#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 174 of 1
if you treat vectors point vectors, they have their tail at the origin
any two vectors then define 3 points: the origin, and the 2 points they are pointing toward
those 3 points lie on a plane, so the same interpretation of an angle on that plane holds
okay
well i think it is just enough if i select v=0 and calculate <w,0> and //w//*//0//
and suprisingly 0=0
and the njust same for w=0 and then say w=t0 and v=t0 whjere t is any real number
the trivial case doesn't help much
a vector in any direction can be made 0 by multiplying by 0
you actually only care about nonzero ones here
what's the definition of a rectangle
the anwser is (6, 18, -4)
two pairs of equal sides
yep
so what do i do to solve this
you can make vectors from one of the points to the other two
so I do vector AB = CD
in length, sure, but possibly in the opposite direction
so AC = BD
ive just been stuck on this homeowrk problem for like 40 minutes now
and i dont get the textbook anwser
i'll try for like 5 mins and see
no to solve it we have to split up the rectangle into two triangles
and make the vectors side lengths
and the hyptonuse is the diagonal vectors
and solve for the point that way
aight
you don't really need to do that tho
B + BA + AD = BD can be done fully with vectors
and at that point you should already have c1 and c3 from the side equalities, too
it saves you a square root 😛
I have (V<g,h>) and (W<a,b>) that are inner product spaces that have dim V <= dim W and U⊂ V (u is subspace for v). I need to show that f:U->W can be expanded to isometry F:v->W (if f:U->W then there exist isometry F:V->W such that F|U = f)
cant make that last one correct for some reason
anyone mind helping me with a problem, ive been stuck on this for a whileeee
the answer to the question you posted is 7
stuck on 1C
convince yourself that the columns of A would span all of R^4 if and only of those of R would span all of R^4 (e.g. "row operations do not change column rank")
can the columns of R span all of R^4?
@cobalt lodge
yes??? @wintry steppe
why is that?
(that's not correct)
is (0, 0, 0, 1) in the span of the columns of R?
no?
right, so the columns of R don't span all of R^4
therefore the columns of A doont span all of R^4 either
ya
i said "convince yourself" for that one since i think there are a few ways to approach it
as long as it makes sense why

ive seen some youtube videos and there are a bunch that have different approaches
can someone please help me fuund where I'm making a mistake with this question
it wants me to find the original matrix based off the solution and a column
to solve for column 2, I used the point (?) part of the solution and did [-1,2,0] + 2 C2 = [-1,2,0]
I got [1,1,2]
for c3 I looked at the null space and used 2c1 + c2 + c3 = 0
and got [5,-1,6]
and finally i used the t parameter equal to 0 and got [7, -2, 8]
but when I row reduce those columns with the given solution d I dont get the same equation
start by stating what rank is your matrix
2
by using the theorem for relation of ranks and number of free variables
what do you mean? isnt rank = number of variables - number of free variables
2/(2i) = -i but the conjugate of 2i is -2i
the expression you expect is $\bar{z}z=|z|^2$, not $|z|$
(T*(Terra), -dτ)
ty
hi
<@&286206848099549185>
what does it tell you when each row has a pivot column
that the system is consisntet?
|u| = 4, |v| = 5, |u-v| = 6, what is the magnitude and direction of u+v?
write them out in terms of dot products
and then what
i was only able to write out one: u*v=(u1v1+u2v2+...+u(n)v(n))
ah, don't write out the components
write like |u|^2 = u dot u and |u-v|^2 = (u-v) dot (u-v)
help
how do i do this problem
not sure what to do
<@&286206848099549185>
i'd really like some helo
if i start with e= (1 0 ) and e2 = (0 1
then when i do the x1 + x2 / -x2
should e1 become 1 0 or 2 0, and will e2 become (-1 0)?
What's T[e_1]?
bruh we needed your help in ou xD
cool
Hello
Let f:R^3->R^2 and g:R^2->R^3 be given by:
f(e1)=e1+e2, f(e2)=2e1-e2, f(e3)=e2;
g(e1)=e1-e2+e3, g(e2)=e1+3e2-2e3.
Compute the matrix of the composition fog. Then use it to calculate (fog)(3e1+2e2).
Yes im asking you to do some work and tell me what it is
Is my work corret?
well if we have e1 = (1 0) and e2 = (0 1)
would that mean that T(e1) = e1 + e2, T(e2) = -e2?
No
im so confused
what's e_1
1 0
[1,0]^T right
mhm
so what's x_1 of e_1?
1
and x_2?
0
so what's T[e_1]?
1 0
yes
so, not a trick question, how do you express e_1 as a linear combination of e_1 and e_2
(dont over think it lol)

There should be an available RREF property which allows you to easily say this
If i have a matrix in r3 and have only one independent column then my column space would be a line right ?
And if i have vector (0,0,0) would i be wrong to say the column space is a point in r3
Say I have a nilpotent transformation L:v->v where L^1=L, L o L^n-1 = L^n and L^n=0. I believe that each composition of the function produces a subspace of the last iteration's image. I am wondering how I can prove whether there will never be an iteration such that L^k+1 is not a subspace of L^k.
I think it should follow something like, since L is nilpotent, if an iteration was not a subspace of the previous then it would not equal 0 for some n.
but that feels wrong.
@wintry steppe in R3 if you have one independent vector then its span is a line yes
and 0 is always dependent
since column space is a span of vectors, its a vector subspace, and that means it must go through the origin, so if you think of the 0 space as a point, the point is on the origin.
,w nilpotent
I've been working through some Linear Algebra problems and one that Is asking
Columns of AB are linearly dependent, then are columns of B also linearly dependent?
I worked backward that if B is linearly dependent, then Bx=0, thus adding A to both side of ABX= 0A , would get you ABx = 0, that'd mean AB are also linearly dependent right?
