#linear-algebra
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so that makes 2*-2 = -4
i subtract 2nd row - 3rd row
then i swap 3rd row with first row
so that would switch the det sign
making it 4
that the answer I got but the correct answer was -4
is this a typo or
huh
yeah i think it should be 4
we have R2=R2-R1 which doesnt change the det
swap first and third rows flips the sign so its -2
then we multiply the 3rd row by -2 which makes the det -2*-2=4
i cannot find another transformation which would flip the sign
no column swapping or anything going on
yeah I was super confused about why I got this wrong
maybe its something neither of us are seeing and someone else can find it, but for the time being im reasonably sure its a mistake.
this is so low-res it's unreadable
I can sort of make it out. It's not wrong, maybe he wanted you to prove that the zero vector is not in W, and not just assert it
the very basics of it, yes
holy shit
am i in the right channel
thats amazing
when i added the 3 vectors I got 0,0,0
is that right
hmm, i'm not too sure how I would use that hint, my first thought would be to just solve a system of equations
i am supposed to prove this identity and im a bit confused
using that scalar products are commutative i should be able to rearrange and simplify the right side of the equation to 2* A(nabla * B) - 2* B (nabla * A)
that in turn should work with the bac-cab rule (reversed) which should mean that the right side is 2x the left side
is my reasoning correct or did i make a mistake here?
I am not sure, but @hallow kite maybe vector triple product may help
the triple product only works with a scalar and a cross product
the bac-cab rule is definitely what simplifies this
ah i found a hint, it seems to have something to do with product rule
If I want to prove a set in R^3 is a vector space is it enough for me show it is a subset of it (by showing it is closed under + and *)?
For example this set is clearly just a plane in R^3, do I really have to prove every single axiom?
๐
(please ping me if answering)
For example this set is clearly just a plane in R^3, do I really have to prove every single axiom?
Yes
A=QR where A is 2x4 matrix and R is 2x4 matrix. Find invertible matrix Q.
Although,you can significantly reduce your work by noting you have to show closure under scalar multiplication, closure under addition and existence of additive inverse and additive identity,and the rest of the axioms always follow for any subset
@vital pagoda
How can i find Q from there? I found R by appliying RREF.
? Maybe I am understanding my lecture notes wrong, but can I ask why I also have to show the additive inverse and identity?
Because (-1)v is the additive inverse,And (b) gives you that
And from (a) you get additive identity is in W
right
so the correct way to prove whether my plane is a vector space or not is to prove those four axioms hold, then say the other ones follow?
Just use this theorem
Because this theorem gives you a way to prove those 4 axioms
A=QR where A is 2x4 matrix and R is 2x4 matrix. Find invertible matrix Q. How can i find Q from there? I found R by appliying RREF. Could you please help me? It shouldn't be hard
rude

I'm sorry but I don't really follow ๐
Although,you can significantly reduce your work by noting you have to show closure under scalar multiplication, closure under addition and existence of additive inverse and additive identity,and the rest of the axioms always follow for any subset
That theorem says if you just prove closure under addition and multilplication,All other things you need to prove follow easily
Additive identity is 0.v =0,inverse of v is (-1).v(because v+(-1).v=0.v=0)
May i upload my question?
https://i.imgur.com/B3GbIDh.png
T:V->F^n
what does T do exactly?
B is a base for V
does it just mean that v in V turns into the base representation? aka v = a_1v_1 + a_2v_2... a_nv_n where v_i is in B?
B = {[ 1 0 0 ], [ 0 1 0], [0 0 1] }
v = [1 2 3]
[v]b =[1 2 3]b = a_1 *[ 1 0 0] + a_2 [ 0 1 0 ] + a_3 [ 0 0 1 ]
right?
I think I get it just want to make sure I'm correct here
ok so I have A^n = P D^n P^-1
where does the x come in?
just tack it on the end i guess
A^n x=PD^nP^-1 x
๐
It's correct. Though you could word it a bit more generally to include everything
Let U be a subspace with required condition,now construct U' by adding basis vectors to U,such that dim(U')=(n-2)
And repeat everything else with U' and V
yes but what are we aiming for
Well,What if dim U is n-3?
