#linear-algebra
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wait
okay first off
in the original problem, V_1 + ... + V_m doesn't even make sense, since the V_i's aren't necessarily subspaces of some larger space
i initially misread, forget about the previous message
so neither of 3.77 or 3.78 apply here
one way you could do the problem is by proving the contrapositive statement 
another way to do it is to ||show that each V_i is isomorphic to a certain subspace of the product||
a third way to do it is to just furnish a basis of each V_i
pick your favorite 
why doesnt V1 + ... Vm make sense? owo
because adding vector spaces only makes sense when all of the summand spaces are subspaces of some larger space
V are vector spaces over F
so? you can't make sense of adding two elements of completely different vector spaces
try adding an element of R^2 and a polynomial for me
so all the summands have to be subspaces of some bigger one
so that the addition of their elements makes sense
i think the easiest way to do it is the spoilered one
there's an "obvious" injective linear map from each V_j into V_1 x ... V_m
where do i go from there tho
and since V_1 x ... x V_m is finite-dimensional, all of its subspaces are
ok
well maybe the contrapositive way is the easiest since it avoids any funny linear map stuff

personal taste
T: Vj -> V1 x ... x Vm such that T(0,0,...,vj,...,0,0) vj is in Vj ?
is that the obvious linear map
it won't be a subspace of the product but it will be isomorphic to one
and if a vector space is isomorphic to a finite dimensional one...
doesnt the linear map have to be surjective also to be an isomorphism ?
good point
yes, it does, but note that i said "isomorphic to a subspace of V_1 x ... x V_m"
and not all of the product
since your linear map T(v_j) = (0, ..., v_j, ..., 0) (which im going to assume you meant to write) is injective, you can define an inverse linear map from the image of T back to V_j, proving you have an isomorphism of V_j with a subspace of the big product
For each $1 \leq j \leq n$, define a map $\iota_j \colon V_j \to \prod_{i=1}^n V_i$ by $$ \iota_j(v) = (0, \dots, v, \dots, 0), $$ where $v$ is in position $j$. The map $\iota_j$ is an injective linear map, so it follows that $V_j$ is isomorphic to $$\iota_j(V_j) = {0} \times \cdots \times V_j \times \cdots \times {0}.$$ Since $\prod_{i=1}^n V_i$ is finite-dimensional, $\iota_j(V_j)$ is finite-dimensional. Since $\iota_j(V_j)$ is isomorphic to $V_j$, it follows that $V_j$ is finite-dimensional.
TTerra
now do all the other proof methods i suggested 
suuure 
i think that proving the contrapositive statement is very easy
if some V_j is infinite-dimensional then the product must also be
proof?
just write down what "infinite-dimensional" means
i think you dropped an adjective or two
basis?
that's pretty much the idea
quite a bit easier than fussing around with linear maps in my opinion
the linear maps thing could be useful for other questions
but i think it's good to see multiple ways of doing things 
ya
also if you ever start messing around with like
universal property garbage
good to know i guess
whats that
i think axler is kind enough to not throw that at you, though
a certain property that a space has that characterizes it
like
"if space X has the universal property, then any space Y with that property is (maybe uniquely) isomorphic to X"
you really don't have to worry about it right now
ooh interesting
by uniquely isomorphic i mean, there's a unique isomorphism between them
which means they basically are the same thing

i swear i'm not an UGCT
is that a university :0
oh lol

Nope. Consider $A=\begin{pmatrix} 1&1 \ 0&1 \end{pmatrix}$ and $v=(1,-1)$. The only eigenvalue of $A$ is $1$; it's a Jordan block. Then, if $\norm{\cdot}$ is the euclidean norm:
$$
\dfrac{\norm{Av}}{\norm{v}} = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt 2} < 1 = \lambda_{\mathsf{min}}
$$
derivada.schwarziana
bounds like these are often in terms of the spectral radius, i.e. the largest eigenvalue in absolute value, since the operator norm induced by the euclidean norm has some relation to the spectral radius.
hm ok
any idea where this inequality is coming from then?
you can take this lambda_min statement as given
no idea. maybe post it in #advanced-analysis with some background info?
what is beta
probably not, it's more in case the inequality follows some other way
cause I'm absolutely sure that's not true (in general) for any linear operator
beta is smoothness of matrix, or upper bound on eigenvalue of hessian
the 1-alpha*beta statement is clear to me
perhaps it's because A is symmetric here?
so maybe the statement is true for all symmetric matrices or something ๐
if you were a linear algebra professor and this question had to be out of 10, how would you distribute the marks for each part of the question (closed by addition, closed by scalar multiplication, and standard matrix)
my linear algebra prof made it 2, 1, 7 for some reason is it just me or is that a bit unreasonable
the first two are sort of obvious and the latter is the important skill you should attain from a linalg course
I'd have done 2-2-6 just b/c I like even numbers lmao
2,1,7 seems fine to me, maybe a bit skewed but checking linearity is the most straightforward thing in the world so it makes sense
imagine not doing 2.5/0.5/7

2.75/0.25/7
True/False
When u and v are nonzero vectors, Span{u, v} contains the line through u and the origin.
stuck on this.
can you say why?
like, is it cause the vectors u and v could be multiples of each other?
By the definition of span as in like "if every vector in a vector space can be written as a linear combination of vectors in a set S, then S is a spanning set of the vector space". So by the definition that would mean that you could form a line along u which will also pass the origin because you can have 0, 0 (it's a linear combination)
same method of solution just worded differently if that helps
i still haven't learnt vector spaces so i don't really get your explanation.
but is the explanation in the picture because v =0?
span{u,v} = c_1u + c_2v. If c_2 = 0, then you get the line spanned by u. when c_1 = c_2 = 0, you get the origin
yeah
but c_2 can still be 0 tho?
yes
c_2 is the scalar
The scalar can be zero too
{0} is always a subset of span
thank you all
the span is just the set of the linear combinations of the vectors
nah man you're good!!