However, I'm not sure if you can work it reversely like that
or if there's another way for me to prove since AB are linearly dependent, B also linearly dependent
there isn't because it's clearly false
take B = the identity and A = 0
@compact relic
not directly like this, no
as an example of this, consider "if x^2 > 0, then x > 0"
this is obviously false
for example, (-1)^2 = 1 > 0
but -1 < 0
but if we work "backwards":
x > 0, therefore squaring both sides, x^2 > 0
the point is, you cant just reverse the direction of implication statements
(you can prove a statement by proving the contrapositive, however)
(but in this case that wont help you since, as ann mentioned, your statement is just false)
I see, how would I go about proving that since columns of AB are linearly dependent, thus colums of B also linearly dependent?
or ^that is simply false and because?
it's false, so you cant prove it

and the way you prove such a statement false is by providing a counterexample
as Ann did
$\begin{pmatrix}0&0\0&0\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&1\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}0&0\0&0\end{pmatrix}$ which has linearly dependent columns, but $\begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&1\end{pmatrix}$ has linearly \textit{in}dependent columns
Namington
oh okay, that made a lot of senses. Thank you for the helps
Does anyone have any book recommendations for a survey or introduction into vector spaces over finite fields?
Show the product of 2 linear operators is invertible iff both operators are invertible.
Im pretty sure the reverse direction is just show the product is injective by kernel, but not sure how to do the forward
@nocturne jewel assume A,B:V->V bijective. show AB is injective & surjective by defns
Yeah but showing AB is injective is sufficient?
V is finite dim* but idk why V being finite/infinite dimensional matters/affects anything
Hi everyone nice to meet you?
I would know if someone already studied with this book?
Translating the book name: "linear algebra with applications "
Author :Jeffrey holt
i see it as a general function thing, not linalg-specific. if f:X->Y and g:Y->Z are bijective then gof is bijective. showing gof is injective & surjective is easy
Yeah but AB being injective is equivalent to AB being invertible
So I just need to show AB is injective which is obvious since A and B are injective
But idk how to start with AB being invertible means A,B are
so do it
I did do it, Im confused on the other direction lol
that's not the forward
Ik
I said Ik how to do the reverse
Show the product of 2 linear operators is invertible iff both operators are invertible.
Im pretty sure the reverse direction is just show the product is injective by kernel, but not sure how to do the forward
(AB)(v) = 0 iff v = 0 -> AB is invertible (obviously flushed out more) is the reverse
because this is false in infinite dimensions. for example, on a space of sequences, left shift \circ right shift = id is invertible, but are the shifts invertible?
it is true that if A and B are invertible, then so is AB. as rokabe says, this is just a generic function thing.
since that's true even for infinite-dimensional spaces, it should serve as a hint that proving the other direction requires finite-dimensionality
that is, showing that if AB is invertible then A and B are should use finite-dimensionality.
do u guys know of a tool for visualization in r³?
geogebra 3d
how do i prove that the dimension of the intersection of two subspaces have to be smaller or equal to the smallest of the 2 subspaces?
intuitively i think about dim(U)+dim(W) = dim(U+W) - dim(U intersection W)
suppose for contradiction theres a basis for U intersect V that's larger than the dimension of (WLOG) U
then this set must be linearly independent in U, since its a basis for U intersect V and constraining our purview just to U won't change its linear independence
so we have a linearly independent set that's larger than U's dimension
problem!

Are there any video series or websites you all recommend for learning why different applications in linear algebra fundamentally work? I feel like between lectures, studying, and homework I'm just memorizing processes and rules without being able to build intuition around what's trully going on
You could read a book
I read sergei treil’s “linear algebra done wrong” personally, and I thought it did a good job of doing what you’re asking for.
It might take more time than just memorizing the processes and rules though.
@pure tangle
I just want to confirm if I'm thinking about this correctly, I solved this integral for the potential values of a0, a1, a2, a3, which gave mee
which would seem to indicate that my basis is (a0, 0, 9a2, 0)
?
Okay, so revising that earlier statement, I could attempt to construct a basis of all such polynomials as (a0, 0, 0, 0), (0, 0, 0, 0), (0, 0, 9a_2, 0), (0, 0, 0, 0), but these are not linearly independent?
I am a bit confused, so forgive me if my questions don't make sense
hm? Don't my coefficients for the odd degree terms become 0?
Oh, or should it be that they can be anything whatsoever because it's the vector values that become 0?
I'm really just trying to get a handle on what's going on here, and how to relate the results of my computation to the construction of a basis
which would seem to indicate that my basis is (a0, 0, 9a2, 0)
a basis is a set of linearly independent vectors which span a space. You wrote down one vector in R4.
okay, so what is the significance of my scalar coefficients in constructing my basis?
I'm aware, for example, that a basis for R3 would be (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), (0, 0, 1),
okay, so you have the equation a_0 + 9a_2 = 0. These are the constraints you have to deal with. The standard basis for P_3(R) is 1, x, x^2, x^3. You should sort of think about how to modify this so that a_0 = -9a_2 for any polynomial
why, for example, is a basis for P_3(R) not (1, 0, 0, 0, (0, x, 0, 0), (0, 0, x^2, 0), (0, 0, 0, x^3)? Just from following a similar logic to how I would construct one for R4
Is it because (1, 0, 0, 0) and so forth are not elements of P(R)?
You are correct that you can identify 1 -> (1,0,0,0) , x -> (0,1,0,0), .... under an isomorphism P_3(R) to R4, but if we are talking about a basis for P_3(R), and not R4, its probably a little easier (communication wise) to actually work with polynomials.
For example, by (1,0,0,0), its not necessarily clear if you are identifying this vector with 1,x,x^2, or x^3, or some other polynomial.
I see, so...
i mean, this identification is something you do a lot for calculations and stuff, but to say a "basis for P_3(R) is (a0, 0, 9a2, 0)" is a bit worse than just an abuse of notation/language.
anyhow, you want the space of polynomials such that the coefficient of 1 is 9 times the coefficient of x^2
Oh, alright, so it's just 9a_3, x, a_3*x^2, x^3, if I'm understanding correctly?