You could just reuse this same argument if you construct such a space
if we prove it for n-2 then doesnt it follow for n-3 too?
we showed there are infinite such X between U and V when U is n-2
dim U i mean
Well,not directly
then if its less than that then we choose the ones we chose before
do u see what i mean
I think you are saying the same thing
its like we proved we have infinite reals between 0 and 1. and use it to say then obviously there are infinite reals in total
i mean isnt the case with dim U = n-2 the strongest?
Yes
then do we still have to consider other U?
But,It's better to be explicit about what you are saying
yh i see what u mean
i just showed it for n-2
i still need to mention the other cases
ty!
This is pretty cool
Sheldon Axler - "Down With Determinants!"
https://www.maa.org/sites/default/files/pdf/awards/Axler-Ford-1996.pdf
hey look it's determinants-bad man
Linear algebra better without determinants ??
I will take a look at that
It looks interesting, and the determinant is something like magic
Do I agree that lin alg is "better" and "more pure" without determinants? Yes.
Do I agree that every student should learn the "best" version of any given course? No I don't. Determinants make matrix invertibility more concrete and calculation based.
The problem is, then, that understanding what a determinant is becomes important, and most people just don't.
I love the concept of determinant and I use it a lot, I m a student and I have no idea why it works
So I agree with what you ve just said
Determinants are another perspective. Eigenvalues give you a fuller picture, like the difference between having the coordinates of a polygon versus having its area. Knowing both is good.
In representation theory, you'll see the word "eigenvalue" a lot more than "determinant". Humphrey's "Lie Algebras" book develops along the lines of thought as Axler's discourse. Serre's Finite Group Representation book too, not too much in the way of using determinants to give you eigenvalues.
Determinants being thought of as oriented volume is sorta always going on in geometry/mflds. But I learned eigenvalues through determinants, and when I started learning the other ways of looking at it, that made me really happy.
I agree, you should know both.
Axler is arguing for not knowing one of them.
someone straight up wrote 16 pages against determinants?
already in the first like 3 paragraphs he's stated a bunch of things that are straight up not true in my experience
that's the end of that
Similarity conserves most properties
Like, take their determinants. If they're different, the matricies are not similar
The determinants are the same
The sum of the diagonals are the same
If you want I can give you the matrix
Another good thing to check is their polynomials
They are the same hahaha
If I say that their polynomials are the same
And one of them is diagonalizable
Can I be sure ?
I have no idea
$A =\begin{pmatrix}
1& 1 &-2 \
-1& 2& 1\
0& 1 & -1
\end{pmatrix}
B = \begin{pmatrix}
1 &0 &0 \
0& 2 & 0\
0& 0 & -1
\end{pmatrix}
$
AfterJack:
<@&286206848099549185>
what is the question
Find if A is similar to B
,w {{1,1,-2},{-1,2,1},{0,1,-1}}
,w {{1,0,0},{0,2,0},{0,0,-1}}
Well, everything is the same, haha. Then, we should try to prove they are similar, in which case we look for a matrix P such that A = PBP^-1
But wait
If I can tell that A is diagonalizable
I m done
Because for sure B is
Both of them, A and B are diagonalizable and they have the same polynomial, their diagonal matrix will be the same
And for transitivity, I can tell that A is similar to B
Wow pretty insane subject
Clever approach
can someone help me with this on voice?
like explain it to me
my teacher is not doing very good
@gilded solstice if A is nxn and RRE has n leading ones, then what would that mean for G-J elimination of the augmented matrix?
if you have done a), you can do b) too
you don't even need any gaussian elimination or inverse to solve this, just directly do it by substitution , will get the answer in a minute
still cant do it, sorry
try to find A(1,0,0) by writing (1,0,0) as a linear combination of (2,0,0),(1,1,1),(0,2,1). a similar technique works for the other two columns of A
why should you do this? you know how A acts on those three vectors
alright thanks ill try
and because A(1,0,0) gives the first column of A, A(0,1,0) the second, etc. (if you did the first part you should know this)
@wintry steppe That is indeed a good way to solve this.
what are the prerequisites for linear algebra?
some sites are saying that you don't even need to know calc, some are saying just calc 1
I thought you need to do calc 3 first then linear alg
you don't need calc 1 or calc 3 or any calc
do unis teach it like that too
mine does; calc is a corequisite to linear algebra, but neither depends on the other in first year
depending on the level you want to learn, you need anything from just a general comfort with basic mathematics (simple algebra stuff) to comfort with abstract mathematics (writing and reading basic proofs)
good multivariable calculus needs linear algebra to some extent tbh
oh so linear alg is in one way a prereq to calc 3
oh that's great news for me then, would it be crazy to take linear algebra and calc 2 togehter then? My local uni requires calc 1 as a prereq and I'll be taking calc 2 next year anyways so I don't think it will be that bad.