They forgot to say Let Z = this ...
wdym
In proofs usually when you want to introduce a variable you usually say "Let Z be this"
Z can be anything
is does say z is an element of F
Z in this case is the the fraction
You assume a polynomial
does that argument really work, I'm thinking over the finite field $\mathbb{F}_q$ we have the zero function polynomial $f(X)=X^q-X$
Merosity
it is ...
anyways the basic idea is that if a complex-coefficient polynomial has a nonzero term, then you can find an element where it's nonzero
that z happens to be one such element
then it's just inequality pushing
also an important thing , even if you take the finite field, F_p and your polynomial is z^p - z , I don't see any problem, why the argument doesn't work
(what's the absolute value or modulus of a coefficient if it's from a finite field, anyways?)
hm i dont get it still
what step
are you asking why axler chose that z, or why he's choosing a z in the first place?
wheres all the other z's
how does he know that z equals all those coefficients
ok
so how is it used in the inequality?
yes
ok
so using triangle inequality
i would have expected
|a0 + a1z +a2z^2 + .... + am-1z^m-1| <= |a0| + |a1z^1| + |a2z^2| + ... + |am-1z^m-1|
could you please explain to me, a coefficient from the finite field F_p, will be from the equivalence classes 0, 1,2 ...., p-1, so the absolute values, will also be 0,1,2,...., p-1 , and if we take that polynomial over F_p. f(z) = z^p - z , [-1] = [p-1] , so aren't the absolute values of z^p and z , 1 and p-1 . Or am I wrong somewhere?
z^m-1 >= z^j
@thorny hemlock he could have chosen X, y or Z or even S. He just chose Z
slimvesus
yes
yes
OHHH
ok
ok
ok
i see
so
he defined z only so z^j <= z^m-1 will be true?
ok
what happens in the next step?
sub in $z|a_m|$ ?
Yes
Yes is learning 
yep
don't sully that 
sorry

nice
it seems that some things go wrong if you try to define a notion of absolute value on a finite field, https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2410561/how-to-show-the-only-absolute-value-on-a-finite-field-is-the-trivial-one
from wikipedia:
The trivial value is the only possible absolute value on a finite field because any non-zero element can be raised to some power to yield 1.
im gonna try other books after i finish axler
trace and determinant on page 295 
are determinants important? :o
ya
axler avoids them
which is one reason the book is so divisive
(probably the reason)
well it's not an emote 
i don't have much experience using linear algebra, @wintry steppe would you mind tell me why
not using determinants at all is a mistake, but you don't really have determinants to use in functional analysis, I think that's really the angle he takes, but idk I never read LADR
the determinant captures the notion of the change in volume
it's a super nice intuition to have
it's also related to eigenvalues
So if you think about eigenvalues, you mind as well also talk about the determinant
the determinant tells you exactly when a linear operator on a finite dimensional space is invertible
which is rather important
axler's an operator theorist iirc so that's not at all surprising
the determinant also gives you the characteristic polynomial so you can find eigenvalues
i think axler defines the characteristic polynomial that way lol
that's not always possible
$\dv{x}e^{kx} = k e^{kx}$
Merosity
I'm talking about eigenvalues right now but there's no corresponding determinant
kek
what do you guys think about this book? https://www.amazon.in/Linear-Geometric-Algebra-Alan-MacDonald/dp/1453854932
linear transformations on page 113 
covers a bit of clifford algebra
i have so many pdfs
๐ดโโ ๏ธ
which edition is this?
there's no word on the edition in the pdf and the first few pages match the one on amazon
so i'm going to assume first (and only)
weird, he discusses inner product spaces before linear maps

i saw the title for chapter 9 and i thought it'd be some like
actual representation theory

Well, atleast It's not quadratic forms before vector spaces
well i can't comment on the geometric algebra stuff since i don't know that
the standard linear algebra stuff seems to be there, although in a bit of a weird order
what the heck is this
if you told me this was from IUT i'd believe you
Linear Transformations are not part of Linear Algebra? This guy has some issues
where is that written
๐คจ
i think it's done that way to introduce linear transformations with the point of view of geometric algebra
the book is more geared towards geometric algebra
there isn't many resources for GA out there yet
hi @native rampart are you drake
No,I am moonbears
bad
i think thats fine, its oriented around vector spaces
then it talks about linear transforamtion
but tbh it really shouldnt be called linear algebra , it should be something like linear spaces or some shit
Where are affine spaces,if you are going for ga?
there are also very limited proof based questions, mostly computational ones, that you can use method and solve. Isn't proof based techniques and approach needed in GA? I am quite ignorant on it , so don't know

Is it true that all for all 2x2 nilpotent matrices N, col(N)=null(N)?
Yes,You can show that explicitly
Of course. Just confirming I hadn't broke the law or forgotten anything lol
it's okay to break the law, just don't get caught
Well,No one understands the law
when you get too hand-wavey with your linear algebra proofs so ||the guards burst into the classroom to arrest you||
Hello, may somebody help me please. I need to show the equivalence of the following. I am using the determinant of the matrix and the subsets of Q, R and C to proof this. For II to I it's easy, but if I try the other way round from a complex matrix to Q I am stuck. Because if I have an invertible complex matrix in C, the determinant is obviously not (0,0). If I go now to R the determinant of the matrix can be 0, if the complex determinant is just imaginary. (I am not sure if this is valid!) So basically I can't find a valid proof that a complex determinant in C, which is not (0,0) is also not 0 in R.
you're doing what?