I was under the impression my scalar coefficients were to be separated from my vectors
Thanks btw, your points have really helped! I'm revisiting how this construction works
@ruby loom i think you might need to check your calculation. I am getting a different equation from a0 + 9a2 = 0. Also, 9a_3, x, a_3*x^2, x^3 is not the correct basis
i get a0 + 3a2 = 0. Now, 3, x, x^2, x^3 still doesn't work
the polynomial 1 + x^2 is in the space spanned by those vectors while 1 + 3 != 0
3a2? Sorry, but that integral is even so it becomes 2*a2 * the integral from 0 to 3 of x^2 which is 9
or am I going crazy?
And then the 2 can be factored out
oh, disregard that!
I see what you did. Sorry about that
np. anyway, as a hint, the basis vector that controls whether a0 + 3a2 = 0 is going to be a sum of monomials.
a polynomial which satisfies a0 + 3a2 = 0 itself
But this will still necessarily be a polynomial in the space of P(3)?
yea it will
so clarifying question, does this mean that my coefficients for the x1 and x3 terms can be anything?
x and x^3 have no constraints, so we can include them in our basis w/o any issue
Oh, well I thought it would be -3a_2, x, (a_2)x^2, x^3, though your monomial comment makes me think perhaps I'm misunderstanding how to find a polynomial that satisfies the coefficients
nope. -3a_2, x, (a_2)x^2, x^3 spans the same space as 1,x,x^2,x^3
we know that x^3 and x belong in the basis. There is one more vector that we need to add. its certainly not x^2 (or scalar times x^2) since the integral of x^2 from -3 to 3 is not 0, and similarly for f(x) = 1.
(this is the sanity check that the basis elements for your space should actually belong to your space)
ah! I see so (0, x, 0, x^3)
hmm? what does that mean? x + x^3 is not a basis element, if that's what that means
and x, x^3 are not the only basis vectors, if that's what you meant
okay, so I'm tempted to just make it (-a0 - 3a2, x, x^3) so as to cancel out the (potential) non zero values of a0 and 3a2
you have the right idea, but the space spanned by -a0 - 3a2, x, x^3 is the same as the space spanned by 1,x,x^3
name a polynomial other than linear combinations of x and x^3 that should belong to this space
how is that so? Because a0 and a2 are arbitrary so they can serve the same purpose as 1?
-a0 - 3a2 is just a number. We can divide (assuming nonzero) by -a0 - 3a2 to get 1, so 1 is in the space, and we can replace -a0 - 3a2 with 1 in that basis.
That's also why I am not writing redundant scalars next to monomial terms in a basis. for example, the space spanned by a, bx, cx^2, dx^3 is the same as the space spanned by 1, x, x^2, x^3 (assuming a,b,c,d are nonzero)
anyway, do this
name a polynomial other than linear combinations of x and x^3 that should belong to this space
alright. x^2 - 3?
yep.
Alright!
x^2 - 3 is not in the span of {x, x^3}. Thus, the set {x, x^3, x^2 - 3} is linearly independent. Does this span U?
ye
thanks for your patience!! I haven't done LA in awhile
npnp
I'm having two vectors: u = (6, 4, 2) and v = (1, -3, 3). I'm supposed to find a third vector w = (x, y, z) so that they generate a cuboid, with volume -180. So far I've gotten to this equation : 18x - 16y - 22z = -180 from calculating determinant. I asked this same question here a few days ago but I can't figure it out. I know they all are 90 degrees, but what to put in for x,y,z..?
im not sure why you have the = -180, but
in 18x - 16y - 22z, x should be (1,0,0), y should be (0,1,0), and z should be (0,0,1).
and when you sum up 18x - 16y - 22z, you will get the "w" you need.
oh i see why -180
you mean || 18x - 16y - 22z|| = 180
wait no 
Yeah, both kinda, I'm just saying what the task says.. :). But it's rare to have negative volume.
What I figured was if I took the lenght of u and v, with squareroot and sum of them squared, you know, the u * v * w should be -180 right?
im guessing it wants ||u|| ||v|| ||w|| = 180, but idk where the negative comes from
But it just rings ''faulty'' somhow
Ye, I'm just writing what the task says, i would print it, but it is in norwegian so i dont know if it would be any good.
here's what i know: since u and v are perpendicular to each other, ||u x v|| = ||u|| ||v||
u,v,w represent the sides of a cuboid, and u x v gives you the side perpendicular to both u and v. You need to choose the vector of appropriate length in the direction of u x v so that the magnitudes all multiply to 180
can't say where the negative comes from though
Ok, what I did a earlier was put in some numbers for x, y and z(just trial and error), so that the equation 18x - 16y - 22z = -180 was correct, i believe it was x = 3, y = 5, and z = 7. But then the product of x * y * z =/(didn't equal) -180. But maybe thats because i didn't do the absolute value as you mention.
Like when I take the lenght of u = 7.48 and v = 4.35.
Then w should be lenght = 5.51 to be 180.
you computed a determinant like $\begin{vmatrix} x&y&z \ 6&4&2 \ 1&-2&3 \end{vmatrix}$, right?
kxrider
-3 instead of -2 but yes, that is correct.
oops yea. anyway, in this, x,y,z are vectors. x = (1,0,0), y = (0,1,0), z = (0,0,1). i.e. 18x - 16y - 22z = (18,-16,-22)
this is the cross product of (6,4,2) and (1,-2,3)
you don't get to choose what x,y,z are here
Ok, I see, so how to calculate the vector w then? I'm sorry if I should see it myself. Very new to this.
its np. first, do you understand why u and v are perpendicular (orthogonal)?
Yes, because the dot product is 0.
