's true for ALL matrices of rank 3, not just the one you were given ๐
that's what i would do. there's probably an easier way
oh yea, thanks alot ๐
so row rank (T) = column rank (T^t), and column rank (T) = row rank (T^t), then what?
if that's even right
whats T^t means
transpose of T
i forget which decompositions are commonly used for that
oh, if you know the rank nullity theorem
just do an SVD

what the hell is that 
ok, prolly not the best way then haha
there are some matrix decompositions that are useful for this, but i can't recall which ones
maybe ann knows :x
I appreciate it its ok I'll give it some thought :'))
I was gonna define bases for
T and T^t
and go from there
but obviously I'd rather avoid that
cause bases are convoluted
for me
but that's kinda the idea anyway, whenver you do decomps
keep only the lin indep columns of T and change the coordinate vectors
that's a "rank revealing transformation"
and the transpose should evidently keep the same rank
ok so how's this then, let me write out what I got
unless ofc u don't wanna bother then I understand and I'll get to thinking solo :'))
i'm kinda busy tbh
but here is a stack exchange post that does it in an easy way that has the same meaning
they do gauss jordan
which turns your matrix into blocks of 0s and one identity matrix
I am looking for an intuitive explanation as to why/how row rank of a matrix = column rank. I've read the proof at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rank_of_a_linear_transformation and I understand the ...
wait now im even more confused lmao
iirc gauss jordan is like multiplying by a lower triangular matrix, which is the kind of "rank revealing transform" you'd wanna do
now that i have successfully confused you, i go back into the shadows
hahaha
can someone explain how this works in simple words?
i get that if dim(Im(f)) = 0, dim(ker(f)) = dim(V)
but i dont get how it would work the other way around
start with reading the proof
if the dimension of the kernel of a linera map is 0, that means the kernel contains only the zero vector
if the kernel is only {0}, what does that tell you about the linear map?
||it is injective||
so since ||it is injective||, this means that ||each element of its image has at least one element of the domain mapping to it.|| hence the dimension of the image must be AT LEAST the dimension of the domain
and it's also impossible for the dimesnion of the image to be GREATER THAN the dimension of the domain (think about why that's true)
hence the dimensions must be equal
the rank-nullity theorem is a somewhat stronger version of this reasoning
since it also works for cases where the dimension of the kernel and image are both > 0
in that it gives us an exact value for what their dimensions should sum to.
what did you get for v_2?
alright, so lets check that:
[\mathbf{x} = \begin{pmatrix}x_1\x_2\x_3\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}14/5\0\0\end{pmatrix} + \lambda_1 \begin{pmatrix}2\-5\0\end{pmatrix} + \lambda_2\begin{pmatrix}-3\4\-2\end{pmatrix}]
Namington
so we have the system:
\begin{align*}
x_1 &= 2\lambda_1 - 3\lambda_2 + 14/5 \
x_2 &= -5\lambda_1 + 4\lambda_2 \
x_3 &= -2\lambda_2
\end{align*}
Namington
we can solve this system by hand: $\lambda_2 = -x_3/2$, so our other equations are \begin{align*}
x_1 &= 2\lambda_1 + (3/2)x_3 + 14/5 \
x_2 &= -5\lambda_1 - 2x_3\end{align*}
Namington
now if we arbitrarily pick a value of x_3, say 0
\begin{align*}
x_1 &= 2\lambda_1 + 14/5\
x_2 &= -5\lambda_1 \
x_3 &= 0\end{align*}
Namington
picking anotehr value for x_2 arbitrarily and doing the same process, we get x_1 = 14/5
so lets check: does x_1 = 14/5, x_2 = 0, x_3 = 0 solve this?
as it turns out, yes: we get 5 * 14/5 + 0 - 0 = 14
which is just 14 = 14
for completeness sake, let's test anotehr value
say instead of x_2 = x_3 = 0, we tried x_2 = x_3 = 1
\begin{align*}
x_1 &= 2\lambda_1 - 3\lambda_2 + 14/5 \
1 &= -5\lambda_1 + 4\lambda_2 \
1 &= -2\lambda_2
\end{align*}
Namington
so $\lambda_2 = -1/2$, giving us [
1 = -5\lambda_1 - 2] and therefore[
\lambda_1 = -3/5
]
Namington
and hence [
x_1 = 2(-3/5) - 3(-1/2) + 14/5 = -6/5 + 3/2 + 14/5 = 31/10]
Namington
,calc 5*(31/10)
Result:
15.5
hm, seems a bit off but maybe i made a dumb mistake somewhere
let me check
no, seems my work was correct
whic makes me think you made a mistake
okay if youre in a more time-limited setting
this method is a bit more impractical
hi just a quick qn is it possible to have an orthonormal set when the set is not orthogonal?
if you mean a set of vectors, you can compute a set of orthonormal vectors that spans the same space
not one im familiar with, unfortunately
besides just trying to un-convert
which is basically the same process i did above
but rather than using test values, keeping everything as variables
Yes?