Trying to show the equivalence of i and ii, by going from i to ii
What are you doing?
I think you are leaving out some context??
Can anyone link me to any seminar for matrix equations
I need for literature
i can't think of good introduction
I wrote down everything I thought of, I think I am just doing it completely wrong
GL_m(C) is just matrices with nonzero determinant, obviously there are ones with complex number determinant that aren't in GL_m(Q)
so if you're trying to show their equivalence, you're mistaken
yeah I just noticed what I am doing wrong, I need to show that an invertible matrix of Mat_m(Q) it is an element of GL_m(C) and GL_m(Q), i have to prove this equivalence
what does it means about the matrix
symmetric? hey wait no, that isn't a matrix, that's a set
The elements are symmetric
The A=A^T part?
That's the definition of symmetric
If you don't know it, a symmetric matrix is one which is equal to its transpose
I apologize for a somewhat silly question, but i think i should ask it anyway. What's an intuition behind computing eigenvectors and eigenvalues of a matrix. I would glad to know about that from various perspectives(linear algebra, computer graphics, and statistics)
It's probably not a silly question...
I thought it is))
Graphically, 3b1b has a good video
Home page: https://www.3blue1brown.com/
A visual understanding of eigenvectors, eigenvalues, and the usefulness of an eigenbasis.
Full series: https://3b1b.co/eola
Future series like this are funded by the community, through Patreon, where supporters get early access as the series is being produced.
http://3b1b.co/support
Typo: At 12:27, "mor...
Thanks, i definitely will.
In markov chain stuff, the steady state is the eigenvector with eigenvalue 1
Any eigenvector with eigenvalue 0 is in the nullspace
If a matrix is diagonalisable (similar to a diagonal matrix) then there's a nice formula for calculating powers
Also, the matrix product $\prod_\lambda(A-\lambda I)=0$ where $\lambda$ ranges over all eigenvalues...
Element118
For singular value decomposition, it involves computing eigenvalues of $AA^T$.
Element118
There's one perspective of SVD that, if you arrange the eigenvectors by the absolute values of the eigenvalues, you get an approximation of the original matrix
That's useful in an engineering sense - it's the probably the 'simplest' form of Matrix compression if you will
And if you use the full SVD, you recover the original matrix
Yeah, i've heard about matrix approximation by means of computing eigenvectors and eigenvalues.
That was the only meaning of computing eigenvectors and eigenvalues until that moment. I just needed an elaboration in order to grasp it fully.
Well honestly Eigenvec/vals are quite deep, it depends on how deep you want to go
My perspective of Eigenvalue/vect is that they are 'natural' parts of a matrix
So, you mean that they are some "building blocks" of a matrix that constitute it?
In the sense that if you want to pick coordinates systems over some space, you'd probably use eigenvectors
As for building blocks of matrices, that comes from the rank of the matrix and how many eigenvectors you need I suppose
And what about computer graphics? Do eigenvectors/values have application in this field? For example, to represent some transformations or something.
This says yes to me
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Eigenvectors.gif
oh
Although computer graphics is quite a big area by itself
Other than transformations/scaling
You need geometry
By geometry I mean like, angles and stuff
For that you can't just use linear spaces, but you need affine spaces
Anyway it's a little vague what you're really looking for, but if it's a big summary I think 3B1B is probably a good idea.
The thing about LinAlg is that it has been generalised way beyond matrices of numbers and vectors which are tuples-of-real-numbers
Ok, i'll do that right now. Thank you very much
If i have to find the basis B of 5 vectors u1 u2 u3 u4 u5 so that:
what does it means?
i mean I know to find the basis , but what this ^^ adds ?
you have to find a basis only using those elements
so why does they give me the fifth vector?
what
if you have 5 vectors, you may not include the 5th one in your basis
you can only use u_1, ..., u_4
@subtle walrus so I need to find the basis of u1...u4?
sry i meant the span of their subspace
maybe, i would have to see the full question
that not in english so one sec
you have to find the basis of some (sub)space
but the basis may only include vectors u_1, ..., u_4
oh.. so what the way for the solution?
check if u_1 is in your subspace, if yes you may add it to the basis
then check if u_2 is in your subspace, if yes and if it is linearly independent from the vectors you have already added, you may add it to the basis
and so on
all the vectors are in the sub-space already
i mean the question says that there is a subspace which made of span of (u1,u2,u3,u4,u5)
then you just need a linearly independent subset of {u_1, u_2, ..., u_4}
so basically find a basis of that subspace that does not include u_5 as a basis vector
but there is only one basis
then find that
any body here?
just ask the question
What the differences between eliminating vectors by row or columns?
you mean row reduction and column reduction?
yes
they are fundamentally different
ERO preserves the row space, ECO preserves the column space
second, Left multiplication by an elementary matrix represents ERO, while right multiplication by an elementary matrix represents ECO
wait i think it wasnt my question
for instance if i got 3 vectors , i can use gauss elimination by taking each vector and put it in a row, or in columns
like this
do you even know what gaussian elimination is?
you want to create a matrix, that is not what gauss elimination is for
and you have 2 vectors not 3
yes that just was another example, im just confused about the differences
for example when finding basis for the span of the vectors, sometimes I see the solve with the left matrix and sometimes the right
you have two vectors v = (1,2,3) and w= (4,5,6) , so the span of the two of them will be span (v, w)= { av +bw : a,b belonging to F the field}
so you can write it as span (v,w) = a(1,2,3) + b(4,5,6) or as a(1,2,3)^T + b(4,5,6)^T
is your question answered now?