go for it
you'll be comfortable with using integration and differentiation as examples of linear transformations ๐
nice, what resources would you recommend for linear alg?
the book by friedberg is a personal favorite
its more on the "abstract" side however, i.e. not focused on computational stuff like row reducing matrices or solving systems of equations
oh
you'd wanna be able to read and write proofs or at least have some familiarity with that going into it
is this what you are referring to?
i say that since to some people LA is literally just matrix computations and systems of equations lol
it's a "definition theorem proof" style LA book with a ton of examples and exercises
huh
some people also recommend axler's book
those are like the two most common "intro theory-based linear algebra book" recommendations
yes that one
oh nice
I have show if this is a group or not, I already proved that it is associative, but I can't find a neutral/inverse element.
if you can't find a neutral element, maybe you can prove there isn't one 
@opaque plover P(M) definitely has an identity
let $I$ be the identity. for all $X\sse M$ you have $$X\circ I=M\sm(X\Delta I)=X$$ so find $I$ in terms of $X$ where $X\Delta I=X^c$
RokettoJanpu:
no prob
have you solved a) ? Just to know if it is really invertible or not, if there is any row with only 0s in the reduced row echelon form, then A is surely not invertible. There are plenty of ways for finding inverse, you can use gaussian elimination. Lots of other methods too. To find P, find inverse of A then multiply it with R you got in part a) as R A^-1 = P I = P
hi
If you evaluate the transformation at that vector, does it give you a scalar multiple of that vector?
So I'm a little stuck with this in a book, I looked up solving linear equations using elimination but I'm unable to figure out how they got from a to b , even after following a few examples of different questions, I guess I really just don't understand the method yet , was wondering if someone could point me in the right direction.
hello
i dont understand why the answer to this is no
in my mind we have that $\mathbb{R}^2 \subseteq \mathbb{C}^2$ and $\mathbb{R}^2$ is a vector space, hence it should be a vector subspace of $\mathbb{C}^2$
this is the definition we're using
oof did the latex bot die
mirzathecutiepie:
nvm it isnt
The complex vector space C is a vector space over the complex numbers. If they left out "complex" and said simply "vector space" they'd be implying real perhaps.
It's a matter of what your scalars are
if you multiply a real number by a complex, you don't always get a real number
they try to trick you!
bahah, thank you!
@torn vigil They multiplied the first equation by 2, then subtract that from the second to get $5y = 5$, then they left the top equation as it was originally
Apopheniac:
How come they multi by 2 first?
I think I'm struggling because the question is so god dam simple lmfao
to get rid of the x, to be able to solve for y
Ohh
Then, you take that value of y, plug it into the other equation, and you can then solve for x. then you have both x and y
guys does it matter which order i put eigenvectors in set?
Okay thank you, ima read over that million times till it soaks in to my brain
@little citrus the order should match the order of the vectors I would suggest
@red prawn i meant like 1 4 first colum and then 1 1 second column
of the corresponding eigenvectors, that is
mirzathecutiepie:
but it's not the same thing in $\mathbb{C}$ right? because i believe you'll have 3 seperate values in the complex numbers
mirzathecutiepie:
Well you should be able to provide a counterexample
yeah the answers provide a counterexample
but if i apply the same reasoning as i used to prove (a) (which is literally just saying that a^3 = b^3 is saying that a = b in R and then showing that (a,a,c) + (b,b,d) is in the set definined in (A)) i can prove (b) as well, which is wrong
So to be a subspace means it's got to have the 0 vector, closed under addition, and closed under scalar multiplication. You need to be careful about which scalars are used in defining the vector space as well (are they complex or real scalars used in defining the vector space structure?)
so i guess the problem i have is why i can't apply the same reasoning to the complex numbers
yes i see
the sum of cubes, is it equal to the cube of a sum?
what no
i meant that why can't i say $a^3 = b^3 \implies a = b$ in the complex numbers, but i can say that in the real numbers
mirzathecutiepie:
as a general rule, polynomials do not preserve linearity
wdym
if you have two vectors $(a,b,c)$ and $(x,y,z)$ it may be true that $a^3=b^3$ and $x^3=y^3$. but what about $(a +x)^3$? Does this always equal $(b+y)^3$?