Yes, as I have seen in geogebra 3d as well 🙂
u x v has the right "direction," but we need to extract the correct length, so that the volume is 180. that would be our w
||u|| ||v|| ||w|| = 180 so ||w|| = 180/(||u|| ||v|| ).
yea idk about the whole negative thing. i don't think there is a standard interpretation of "negative volume" here
Yes, that's true, and I've been doing that, though with the negative, and with the negative I came up with ||w|| being 5.51 in lenght.
okay, that's actually approximately correct
From w, but I cant figure out to get the lenght into a vector. it would be something like 5.1 = squareroot x^2 + y^2 +z^2
Maybe writing something wrong here, a lot of numbers in my head, I've been trying to solve this for more than 10 hours over the weekend.
we want something with length 5.51 in the direction of u x v. The standard way to do this is to "make u x v length 1" by computing (u x v)/(||u|| ||v||). This vector has length 1, and points in the direction of u x v. Now, how would we make it 5.51 in length?
isn't the magnitude of the vector u x v also the area of the parallelogram they describe?
yea, it is
yepp
so you just need $| u \times v |$*L = 180
Edd
Yes, and the L is 5.51.
But I need the L = 5.51 to be put into x,y and z :). And there's where we are now I believe 🙂
The standard way to do this is to "make u x v length 1" by computing (u x v)/(||u|| ||v||). This vector has length 1, and points in the direction of u x v. Now, how would we make it 5.51 in length?
referring to this
Edd
you make it length 5.51 by multiplying by 5.51 😛
idk what that is
It's the (u x v)/(||u|| ||v||).
I believe
Distance from a plane to a point.
And set distance to 5.51
Or am I way off.
lets say i have a vector v. Do you know what i mean when i say something like 3v points in the same direction as v?
Yepp, it's 3 times as long.
your distance formula is wrong btw
Could I just write 5.51*(x,y,z)
$\frac{u \times v}{\Vert u \Vert \Vert v \Vert}$ has length $\sin \theta$
Edd
im going to bed, take it away, edd
The cross product of u and v was (18, -16, -22) to save you the scrolling
Ok sleep now
aight
Ok, let's go. I shall translate the task from norwegian to english as best I can.
Find the vector w e R^3 so that the vectors u, v and w generate a cuboid( = straight prism) with oriented volume of - 180. Where: U = (6,4,2) and V = (1,-3,3)
mhm
well
you already know that $\Vert u \times v \Vert$ is the area of the base, so $\Vert u \times v \Vert \cdot L = 180$ lets you find the length of the third vector
Yes
Edd
the third vector goes in the direction of $u \times v$. that direction is given by the unit vector $\frac{u \times v}{\Vert u \times v \Vert}$
Edd
so $w = \frac{u \times v}{\Vert u \times v \Vert} \cdot L$
Edd
i don't remember how to calculate signed volumes from this, so it might be -L instead
that's about it 😛
Still taking this in xD
So, say, if I want the value of x in the w vector, how do i do that with that equation? I'm in deep here xD
Ahh, ok, so i do the equation 3 times to get the values, got it.
no
this equation already gives you the whole vector
u x v is a vector
L is a scalar
$\Vert u \times v \Vert$ is a scalar
Edd
so w is already a full vector, all 3 of its components are in there
this is all
Ok, so I divide the 3 vectors by the scalar and mulitply them by L.
Please say thats the correct way 😄
i don't understand what you don't understand lol
do you know how it works when you multiply a vector by a scalar?
Yes, you just put the scalar in front and mulitply it by all the numbers in the vector.
So, what I got is w = (3, -2.56, -3.52)
I believe that is correct. Thanks so much @slow scroll and @lavish jewel, really appreciated!
Hello I needed some help in Algebra and was wanting to know if I can just post the question or do I need to ask first.

Stephanie receives a salary of $650 per month plus a commission of 5.5% on the first $3,000 of sales, and 7% of all sales over $3,000. Find Stephanie's gross pay for the month if her sales were $11,190
Thanks
can someone help me understand b more?
is it asking to prove that the dimension of T is equal to its image?
"dimension of T" makes no sense. it's asking you to prove that the rank of T equals (thing described)
the rank is the dimension of the image of T
ugh don't post the same question in multiple channels
Yeah I'm sorry about that, I didn't intend to spam, I just thought it fit better in lin alg. Thanks though
I know if T(v1)... T(vn) are linearly independent then v1...vn are also linearly independent because suppose we have a1v1+...+anvn=0
We know the T(a1v1...+anvn) = T(0)=0 and by linear properties
a1T(v1)...+anT(vn)=0 thus a1..an=0
Is this also true the other way around?
v1...vn are independent then T(v1)... T(vn) are independent?
nope
I thought so
But why?
I mean I guess the zeroing transformation shows this is wrong right?
Because even though a1...an=0 the solution isn’t trivial since T(v) =0 is possible meaning its scalar could be non-zero while still satisfying the equation
its true that the 0 map is a counter example. More generally, you can always define a linear transformation by where it maps a basis. So you can just define T to be a map which takes a basis to some linearly dependent collection of vectors in the codomain.
What if KerT={0}?
then it does take linearly independent sets to linearly independent sets
I thought so - but is it because of the 0?
I mean
v1...vn lin indep thus non-zero, therefore T(vi)!=0 and T(vi) != T(vj) for i !=j
think about reversing this for a proof
I know if T(v1)... T(vn) are linearly independent then v1...vn are also linearly independent because suppose we have a1v1+...+anvn=0
We know the T(a1v1...+anvn) = T(0)=0 and by linear properties
a1T(v1)...+anT(vn)=0 thus a1..an=0
Right so we get a1T(a1v1)... and a1=an=0 is the only solution because of the quote here?
I’m having a hard time justifying it being the only solution
Just because T(v1) != T(v2) doesn’t mean they are independent, is what I’m trying to say
v1...vn lin indep thus non-zero, therefore T(vi)!=0 and T(vi) != T(vj) for i !=j
this is true, but I don't think it helps much
Suppose that $v_1, \dots, v_n$ are linearly independent and $\ker T = 0$. Suppose that $a_1T(v_1) + \cdots + a_nT(v_n) = 0$. Then $$T\left( \sum_{i=1}^n a_iv_i \right) = 0 $$
kxrider
can u finish the argument?