This is very intuitive. But I don't know how to write a formal proof.
Like the general steps that I need to take
$tr(A)=\sum_{i=1}^{n} {a_{ii}}$
DrunkenDrake
$tr(A+B)=\sum_{i=1}^{n}(a_{ii}+b_{ii})=\sum_{i=1}^{n}(a_{ii})+\sum_{i=1}^{n}(b_{ii})$
=tr(A)+tr(B)
DrunkenDrake
Are you given the fs?

I'm just gonna post this everytime someone pings too early
well is T diagonalizable?
have you covered eigentheory?
no
ok nvm the diagonalizable part lol
@nocturne jewel do you have any idea how to solve it?
all im seeing is eigentheory as of rn lol
yeah idk either
this can be done by inspection
i found b1 = (1, 0) and b2 = (0,1)
c1 = (1,0), c2 = (1, -1)
dont know if this is correct
@gray dust how so?
we can pick B as the standard basis to keep things as 'clean' as we can, then maybe we can pick some C so the matrix of T wrt B,C is as given
what you chose looks good. you picked B already as such, now you should verify what you picked as C is actually a basis of R^2
sure, we should also check the matrix of T wrt B,C is as given, but the computations you did to find a viable choice of C likely already shows this
yeah i checked the conditions but my method of finding b and c were very sketchy
c[T]b = [t(b1)c ...
so i did t(b1) = some new vector x
where [x]c = (1, 0)
had a lot of variables so i ended up having to plug in
here's what i mean by inspection
we can pick B as the standard basis to keep things as 'clean' as we can
ie pick B={b1,b2} as you did
b1 = (1, 0) and b2 = (0,1)
since we must have $_C[T]_B[x]_B=[Tx]_C$ for all $x$, i suggest we see if we can pick $C=\brc{Tb_1,Tb_2}$
RokabeJintarou
thats much simpler, i may delete my messy work
this is something else i'm unsure of
so we compute Tb1=(1,0) and Tb2=(1,-1)
true?
if these turn out to form a basis of R^2, then we're good, and by definition of Tb1,Tb2, the matrix of T wrt B,C will be as required
why do you say true?
null space of p3 is only 0?
one element
i dont really know
i guess if it was 1-1 it would be only one element
we speak of the kernel of a linear map, not a vector space
then i have no idea
just to make sure, you know what kernel means?
x so that t(x) = 0
yes, and what dimension means?
number of elements?
of what?
in this case the kernel
no
@tame mural generally there's no such thing as THE basis
@wind pasture the dimension of a vector space is the number of elements of any basis of that space
I mean except for that one case in F_2
There is a unique basis for a vector space of dimension 1 in F_2
that's why i say generally
I can't follow. Can you point that out, please?
If a matrix M has an inverse N, then MN=NM=I
They say M is the matrix AB and show that if N is B^-1A^-1, then the requirement is satisfied
I don't know what my problem is. I don't see where it starts and how it arrives at the end result. Maybe there are some steps that are assumed and I don't see them. IDK.
X^-1 is a name for the inverse of X
we say X is invertible if there exists Y where XY=YX=I; if such a Y exists, then it's unique, and we label the inverse of X as X^-1 instead of Y
if A,B are invertible then so is AB; we label the inverse of AB as (AB)^-1 and define (AB)^-1 as above
no prob, and so after labeling the inverse of AB as above and claiming a formula for it, we prove that this formula is actually consistent with the definition of inverse
why does linear independence implies this equality? The summation being equation to the identity matrix
Note |k^~> is just a vector and <l^~| the adjoint of the vector |l^~>
Hey. I'm having trouble figuring out how to get an appropriate view matrix from a camera's position and orientation in world space.
Need it to get a proper frustum to render.
The frustum itself I got working. Its just when I render using the current code I had to work with. It goes derpy and doesn't align with the camera's forward vector.
@wheat prairie iirc that equality is the inner product of k and l, <k|l>
Should clarify this is a minecraft related so the rendering is being done with minecraft redstone particles. ^^
Incase you ask for visuals.
hmm I am not following exactly since this looks like the outer product in (2.174)
And gonna shut up for the moment let Moar's issue get finished first.
thanks haha
oops I wasn't using the equation above
does it make sense that if off-diagonal entries are 0 then 2.174 works out?
I got liek two weeks to get this done but it appears to be my view matrix issue is the chunk I need. ^^
I would say if off diagonals of the whole thing then yeah
for the same reason the off-diagonals have to sum to 0, and if they're not all 0 then there's a linear combination that sums to zero, contradicting linear independence
not sure how to start on this one
I think some positive maps admit some representation, so if you extend it to a tensor product if the stuff in that representation commutes you get again a positive map
i just am not sure what that representation would be
the better way of seeing this is that the cc* equality is the inner product of those operators I think?
so sum |k><k| |l><l|
the <k|l> part is just a scalar that's the cc* in the pic
That helps yea ๐
So able to help out with my issue with the view matrix now?