You could ask the same about multiplying by a scalar, does this behave well in the set?
Apopheniac:
so you're saying that it's not necessary that, given (a,b,c) and (x,y,z) and the condition that a^3 = b^3 and x^3 = y^3 that their vector sum satisfies the same conditions?
what do u mean by behaving well, closure?
that's what the importance of subspace is, establishing closure
subspace you can think of as "closed under operations, and not empty"
yus
they're an exception bcs we can replace a^3 = b^3 with a = b
and as a rule with the way we've definined addition on the real numbers and complex numbers linearity is preserved
I guess you could say in this case, the defining relation happens to reduce to linear.
and linearity is what we require for closure in a subspace right? for like every subspace?
Linear and homogeneous in the variables.
wdym homogeneous in the variables
an equation/relation where everything has degree 1.
example $y = x + z$ is homogeneous
$y = x + z + 1$ is not homogeneous, so it effectively discards the origin
Apopheniac:
yes!
so that you can use algebra. specifically important to be able to solve for things, so you want to have a well-defined notion of the kernel of a transformation
How do I change the base of a transformation matrix ?
ah i see, so you mean so that we can have solutions to $Ax = 0$?
It's much like doing the 2-dimensional $y = mx + b$ problems in HS. Linear algebra does a lot with the mx part, since there's a bit more going on in higher dimensions. then take the info and add stuff in the affine problems
yes!
but just to be clear we can still do those
mirzathecutiepie:
let's say we have $y = mx + b$ and then we say $Ax = b$ then $Ax - bI = 0$ right?
Apopheniac:
wait nvm
mirzathecutiepie:
i messed up i used b as a scalar and a vector both
eh, not that important if the reader (myself) understood, but keep track of stuff yes
the y = mx situation is the motivating example, then you keep track of more stuff as you go. That's like the womb that you're trying to get back into, lol, where you can solve for things and do the arithmetic you're accustomed to.
Careful with using "canonical" with vector spaces! There's lots of choices made in vector space stuff, canonical means "true without having to make any choice".... Might seem nit-picky, but it's kinda what led to the creation of category theory
ah i was under the impression that canonical just meant that it's the preferred or conventional way of doing things, even though other things are equivalent
it's just easier to do things in one way
also would i be correct in saying this
im tired so if i missed the point i'd be grateful if u could point it out
I would suggest for the counterexample pick some specific vectors, that way you don't have to really do any more checking to make sure if the claims are valid or not - they'll be plainly visible to the reader
yus i will do that
i just wanted to be clear on the initial criteria
damn for some reason im not thinking as well as i do usually so if i ask the same things over and over again that's why lol
I think it's perhaps a bit less important to say "complex numbers have more cube roots", than it is to say "in the real situation blah happens"
oof where did i say that
um i don't guess you did in the white box, lol. just thought it worthwhile to point out. for a counterexample, good idea to pick one. then it's a done counterexample.
ahhh i see
i.e., specific values of a, b, etc that demonstrate explicitly what you want to show is happening
if I have to prove if an expression is a ring, then the neutral elements of both operations must be different, right? So if both are the same it is not a ring. Can someone confirm this, please
then it is the same operation?
they're elements...
If you multiply 1 by a non-zero, you should get the non-zero number you started with. That's given in the definition of multiplicative identity. But there's a (easy) theorem about multiplying by 0...
An important starting point that might be easy to overlook is the question are there things in this ring that are not zero in the first place?
are you trying to say the multiplicative identity doesn't exist then? since a * 1 = 1 but since 1 = 0 we have a * 0 = 0
ah nvm
abstract algebra isnt my thing lmao
so, e.g. if we say 1=0 and i am gonna use the 1 for the additive identity then a + 1 = 1 + a = a is wrong
so both have to be different, to ensure that this can not happen
Yyeah, but it should eventually come down to something you can point at and say this contradicts this other assumption. I don't know if a+1 = a explicitly does this without saying anything else
i was about to say division by zero might be a problem but i realized this is a ring and multiplicative inverses aren't garunteed oof
but what if i can prove that both are the same and everything still works
However, multiplicative inverses always exist for the identity.
