#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 165 of 1
thanks
alright mind reposting your question here just so we have it
If I have a matrix $A \in \mathbb{R}^{5 \times 5}$
madmike
is it the same thing as $f \colon \mathbb{R}^5 \to \mathbb{R}^5, v \mapsto Av$?
madmike
yeah, if they tell you that A represents that linear transformation
all linear transformations on finite dimensional spaces can be represented by a matrix
you also asked something about what a linear operator is I think
this all kind of ties together pretty nicely
I asked and can I just assume that this is a linear map without proof?
yeah it is a linear map if you use it as matrix multiplication on a vector in the usual way
all I got is basically that A is a 5x5 matrix, and I need to figure out A so that A is not the identity matrix and A^5 = I_5. Someone told me to try it with linear maps and this is where I was stuck 😄
find a 5x5 A where A!=I and A^5=I
exactly
i told him to think of a map that composed w/ itself 5 times gives the identity map
yeah and then I read up on what linear maps are in my script
so I'm trying to understand them
hm so a linear map always has that v -> Av form?
sure
so when that is set in stone, I am not sure how to do this: i told him to think of a map that composed w/ itself 5 times gives the identity map
sorry if these are dumb questions
Try Te1=e2,Te2=e3,Te3=e4,Te4=e5 and Te5=e1
T is a linear transform and e1,e2.. are basis vectors
I don't know what a linear transform is 😁
Yes
ah okay
If A is 5x5, wouldn't the result of Av also be 5x5?
iirc the resulting matrix of a multiplcation has the #columns of lhs and #rows of rhs?
Is v a Column vector ?
Not sure what a column vector is 😁
oh I didn't know there are column and row vectors
A column vector is an mx1 matrix (or an element of R^m that is represented like that)
It has a single column
what is the difference between a matrix and a vector in that view
isn't it more convenient to say everything is a matrix
A vector is an element of a vector space, so "everything" is a vector
I guess column vector is used because you could be referring to elements different spaces, like R^m, where it would be odd to refer to the elements as matrices.
mmm
the difference is harder to see for someone who's not seen spaces beside R^n
I have to write linear transformation matrix such that when we write (1,0,0,0)^t transform (0,1,0,0)
I m stuck
I guess one way to see for yourself is write out a 4x4 matrix with unknown entries in it, then multiply it by (1,0,0,0)^t
and set this equal to (0,1,0,0)^t and solve
nice
absolutely
you know we have to check two things
you can only represent linear transformations with matrices like this
take any arbitrary vector, it has a unique expansion as a linear combination of its basis vectors
and you just showed what it does to the basis vectors
so you know how it acts on all vectors
$$T ( \vec v) = T \left( \sum_{i=1}^4 c_i \vec e_i \right) = \sum_{i=1}^4 c_i T(\vec e_i )$$
Merosity
i didnt understand this linear transfmoramtion
why you write this
this is kind of a example or what ?
this is your linear transformation
kind of hard for me to see what you know or don't know to give a better answer than this
We know that $rank(uu^T) = 1$. In general what can we say about the rank of $auu^T + (1-a)vv^T$, where $0<a<1$ and $u\neq v$ are two column vectors?
the-last-knight
Need to find the general solution. I just need to know is x3 free or 0?
Yes
It's free
Look at the original system. x3 has zero coefficients, so it doesn't affect anything
Thank you. I assumed free from notes but there was no example with a column of all zeros. I guess there would be [0 0 1 0] if x3 were 0
with a choice of basis
for linear maps $f \colon \bR^n \to \bR^m$ you already have the standard bases, so the matrix is just the $m \times n$ guy with columns $f(e_1), \dots, f(e_n)$
TTerra
but for maps between abstract vector spaces of finite-dimension, you don't have a standard (canonical) choice of bases
but, if you do make choices, it's the same idea
suppose $f \colon V \to W$ is a linear transformation, $\dim V = n, \dim W = m$. choose (ordered!) bases $(v_1,\dots,v_n),(w_1,\dots,w_m)$ of $V$ and $W$, respectively. then the matrix of $f$ with respect to these bases is the $m \times n$ matrix whose columns are $[f(v_1)], \dots, [f(e_n)]$, where for an element $w \in W$, uniquely of the form $w = a_1w_1 + \cdots + a_mw_m$,
[
[w] = \begin{pmatrix}
a_1 \ \vdots \ a_m
\end{pmatrix}
]
TTerra
basically the matrix encodes exactly how the linear transformation acts on a basis
and that characterizes the linear transformation (if this is new to you, try thinking about the following question: "if T and S are linear transformations equal on a basis, why are they equal everywhere?")
sure
oops, no
lol
should be v_n
it is a bit to take in, but there isn't much more to it
no problem
there's (probably, i just pulled this from my ass) another way of thinking about it that's a bit closer to the construction for maps R^n \to R^m
where you just use the ordered bases of V and W to think about them as R^n and R^m, respectively, and then take the standard matrix there

maybe worth thinking about
i dont wanna write it out lol
Use the inverse function on those inputs, and you will find the answer
inv(M) * [-9, 11]
thanks got it
yes
Thx
If I'm told to find 2 vectors on a plane given a point and a normal vector, can i just find 2 vectors that dot product with the normal vector to give 0 and the plug it in so (p1,p2,p3) + t(v1) +s(v2)?