@rose umbra
just a moment i writing in in Paint
those are 2 ways I see the vectors are put in matrix :
i forgot the =0
i know that when I do it on the left matrix I get either infinite or one trivial solution
and this is how I found the base of the span of the vectors
the sub-space of the span*
but i dont understand when to use the right one
Ok, I see, just write them as the left matrix( that is written by you on the left) , and after Gaussian elimination , row operations when you get to RE or RRE form, the zero rows will lin dependent, the rows with the echelons will be linear independent, and that will form the basis of this list of vectors,
you know how to do GE anyway, no?
yes i do
you can write them as the right matrix too, but then you will need to use elementary column operations, the linearly independent columns will then make the basis of your list of vectors
what is RE RRE?
RE means row echelon form , RRE means reduced row echelon form
and when do I use the right ?
you can use anyone you want to find the basis of the list of vectors you are given, if you use the left matrix , you have to use elementary row operations and if you use the right matrix, you will need to use elementary column operations
So when does it matter?
it depends on what you like. I am more comfortable with doing ERO rather than ECO, so I will write as the left matrix
i understand
thanks a lot
If I multiply a certain row of my matrix by a paramater "a", I need to write the condition a not equal to 0, right?
Yes,If you want an elementary row operation,it should be nonzero
matrix of a system of linear eqautions*
yes if a is 0, then what is the purpose of the row operation
Yeah I was sure about this, the problem is in the answer of this exercise where it lists the solution of the system for every value of the parameter, a=/=0 is not listed
can't understand what you are saying, could you put up the image?
So I tried to reduce the matrix
and to do so
I multiplied a row by a
and I wrote the condtion a=/=0
I see, so upon solving, you got no solution right for a!=0 ?
the case a!=0 is not listed in the answer of the exercise. I just have a!=-2 and a!=1
i think that can be verified only while doing row operation by own
when you will be doing ERO, you will encounter such a case for sure, if this answer is true
How does the arrow head works on vectors? Does it change based on the quadrant? is that arrow always relative to the x-axis or y-axis?
you mean the arrows we use above writing vectors in physics?
no, i mean geometrically

There are non geometric vectors
Take polynomials for example
The arrow head is completely arbitary if you mean the physics thing
Geometric Interpretation is literally just an arrow. The tail is at the start point and where you end is where the head points
don't these arrow tell you the direction?
The vector "equivalent" of say a point (1,1) just has the tip on (1,1) and the tail on (0,0)
yes
whichever way the arrow points is the direction the vector faces
right
i guess i'm referrinng it to programtically
as it doesn't know where to point
i have to explicitly define a radian to point the correct way
you can easily find the direction of euclidean vectors
yep
Math.acos(Vector.Dot(a,b)/(a.Length*b.Length))
Is it possible to find the angle of a single vector though?
Is this java?
rectangular components?
Oh that's what you meant by the arrow head being different
yeahhhh
that's just computer being stoopid
that's what i thought too
so i guess somehow i need to define angles of this
i was thinking to take the angle of the vector relative to the y axis
If you know the co-ordinates of where the head lands it should be easy
of course I do
Ok so then you can just use sohcahtoa to find the angle
between x,y value?
If the vector is [a,b], then the angle it makes with the horizontal is given by tan(theta) = a/b
and that's the measure of the angle it makes with the horizontal line right?
you can see it like this, if your vector is $v= a\hat{x} + b\hat{y} \Rightarrow \tan \theta = \frac{b}{a}$
Kanishk
if it is a vector in 3D, you find the unit vector , direction cosines
im trying to prove that something is wrong but i get its true.. can anyone tell me where i wrong?
red is what i try to proof, green is given
A and B are matrix ofc
I don't think it holds in general (consider A=B=I), maybe you're being asked to find a example of A and B such that AB=I but A^{-1}B^{-1} is not I.
(and I'm not even sure that's possible if A and B are invertible?)
im being asked if this ^ is wrong or true
given A and B and invertible
yea but it didnt work in my proof
how do you know
its given
the opposite is false in general but when AB = I, it does happen to be true
@wintry steppe i dont think that true
itโs likehow (a + b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 is false in general, but true for a = b = 0
im being asked in general
no youโre being asked in the case where AB = I
this one
you are being asked to see if it is true in the special case where AB = I. in general, it is false
the general sentence is anyway when AB = I
miss click
no the general case is when A and B are just any unrelated matrices (of dimension nxn)
can you just post the question?
the question is not in english
let me translate one sec
"If A and B are inversed matrixs so AB is inversed and :
AB is invertible? or AB = I? these are different things
its the same aint it?
no, X is invertible and X = I are different
i mean if A and B are invesed so AB is inversed
i donโt think that AB = I is actually given it just seems to be a misunderstanding
and the language barrier doesnโt help
oh wait a second
saying a matrix is invertible and saying a matrix is equal to the identity are different statements
thanks brothers u helped me ๐
which bit in particular? you understand what it means for the map to be unique?
kind of
it means that any other map that has the same properties as required by the theorem is equal to T (functions are equal iff they agree for all inputs)
it supposes that there is some map with the required properties, and applies some theorems to show that it must be in that specific form
basically, all maps satisfying the properties are the same
which theorems?
it seems like just defining it on the basis seems to make it unique
well it uses the homogeneity and addivity of T
let me think if there is a better way to explain it
another way to see it is to prove that if $T,T' \colon V \to W$ are linear maps with $Tv_j = T'v_j$ for each $j$, then $T = T'$
TTerra
the columns of that matrix are elements of R^4, how could they span R^3?
i see
Does it span R^4 if the 4th entry of the vector in the span will always be 0?
is this true ? @wintry steppe

ya
the elements of the matrix you posted have columns with four entries. the elements of R^3 have three entries.
so how can the columns of your matrix possibly span (let alone be in) R^3
goood point
ok
that's almost the definition of the matrix product, just in terms of dot product
it's almost like the title is "Matrix product"
not really a fan of this notation
it's like einstein summation notation without the indices, but the context seems like it's just introduced the concept so it seems weird to not outright put the summation
with a dot instead of an index
can cross* product work on 2d vector?