If 0=1, what is 1 times 0?
its 0
Let $R$ be a ring, with $R\neq {0}$. Then there is an element $x\neq0$ in $R$. What is x times 1? what is x times 0? What happens if 1=0?
Apopheniac:
for both it is either x or 0
well they're equal, right? since 0=1, we multiplied x by the same thing; so whatever we get from either, these must be the same.
yes that's right
do you notice the contradiction?
except of both 1 and 0 give me the same thing, not really
oh wait. me stupid, yeah sure
So , e.g. how would you define the identities of this
For the symmetric difference it is the empty set
but for the union too?
To me both of these things I like to think of as a sum... does the distributive property hold?
Each operation may still have their own null/identity element. But the distributive property is what tells you how they interact with each other. Otherwise, more or less, you would consider these as incompatible in the desired ring sense
so basically if I get that both identies "are the same" then probably the distributive property is not met
or does it depend on the specific case
Well you'd have to make sure the multiply by zero theorem holds, but that theorem relies on distributive property
If you don't have distributive, then it doesn't tell you anything
("it" meaning the theorem doesn't hold, so you can't draw a conclusion from it)
yeah got it, thank you very much for your help
T = x + 1 is injective transformation?
it's not linear in the #linear-algebra sense, but it is injective
Let's say that f(x) = x^2, g(x) = 2x, h(x) = 3, and z(x) = f(x) + g(x) + h(x).
Does it make sense to say "What is the span of z"?
or, "What is the span of {f, g, h}?"
the span of z makes sense
but it's distinct from the span of {f,g,h}
span of z is one dimensional, the span of f,g,h is 3 dimensional
I see, thanks
you're welcome
@round coral since A is not square matrix there is no A^-1 am i wrong? I solved the part a.
I need help for part B
For b), It's about using elementary matrices to reduce A into R.
P.34-38 might help
it's same for part c too right?
yeah of course it's same sorry
thank you very much!
I suspected it's about elementary matrices but i thought there would be an easy way

jan Niku:
ive double checked that this thing has an eigenvalue of $a+b-1$
jan Niku:
so then we have an A-lI of $\begin{pmatrix} 1-b & 1-a \ 1-b & 1-a \end{pmatrix}$
jan Niku:
then for the eigenvector for this eigenvalue, we should have $\vec v = \begin{pmatrix} 1-b \ a-1 \end{pmatrix}$
which part?
v should be in the kernel of A-ฮปI
jan Niku:
reverse the components of that and it'll be correct
i understand what you mean mechanically but i dont get why its true
isnt 1-b in the x_1 spot
why reverse the components?

doesnt $\left( \begin{array}{cc|c} 1-b & 1-a & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{array} \right) \to \vec v = \begin{pmatrix} 1-b \ -(1-a) \end{pmatrix}$
jan Niku:
why?
(1-b)(1-b) + (1-a)(a-1) is not 0
cause you put them in the wrong spots
? what
1-b should be there
since 1-b = a-(a+b-1)
they are in the correct spots

jan Niku:
why do i get to just reverse them
$\alpha x_1 + \beta x_2 = 0$ has a nonzero solution given by $(x_1, x_2) = (\beta, -\alpha)$
Ann:
so long as alpha and beta aren't both zero
wait what 
don't overthink it
"just plug it in"
wym usual method
the one i said
the SOE says x_1 (1-b) + x_2 (1-a) = 0
then subtract
x_1 (1-b) = x_2 (a-1)
then uhh
now im second guessing myself
youd usually just pull them directly from the SOE though
like if you had 1x_1 + 3x_2 = 0
your EV would be (1, -3)
you can set x1 to (a-1) and x2 to (1-b)
not (3, -1)
๐thats how weve been doing it all semester
i mean beyond this semester thats how weve been doing matrix SOEs in every class
(1, -3) does not solve x_1 + 3x_2 = 0
i dont think its supposed to?