if A is invertible matrix , and AB = BA does it means that B is Invertible as well?
not necessarily. counterexample: let B be the zero matrix
<@&286206848099549185>
given a vector $n$ and a point $p$, the plane determined by them is the set of $x$ with $$n \cdot (x - p) = 0,$$ so yes, you should find two vectors $v,w$ satisfying this equation. if they are linearly independent, the plane is $${ p + tv + sw : t, s \in \bR }$$
TTerra
i.e.
almost exactly what you said; you were just a bit off for the dot product condition
@wintry steppe thank you so much. The only thing I'm a little confused about is why we have to find the difference between the plane vector and the point. Could you please explain that?
you mean why we do n dot (x - p) and not just n dot x?
yes
you want p to be in the plane
of course
p satisfies n dot (x - p) = 0, but maybe not n dot x = 0
lol thank you
no problem
you could also think of it as like
that condition means the plane is based at p, in the following sense:
since n dot x = 0 would give you the equation of the plane through the origin normal to n
and then replacing x with x - p shifts the basepoint over to p
that's a great explanation. Thank you so much for taking the time to explain


my bad i know i already posted a questino about this but i'm stuck on the answer
I found one vector that satisfies the cartesian (9,2,3) and vector equation, but the other doesnt satisfy the cartesian but it satisifies the dot porduct
any help would be greatly appreciated
those vectors arent orthogonal to the normal vector
dont overthink it. you can always put a zero in one entry and decide what the other two have to be.
for example, (0,1,2), (2,0,-1), (4,1,0) all work (just swap two entries and negate one of them).
||the reason that works is because the matrix of the transformation of a vector that makes one entry zero, swaps the other two entries, and negates one of them is skew symmetric. multiplying a vector by a skew symmetric matrix always outputs a vector orthogonal to the one you started with||
when proving a set is a vector space does it suffice to show that it is: closed under addition, closed under scalar multiplication, zero vector exists?
presuming this set is a subset of a vector space already, so we already know all the distrabution and whatnot properties hold
i think that should be sufficent
in fact you don't need to separately show the existence of the zero vector, cause the zero vector is a scalar multiple of any other vector
so you already know it exists by closedness
i see, thank you very much
@hollow finch thanks for the response. ttera suggested i subtract the point before doing the dot product to find orthogonal vectors
yeah for the cartesian not the parametric
wait now i'm confused
so the formula they showed me was for the cartesian? Is it equivalnt to the a(x1-x)+b(y1-y)+c(z1-z) = 0 formula?
got a question
for span, i know that if you have vectors that are multiples of each other, they're just a single line
but what owuld happen if you have a row of zeros
that is 0
0 0 0 0
at the bottom
or what if you have a vector that's equal to 0
like 1 0 0 0
Take any set of vectors V = {v1,v2,...vn}
Then Span(V) = av1 + bv2 + ... + kvn
.
With that in mind, let's say your set just has the zero vector in it. That is,
V = {0}
Where 0 represents some (0,0,0) of whatever length.
What would Span(V) be here?
@sleek spruce
Are there any theorems in linear algebra that don't work if you're working with a vector space whose underlying field is a finite field?
For example, are there any common theorems that make the extra assumption that the underlying field is ordered
im trying to use the third column
i keep getting 2 as my answer but the real answer is -2
could someone show me how to do this?
im confused
@north sierra you can see that determinant of A is the same as determinant of {{4,-1}, {-2,0}} using cofactor expansion
detA=1(-2)+0+0
@rustic crescent why is +1?
when finding the sign isn't it (-1)^(column number + 1) ?
since im taking the third column isn't it (-1)^(1+3) = 1? but then im multiplying by -1 so itd be -1
i mean that's what im getting but i know its wrong
no clue what im doing wrong
$\det A = (-1)^2 \cdot 1 \cdot \det \begin{pmatrix} 4 & -1 \\ -2 & 0\end{pmatrix} +(-1)^3 \cdot 5 \cdot \det \begin{pmatrix} 2 & -1 \\ 0 & 0\end{pmatrix} + (-1)^4 \cdot 0 \cdot \det \begin{pmatrix} 2 & 4\\ 0 & -2\end{pmatrix} $
@north sierra
but i was doing the third column
i get the answer when i use rows
when using columns, the exponents in (-1)^(column number + 1) are off
dont know why

pelin gave me the answer
i am getting -2 by columns as well
why is exponent 2,3,4?
aren't they all in column 1
j = column number
so shouldnt they all be 2?
(-1)^2 for all
for the first column (1+1)=2
second column (2+1)=3
third column (3+1)=4
ok i see
@prisma pier this theorem is false when F is a finite field
AKA the zero polynomial is the not the only zero function
I'm curious what an example would be of that
ohhh icic
does it have to do with the 2 in the exponent being the same as the order?