Hmm
Ahhhh
The vector inside the T must be 0
Because only T(0)=0
So sum(ai vi) = 0 only has the trivial solution
I think that means aiT(vi) only has one solution as well
yes, good. sum a_i v_i = 0 and linear independence of v_1, ..., v_n shows that a_1 = ... = a_n = 0. Thus, the T(v_i) are linearly independent.
yup, pretty much. In particular, when ker(T) != 0, you can always pick a nonzero vector v from the kernel, and use that to form nontrivial linear combinations of T(v_i) which are 0
np. good questions. i think understanding these things goes a very long way in linear algebra
Thanks again, have a good day
if we're talking about A having an eigenvector
Av = lambda v
must this mean A has an associated norm that is induced by a norm on V, where v in V?
V is a normed vector space?
nah
what is the norm you are suggesting then?
Actually maybe
so here's the problem
my question is regarding c)
is there anything implying that R^n here is a NVS?
are you concerned about convergence of the series expansion for e^A or something?
yea
i mean I want to use
submultiplicativity of the norm
but not all matrix norms are submultiplicative
hmm
So i'm just confused what is the norm assumed to be used here yea
the most natural norm here is the operator norm, which is submultiplicative. I've never really thought about this tho tbh 
you should be able to do something like $$|e^A| = \left|\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k!} A^k \right| \leq \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k!} |A^k| \leq \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k!} |A|^k < \infty$$
kxrider
np. and the choice of norm technically doesn't affect convergence for matrices
you mean the choice of norm for the v right
wait nvm
oh cuz all norms are equivalent
ye
Also I wonder why I can say this?
if p_N(A) is the partial sum for the infinite series e^A
like I know this is true fo real numbers but I kind of don't know when this is the case in general
haven't formally learned any things abt limits in metric space/generalization of limit
(If I showed p_N(A) = Pp_N(\Lambda)P^-1 already)
is this for analysis? For a diagonalizable matrix, I don't think you have to go through all of this
matrix multiplication and inversion is continuous, since it is given in coordinates by polynomials
it's linear algebra in a numerical analysis class lol
I see, thanks!
yea I just wanted like a brief overview of when this can be done, we don't need to prove to that much detail ( I think)
you were asked to show something like <v1, v2, v3> = <w1, w2, w3>?
Yeah
the idea is to show that <v1, v2, v3> is a subset of <w1, w2, w3> and <w1, w2, w3> is a subset of <v1, v2, v3>.
the <v1, v2, v3> just means span{v1,v2,v3}, the space of all linear combinations of v1,v2,v3 btw, that is correct
Oh, so those are just the vectors you use to make all the other vectors in the set, by adding and scalar multiplication?
right, every vector in span{v1,v2,v3} has the form c1v1 + c2v2 + c3v3 for some scalars c1, c2, c3
So to show that either subspace is a sunset of the other, I have to show that each element of one set is a linear combination of elements from the other set
And vice versa
yep. In practice, there might be a shortcut with matrix tricks, but that's the idea in theory.
Sweet. You say matrix tricks and that made me think of the theorems the professor was talking about directly after subspace talking about linear dependence and independence in regards to a number of vectors being larger or smaller than the number of dimensions your working or something like that where inequalities of amounts were involved, and I wondered if any of that could be uses to show equality of subspaces
sometimes. Lets say for example we are in R3, and I ask you to show that <v1,v2,v3> = <w1,w2,w3>. If v1,v2,v3 are linearly independent, then they are a basis for R3, so <v1,v2,v3> = R3. Then, to show that <v1,v2,v3> = <w1,w2,w3>, all you have to do is show that w1,w2,w3 are linearly independent as well.
I was more referring to tricks like making v1,v2,v3,w1,w2,w3 the columns of certain matrices and computing rref.
In either case, it sounds very interesting.
Thanks for the help. You including many others have been a great help. I'm glad a discord server like this exists.
npnp
wrong on c and d
Why is c wrong?
for c, take T to be the 0 matrix. 0 is in the range of the 0 matrix, but that doesn't imply in any way that the zero matrix is onto
The said sometimes for c
oh, oops

one to one means there is a pivot in every column
not sure where to go after that lol
My understanding of the question is that A can be basically any matrix. Not every matrix has a pivot in every column of its rref, does it?
i agree with sometimes.
thanks
np
okay so
i think this might be a reflection over x-axis
b/c of the -e_2
im familiar a little with [cos, -sin; sin cos]
but im not sure how that plays a role in this question
a reflection over the x axis would look like T(e1) = e1, T(e2) = -e2
write down what T does to a vector (x,y) in the standard basis.
1 sec
I made a few random points
(1,4) => (-4,1)
(2,3) => (-3,2)
basically the x and y get flipped
but the x becomes negative
how do i describe this geometrically?
what does this transformation do to (1,0) and (0,1)? See if that helps at all
ye, which direction?
counterclockwise
why?
well i disagree 
why?
Rate my hint
take (1,0) -> (0, -1). maybe draw it out
In case it isn't clear, my $g$ isn't the same as your $T$
ShatteredSunlight
To be super clear, my $g$ would be the answer to this
ShatteredSunlight
If it's too clear then maybe I shouldn't give this hint 
If you're saying your T is counterclockwise, then I, like rider, disagree

Maybe my hint was confusing after all
i think it maybe kinda was
. the map shattered posted is a counterclockwise rotation, but its a different map than what you have vici
That's....how the map was defined?
the transformation was T(e1) = -e2, T(e2) = e1, right?
yeah, exactly. i.e. T(1,0) = (0, -1), T(0,1) = (1,0).
(1,0) gets rotated 90 degrees clockwise around the origin and (0,1) gets rotated 90 degrees clockwise around the origin
e1 = (1,0), e2 = (0,1), the standard basis vectors
for example, when you know what T does to e1, and e2, you can write a matrix for T : $\begin{bmatrix} 0&1\ -1&0 \end{bmatrix} = [T(e_1) \quad T(e_2)]$
kxrider
and you can write things like $(a,b) = a\mathbf{e_1} + b\mathbf{e_2}$.
kxrider
but um, anyway, do you see why T(e1) = -e2, T(e2) = e1 is the same as saying T(1,0) = (0, -1), T(0,1) = (1,0)?