@wary lily I think you can just look at it element-wise to easily get it
so, should I multiply it out like a1i * bi1 and factor/group...?
to make it faster, express A as row or column vectors and B as the other kind you didn't use for A
that's better, thanks
thanks
ah, right, einstein notation will make short work of this
anyone get a chance to see my question?
Wow
What does completely positive mean? And what is the "then" here ? Is "then" about language or logic ?
The "then" question I got figured out
completely positive is used in the same way as https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Completely_positive_map
In mathematics a positive map is a map between C*-algebras that sends positive elements to positive elements. A completely positive map is one which satisfies a stronger, more robust condition.
well the tensor for me goes on the right but
here it would mean that $\mathbb{E} \otimes \text{id}$ is positive
SU(n)
$\mathbb{E} \otimes \text{id}: M_{n} \otimes \mathbb{C}^{k \times k} \to M_{m} \otimes \mathbb{C}^{k \times k}$
SU(n)
would have to be positive
Oh hehehe
id here is just the kxk identity matrix
you know
so that map would be positive for all k
I'm sorry I'm not versed well enough in tensor algebras to help you well...
Sorry man
it's ok
By the way
i think the idea is a positive map has some sort of representation
so when you tensor in other stuff
the fact everything commutes
gets you back to just the original map being positive
so the induced map is also just positive
M_m is what ? The set of mรm matrices ?
$M_n = M_{n}(\mathbb{C})$
SU(n)
Ok
Yeah
but they are being treating as a C*-algebra here
Yeah I get it
i think what i just said
as a solution
is correct
but idk what sort of representation i need
Where I can not help is the tensor product part haha
What do you mean by representation ?
like you can write E as something else
As something else of what form ?
for example there's such thing as a kraus representation
Tell me
Ah haha
From my point of view
like this
You could ask this in advanced
Because I did pure math in early university and I didn't explore this way too mucj
Are you in master ?
<@&286206848099549185>
Seeiously, ask in advanced uni
ill do that later
Quick LA question, if an eigenspace has a dimension of 2 does that mean the entire plane spanned by the eigenvectors scales by the eigenvalue under the matrix transformation
right
if i know that a linear transformation brings the vector <1,1> to <3,1>, how do i find the transformation matrix based on this information?
i don't think theres enough information, i could be wrong though @odd quest
@barren spoke this is true of any eigenspace simply by definition, it's exactly the set of eigenvectors corresponding to an eigenvalue (union with the 0 vector)
since $\begin{pmatrix}a & b \ c & d\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}1 \ 1\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}3 \ 1\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}a + b \ c + d\end{pmatrix}$
uli
you don't have enough information to know a, b and c, d
if you had another independent vector you'd have enough information
It's because Matrix Multiplication is not commutative
If we follow all the steps
$(A + B)(A - B) = (A + B)A - (A + B)B = A^2 + BA - AB + B^2$
EpicPotatoes
@gritty swift ahhh yeah that makes a lot of sense, tsym!!!
We can do this because Matrix Multiplication is distributive
But notice that it is not always the case that BA = AB
also you can derive these things from transformations being linear, so if we know $T(\vec v)$ and $T(\vec w)$ we know all $$T(a \vec v + b \vec w) = aT(\vec v) + bT(\vec w)$$ (all linear combinations)
uli
@wintry steppe
mmmmm i see
that's what a basis is, if the transformation is R2 -> R2 then 2 independent vectors give the transformation with their combinations
so say you know $T(\vec v)$ and $T(\vec w)$, first write a new vector as a combination of $v$ and $w$ $$\vec a = a\vec v + b\vec w$$
then you know $$T(\vec a) = T(a\vec v + b\vec w) = aT(\vec v) + bT(\vec w)$$
uli
the connection with matrices is letting $$A = \begin{pmatrix}\vec v & \vec w\end{pmatrix}$$ now say $\vec a = a \vec v + b \vec w$ we know
$$A\vec a = A(a \vec v + b \vec w) = aA\vec v + bA\vec w$$
notice how this is analogous to what I wrote in terms of a transformation function
uli
sorry for the confusing notation, just remember $\vec a \in \mathbb{R}^2$ and $a \in \mathbb{R}$
uli
this also makes you notice how it would be nice to multiply $\begin{pmatrix}1 \ 0\end{pmatrix}$ and get $T\begin{pmatrix}1 \ 0\end{pmatrix}$ and not $T(\vec v)$. this can be done by finding a "change of basis" matrix, which converts $\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0\end{pmatrix}$ in our basis (commonly 1 in x direction and 1 in y direction) into the basis given by ${\vec v, \vec w}$
uli
@odd quest ill stop before i cover too much in my drunk stupor, but you should watch this https://www.3blue1brown.com/essence-of-linear-algebra-page/
can someone point me in the right direction how to show this?