Maybe,(I was thinking of 1^2=1 and 1+1=0)
Yea, That's a specific case of this
ohhhh that makes sense
ok so that theorem with polynomials was used in LADR to prove another theorem, and that theorem was used to prove this:
I'd imagine that there's some other way to prove it for finite fields, but in the case that there's not, that would be pretty interesting
There is no notion of inner product in a finite field
So,self adjoint doesn't make sense
oh damn I didn't know that
my professor went from this matrix to this other matrix without explaining the step and I can’t seem to figure out what row operation he did here to get it. I’d appreciate any help
I think I just figured it out? They multiplied row 1 by 1/2 and and then subtracted it from the second row
Exactly
Thanks
I guess similarly, finite fields are never algebraically closed so you can always make a matrix over a field that doesn't have an eigenvalue
oh chat scrolled
@prisma pier
I was thinking a bit about this specifically too, but the only place this comes to mind is with hermitian matrices having real eigenvalues
this means you have a smallest eigenvalue and largest eigenvalue
and you can order them, and this does come up a bit
what makes you interested in whether the field is ordered or not just curious
I was just curious because I learned about finite fields not too long ago and was wondering what differences there would be in lin alg if you defined them as the underlying field of a vector space
nothing specific haha
though this is all really interesting
Can a finite field be ordered?
nope cause it cycles back around basically
I'm interested in cases where the field is infinite and unordered personally
(C,+,*) 
wait though to clarify, symmetric matrices still make sense with finite fields, right?
because it relies on the scalar product rather than inner product
what do you mean by that
like the transpose rather than the adjoint
you can of course put entries into a matrix and have the matrix be its transpose
yeah, by adjoint you mean like complex conjugate
by adjoint I was thinking the matrix A* where <Ax, y> = <x, A*y> (or something like that)
since that comes from looking at adding i to R, the finite fields are different so that doesn't exist
you have different field extensions you could think about though and their automorphisms
and similar to how the eigenvalues of a symmetric matrix are all within the field for a real-valued matrix, does that apply to finite fields?
it's a good question and one I thought about a long time ago but haven't thought about lately
I don't know
well do you know how to show a hermitian matrix has all real eigenvalues
we could probably walk through a similar proof except exchange complex conjugation for some other field automorphism
ah ok ic what u mean
that's interesting
just curious what ur intuition says about the answer
my intuition is kind of out there but since you asked
I think you need to generalize to thinking about eigenvalues of tensors or something
because it just so happens matrices are rank 2 tensors and the complex numbers are a degree 2 extension of the reals so it works out
but if you have different degree field extensions, you'll need some kind of corresponding permutation of matrix entries to correspond to it I feel
basically transposition is flipping indices while complex conjugation is flipping the sign on i
so if you have say, some kind of degree 3 field extension which ends up cycling through your elements, you have to have something cycling through indices in the same way
I don't know how to define a determinant on a rank 3 tensor though
so I don't know how you think about/solve an eigenvalue problem that way, it doesn't quite match up anyways cause you wouldn't have some sort of fixed vector, you'd be putting in a vector and getting out a matrix or something
like I said kind of out there, I dunno I haven't thought about it lol
that's a cool way of thinking about it
a lot of this is probably beyond my level haha, though I appreciate the insight
I guess now that you've got me thinking about it, maybe I'll play around with it some, I guess
one thing you could try on your own is look at $\mathbb{F}_4$ since that's a degree 2 field extension of $\mathbb{F}_2$ and see how similar it is
Merosity
Thanks! I'll mess around with that
cause it feels like it should be
well
am I stupid then?
cause sqrt2²-sqrt2²=r² is equals 0, no?
lol
I have my answer, I'm stupid
oh yeah
I was doing (sqrt2)²-(sqrt2)²
rather than (sqrt2)²(-sqrt2)²
thanks
ye, ik
cool tell me how it goes I'll probably be playing with this just a little in the next few days off and on, seems like a fun thing to investigate
understandable given the set of circumstances, honestly
I am having some difficulties with how to understand the formula of getting the points of a vector i a base: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3989076/graphical-explanation-for-the-equation-used-to-calculate-points-of-a-vector-in-a
Please check it out and answer either here or at the site. Thanks a lot 🙂
@half ice it would just be 0
I was asleep
but wouldn't a vector that is equal to 1
be able to span everything?
Since you could algebraically manipulate vectors, why can't one divide by itself to get 1
?
if i understand you correctly the problem is that you cannot divide vectors
Except when you are considering a field over itself as a vector space
slimvesus
but the idea of all ones is kinda on the right track.
the standard basis is ${(1,0\ldots,0),(0,1,0,\ldots.,0),\ldots,(0,\ldots,0,1)}$. we each call vector $e_i$ (a vector with all zeros except a $1$ in the $i$-th entry).
so the vector $(c_1,c_2,...,c_n)=c_1e_1+c_2e_2+...+c_ne_n$.
nix
so you can sorta 'divide' a vector in terms of '1' vectors. but its not really division the way you normally think of it.
ye i was just assuming they were referring to a euclidean vector space
im only on the first chapter
and they were going over span
and i was wondering why one couldn't be able to divide a vector
by itself to obtain 1
which we can use that to obtain everything else
Because there is no notion of division
row operations are on vectors
yes
so if you have 2 4 6 8 and another vector
4 8 12 16
why can't you divide 2 4 6 8
by 2
and get 1 2 3 4
then you can use that to span anything
2, 4, 6 , 8 will only span a line
but if you have 1, you can technically span anything right
what would (4,8,12,16) / (2,4,6,0) be
Is Linear Algebra difficult?
v1 = {2,4,6,8}
v2 = {4,8,12,16}
Span{v1,v2} = a single line
v1 = 1/2{2,4,6,8}
v1 = 1,2,3,4
Span{v1,v2} = can be anything right?
you mean span{(1,2,3,4),(4,8,12,16} can be anything?
yes
no its still a line
because one is a scalar multiple of the other
isn't 1 a scalar multiple
of everything then
so if you had {3,9,5,7}
you could get {1,3,5/3,7/3}
in order for it to span everything, does that mean all the entries in the vector
must not be scalar multiples of the other vector?