what the fuck are you even doing anymore
bruh
idk why im confused on this
im doing it the way ive been doing it all semester
hrm
$E_{2,1}(-1)P_{1,2}E_{1,2}(1)$
secondluckyshot314:
secondluckyshot314:
$b.E_{1,2}D_2(-1)$
secondluckyshot314:
$D_2(-1)E_{2,1}(-1)E_{1,2}(1)$
secondluckyshot314:
or $D_{2}(-1)E_{1,2}(1)$
secondluckyshot314:
All matrices are nxn
hello, this seems to me to be a yes but the answer key says it's no
i mean, it has the identity function $g(x) = 0$, it's closed under scalar multiplication and under addition
mirzathecutiepie:
and that's how we've been proving this all up to now
I guess ill just show my solution
Are you thinking of constant functions?
let $S = {f \in \mathbb{R}^{\mathbb{R}} \mid f(x) = f(x+p) \forall x \in \mathb{R} \text{ and } p \in \mathbb{R}^+}$
well a constant function would be included in the definition, no?
what you've described there is too narrow
the period need not be a positive integer
ohhh
the sine function is periodic yet its period is 2pi which is definitely not an integer
Ahhhh yes it needs to be a positive real number
anyway if youre talking about the set of ALL periodic functions
it's easy to find a counterexample to closure under addition
mirzathecutiepie:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
hm but what's confusing me is for some reason the proof that we've doing up till now is working for this too
what proof
scalar closure holds
the identity is in here so we don't need to show that
addition closure does not
take the sum of a 1-periodic function and a sqrt(2)-periodic function
neither one constant
what would the period of the sum be?
But if i have two functions g,f then $h(x) = (g+f)(x) = g(x) + f(x)$ and $h(x+p) = (g+f)(x+p) = f(x+p) + g(x+p) = f(x) + g(x) = h(x)$ and hence the sum is also in the set S
mirzathecutiepie:
bold of you to assume the functions will have the same period!
if you look at the functions which are p-periodic for some specific p
you do get a subspace
but if you look at all the periodic functions with all periods
you can take one with period 1 and another with period sqrt(2) and suddenly what you have is no longer periodic
wait why is that?
Wait wait couldn't we have the condition
that the two periods be coprime in a sense?
like if one has a period of 2 and the other has a period of 4
then the sum of them would also be periodic
maybe it has a period of 2 or a period of 4 or some other number but it will have a period, right?
look at my example more carefully
period 1 and period sqrt(2)
imma be more explicit
yes
let f be 1-periodic with f(x) = x for x โ [0,1)
and let g be sqrt(2)-periodic with g(x) = x for x โ [0, sqrt(2))
that's kind of what im saying bcs sqrt(2) is irrational, in a sense the two are coprime-ish
yes i think that makes sense
i think the answer key uses the examples of cos and sin
using the same examples of a 1-periodic and sqrt(2)-periodic function
i went with more straightforward sawtooth functions
yes
i now see how this works
what i understand is in the definition it requires that f(x) = f(x+p) for each x, and 0 is a value that x can take, so we can reduce this requirement to f(0) = f(p) GIVEN THAT THE FUNCTION'S DOMAIN INCLUDES 0, right?
Well not reduce the requirement, but if we can find an error in this reduced form, then it wont hold for all of x
lol im making no sense
But if we see no contradiction, we're going to have to move on to the stronger form which is f(x+p) = f(x)
i mean for a counterexample you have control over what functions you consider
i found it easier to do sawtooths
yea
so wait your counterexample would work with a say
2 periodic and 3 periodic function?
oh so this only works if we're considering one that's irrational and another that's rational?
not exactly
the ratio of the periods must be irrational for my counterexample to work
if $f$ is $p$-periodic and $g$ is $\frac{mp}{n}$-periodic where $m, n \in \bZ$ then $f+g$ will be $mp$-periodic
Ann:
oof how do we know that
$f(x+mp) = f(x)$
Ann:
$g(x+mp) = g(x + n \cdot \tfrac{mp}{n})$
Ann:
oh i think i get it
maybe
so this is kinda like LCMs?
the period will be the LCM of the period of the two functions?
wait wouldn't it be
if $f$ is $p$-periodic and $g$ is $\frac{mp}{n}$-periodic where $m, n \in \bZ$ then $f+g$ will be $np$-periodic
mirzathecutiepie:
it'll be np periodic not mp periodic, i think
nvm you're right lol
but i can't really see why ooof
Suppose V is a complex finite dimensional vector space, T is a linear operator on V.
If ฮฑโโ is not an eigenvalue of T, how are range(T) and range(T-ฮฑI) related?
If ฮปโโ is an eigenvalue of T, how are range(T) and range(T-ฮปI) related?