A is symmetric positive definite matrix
well you can immediately divide by 2
i know but i need to use it in a later result
trying to think of after that lol
you can transpose both sides
since the right is a number its unchanged
trying to understand and use this as a guide
$x^TAy = (Ay)^T x = y^T A^T x = ||x|| ||y||$
uli
not sure if that helps
thanks for the detailed explanation, ill check it out!!!
is this true?
yes, you can transpose both sides since length is a number
you can think of the fact that $x^Ty = y^Tx$
uli
let me start again
oh and its symmetric maybe you can use that idk
idk i havent done anything with norms
ok np
idk if it helps but you can think of positive definateness as x pointing in the same direction after a transformation, since if it points away dot product is negative; what you're trying to do might be purely algebraic though so it might be useless https://www.desmos.com/calculator/qhhs5kc9s3
im confused im trying to apply it to an example and its not working
A = I (2x2)
B = all zeroes except top right (2x2) is 1
(A + B)(A - B) = A^2 + BA - AB + B^2 = I + B - B + B^2 = I + B, but when i plug it into a calculator, it returns I
$$A = \begin{pmatrix}1 & 0 \ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix} B = \begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix}$$
uli
$$A+B = \begin{pmatrix}1 & 1 \ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix} A-B = \begin{pmatrix}1 & -1 \ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$$
uli
now multiply them
but the identity above doesnt work
(A + B)(A - B) = A^2 + BA - AB + B^2 = I + B - B + B^2 = I + B
hmm it must have been derived wrong
thats what they derived
lets try and derive it
$$(A + B)(A - B) = A(A - B) + B(A - B) = A^2 - AB + BA - B^2$$
uli
is what I get
when I plug in I and B
I get I - B^2
$$A+B = \begin{pmatrix}1 & 1 \ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix} A-B = \begin{pmatrix}1 & -1 \ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$$
Dawn
lemme do it with a calculator to check
oh i'm an idiot yeah ^^
so i just calculated B^2 incorrectly
im dumb
lol
wtf
how did i get stuck on calculating that
wow how did i make such a simple oversight


It do be like that sometimes. It's part of the gig ๐
does (AB)^-1 = A^-1 * B^-1?
not necessarily.
edd pls
(AB)โปยน = BโปยนAโปยน
this doesnt equal AโปยนBโปยน unless these matrices commute
i'm sorry, i just woke up and i misread that. i could've sworn the order was swapped on the right side
sure
(AB)BโปยนAโปยน = A(BBโปยน)Aโปยน = AIAโปยน = AAโปยน = I
by associativity
so multiplying (AB) by (BโปยนAโปยน) gives us the identity matrix
hence BโปยนAโปยน is the inverse of AB
ie (AB)โปยน = BโปยนAโปยน
technically that shows it inverts AB from the right. you can also do it from the other side
cool, does (BA)(AB)โปยน = I because of this?
that's unfortunately not true in general
Let $\mb A = a_{ij}$. To show that the transpose of the transpose of a matrix equals the matrix itself, we write $(\mb A^\intercal)^\intercal = (a_{ji})^\intercal = a_{ij} = A$.
is this enough to show this?
az
OK, thanks
hey guys i'm a bit confused as to what this is saying
i've read through this at least 5 times and I still don't understand what it's trying to say
can someone put this into different words?
i dont undersatnd where the lambda comes from or where a' comes from
I'm confused as to what you are referring to by R
a real number??
wouldn't it be from R^n since it's a column
det is a certain function that takes in n vectors as inputs. one of its properties is being multilinear. what that means:
fix an integer $j$ where $1\le j\le n$ and fix $n-1$ vectors $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_{j-1},a_{j+1},\ldots,a_n$
RokabeJintarou
after plugging these fixed vectors into their corresponding 'slots' in det, we then have that det is linear in the j'th slot
ie for all vectors $x,y$ and scalars $c,k$
\begin{align*}
\det(a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_{j-1},cx+ky,a_{j+1},\ldots,a_n)&=c\det(a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_{j-1},x,a_{j+1},\ldots,a_n)\
&+k\det(a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_{j-1},y,a_{j+1},\ldots,a_n)
\end{align*}
RokabeJintarou
to finish, this is true for every j, 1=<j=<n
ok got it that makes more sense thanks
no prob
just curious
A spanning set for a vector space can have more vectors than the basis for that space, right?
Yes
since we can just make the coefficient 0 for the extra vectors
Take {1,2,3} as a span set for space of R over R
i understand your approach, but wouldnt mine be valid as well?
How would you end up with more vectors
Can you give an example?
smt like {e_1,e_2,e_1+e_2}?