$c_1(1,2,3,4)+c_2(4,8,12,16)=c_1(1,2,3,4)+4c_2(1,2,3,4)=(c_1+4c_2)(1,2,3,4)=c_3(1,2,3,4)$ which is a line.
nix
thats why its a line. because youre not actually getting anything new by adding v2
oooh
so then if
all the entries
are multiples
it's a line
like if the entries are scalars of another vector
then it'll be a line
if there is a scalar $k\neq0$ such that $v_2=kv_1$ then $v_2$ is a scalar multiple of $v_1$. the span of $v_1$ and $v_2$ is still just the span of $v_1$.
nix
later in the course youll discuss linear dependence which is the concept i think you're trying to articulate
thank you so much
"rewrite z(senΘ-cosΘ)=0 in cartesian coordinates
I have no idea on how to accomplish this
I'd imagine it would have to do with rearranging related equations till I got this?
sorry everyone i ran into some confusion when i got help before and just want to make sure my solution for cartesian and parametric is correct
@wintry steppe I had some more questions and added them to the answer I got in the post. Basically I am a bit confused about now is the fact that if we factor out one of the |u1| in the denominator and move it under the u1 that is multiplied with the "left side" of the equation, we basically get the projection of v onto u1 and then the dot product of that result with one of the unit vectors (length one) of the basis. What is the point of this? What is the point of calculating the projection of the new found parallell vector onto the basis vector when we basically already done this?
ye
the parametric solution is not unique
and you can check by substituting the parametric solution into the cartesian
nix
and we know we got the parametric solution correct because (0,1,2) is not a scalar multiple of (4,1,0) so they are linearly independent giving us the full 2d solution space for the plane we expected
parametric form=based
@hollow finch like always thanks so much for the help and feedbakc. To triple check, the current answer I have solves the problem right
as i showed here #linear-algebra message
great thank you!
sorry somehow i missed that, but thanks for the extra explanation. That part really helps showing how they interact
[\lambda_1 v_1 = T(v_1)]
divide both sides by $\lambda_1$ and apply linearity
[v_1 = \frac{1}{\lambda_1}T(v_1) = T\left(\frac{v_1}{\lambda_1}\right)]
Namington
@thorny hemlock
huh?
i dont see why that would matter
the / does not denote quotient space here, no
it denotes division
it doesnt really make sense to quotient a vector by a scalar to get a vector space
in any case
ye
but the book has only used this divide sign for quotient spaces until now, so yh thats why i was confused
Hi guys,
Should I ask questions here or in the questions section?
anyway, If I have a Projection operator U ( if thats even the name of it in english), how will I go about finding its Kernal and image? I know its kernal is U_Perpendicular and the image is U its self, im just not sure how to find it mathematically, if I have the basis vectors for both these spaces.
Should I ask questions here or in the questions section?
here is fine
im just not sure how to find it mathematically, if I have the basis vectors for both these spaces
if you have a basis of a subspace, the subspace is the span of the basis
well I have the basis vectors for the subspace U, as follows (you can ignore the weird letters 😄 ). now im asked to find Ker(Pu) and Im(Pu), when Pu is the projection operator.
I didnt quite understand your answer regarding what should I do
and did you mean the basis is the span of the subspace?
no, i meant what i said
hmm, well I might have the terminology wrong, but im not sure how that helps
if you have a basis then you have the space?
independent spanning list*
"list" is also arguably misleading as to some people, "list" implies in bijection with N (see Cantor diagonalization), but bases may be uncountable and in fact unconstructable, such as the basis of R over Q
if we wanna be pedants about it
I'd phrase it as a basis for a vector space V is a minimal set of independent vectors which spans V.
what does minimal mean though
Minimal under inclusion
ye, that works
Can someone tell me if this proof is good? Trying to prove that for any nxn matrix with only one eigenvalue, there exists a scalar k such that A-kI is nilpotent without just using jordan forms.
It's fine
aight ty
what do you think
Ill try to phrase my question differently.
Let there be space V. V = U + U_Perpendicular.
I have the basis vectors for U, I also have the basis vectors for U_Perpendicular. I am asked to find the Kernel and the Image of the Projection operator (transformation) from U to U_Perpendicular.
Ker(Pu)= ?
Im(Pu)= ?
I know the answer is Ker(Pu) = U_Perpendicular, Im(Pu) = U,
But how can I find the answers using math and algebra.
maybe this will explain my question better? 😄
how do you know if determinant is divisible by a number?
like if you have a matrix, and you need to know if the determinant of the matrix is divisible by a number
Are the entries in matrix from an arbitrary ring?
well i got a specific matrix but I would like to know in general
i will show you
without computing
that the question instruct
@native rampart sry that not the question
the question is: "for every integer X , det A is divisible by 6 . TRUE/FALSE ?
oh nvm thats easy just put X = 0
hey ım stuck in this question. Could you help me please
Is this a test?