You kinda can(with generalised cross products) , but axb will be 0 for all a,b
By definition the cross product of 2 vectors yields another vector which is in direction perpendicular to the vectors participating in the cross product.
But if you take a cross product of vectors in 2D, they give a scalar.
so, it is not like you can't do it, but it is useless and uninsightful, it is not defined for 2D as well
so it can be called an analogue of cross product which outputs a scalar
like for 4D, we have an analogue of cross product which gives a second rank antisymmetric tensor
I am trying to use a 3x3 affine transformation matrix to define a 2D camera (similar to what OpenGL does for its camera, but in 2D space). I am currently trying to figure out how to implement something similar to a zoom mechanic by zooming into or away from a specified point. Where the point is relative to the camera's perspective (affine transformation matrix).
My idea was to take the original matrix, A, and translate A to the point p, scale it by the zoom factor z and translate it back by -1/z to get A'.
You should use 2x2 matrix,in that case
I need 3x3 for translation
Ok
The 3x3 matrix is used to represent translation, rotation and scale. Being an affine transformation, the last row is always 0, 0, 1. This technique is used to manipulate the draw transform for HTML canvas elements (https://www.w3schools.com/tags/canvas_transform.asp), which I am trying to use.
Albeit, I have a separate library to manipulate the matrix before I set the canvas' transform to perform extra operations of my choosing.
So, the current attempt is:
$$
A' = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0 & -p_x/z\0 & 1 & -p_y/z\0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}z & 0 & 0\0 & z & 0\0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0 & p_x\0 & 1 & p_y\0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} A
$$
UnknownError
how's it working out for you?
It looks wildly off. It certainly zooms, but the translation is all over the place.
Translation is not a linear operator
it is in homogeneous coordinates like they're doing
Well, after looking at the results, the translation appears to move to an offset that is not intended, then when zooming out the translation moved to x' = x / z^2
not sure exactly what is doing what here, I guess maybe just try flipping stuff, like translate by -p_x and -p_y first
or multiply by z rather than divide, without seeing specifically, it's hard to say
try to constrain your translation/scaling to something tiny to see if you can figure out what it's off by, that might make it less wild
for instance, small scale and large translation seems about ok, but small translation and large scale seems to break, just looking for things like this
I am recording the results to a gif so that you can see what I am working with
lol, probably should not have recorded the gif in 4K
it's sort of hard to tell what's happening
I said all that stuff so you could figure it out yourself, not so I could try to figure out your problem
good luck, you're on your own lol
I'm not offended or going anywhere lol
I guess I got caught up on "without seeing specifically, it's hard to say"
So, getting back to the math, when z approaches 1 from the math I shown above, A' should be nearly identical to A right?
yeah probably so
When z = 1 that should be:
$$
A' = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0 & -p_x \ 0 & 1 & -p_y \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0 & 0\0 & 1 & 0\0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0 & p_x\0 & 1 & p_y\0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} A
$$
UnknownError
so when z is larger than 1, are you expecting things to look larger?
The issue right now is when I have z near to 1, A' != A
And my intention is that it should be identical
well it should be unless you're computing the matrix product incorrectly
how's it look like to you if you don't put the 1/z scaling in the last matrix and just do plain translation?
After looking over things, I found a typo and was not performing the operation correctly.
Instead of performing -p, I was performing 1/p.
So after fixing the typo and running the zoom operation without scaling the last matrix's translation component, I get interesting results. Hard to really describe what the results really due from looking at the behavior. The scale does not center on anything in particular while zooming. When attempting to zoom in anything on the +x, +y quadrant, I get a drifting zoom attempting to center on something in the -x -y quadrant.
maybe you've flipped your translation vectors around backwards
usually I think of subtracting first to center, then adding back in the end
Alright, this gives better results when A starts as the identity matrix. As soon as I translate or scale A, the center of the zoom will drift to an unintended position (not p)
Ooooohhh. So, thep was left in the wrong reference frame. I needed to get a corrected p such that it is in A's frame of reference. To do that I multiplied the vector p by the affine inverse of A. The operation now looks great!
Guys is it true for determinants?
Because when you add two matrices, you add each element a_ij
it is just not intuitive for me that there are different rules for adding two matrices or determinants
This would be true for the matrices, right?
ye
Both are true.
for understanding why that works for determinants, you will have to study the theory behind them
Thanks, maybe I will dive into it later
nonetheless, if you can understand, you can see this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2219163/sum-of-two-determinants
It is different because matrices correspond to linear applications while determinant correspond to a n-linear application (but I don't know if you've seen enough theory to underrstand the difference)
simple I would say that is true, because determinant is multilinear
hey why is this a direct sum if all the coordinates except in the jth slot are 0?
Thank you all, It's seems interesting and I will read more about it
oh wait
is it cuz U1 has a nonzero coordinate in u1, U2 has a nonzero coordinate in u2, etc?
and so that comes out to be u1+u2...+un
right?
Is it normal calulating the inverse matrix of a 4x4 matrix is such a pain? Im using the cofactor method
you can also use gaussian elimination
so solving AA^-1=I ? Where I is the identity matrix?