If {e_1,e_2} is a spanset
You can add any vectors and any number of vectors to a basis and it is still spanning, it's just not a basis anymore
mirzathecutiepie
Actually, I retract what I said, I deleted my post
U= span({(1,0), (1,1), (0,1)})
V= span({(0,1), (1,0)})
U=V
Both spans are the same vector space it is just that the input to the former span is a set of vector that arenโt linear independent and thus not a basis for vector spaces U=V. (1,1) is linear dependent on (1,0) and (0,1) which means that it can be written as a linear combination of (1,0) and (0,1).
When you solve the augmented matrix for dependency you will notice that the column (1,1) doesnโt contain a pivot element and can thus be marked as the vector that is linear dependent of the vectors with a pivot.
$I+N$ is the set of all upper-triangular matrices with 1's on the diagonal
Ann
the operation here is multiplication, not addition
no, it says matrices which are zero at & below the diagonal
$\bmqty{0 & * & * & * & * \ 0 & 0 & * & * & * \ 0 & 0 & 0 & * & * \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & * \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0}$
Ann
hey guys i feel like im going crazy how is this not surjective?
there is always at least 1 element for every f(x) that corresponds with x surely??
Take 1
oh z is integer i'm so stupid ahhhhh
sorry that was probably the most stupid question asked on the server
just to be clear if it was on R that would be surjective right
and it wouldn't just be an endomorphic function it would be automorphic right
yes
thank you
I have a computer graphic hw and I am somehow confused for the part Plane Q is defined by V and ray R1, I dont understand how a plane can be found by two vector like so.
My guess is Q = V + R1, but how I actually can find the plane Q with 4 vertices.
Any hints for understanding this part.
Let E be a vector space on K, p and q projectors of E such that p โฆ q = 0. We consider r = p + q - q โฆ p.
- Show that r is a projector of E.
- Show that Ker (r) = Ker (p) โฉ Ker (q).
- Show that Im (r) = Im (p) + Im (q). What is Im (p) โฉ Im (q)?
Someone can help me with that pleas ?
don't post the same question in multiple channels please
yes.
but what operation are we using when we go from RHS of 1st equation to RHS of 2nd?
bc division is not defined.
?
the operation of recognizing [ax + by; cx + dy] as a matrix-vector product i guess?
OK, wanted to make sure there isn't something I'm missing
the coeff of the variable is important
...yes...
it isn't important if it's z=-1 or z-1=0 when you want the vector components. The coeff of z is what z is multiplied with. in this case it is 1/1 which is probably why you missed it.
0 * z is 0 so it would be written off
one way for you to better visualize is to parameterize the symmetric form a few times, IG
exactly
that's in 2d space
yeah, I see
this is more complete since it allows you to have a zero vector in one direction while there is still some constant shifting
IG, my comment isn't exactly mathematically correct.
bc, a plane can be in 3d space while its movement wrt one axis can be zero
like a shifted plane that's parallel to the xz-plane
in the symmetric equation tho, you can see that y is clearly missing
so, its coeff must be zero
the separate y=2 is just a constant that doesn't change wrt the other variables' changes
does that make sense?
yes, exactly
this is clearly the set of all points on a plane parallel to the xz-plane, 2 units shifted in the +y direction

probably fix p_1 and induct on the degree of p_2
can you elaborate? I'm not advanced
Show (in any way you like) that for every polynomial $p_2(x)$ and every degree $1$ polynomial $p_1(x)$, if $p_1(x) = p_1(x)p_2(x)$, then $$p(A) = p_1(A)p_2(A).$$ Now suppose that this equation holds when $p_1(x)$ has degree $\leq n$. Show that it holds if $p_1(x)$ has degree $n+1$.
(T*Terra, dqโฑ โง dpแตข)
and then by induction it holds for all p_1
you may also wish to use induction on the degree of p_2 to prove the claim for p_1 of degree 1
(note that the degree 0 case is trivial)
thanks, going to work on it later
I think it's x^3 -5x^2 + 11x -15 but I'm not sure
,w roots x^3 -5x^2 + 11x -15
damn
@wintry steppe is there any way to find a calculator like this but just in reverse?
idk
,w expand (x+2)(x+3)
you just need to multiply (x-4) by a real quadratic polynomial with roots 1 \pm 2i
(note that complex roots of real polynomials come in conjugate pairs)
also this isn't linear algebra
so then -15 should actually be -20?
,w roots x^3 -4x^2 + 11x -16
,w roots x^3 -4x^2 + 4x -16
YES

az
Can someone please check.
in the third line you're assuming that A is invertible
think of it this way: if A isn't invertible, then there's a non-zero vector v such that Av = 0
even easier
so, I based my logic on an assumption that was the goal
but how can you swap A(A^2) = (A^2)A?
Does this always work?
associativity
how are you defining A^3?