I am hoping there is some nice way to characterize that. If not, I would also be interested to know that. I am asking this, because currently I am studying generalized eigenspaces, nilpotent operators, and polynomials of operators. And I have this question which will hopefully make stuff clearer.
if x is not eigenvalue, null space of (T-xI) consists only of zero vector
Which means range(T) is same as range (T-xI)
If x is eigenvalue,null space (T-xI) has a dimension>0,implying range (T-xI) is a subspace of range (T)
@native rampart thanks. Somehow, I totally forgot that T-ฮฑI is bijective iff ฮฑ is not an eigenvalue of T.
oof i still don't think i get this, so here's what i've done so far
Let $f$ be 1-periodic w/ f(x) = x for $x \in [0,1)$
and $g$ be $\sqrt{2}$-periodic w/ g(x) = x for $x \in [0, \sqrt{2})$
Then $h(x) = f(x) = g(x)$.
$h(x)$ has domain $x \in [0, 1)$, assuming it is periodic, there must be $p \in [0,1)$ such taht
h(x+p) = h(x)
0 is in the domain of h(x) hence we can do
h(p) = h(0)
So but h(0) = 0
so h(p) = 0
mirzathecutiepie:
Where do i go from here?
This doesn't directly answer the question but i'm hoping understanding this will help me in understandnig a solution
@native rampart I think you're a little mistaken. If T itself is non-invertible, and ฮฑ is not an eigenvalue of T, then range(T) is not the same as range(T-ฮฑI).
Mb
T could send v to 0,but (T-xI)v wouldn't be zero
I think rank (T-xI) will always be n,if T is a linear operator from a n dimensional space
Because (T-xI) cannot map a nonzero vector to zero
yes
I don't think you can say anything when x is eigenvalue(nonzero)
Because elements in nullspace wouldn't be mapped to zero under T,while some elements in range T will be mapped to zero
I agree. I can say something useful when ฮป is an eigenvalue but T is invertible, though.
yes
dim(range(T-xI))=dim(null(T))+dim(range(T))-dim(x eigenspace)
Because only elements in x eigenspace get mapped to zero
Yes, though it's easier to replace dim(null(T))+dim(range(T)) with just dim(V)
Yes
Now, I am trying to figure out if I can somehow nicely describe the range of
(T-ฮป_1 I)(T-ฮป_2 I)...(T-ฮป_k I) depending on whether the lambdas are eigenvalues or not.
If lambda_i is not an eigen value you can just ignore that term, because it would be a bijection
Indeed, and because polynomials of T commute, so we can put the bijections first.
If you apply (T-xI) , where x is an eigenvalue,You remove all the x eigenvectors
If you remove those vectors to form a new vector space,(T-xI) would be a bijection on that space
When you say I remove them, do you mean that they are not in range of (T-xI)?
I mean remove vectors v such that (T-xI)v=0
Yeah, I know how the null space of T-xI looks, but I don't know how range of T-xI looks ๐ฆ
Well,If you restrict the operator to that new space,(T(restricted)-xI) will be a bijection
Because x is not an eigenvalue of that new restricted T
I don't understand, are you right now talking about T-xI and T-xI or about T-xI and T-yI for xโ y?
Are you familiar with operators restricted to a subspace
Basically, You make a new function U such that it's identical to T,but is defined only on a subspace of V
Are you familiar with operators restricted to a subspace
yes
So,We are talking about T restricted to the new subspace which is the vector space but without any eigenvector corresponding to x
Ok,I think That isn't quite true
Suppose x_1 and x_2 are distinct eigenvalues of T. Then what can I say about (T-x_1 I) restricted to range(T-x_2 I)?
It's a bijection on that space
why?
Sorry,mb
Range(T-x_2I) consists of all vectors except those with eigen value x_2
Which means it contains vectors with eigen value x_1
$$T=\begin{bmatrix} 2&0\0&3\\end{bmatrix}$$
Phi:
With this T, (T-2I)(T-3I)=0
Therefore, T-2I restricted to range(T-3I) is not bijective
Yes
Ok,It doesn't work that nicely
@native rampart you helped me with the original question. Thanks for that. I think we can leave it at that.
I think you can derive the primary decomposition theorem this way
@native rampart What is primary decomposition theorem? Decomposition of a vector space as sum of generalized eigenspaces? Jordan decomposition? Something else?