It's true
An element of null space of T(of form ax^2+bx+c) should satisfy (2a)=0,(b)=0
And c is a free variable
Implying the elements are of the form 0(x)^2+(0)x+c(1)=subspace spanned by {1}
thanks I preciate , ıts really helpful to me
This is not true if you are talking over a finite field with atleast one nonzero element a,such that a+a=0
But,I think you mean R or C,in which case that is true
thats the thing, what is the definition? usually the transformation is lets say T(v) = Av, then to find the KerT = Av = 0, and to find the ImT = sp{T(b1),...,T(bn)}, b_i being the base vector.
but what is the definition for Pu?
slimvesus
yes
slimvesus
I get that as well. so are you saying for KerPu = u = 0?
yes,I get the idea, but I was hoping for some math operation which will for example give me KerP = base vectors of U^\perp
slimvesus
nothing wrong with it ofc, just trying to understand the practical solving of problems like these better. but when you said Pu= u , it gave me a better understanding of how the transformation works so that I would be able to find its Kernel and Image
thats what I was looking for, thank you! 😄
would love to see it
slimvesus
yea, the Gram schmidt process thingy
slimvesus
thank you very much, this Pu wasn't very intuitive for me, this helped
btw your texit skills are superb, well done haha
yes, we use it alot in physics, the idea of projection is pretty straight forward, I just needed some clarification on how it looks mathematically so that I would be able to find kernel image and stuff like that , understand it deeper
thank you slim 😄
Did you generate this image? If so, what tools did you use?
what is L(V)?
set of linear maps on V, presumaby
linear map from V to V
ah okay ty. sorry ive seen it before here but never knew what it was.
yeee im kinda stuck :(
well one thing we know is that T^2 v=v
ye
...from which it follows that (T^2 - I)(v) = 0
this is probably giving characteristic polynomial vibes
oh.
yes, T is its own inverse.
im not sure exactly what proof the text is looking for
it might be better to assume T =/= I and then prove it has an eigenvalue of -1
(ie the contrapositive)
ok
so write T(x) = lambda x, and then apply T to both sides to get x = T(lambda x) = lambda T(x) = lambda^2 x
then observe that lambda = -1 solves x = lambda^2 x
i did that "backwards", but that shows how i'd reason there
oh
i see
thats very cool, i didnt think about that
one thing tho
have you applied the contrapositive correctly?
it looks weird to me
When you take the contrapositive
Wouldnt it be, ~(T = I) -> ~ (everything in first sentence)
yes, that's what i did.
trying to show T =/= I implies it is not the case that (-1 is not an eigenvalue of T)
in other words, T =/= I implies -1 is an eigenvalue of T.
you still used the fact that T^2 = I ?
yes.
uhhh
so what we need to show is $\neg(T = I) \implies \neg(T \in \mathcal{L}(V) \land T^2 = I \land \neg(-1\text{ is a an eigenvalue of }T))$
Namington
yes
to prove that the right hand side is true
it suffices to show that, when the first 2 statements are true
(T in L(V) and T^2 = I)
the third is false.
this is how showing "AND" statements false works.
for example, if i want to show "I was born in 1886 AND i am currently 7 years old" is false
i could assume i was born in 1886
and show i certainly am not 7 years old
using that fact
in other words: $A \implies \neg (B \land C)$ is entailled by $A \land B \implies \neg C$.
Namington
anyway i think theres probably a more direct proof of this fact
than the contrapositive
let me think
oh ok, i wasnt aware of this equivalence
so we know T^2(v) = v but also T(v) is not equal to -v.
from T^2(v) = v it follows that (T^2 - I)(v) = 0.
we can think of T as a matrix A here, then
(A^2 - I)(v) = ((A+I)(A-I))(v) = 0 for all v [so either A+I is the 0 matrix, or A-I is]
We know Av = -v is false, which in particular means that A is not the matrix with -1s on the diagonal and 0s everywhere else. In other words, A + I is never 0. So A - I must be 0, and therefore A = I, so T is the identity.

thats a far better proof
than the contrapositive argument
idk why i didnt see it before
@thorny hemlock
does that make a bit more sense?
its more direct as well
note: this relies on A+I and A-I being invertible if they're nonzero! can you justify that?
(this relies on it because https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/111610/if-the-product-of-two-non-zero-square-matrices-is-zero-then-both-factors-must-b is necessary for ((A+I)(A-I))(v) = 0 to imply A+I = 0 or A-I = 0)
meh that complicates it probably a bit too much actually
:/
hm
uh
if they are square but idk if thats the way to go
why is there a need to show T is
invertible
yea
the problem is that
its possible for the product of matrices XY to equal 0
even if X, Y arent 0
but this is only possible if they're both singular (ie not invertible)
[or if one of them is the zero matrix]
no, we need to show that either A+I or A-I is not singular
since the proof relies on showing (A+I)(A-I) = 0
and therefore A-I = 0
so A = I
but that "therefore" doesn't hold if A+I and A-I are both singular
okkk
it seems you havent encountered this theorem before though
so
let me think if theres another way to phrase the argument
gimme a sec
nope, no mention of singular in this book
what book if i may ask?