A^3 = AAA
it's the same
right
associativity
and how do you know that (A^2)A = I?
A^3 = I
true, true
O, damn
by showing that A(A^2) = A^2A = I you've proved that the inverse is A^2
that's the definition of the inverse
yes.
thanks
so A always has an inverse, namely A^2
hence A is invertible
this sort of thing is a common trick
nice
Gershgorin Theorem always works on any matrix, right?
ie you can still draw the discs in the complex plane even with a matrix with all real / rational entries
So, have you ever solved a linear system of equations then ?
yeah
You know what linear mappings are ?
yeah
I was thinking of solving this problem more of the route of using linear independence and basis
Aight so have you heared about this special matrix vector multiplication ==> suppose there is a matrix a and columnvector x which is equal to the zerovector, A*x = 0
sorry but this is not something ive heard of
Hmmm
I cant explain it any easier sorry ๐ฆ if yoj want to I can give you the answer tho, but I dont think it will help you
yeah I understand the answer is n-k, but im unsure of the proof for it
i tried myself and i feel as though i'm missing something
k-n not n-k
sorry thats what i mean
Hmm
Wait Ima send you video it might help tou
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Here the guy talks about different subspaces it might give you an idea
thanks!
Np
#precalculus @wintry steppe
Quick question here ... Can someone expand the equation to show me how they found the answer ?
(a, b) + (c, d) = (a+c, b+d)
Daam, I think I need a break right now ๐๐ @nocturne oracle thank youuu !
Yo
I need help
I got 20 min to do an assignment
And if I donโt do it my grade stays failing
Can anyone help?
Ask your question, I'm sure someone can help
This looks like a quiz / test, also this isnโt LA.
az
please, check
@wary lily looks fine
thanks, vimes
ye in ur case tr(RC)=RC
tr is the only functional on matrices which does that ,if you fix f(I)=n
what does f(I)=n mean?
Well I used f to represent a generic functional
What is a functional
Is it this?
In modern linear algebra, it refers to a linear mapping from a vector space {\displaystyle V}V into its field of scalars, i.e., it refers to an element of the dual space {\displaystyle V^{}}V^{}.
in this context, yes
a function that "takes in" a matrix as input and "gives" a scalar as output
[this definition is a little bit off but close enough]
Why takes in in quotes?
Vector space here is nxn matrices (wrt matrix addition) over the field that matrix elements are from
the catch is that this disregards, say, a space of complex matrices over a real field
but we dont really care about those much in practice
az
would this be acceptable?
technically youre wrong
technically you should have had $$(A_1A_2\dots A_n)^T = A_n^T A_{n-1} ^T \dots A_1^T$$
Ann
but also this is needless formalism to prove something that, frankly, should be obvious
you're being needlessly formal
practice in what? bureaucracy?
yes ๐
I'm bad in arguing mathematically what I can clearly put in plain English
Also, this helps me to learn algebraic properties of matrices which I've just learned
I also found a better solution to this online, where they decompose $(A^n)^\intercal$ into $A^\intercal(A^{n-1})^\intercal$
yeah, induction essentially
az
yes
Can someone help me understand the intuition behind Left-multiplication Transformation? From what I understand, its just a matrix multiplication Ax, where A is the matrix representation of a linear transformation and x are the basis vectors of the vector space. Is there more to it?
x are not the basis vectors
x is the coordinates of the resulting vector b = Ax when expressed in the basis of the columns of A
its a way of representing the solution to your system. it helps you see if a solution even exists.
I'm following Linear Algebra by Stephen Friedberg et al. We haven't gotten to systems of linear equations so maybe things will click then. My takeaway so far about left-multiplication of transformations is that it allows us to express a transformed arbitrary vector L(v) as a multiplication of A and v.
subtract col 1 from col 2
and subtract col 1 from col 3
we are working with determinants all throughout
they've reduced the matrix into (lower) triangular form
If n was restricted to none negative integers, this would hold for any A, regardless of it being invertible or not, right?
yes
OK
The product of any number of invertible matrices is invertible but the sum of invertible matrices can be singular.
That is true, right?
ahh, didn't think of this but some negative identical column or row I had in mind
you may consider that for each matrix there is equivalent linear map
and matrix multiplication is just composition of maps
matrix is invertible iff associated map is
thanks, I think I vaguely understand this

over which field?
vectors in C^2
is < , > meant to denote an inner product?
yes
then | | are just absolute value aka modulus
you can write that as |v^* x |
so |v*x|?
^* was supposed to denote complex conjugate transpose
can you show the whole problem?
it's a True False Question asking to give justification
it's in general false
there is no guarantee for AB being invertible?
no
the latter part, rather
as you said, the inverse should have B^-1 A^-1
OK, got it
as u see
thank you
az
can someone please check
looks ok to me
thanks
yw
hmm

Dot product or cross product?