Your basis vectors from the original space might not be in the subspace.
$v = a_1v_1,..., a_nv_n$?
Ann
suppose for the sake of contradiction that W fails to have a finite spanning list
...wait
i dont know where i was going with this
damn you axler
for every linearly independent list of vectors w_1, w_2, ..., w_n in W, there exists a vector w_{n+1} in W that is not in their span
is axler non-sadist enough to allow us to use induction
to say that this implies we can construct a sequence of lists of ever-growing length, each one linearly independent
and then look at the first one that has more vectors in it than the dimension of V
can someone please help me fuund where I'm making a mistake with this question
it wants me to find the original matrix based off the solution and a column
to solve for column 2, I used the point (?) part of the solution and did [-1,2,0] + 2 C2 = [-1,2,0]
I got [1,1,2]
for c3 I looked at the null space and used 2c1 + c2 + c3 = 0
and got [5,-1,6]
and finally i used the t parameter equal to 0 and got [7, -2, 8]
but when I row reduce those columns with the given solution d I dont get the same equation
<@&286206848099549185>
It seems that you went wrong for working out c_3
A better way would be to again utilize the solution set. You can simply set the t equal to zero and s equal to 1, and get the particular solution $x = \begin{bmatrix} 3 \ 3 \ 1 \ 0 \end{bmatrix}$.
LifeSource
Then, (you got $c_2$ right), we have that $3 \begin{bmatrix} -3 \ 0 \ -4 \end{bmatrix} + 3 \begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 \ 2 \end{bmatrix} + c_3 = \begin{bmatrix} -1 \ 2 \ 0 \end{bmatrix}$.
LifeSource
Then it is easy to solve for $c_3$
LifeSource
Hey i have a small question. We know that the range of a linear map is surjective if it equals the co-domain, doesnt that mean the range also holds 0 cuz the co-domain must contain the 0 vector to be vector space?
What im trying to say is that the range should map vectors to 0 too. But then its the null space not the range
For it to be a vector space then it has to contain the identity element
Correct
Also note that a linear map by definition preserves the origin
Yeah i thought about it some more i get it now
Good!
@pure tangle Did you get it?
@desert rapids thanks so much for the response. Sorry let me take a second to look over what you said
@desert rapids thank you so much so your solution makes perfect sense, do you know what was wrong with my solution for c3? I looked at the null for s = 1 and t = 0 and solved for (2,1,1,0) = 0and thats where I differed from you
What is the column space of any 3x3 non-singular matrix?
@desert rapids when I use your method for c3 I get the same answer I did with my solution
im not crazy for realizing that solving a constant coefficient homogenous linear differential equation is just solving for the eigenvalues right?
dont remember that too greatly from when i took linalg but it seems really familiar
whats the best website to learn math
other than Khan Academy
i mean i said website
fatwa kya hai?
mai pakistani houn
ah
If I have a matrix A
do the matrices
A^TA and AA^T have the same determinant?
it should be that way because B = (A^TA)^T = A^TA so Det(B-xI) = Det(B^T-xI)
In general, det(AB) = det(A)det(B) = det(B)det(A) = det(BA)
sorry I meant the same eigenvalues
because I have a matrix where it doesn't work and I'm wondering if I am misunderstanding it
Can you share your example?
that's A^TA(idk why the professor writes it like that)
that's AA^T
their eigenvalues aren't equal hmm
that's the answer
to A^TA
Ah yes, there's a mistake in your argument:
(A^TA)^T = A^TA
And in this case, it is not the same as A A^T
Since in particular, those two matrices have different sizes
eigenvalues are the same, yea
Yeah, I'm just talking nonsense.
Sorry I'm just too tired tonight to actually do maths
Hi! Can I prove that a set îs a direct summand without a direct complement? I have this problem
Firstly, i think i need to prove that A is a subspace of R^2 but then? My text books if A and B are two subspaces of vector space V and if A+B(direct sum) = V and A intersected with B={0} then A and B are called direct summands
Can I assume that if a set is a subspace then it will definitely exist another subspace such that their direct sum Will be the vector space and intersection the null space?
Is anyone smart at Linear Algebra online that could help me out understanding some prompts?
It is true in finite dimension. In infinite dimension you need the axiom of choice to prove it.
Here I believe that they just want you to give the direct complement of A
I work only in finite dimentions, so i don't need to prove it?
I was a bit confused because it says 'if so'
Well, it is a fact, but if it hasn't been proved in class yet, you probably would need to prove it in order to be allowed to use it.
Also, they say "if so" in order not to hint at what is the answer.
Ok. Thank you! It hasn't been proved in class and it won't be. How could i prove it? I have no idea
Maybe you know of a theorem that says that if $(a_1,...,a_k)$ is a free family of $\mathbb{R}^n$, then there exists vectors $a_{k+1},...,a_{n}$ such that $(a_1,...,a_n)$ is a basis of $\mathbb{R}^n$ ?
Dagnyr
I asked this the other day and still confused on how to go about it:
Let S and T be linear operators on the finite-dimensional vector space V. Show that ST is invertible iff both S and T are
I can do the reverse direction pretty easily, since you just show the ker(ST) = {0} by considering ST(v)=0, but cant see where to start on the forward direction
as i said
you need to use finite-dimensionality in some way, since the forward direction is false in infinite-dimensional spaces
what are some tools that finite-dimensionality gives you? rank-nullity, choosing a basis, etc.
ik the image of ST is V and kernel is {0}
But I dont see how dim(V) = n (for example) would help to show that S and T are
Wait, probably wrong but:
If dim(V) = n, then dim(Im(ST)) = n
but dim(Im(ST)) <= min{dim(Im(S)),dim(Im(T))}
but dim(Im(S)) and dim(Im(T)) cannot be bigger than n
@wintry steppe would that work / at all right? lol
nice
YAY
so they're both onto. why does that imply they're also one-to-one?
what's onto
isnt showing surjective or injective sufficient for finite dimensional?
for operators between spaces of the same finite dimension, yeah
i just wanted to make sure you knew that lol
yeah I was digging through my notes cause I always forget which page characterization of invertible operators is written on
and my argument already holds that dim(Im(S))=dim(Im(T)) since if they didnt the min function wouldnt return n
anyone know how to do this? i have no idea
Draw two random half-spaces. Is the union convex ? In what position do they have to be for the union to be convex ?
could i have help with this
im so confused by how would you do this
<@&286206848099549185>
what's confusing you
i dont get how I am suppoused to know if its a vector, scalar or meaningless
you dont solve for anything?