Sheldon Axler
yay
$T$ has eigenvalue $\lambda$ iff $T^{-1}$ has eigenvalue $\lambda^{-1}$
Namington
yep
but here we know $T = T^{-1}$
Namington
oh ok
nope lmao, next chapter
i feel like there should be a more elementary argument than this
but for some reason it escapes me
is it possible to justify that A+I must be invertible if A does not have an eigenvalue -1 at this point in the book?
well they havent even seen the theorem that XY = 0 and X, Y noninvertible implies X = 0 or Y = 0
so using the proof i sketched above would require proving like
2 lemmas
lmao
probably not a good idea
hm yeah
like my first instinct here is to use minimal polys
but apparently those havent been covered
and im not sure of a simpler method
okay uh
how about this
oh wait no that doesnt work
:/
isnt the characteristic polynomial like one of the first things usually introduced alongside eigenvalues?
nah
okay have you at least proven the determinant product identity?
det(XY) = det(X)det(Y)
axler is known for not using determinants
lmao axler
no
okeee nvm
no, not generally.
S is invertible *
still no.
uh oh :(
$PDP^{-1}-kI=P(D-kI)P^{-1}$?
nix
they havent covered diagonalization
wtf axler
i really do like this book tho, its very nice to look at
very nicely layed out and written etc imo
idk seems like hes giving you problems that should be easy and not the stuff that would make them so
things Namington used in their simple proofs are usually introduced long before eigenvalues from my experience
how about this
My first approach was $p(STS^{-1} ) = aI + b(STS^{-1}) +\dots \newline Sp(T)S^{-1} = SaS^{-1} + Sb(T)S^{-1} + \dots $
and then simplifying
but err i must be forgetting something that lets me simplify
$p(STS^{-1} ) = aI + b(STS^{-1}) +\dots \newline Sp(T)S^{-1} = SaS^{-1} + Sb(T)S^{-1} + \dots$
Yes
okay, assume for contrapositive T is not the identity.
then Tv = lambda v iff v = lambda T(v) [do you see why?]
and lambda T(v) = lambda^2(v) since Tv = lambda v
so v = lambda^2 v
hence (1-lambda^2)(v) = 0
hence lambda = 1 or -1, but since T is not the identity, its eigenvalues cant only be 1 [why not?]
hence we conclude, if T is not the identity, then it has eigenvalue -1
by contrapositive if T does not have eigenvalue -1 then it must be the identity
QED
i just really wanted to avoid the contrapos argument
since i felt there ought to be a more direct way
like this WORKS but
it feels wrong
apply T to both sides
T^2(v) = T(lambda v)
then take lambda out by linearity
and T^2(v) = v so
v = lambda T(v)
should i use the fact that Length of linearly independent list must be equal or less to the length of spanning list
cuz the length of linearly independent list can be as large as possible (for every positive integer m)
and the length of spanning list is infinite
thats it?
how would u phrase it then
ooo
yeah well axler hasnt gone through converging spaces yet
o
thats sad
thank you tho!

it might be a silly question, but if z = ab +ib, why Im(z) = only the imaginary part?
because im z is the coefficient of i in a complex number
or am I mixing Im= image with Im= imaginary? 😂
yea, I see it now, stupid question lol
ty
what would image even mean in this context anyways
image of multiplication by that complex number?
draw a picture
exactly, too tired, not thinking straight😅

image(1+i)
hey, can somebody help me with my problem? #help-8 message
I want to transform point A in such a way that the base vertices are scaled on y axis by distance from [0, 0] to point P and rotated by the angle between X axis and line that connects [0, 0] and point P. I calculated the transformation matrix and throwed it to desmos but it doesn't work as intended. The point jumps on Y axis when P is on x < 0. How to fix it so that the resulting point is always behaving properly? https://www.desmos.com/calculator/knkn8a9cvd
TTerra
or more grotesquely, just write out both sides in terms of the entries of A and v and w
I know that <a,b> = a^T * b, but I have no idea how to use this
well if you know that, then what is <Av, w>
(Av)^T*w
Is it A^Tv^T?
no
when "distributing" a transpose, you swap the order of multiplication
so it's gonna be...
give me a min

what do you mean by swapping the order of multiplication?
(AB)^T = B^TA^T
isn't the dot product commutative
(Av) isn't a dot product
it is not.
ok
so <Av, w> = v^T A^T w
what;s the right hand side of the thing you wanted to show?
<v, A^Tw>? what's that equal
yo that's kind of hype

i take it you see the solution now




wait, is (v^TA^T) * w == v^T * (A^Tw)?
yeah, you got it
is the sum of two indefintie matrices always indefinite?
no
Consider $\begin{bmatrix}2&0\0&-1\end{bmatrix}+\begin{bmatrix}-1&0\0&2\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}1&0\0&1\end{bmatrix}$
ShatteredSunlight
how to prove this for nxn matrices?
so my homework :prove or disprove this statement: Let A B be nxn indefinite matrices. A+B is always indefinite.