By cross product
You make a matrix
first row i,j,k
2nd row v1 vector
3rd row v2 vector
And then find it's determinant
It will be 3ร3 matrix
Thank you !
im trying to understand this proof, so I understand if it's not obvious but what is gamma supposed to represent?
That's r and I guess r=rank(T*)
im struggling with the rest of this too honestly..
he later writes this, which makes sense I guess, extending a subset of vectors to a basis but the way he wrote it is confusing to me, m-gamma+1? like..
it's r
where does +1 come from? and how does it go from m- gamma +1 to m?
So,you can find a basis of range(T)
Let's say that has r elements
Now add vectors till it becomes a basis of W
Except for some reason,Put the original vectors at the end of the list,and not the beginning
hahah
There's literally no reason to do that
if it was at the beginning of the list what would it look like? I think that'll clear it up for me
cause I kinda get it now
{w_1,w_2...w_r,w_{r+1}...w_n}
truuue
Now
(T*f)(x)=f(Tx)
cause linear functionals right?
Yea
So if f is in null space of T*,f(Tx) is 0
Now Let's say Tx is spanned by {w_1,w_2,..
w_r}
Suppose v is a element not in that set
And let f_v be the functional such that f_v(v)=1 and 0 otherwise
What's f_(v)(Tx) for any x?
0 I think
Yes
im so uncomfortable with dual spaces/linear functionals lol wait
So like extend the basis of range T {w_1,w_2...w_r} to {w_1,w_2...w_n} a basis of the entire space
Let {f_1,f_2...f_n} be the corresponding dual basis
Any doubts?
null space of T* will be span{f_{r+1},f_{r+2}...f_{n}}
That's the crux
can you remind me why linear functionals are either 0 or 1 :'))
Well, That's a choice of functional
Given a vector v,you can find a f_v which does that
I see
You know what a dual basis is,right?
yeah sort of
Prove this and you are done
alrighty thanks I definitely understand things better

I'm still a bit doubtful but I'll get there what you explained helped a bunch
can I encode a translation first, then a rotation, nicely in a single matrix? I guess I have to multiply them both and can't compose them easily like typical transformation matrices with a rotation and a separate translation component?
Do these properties hold for multiple operations?
Like, if B is obtained by first swapping a row of A, then multiplying a row of A by c, will det(B) = -c det(A)?
Something tells me no
oh yeah i heard about this thing the other day where translations + rotations in n dimensions are just rotations in n+1 dimensions, like of the n-hypervolume? where if you had a line in 2d, translating and rotating that line is equivalent to rotating in 3d the plane that intersects the original 2d plane to give that first line
quick question why did you say r? is that the conventional notation?
sorry guys don't let me interrupt go on
yes, that's why you use homogeneous coordinates. It's not rotation+translation, it's specific to translations. Translations are not linear (they are affine) since they move the origin. But if you extend this to one dimension, n+1, then you got a linear movement in n dimensions that is a translation. In n+1 dimensions you're shearing your object
it just happens to be convenient to also put a rotation and a scaling in this n+1 dimensional matrix and this gives you a so called transformation matrix
The answer key says this is false.
Is it because $p(I)$ must be equal to $a_0 + a_1I + \cdots + a_mI$ or is there something else that I'm missing?
az
would rotations in n dimensions not also be rotations in n+1 dimensions? and then the composition of two rotations be a rotation?
that's not an issue why you need this. Rotations are linear
so if you want to rotate in n dim you can do it. But translations don't, which is the reason why you use it
no, you still only rotate in n dimensions
@reef sleet they're rules for single row ops; they hold for multiple row ops bc we can apply the rules to each row op, one at a time
you can embed the rotation in a block diagonal matrix
So this is actually true?
this operation doesn't seem well defined
you get B from swapping two rows of A
Then get B from multiplying one row of A with a constant
Then B is reinitialized with the new A
this is a rotation in 2D using homogeneous coordinates (so basically 3D). You don't need/use the 3rd dimension for rotations
yes i get it
i'm just saying you can do a rotation and a translation in one matrix in n+1 dimensions
ah yes of course
that's the transformation matrix
but I said we need the n+1 dimension not because of the rotation, but because of the translation
yeah, that's correct
we can combine scaling and rotation in the same dimension in one matrix
but translation is the nasty bastard
If you got C from multiplying a constant to a row of B, that would work, if you applied the rules to the corresponding dets one at a time.
@reef sleet try actually checking it works by doing what i suggest for multiple row ops
it may help to label the resulting matrix after each individual row op
So make some matrix A then find det(A), then swap two rows and find the determinant, then multiply a row by a constant and find the determinant again and compare it to det(A)?
label B=A after swapping 2 of its rows and C=B after multiplying a row of B by a constant c
Alright
Yes
and det(C)=cdet(B)?
so det(C)=cdet(B)=c(-det(A))=-cdet(A)
Thank you :o that seems like it could be helpful
this is generally how we deal with multiple row ops
What do you mean?