@lavish jewel
Well begin with the first one. Will a cross product always yield a vector?
yes
And will addition of vectors always yield a vector (kernel being a vector aswell)?
there you go, then
so this is a vector
yep
yyes
thats a vector
its also a vector
so its just asking for the cross product of vector a with the cross product of vector BC
so its a vector
overall
right
yep
one last question cause this is my last homework question for the day
for this
i got the cross product to be (20, -24, 19)
right
i dont get what perpendicular means
in this case
if you draw them in 3D space, they form 90° angles to each other
when you cross 2 vectors you get a perpendicular vector to those 2 vectors you crossed
(20, -24, 19) x (x, y, z) = 0
right
what's that
isnt that what i have to do?
,w cross product of {-5, -1, 4} and {-1,-4,-4}
You can use the dot product using a system of equations but they want you to use cross product
you were already done
this vector is orthogonal to (-5,-1,4) and (-1,-4,-4)
<20, -24, 19>
u already did it
wait what?
how
im confused
it says use cross product and you did the cross product
that is the definition of the cross product
a = b x c yields a vector a that is orthogonal to both b and c
so the cross product means the perpendicular vector of two vectors
you can test if you want to convince yourself. NOW you can use a dot b = 0 and a dot c = 0
so if you <20, -24, 19> dot <-5,-1,4> it should = 0
,w <20, -24, 19> dot <-5,-1,4>
yep
whenever you cross 2 vectors the vector you get is always perpendicular to the original 2 vectors
oh im big dumb i feel stupid now for asking this question lmao
,w <12,9> dot <13,14>
And the magnitude of that vector that isn’t in the plane represent the area of a parallelogram
ah okok that makes alot of senese thank you for the help guys @digital bough @lavish jewel
all good
Alright so suppose I have a a_1x_1 + a_2x_2 + .. +a_nx_n = 0, a_i is integer
so this gives a n-1 dimensional int lattice
how do I find its basis?
Like I can find something, i.e.
(-a_2/gcd(a_1,a_2), a_1/gcd(a_1,a_2), 0, ...0)- (same for all other pairs with 1
but I m nit sure if this is actually the lattice and not just sublattice
<@&286206848099549185>
sorry for bothering since its already in the channel(
Hm. Your calculations must be wrong because the method is clearly valid.
I didn’t go through the calculations myself
@desert rapids my answer was right. I was misinterpreting the final answer because it's a plane formula that's equivilant, but different, from the original equation
For part c can I just do something like a = alpha1 + alpha2 ....
b = alpha2 - alpaha3 ... or does the question imply a different type of equation?
so my attempt at equation was the red
can anyone hep me with a question?
Wow I actually cannot find anything about how to solve integer homogeneous linear equation
Is that like...less trivial than what I thought it is?
nah but it falls more under the purview of number theory than linear algebra
@meager tinsel
youre asking how to solve a degree 1 diophantine equation
such systems are mostly solved by the chinese remainder theorem
Yes I'm asking exactly that and I know CRT
Lemme check this part
I think I looked through it but maybe I didn't see
@limber sierra okay yes it describes what I want but I have some trouble thinking this late
Can you sort of push me in the direction of
What this turns into when m=1
As in my case
what method are you talking about
Uh
Okay the method in that article is pretty complicated because it relies on smith normal form which is a kind of generalization of euclidean row reduction
Yes
It's hard to imagine without a paper
Which I don't have atm
But if m=1
Like in my case
I expect it to be feasible?
since the integers are a PID like described. You can follow the process in the smith normal form article to do that
I mean, if m = 1 in your case, its much easier to just apply bezout's identity
read the examples in the bezout article and euclidean algorithm articles
sorry i know this is annoying but can someone please help with my previous question after this person? That's the last problem I have to finish before turning something in that's due soon
@sonic osprey
I can see how to solve it for d /= 0
But I knew that already
I.e. when it's not homogeneous
But I cannot find anything about how to solve the homogeneous part
Uh what?
If I'm understanding you correctly
you can solve the case when d = 0 in exactly the same way?
You have the trivial solution of all zeroes
I think it will yield 0 0 0 ... solution
Yes for 2 variables
But what is the formula for n variables
(Which is the question I was asking the whole time)
Because the formula for n variables is a basis of lattice in question basically
It's the same
Wdym the same
You can just use the fact that gcd(a,b,c) = gcd(a, gcd(b,c)) for example
to do bezout's/euclidean algorithm for n variables
...
Okay maybe I'm extremely stupid but can you help me out and write that formula for say 3 variables
what formula?
So the idea is that you can rewrite ax + by + cz = d as
ax + g((b/g)y + (c/g)z) = d if we let g = gcd(b,c). So you can introduce a dummy variable say k and let k = (b/g)y + (c/g)z so your equation becomes ax + gk = d
Now it's just two variables and you know how to solve that
Okay and you are saying that will work with d=0 just fine
the d = 0 case isn't special
Well I don't want 000 solution
Well you can use the picture I sent to find all the solutions by using the (0,0,0) solution
I don't see how exactly to extract 2 dimensions from this
This
Because the solutions space is supposedly 2 dimensional
uh yeah
like in my picture, the solution space is 1 dimensional since you have a single arbitrary integer k
Lemme try it
So I will have basically
ax + g((b/g)y + (c/g)z) = 0
And for that I ll have to do
l = gcd (a, g)
So I'll have
x = -g/l*coef
And
(b/g)y + (c/g)z) = a/l*coef
Which I then solve.....?