I'm pretty sure my example generalises simply to n dimensions
But
0+0=0
And 0 is indefinite
AKA you need to condition on your n and it will be fine
ok
this makes sense
is there any more condition on indefinite matrices such that A+B is indefinite too?
so are there special kind of indefinite matrices whiches sum is indefinite?
That I'm not so sure just off the top of my head
,help
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TBH I don't think there are special kinds of conditions - sums of indefinite matrices which are indefinite are just indefinite and preserve the same indefiniteness
In other words unlike the 2, -1 and -1, 2 example above they don't 'cancel' each other's indefinite sets out
So 2,-1 + 2,-1 is again indefinite, because they preserve the indefinite parts
For non-diagonal matrices I wouldn't really know TBH
But I think the same idea applies
ok wait nvm, after looking online apparently you can minimax it, but seems complicated in general
In other words you allow mixing, but you do it to a level such that indefiniteness is preserved
Definitely more complicated case though
Igorro
Is this correct calculation of the vertex? I get a bit off results and I wonder if I do it correctly.
$\begin{bmatrix}cos\alpha & 0 & sin \alpha \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ -sin \alpha & 0 & cos \alpha \end{bmatrix} * \begin{bmatrix}x \ y \ z \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}x cos \alpha + z sin \alpha \ y \ z cos \alpha - x sin \alpha \end{bmatrix}$
Igorro
I'm rotating it around y axis in 3d
the-last-knight
If A is square and invertible, I'm able to do this
It's tough for the general mxn case
How do I proceed?
That is weird
Why will this hold generally?
One can always construct A such that there are non trivial solutions
It holds for this particular A
A is m x n, let's say. The basis spans a subspace of dimension k, k could be less than m, n
Let's say you do A(c_1,c_2...c_m)^T
The result can be seen as c_1 v_1 + c_2 v_2 ... c_m v_m(Not this exactly)
Smt like that
I think this is wrong
Do you mean c_n?
Also (c_1, c_2, .... )^T A
will give linear combination of the rows
not the other way round
Your statement can be true only if this holds
Wait
That isn't right
Please note that v1 to vk are basis of the rowspace
not columnspace
Are you confusing the two
or am I
oh man. I'm just reading through all of this ^ and I am so not ready for this semester XD
does somebody understand this linear algebra question
dont know how to solve it
i may use internet to solve this homework execise
but still, does somebody know?
Stan, do you know what the kernel and Image is ?
no, thats the problem :/
Aight, so the kernel is the set of vectors that gets mapped to the zerovector, it is also a subspace.
The Image is the vectorspace which thr colomvectors of your matrix span.
You watched 3b1b the essence of linear algebra on youtube, Id highly recommend you to watch this. It gives a visual understanding, which I unfortunately cant give 😦
alright, could you give me the answer so i can compare mine later if i watch this chat?
if its not allowed here its totally fine!
Aight, Im solving it rn
thanks! can you get steps aswell so i can compare them aswell?
The problem is in “hint” it says that calculating the kerA and B seperatly dont give you the quickest solution, but thats the only way I know 🙂
Aight
I found the kernel for A, Im sorry dont have time for the rest, Maybe later. Gotta do something rn
The hint that the quickest way is not calculating them separately should not be ignored
@viscid kernel if v is in both ker(A) and ker(B) then Av=0 and Bv=0
Notice that when you calculated Ker(A) you were basically trying to find v such that Row1(A) dot v=0 and Row2(A) dot v=0 which is kind of like finding the the intersection of the kernel of both rows
So finding the intersection of the kernel of A and B means finding the a vector orthogonal to Row1 of A, Row2 A, Row1 of B, Row2 of B, and Row3 of B.
uhmmm
just like how A is just the combination of rows (0,1,1,0,3) and (0,0,0,1,0)
but how do i put B into that matrix
because that is what you want right
create a matrix c
that is A and B together
put them underneath eachother
thats it
and now put all B underneath that?
yep
so you get a 5 row matrix
yep
how did you solve for ker(A)
that what @viscid kernel did
theres literally nothing different here except the matrix now
ye thats what makes it really difficult for me 😛
its like different for me so i instantly do not understand it anymore because it has more rows
if it had just different numbers i would have understood it
i just have to do the steps @viscid kernel did but then with another matrix right
the 5 row matix
matrix*
ok but what steps did Baklava do
if you dont understand what he was doing then thats a big problem
start with what is the kernel of a matrix transformation
how far into the course are you?
i missed the basics due to corona
so thats why im having a rough time
wait the kernel is the matrix = 0?
kernel of a matrix transformation is the null space. look for null space and row reduction in your text and read up on it
yes
i got the answer
i think
i looked into it and think i understand it right now
could i send it here and you see if tis correct?
its*
Hi, im not sure if im remembering right, but is there a way to find the inverse of a matrix, using eigenvectors?
So yeah there is a weird way to get an inverse using eigenvectors in a way. If you have the diagonalization of A=PDP^{-1} and D is invertible (no diagonal entries of zero or no zero eigenvalues) then PD^{-1}P^{-1}=A^{-1}
i.e. just take the reciprocals of the entries in D
wow, its even nicer than I remembered 😄
how can I use eigenvalues or vectors do determine if a matrix has an inverse or not?