Apply these properties one by one to reach the conclusion?
that's what we did in a nutshell
Rokabe, can you check this? #linear-algebra message
recall how we define plugging a matrix into a polynomial
This is the only passage I've learned about matrix polynomials till now.
It says that the matrix is substituted for the input variable and the zero degree term of the polynomial is multiplied by an identity matrix the size of the the input matrix.
So, in this case the terms need clearly be multiplied by I, including the zero degree term.
This last part I got wrong above.
so p(I)=?
az
from the definition, p(I) in particular is defined as that matrix, while i) wrongly suggests p(I) is the sum of the coeffs of p, a scalar
OK, got it
and now i have to solve this using gaussian elimination
i know how to do do gaussian elimination practically, but im having trouble explaining the procedure on this general example
especially transposing the upper triangular matrix i get back to equation form
can someone help me? i'll send more specific screenshots if needed
If anyone could help explain this to me in super dumbed down terms , I'd really appreciate it. I just don't understand the process shown here. How they got some of those numbers. Plz help am big newb
write v as a linear combination of the basis vectors
So, add ... a1v1.......
somehow
for each L?
Like so the span is { v1........... vn } and nested in there is each vector right v1 = { 1 0 1 0 }...........
$v=a_1v_1+a_2v_2+a_3v_3+a_4v_4, a_i\in\mathbb{R}$
moshill1
what is a in this case thought thats where I'm confused , like where did 2, and 3 come form
from**
you need to determine it, you get 4 equations for the 4 unknown scalars
and since S is a basis, you know that there is a unique linear combination for all v in R^4
yes you'd perform gauss-jordan
@nocturne jewel would you mind taking a look at my question just above, im also doing gauss jordan
Havent learned Least Squares / that stuff
i don't think that's really relevant, i'm just having trouble with writing out the general solution to this using gaussian
Ok so just go through with Gauss Jordan
Sorry to interrupt but the difference between onto and 1to1 is that , 1to1 is a dirrect mapping where v1 = v2. Onto would be that you don't have a direct mapping and that you are transforming the points to new coordinates where v1 != v2 ?
This is what i'm doing rn
do all singular square matrices end up with at least one zero row/column when row reduced?
Also , To project R3 to R2, do you essentially remove the z ( 3rd dimenson) ? And thats why we must have a vector here in R3 that produces only 0's for R2
that's specific to L
there are multiple possible projections
but as the first sentence of that states
this specific L was defined in example 2
could have something from R3 to R2 where (x, y, z) -> (x, z)
or where (x, y, z) -> (z, y)
or (x, y, z) -> (x, y+z)
but yes one very easy way to project R3 to R2 is by L, just ignoring z
this wording is... a bit weird
one-to-one means that f(u) = f(v) implies u = v
onto means that, for every w in the codomain, there is an element v of the domain (called w's "preimage") with f(v) = w
Oh thank you!
in other words, one-to-one means that every element of the codomain has AT MOST one preimage, while onto means every element of the codomain has AT LEAST one preimage
oh lol
Thats how I like it
I like this definition
do all singular square matrices end up with at least one zero row/column when row reduced?
yes
a square matrix is invertible iff its RREF is the identity matrix
and by the definition of RREF, its impossible for a square matrix in RREF to have full rank and not be an identity matrix
OK, thanks
For which values k and l has the sytem no solutions, one solutions or even more solutions. Determine the solutions, if they exist.
So I put this in a matrix vector equation. I cant go any further. I need help pls.
if for example 3=6 then no solutions, if you get 0=0 then infinite solutions
with one solution, it's referring to only one set (x,y,z) of solutions
Howd you find that ?
Is it correct to say that the kernel of a matrix A contains all the eigenvectors (minus the 0 vector) corresponding to an eigenvalue of 0?
yes
I was wondering, if my points were simple like this, would there be a simpler way to find the following form ?
Each parameter has only one value (x,y.z) so is there a shortcut to get to ax+by+cz=d
the simplest way is to make 2 vectors using those 3 points and find their cross product. the components of the resulting vector are a, b, and c
d would be the dot product between that same resulting vector and one of the points on the plane
hi does anyone know how to tell if this statement is T or F?
the answer is False but it isnt clear to me the logic behind that
"is every linear transformation from R_3[x] to M_{2x2}(R) an isomorphism"
think of the simplest linear transformation there is
Rn โ> Rn?
the simplest linear transformation from R_3[x] to M_{2x2}(R)
i think i am having trouble understanding that context
give me a linear transformation from R_3[x] to M_{2x2}(R)
preferably one that isn't an isomorphism
but just give me one
i'm not sure what this is
something simpler
can you think of a linear transformation that will literally never be an isomorphism
(be explicit)
ok sorry this may take a bit bc i have to really rack my brain when it comes to Linear Alg