Exactly
ok thanks i'll try
If you could give me the matrix A, I could calculate this as well, and then we could compare results
You can always check these matrix inverses after solving if it is correct from symbolab also
yes
Find the coordinates of the vector (4,2,3) with respect to the basis {(2,0,0), (0,1,0), (0,1,1)} of R3
is the answer for this (6,0,0)+(0,2,0)+(0,3,3)?
no
thats just the sum of 3 random vectors
not what the q is asking
is it (6,2,3) then?
try and equate (4,2,3) as a linear combination of the basis
4e1+2e2+3e3
that's the linear combination I get
suppose e1,e2,e3 is {(2,0,0), (0,1,0), (0,1,1)} respectively
Hello, I have a question concerning matrices.
Is it true that the biggest element of the matrix of Cofactors of a matrix A, is also the minor of the matrix A?
2e1 + -1e2 + 3e3 = (4,2,3)
where did you get -1e2 from?
is that artbitrary?
(0,-1,0)
ye
For if direction:
Let v be a vector in null T_1, then
S((T_2)v)=0,but this implies T_2(v)=0 since S is invertible,implying null T_1 is a subset of null T_2. Now,write T_2=(S^-1)T_1 and repeat the argument to complete the proof
should that be -1 then? (4,-1,3)
For if direction:
Let v be a vector in null T_1, then
$S((T_2)v)=0$,but this implies T_2(v)=0 since S is invertible,implying null T_1 is a subset of null T_2. Now,write T_2=(S^-1)T_1 and repeat the argument to complete the proof
@native rampart everytime you mention null i feel like you're referring to me
Yes
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Sorry, I need to refresh the question.
The rank is the biggest minor of the matrix A. So is the rank also the biggest element of the Cofactors Matrix (since it is built from minors of the A matrix)?
thanks
For only if direction:
Notice that range T_1 and range T_2 have the same dimension,implying there is an isomorphism between range T_1 and range T_2,That isomorphism is your required S
ok
i dont get this
we are under the assumption that S is invertable and it brings T2 to T1
Consider a basis {$e_1,e_2,...e_n,e_{n+1},...e_k$} such that {$e_1,e_2...e_n$} is the basis of null($T_1$)
Note {$T_1e_{n+1},T_1e_{n+2}...T_1e_{r}$} and {$T_2e_{n+1},T_2e_{n+2}...T_2e_{r}$} are linearly independent sets
MoonBears-D-
Now consider the map from range($T_1$) to range($T_2$):
$S(T_1(e_i))=T_2(e_i)$
er
isnt it easier
just to
S is injective
So nullS = 0
implies that T1 = T2
so nullT1 = nullT2
That is for if direction
youre showing the forward direction?
ok
For the backward direction, is mine fine?
I am showing invertible map S exists when null(T_1)=null(T_2)
ok
MoonBears-D-
S is injective and surjective
ok but
we dunno if T1 and T2 are surjective
S is surjective for range of T1 and T2
but maybe not surjective in W ?
@native rampart
You know S_(T_1)=(T_2) for elements {e_{n+1},e_{n+2}...e_r}
Note for other basis vectors(i.e,anything in {e_1,e_2...e_n})
\S_(T_1)e_i=0 and T_2(e_i)=0
i dont get how you know that T1 and T2 span W
I don't think you need that
S cant be surjective otherwise?
S needs to span W to be surjective tho right? :o
oh wait
-_-
since S is operator, being injective implies its surjective right
Yes
why not consider this in the first place?
Well, You need to construct a map explicitly
Yes
S is an element of L(W,W),so injective implies bijective
If S is a member of L(W,V),That need not be true
Suppose U1 and U2 are subspaces of V. Prove that the intersection
U1 intersect U2 is a subspace of V
umm they both share the 0 vector? which is a subspace of V?
is that correct
that's a good first step
whether ${0}$ is a subspace of V or not is irrelevant really, what you should prove is that given $a,b\in U_1\cap U_2$, then 1) $a+b\in U_1\cap U_2$ and 2) for any $\lambda \in \mathbb F$ you have $\lambda a\in U_1\cap U_2$ (where $\mathbb F=\bR$ or whatever field you're working with)
derivada.schwarziana
you should've seen a result like this already?
how can i find a complementary subspace without matrices?
What information do you have?
hint?
am i just taking definition?
ST is injective so invertable and by definition TS=I also exists ? thats all?
operators?
It does for operators tho right
invertable, inverse exists
not an operator tho
oh
is ST also considered an operator?
cuz we can think of ST as a single transformation ?
ok i think im correct then
an operator is not some well defined term in math, it's just another way of referring to functions, often used when the map (another not well defined word) is from a domain that's not just some field
you can often mentally interchange operator/function/map
just wait until you hear about normal operators!
since ST is invertable
from the second part
TS = I also exists?
yeah
ST = I
o
but
ok
unrelated but i haven't been using the L(V,W) notation, what does it represent?
yeah im wrong
ah gotcha
any hint?
we've been using Hom() notation, pretty much the same thing right?
Not too sure how to prove the only if direction
the direction that we assume ST=TS for every S and prove T is a scalar multiple ?
the backward
ive done the forward
oh my bad
well T has to have the domain and codomain as S
thats enough? @ornate valve
ST S: V -> V
T must map something into V
and TS shows that T is V -> V
v1 = av2 for some a in F v1 v2 in V
@ornate valve
how do i use the tex bot? ill try to explain
put single dollar signs around math stuff and double dollar signs around math stuff you want displayed
try it
this is a test (suppose $p$ is a prime and that $a$ and $b$ are elements in a field of characteristic $p$). Then $(a+b)^p=a^p+b^p$.
skrub tub
ya
hehe okay
People who use p in number theory to mean anything other than a prime shouldn't be kept alive
Applicable to ring theory too
Proof.