I guess
I'm unsure
I did an edit
Yeah thats the right idea
But how do I solve this
(b/g)y + (c/g)z) = a/l*coef
For every coef
Or whatever
Is there a way explicitly write 2 vectors?
Like I could do with ax+by=0
No, you can only explicitly write the vectors in that case because you already start with the (0,0) solution. Otherwise, like the picture states, you need to start with some solution for (y,z) to be able to write down the vectors
Okay that makes sense
but if you find a solution, then you can write down the vectors
I guess the idea here is that I need to solve this
(b/g)y + (c/g)z) = a/l
And than multiply solutions by coef
in this case, gcd(b/g, c/g) = 1 so you can find a single solution to (b/g)y + (c/g)z = 1 and then have a solution for all (b/g)y + (c/g)z = k
Oh hm
Yea you right they are already coprime
That's good
And so say I will get like
Cy0 + pn,C z0 -qn
Solution
For this
(After multiplying by whatever is needed)
And then I'll have this * some other coefficient
And something for x
It does feel like I'll get some product of parameters somewhere instead of liner sum
But maybe not..?
I ll think about it
I dont understand 2 parts of this proof
first is why the 1st line becomes second line
<@&286206848099549185>
oh yea this makes sense thx
other part is
how did they get the last line from 2nd last line
oh wait i see it
some linearity stuff
slimvesus
yep, thanks!
can someone explain this part?
it's just checking that the space of polynomials of degree at most n form a vector space
with the "obvious" operations
what does it mean by p(t) = a0 != 0,degree of p?
if p is a nonzero constant then you say it has degree 0
wait so it's just saying purely p(t) is just = a0
not p(t) = a0+a1t+a2t^t... ?
IF it so happens that a polynomial is a nonzero constant
the thing on the right is defining degree
then simply p(t) = 4 the degree is 0
yes
is that what the slide is conveying?
that's what the definition of degree is, yes
thank you so much

Is the difference between Vector space and subspace
for example Vector Space it is 'larger' than the subspace.. well because subspace is a sub of the larger vector space?
"subspace" implies there's a larger vector space in which it lives
right
since R^2 isn't even a subset of R^3
any subset of a vector space that's also a vector space with the same operations and zero vector is called a subspace.
Okay got it
So vector space has the 3 properties:
0 vector
scalar multiplication
and two vectors u and v added lives in the space
and a subset of a vector space that also has these 3 properties is called a subspace
is that right?
a vector space also places some restrictions on those operations of scalar multiplication and vector addition, but largely yes
(e.g. associativity, commutativity, distributivity)
got it thank you guys
Then R^3 is a subspace and a vector space itself, in this case?
Holy shit I only just realised this now. Why in gods name did I think (1,0) is the same as (1,0,0)
R3 is a vector space
if we have 2 vectors in R3, the span of these 2 linearly independent vectors is a plane
the plane is a 2D, it is a subspace
is this right so far?
but doesn't R2 vectors create a plane too?
so why is R2 not a subspace of R3?
Is it because we cannot set the "level" of the plane created by R2 in the Z axis?
i am trying to get a geomteric understanding
since technically R3 has a "copy" of R2 with the z being 0
does this even make sense lol
2d plane is just 2d plane, but we cannot specify which level the plane is at (z axis)
lets say this is a R2
this is r3
the yellow plane isn't "flat" like the blue one.. we can choose the "angle" of the plane
hence why R2 isn't a subspace of r3, but span of 2 LI of R3 is
Thank you
this is so confusing
Don’t worry I just learned that now and I’ve been doing LA since 20 january lol. The mistake I guess was that I kept thinking of sub spaces of r3 and r^2 geometrically although I never thought of r2 being a subspace to r3 but for some reason I thought it was a subset. All exercises regarding subspaces all just stated “this is a subset of V, prove it is a subspace” etc, i never actually encountered an ex asking if V is subset of V2.
How can I find the Dimension and a base of this supspace? For T i can find, but i don't know how to work with S
can you recognize the definition that is given there?
i'll rewrite it for you to see if that helps
$S = {v \in \mathbb{R}^3 , \vert , \langle v, n \rangle = 0 }$
Edd
And how can I write the vectors? I havent worked with this form yet
they're just generic vectors in R3
this one has infinite solutions
first think about the dimension
do you recognize the definition you were given?
$\langle v, n \rangle = 0 = x_1 - x_2 + 2x_3$
Edd
do you recognize the definition you were given?
@lavish jewel i dont understand what is n
well, ignore that and look only at the definition you were given. what is that the equation for?
So the Dimension is 3 and a base can be the canonic base?
Hmmm
do you know the definition of a plane?
yes
And how can I find a base?
I need two liniar independent vectors but i dont know how to find them
there are infinitely many, but my thinking is that you can pick any one vector that satisfies the equation
literally any
and then take the cross product of the normal vector and this vector you just made up
if v = (x1,x2,x3), the normal vector should be evident in what they gave you, which is why i gave you the definition of the plane as a dot product
The normal vector is (1,-1,2)
mhm
now make up any vector that is orthogonal to that, which would mean that vector is on the plane
-1, 1, 0 could work, for instance
Thanks
Hi I have a question trying to conceptually understand transformations. Why does the transformation matrix made from a basis transform onto the standard basis? and not from the standard basis to the basis?
Check briefly that $\alpha(v) = \lambda v$ is equivalent to $( \alpha - \lambda \cdot I )(v) = 0$.
PandaMan-AMB
There we go, I dont understand this notation, if the mapping is defined by \alpha, then how can you make a mapping for (\alpha - \lambda * I)
This is new to me
if you have two maps f and g then their sum f+g is the map which sends x to f(x)+g(x)
pointwise addition, as you may call it
Ah ok, but sadly I dont have two maps, The map is F x V -> V
??
what are you talking about
I only have one map
I dont have a map for lambda
I refers to the identity map
accordingly, λI is the map which scales every input by λ
Oh ok, I get it now