The quadratic formula is $x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 - 4ac}}{2a}$.
cup
The quadratic formula is $x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 - 4ac}}{2a}$.
ok
a matrix is invertible iff it does not have an eigenvalue of zero
thats right
(since that would mean it has a nontrivial null space)
final question I think, all the eigenvectors for the eigenvalues other than 0, what do they represent?
I mean, they are some span of something I think
well really just vectors which stay on their span when transformed by A (multiplying them by A has the effect of just scaling them)
its true for eigenvalues of zero because the zero vector is technically in the span of any vector but its a lot less interesting admittedly
yea I understand the geometrical idea of them, but I remember you can take the eigenvectors (except for 0) and their span represent something, maybe the image of the transformation?
oh yeah they do span the column space of A which is also the range of the transformation/set of all images
yea, thats it 😄 thank you nix!

lambda_j
Yes
@jaunty sage did you do (d) yet
yes
& what did you find
ok I guess
Am I right in thinking the fact $dim(\mathbb{K}^{n \times n}) = deg(f)$ will have something to do with the answer?
moshill1
@nocturne jewel not really. just take f as the charpoly of B. by cayley hamilton f(B)=0
but using cayley hamilton is lazy & overkill. consider dim(K^(nxn))=n^2 & the set {I,B,B^2,...,B^(n^2)}
i dont get this part
i understand that v1 ... vn would be a basis
but not how they are eigenvectors
<@&286206848099549185>
also, thats a typo right, writing eigenvalues from 1 to m at the top but only having basis of 1 to n and matrix of nxn
The subspaces are 1 dimensional. So say $U_i$ has basis ${b_i}$. Then $u_i = c_i b_i$. And since $U_i$ is invariant under T, $T(u_i)$ is in $U_i$, so $T(u_i) = d_i b_i = d_i c_i^{-1} (c_i b_i) = d_i c_i^{-1} u_i$
Lunasong
That looks longer than it needs to be too, in a 1 dimensional space, any nonzero vector is a basis vector
got a hessian, looking to classify some stationary points as local/global, non/strict, max/min/saddle, but I'm not sure which conditions are required for each. afaik negative determinant and positive trace means saddle, that's all my smoothbrain can remember though
I remember determinant = 0 being a bit of a problem
You're looking for positive definiteness
The simplest global guarantee comes from convexity
non-convex, other than the obvious 'gotta check them all' I wouldn't assume there is a way
Technically you can use the multivariate generalisation of the higher-order derivative test too, but you would need to perform d^n mixed derivatives, where d is the number of dimensions and n is the required order until you get a result
that sounds slightly above the level of my module
Yes, this inconclusiveness is never easy to disentangle - go tell anyone who forces you one to take a walk unless the problem is small
The bottom point is a maximum due to the negative trace, but ye the det=0 ones are ew
is there a nice way round it? I guess just try to look at the graph and do it by inspection?
That's probably easier
Analytically it would be the same as solving Hilbert's 17th problem I think
In a general sense
I'll give it a go
also, on strict/non-strict - I don't remember hearing that in lectures, what's being asked?
so with the bottom point, it's a local max via the det and trace conditions, then also strict because neither are =0?
lil tired soo I might be being dumb but I'm not sure how I'd classify the strictness of the points I have
or maybe just the max, I don't think it matters for saddles
that's what part a is saying yeah
why is a) even relavant to b)
an inner product is just a function that takes an ordered pair to a number right
uh
<@&286206848099549185>
do you know the rules?
If your question has not been answered for a minimum of 15 minutes, you may use the Helpers tag once. Please do not try to bump your question using this ping unnecessarily. Do not abuse this ping. Do not individually ping users with the Helpers tag without their express permission.
yes
no you don't, that's rule 4
don't ping helpers before 15min pass
now look, axler says b follows from a, can you show it?
no
in part a, i just prove that T(v) = (v,u) (angle bracket) is linear
in part b
you mean after fixing u in V, the map T defined by T(v)=<v,u> is linear
now do smth else that should take 2min max. check that F is a vector space over itself
tf is a charpoly?
else it won't really make sense to you to speak of a linear map V->F
@nocturne jewel characteristic polynomial. but using cayley hamilton is overkill. consider the hint i gave afterward
ok, F is indead a vector space over itself
no, count the elements of the set
n^2 + 1
thank
@thorny hemlock taking F as a vector space over itself, what's its zero vector?
(0)
now we use a previously established fact that a linear map takes the 0 vector of its domain to the 0 vector of its codomain
so any linear map V->F takes the 0 vector in V to the scalar 0 in F
since |{1,B,B^2...B^(n^2)}| > dim(K^(nxn)), by exchange property the set is a set of linearly dependent vectors, which means the linear combination of elements = 0 has a non-trivial solution, which means that there exist non-zero coefficients
yepp
so THAT'S why T(v)=<v,u> satisfies b
@nocturne jewel yes linear dependence means there exist c_0,c_1,...,c_(n^2), not all 0, where c_0I+c_1B+...+c_(n^2)B^(n^2)=0. then take f(x)=c_0+c_1x+...+c_(n^2)x^(n^2)

what about if we dont fix a u
ie just take the coeffs, put em as the coeffs of f
yep
doesnt the inner product need to take (v,u) -> <v,u>