Lets say that the field over which $V$ is a vector space is $F$ (elements of which are of course scalars). Since $V$ is finite dimensional, say with dimension $n < \infty$, we let $\mathcal{V}={v_1,v_2,...,v_n}$ be a basis for $V$.
\noindent ``$\implies$": Suppose $T$ is a scalar multiple of the identity, that is, $\exists c\in F$ such that, $\forall v\in V$, $T(v)=cv$. Now let $S\in \mathcal{L}(V)$ be arbitrary. Then, $\forall v\in V$, $(ST)(v)=S(T(v))=S(cv)=cS(v)=T(S(v))=(TS)(v)$. Hence, $ST=TS$.
\noindent ``$\impliedby$": Suppose $ST=TS$ for every $S\in\mathcal{L}(V)$. For each $i$, since $T(v_i)\in V$ and $\mathcal{V}$ is a basis for $V$, we let $T(v_i)=c_{1i}v_1+...+c_{ni}v_n$ for scalars $c_{ji}\in F$. Now define, for each $i$, the linear transformation $S_i\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ by $S_i(v_i)=v_{i+1}$ (the $i+1$ is taken modulo $n$ here, meaning we take $v_{n+1}=v_1$) and for $j\neq i$, $S_i(v_j)=0$ (recall that any linear transformation can be uniquely defined in this way: by its evaluation on each basis vector). For each $i$, then, we have the following string of equalities: $c_{ii}v_{i+1}=0+...+0+c_{ii}S_i(v_i)+0+...+0=S_i(c_{1i}v_1+...+c_{ii}v_i+...+c_{ni}v_n)=S_i(T(v_i))=(S_iT)(v_i)=(TS_i)(v_i)=T(S_i(v_i))=T(v_{i+1})=c_{1(i+1)}v_1+...+c_{(i+1)(i+1)}v_{i+1}+...+c_{n(i+1)}v_n$. By linear independence, this implies that $c_{ii}=c_{(i+1)(i+1)}$ and that $c_{j(i+1)}=0$ for $j\neq i+1$. Since this holds for each $i$, we let $c=c_{11}=c_{22}=...=c_{nn}$ and note that $c_{ji}=0$ whenever $j\neq i$. Thus, for each $i$, $T(v_i)=c_{1i}v_1+...+c_{ni}v_n=0+...+0+c_{ii}v_i+0+...+0=cv_i$. Finally, for each $v\in V$, since $\mathcal{V}$ is a basis for $V$, there exist (unique) scalars $d_1,...,d_n\in F$ such that $v=d_1v_1+...+d_nv_n$ and thus $T(v)=T(d_1v_1+...+d_nv_n)=d_1T(v_1)+...+d_nT(v_n)=d_1cv_1+...+d_ncv_n=c(d_1v_1+...+d_nv_n)=cv$. This shows that $T$ is the scalar $c$ times the identity and so we're done.
q.e.d.
sorry that took so long
skrub tub
Hi, isnt L(i+j) just L(i,j) ? Because they are linear independent
What's L, i, and j?
L{i+j} is a line containing i+j. L{i,j} is the xy plane
Oh right
can someone explain how he jusst factored out r?
how are (rf)(-x)=r(f(-x))
the same thing
nvm
Does anyone know why we use choosing when doing the binomial expansion?
choosing?
pascals triangle
I have a subspace generated by (u1,u2,u3) and I want to find a basis, so I put my vectors in columns in a matrix. If I find rank=2, can I conclude that my subspace dimension is 2 and a basis is (u1,u2)? (Or alternatively (u2,u3),(u1,u3),(u2,u1),(u3,u1),(u3,u2) so basically 2 vectors in any order)
But what if u2 is 2u1?
Wouldnt reducing the matrix and finding rank=2 mean since 3-2=1 the problem is only one of the vectors? But yes I understand that I cant know which vector causes the set to be linearly dependent
So should I throw away one of the 3 vectors ad check again for linear dependence? Is this the only way? Cant I avoid this check just by considering the rank of the initial matrix?
If you have 3 specific vectors, then unless the one is a multiple of one of the others, then you can throw any away
It's only if two of them are multiples of each other that you have to throw one of those out, but that should be very easy to spot
yeah that makes a lot of sense
so if one is the linear combination of the other 2 it doesnt matter which one i throw away. But if one is multiple of another one I need to pay attention to throw away one of those two
can someone pls explain why axler wrote z^(m+1)
how does he conclude that no list spans P(F)
ohhh
did he wanna show that the list of polynomials with degree most m isnt convergent? cuz there can always be a higher degree?
convergent?
A vector space is called finite-dimensional if some list of vectors in it
spans the space.
so if the vector space isnt spanned by any list of vectors its inf dimensional?
yea
ahah
thx again
wait tho if we have a set of polynomials of degree at most 3, is the vector space with polynomials higher than 3 considered inf dimensional
when compared to the set of at most degree 3 polynomials
Yeh
well its not really a vector space to begin with
u can say a vector space is infinite dimensional if there is an infinite number of linearly independent vectors in ur vector space
Nabil
thank you ๐
One idea is that you can always go either way with derivatives and integration of a polynomial
so any polynomial can be expressed as a derivative, so it is surjective but not bijective
but any finite dimensional vector space mapped to itself which is surjective is also bijective
meow
meow meow
(that means ty in cat language)
Does anyone have a proof which is even nicer, and has fewer requirements for knowledge?
i think nabils proof is good
i think they were talking about their own idea lol
not axlers
How do you know a combination of lower degree polynomials can't equal a higher degree one?
do u use the fundamental theorem of algebra?
so a degree 4 polynomial can be considered inf dimensional?
cuz that sounds weird
oh sorry
the dimension of the vector space
the set of polynomials are infinite-dimensional
slimvesus
Simple as told above, if a vector space can be spanned by a finite list of vectors , it is finite dimensional. an infinite dimensional v. space , it can't be spanned by a finite list of vectors
yeah, it's just that his proof was a little succinct
like fr get it
yea lol
We claim that P is infinite dimensional.
Suppose to the contrary that P is given by the span of k polynomials in P, p1,โฆ,pk. Let m denote the maximum of the degrees of these k polynomials. Then x^(m+1) is a vector in P but it cannot be written as a linear combination of p1,โฆ,pk because taking linear combinations of polynomials of degree at most m cannot give polynomials of degree higher than m. Hence, xm+1 is not in the span of {p1,โฆ,pk}, which is a contradiction.
i think i understand this proof more
its better worded than axlers
How would you prove that yhe orthogonal of the orthogonal of F is F?
What is F??
๐คจ
F as in a vector subspace sorry
youre trying to prove two sets are equal here, essentially
F itself and the orthogonal complement of the orthogonal complement of F
the typical approach to prove sets equal is to show they're subsets of each other
so you need to:
- show any vector in F is also in the orthogonal complement of the orthogonal complement of F
- show any vector in the orthogonal complement of the orthogonal complement of F is also in F
for the second part, it may be helpful to use the fact that a vector space is the direct sum of a subspace and its orthogonal complement (assuming you've already proven that)
which means that we can write any vector in the set as u + v, for u in F, v in the orthcomplement of F
if the question still stands: Assume u have a family of polynomials $(x^n){n \in I}$ and want to check whether $$\sum{n \in I} \lambda_n x^n = 0 \Rightarrow \forall n \in I: \lambda_n = 0.$$ Then u can recognize that $$\sum_{n \in I} \lambda_n x^n = \lambda_0 + x \cdot (\sum_{n \in I \setminus \lbrace 0 \rbrace} \lambda_n x^{n-1}) = 0$$ which has to go for all $x \in \Bbb R$. Setting $x=0$ implies $\lambda_0 = 0$ so following by induction u can conclude that all coefficients have to be $0$.
(note that this requires F comes from a "nice enough" vector space; this statement is not true in the general case!)
(it is true if, say, F is a subspace of a real or complex space though)
Nabil
@limber sierra Thanks!
Happy new years
happy new years
hny
lambda for scalars is quite common
isnt it cuz of eigenvalues
eigenvalues...
appreciate this lil channel
if we have PA=AP then what can be said about P?
or what conditions on A are necessary to know anything substantial
bc yea if A=0 then P can be anything
in general theres nothing particularly nice you can say immediately
the result that comes to mind is that matrices commute iff they have a common basis of generalized eigenvectors
but... thats not really practically useful for much
a necessary condition for matrices commuting is being simultaneously triangulizable
(so for some matrix S, SAS^-1 and SPS^-1 are both upper triangular)
this isnt a sufficient condition however; it becomes sufficient if you "loosen" restrictions slightly
requiring the square of the commutator [P, A] to be 0
rather than just requiring [P, A] to be 0
also if A, P commute and we know both A and P are both diagonizable we know they can be simultaneously diagonalized
(so for some S, SAS^-1 and SPS^-1 are both diagonal)
but if A or P isnt diagonalizable then obviously this falls apart
im not really sure of any other notable facts
i see
(the "commuting matrices are simultaneously triangularizable" result is actually a special case of Lie's theorem on representations of solvable lie algebras over algebraically closed fields of char 0)
(but thats beyond the scope of #linear-algebra )
now if you know some "niceness" results about P and A
for example, that theyre matrices from C^(n times n)
(or similarly R^(n times n))
we know that this means we can write A as some polynomial in P
so A = p(P) for some p(x) in C[x]
(and vice versa)
actually wait i may be misremembering that slightly
let me think
huh yeah i just came up with a counterexample lmao
okay i must be forgetting some condition
ignore that last point then
my bad
oh
this requires the minimal and char poly of A being the same
iirc
or maybe it required that of P?
one or the other lmao
in any case, still not a very practically useful result AFAIK
maybe its used as a lemma somewhere though
i was trying to prove/derive that for a real $3\times 3$ matrix $Q=PDP^{-1}$ to be skew symmetric
where $D=\lambda\begin{bmatrix}0&1&0\-1&0&0\0&0&0\end{bmatrix}$ (which is also skew symmetric)
then $P$ must have orthogonal columns. implying that if $\vec{w}=\vec{u}+i\vec{v}$ is the complex eigenvector associated with one of the complex eigenvalues of $Q$ and $\vec{n}$ is a nonzero vector in the null space of $Q$ then $\vec{u}$,$\vec{v}$, and $\vec{n}$ are orthogonal.
Using $Q^T=-Q$ you can get to $P^TPD=DP^TP$. By brute force calculation it appears that $P^TP$ must be diagonal (with $(P^TP){11}=(P^TP){22}$), which does indeed appear to imply the column of $P$ must be orthogonal by extension proving the orthogonality of the vectors mentioned about since $P=\begin{bmatrix}\vec{u}&\vec{v}&\vec{n}\end{bmatrix}$ (or at least some scalar multiples of them).
nix
so i guess im wondering if there was any way i could have known that P^TP had to be diagonal (assuming i didnt just mess up)
shoot sorry for the wall of text ๐ณ
Hello, happy new year. Might be a simple question, but: When finding the determinant for a 3x3 matrix that is multiplied by a fraction (in this case 1/5). Why do you take the third power of the five?
usernamephobic
Also, I have a question, how many hadamard matrix of order 4 are there?