Wikipedia gives this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Primary_decomposition
In mathematics, the LaskerโNoether theorem states that every Noetherian ring is a Lasker ring, which means that every ideal can be decomposed as an intersection, called primary decomposition, of finitely many primary ideals (which are related to, but not quite the same as, pow...
Sum of generalized eigenspaces
alright
I meant to say (T-3I) is a bijection on {(1,0)}(Subspace obtained by removing (0,1))
I've covered that decomposition recently. I haven't reached Jordan decomposition yet. I am a little bit annoyed about polynomials over linear operators, because everything about them seems complicated.
if im not interrupting can i ask a question
Number 10 is just the base case for induction that can be used to prove 11, right?
it can be, yes
Not if there are uncountably infinite subspaces
I'm just a little way of this because earlier we proved that if $U,W$ are subspaces of a vector space $V$ then $U + W$ is a direct sum iff $U \cap W = {0}$ and the book said that this can't generalize to testing for the intersection of n subspaces, and these two seem kinda similar
mirzathecutiepie:
oof we haven't even touched the uncountably infinite subspaces thing
you dont need induction for 11
yeah i proved it using two ways
you can reduce any n intersections to an intersection of two subspaces
but the induction proof is shorter
what are uncountably infinite subspaces?
*Uncountably infinite number of subspaces
hm how are these two different?
Let's say you take R(real numbers),and for each number in R,you assign a vector space
Induction doesn't work here
i believe uncountably infinite means that for each number in the set you can't assign a natural number to it
and the real numbers are uncountably infinite because by the time you reach the number 2 you already have an infinite number of numbers before it, right?
ah i see so uncountably infinite numbers of things just don't play well with induction then, right?
I mean between any two real numbers you have uncountably infinite real numbers
Yes
yes, induction needs some sort of order and a rule to move from one thing to the next in the order
So like if we consider 1, 2,3 we will forever be stuck going between 1 and 2
i guess you could say that the interval [1,2] is countably infinite, but the whole of the real numbers are uncountably infinite then?
no
The traditional idea of what you think of induction, no. But there is transfinite induction which I think contends with this for things that are uncountably infinite.
there's no way to "move to the next real number"
let's say you start at 1
what's the next real number in the order
oh wait nvm i got it
makes no sense
yeah we have $n < x < m$ for any two real numbers n,m
mirzathecutiepie:
so you're right you'll forever be stuck going to the next real number
but the integers and the rationals are countably infinite, right?
Yea
how would i do b?
True or False: If S is a subset of vectors in a subspace V such that span(S) = V, then S contains a basis for V.
A transformation R^2 -> R^2 has nonzero kernel if and only if it is not invertible, in general.
@summer wagon You want to think of a spanning set of vectors as "enough to generate the space", whereas a basis you should think of as a span with the least number of vectors, "just enough, no extra linearly dependent stuff".
but isn't the matrix able to be inverted?
@royal ore The invertibility of the matrix that you've given is contingent on the values of it's entries
What you've found doesn't necessitate that it be inveritble or noninvertible. You need to show that the kernel of the matrix nonzero if and only if it is noninvertible.
That's what it's asking you to show.
so just show me inverting it and how its invertible which would show it being a zero instead of nonzero?
@royal ore I'm not really sure what you just said to me. But here's what you need to do. You need to show that nonzero kernel implies noninvertibility and vice versa.
To prove the first statement - nonzero kernel implies noninvertibility - you need to start wit hthe assumption that the kernel is nonzero and then show that it is necessarily non inveribile right.
So let's suppose that the kernel is nonzero right? That means that there exist a nonzero vector in $\vec{x} \in \mathbb{R}^2$ such that $A\vec{x} = 0$
TheDon:
You need to think of the various other things that this implies that can you lead you to conclude that the matrix is noninvertible.
how does x_1 * x_2 make the equation 4x_1 - 5x_2 = x_1 * x_2 not linear?
try scaling all the variables by the same nonzero constant factor and tell me if you get the same equation back
<@&286206848099549185>
what is your definition of a linear equation?
book doesn't define a definition, hence the confusion
wait
an equation that can be written as a1x+...+anxn = b
can your given equation be written like that?
i don't see any products of the x_i's allowed in your definition of a linear equation
couldn't the product of the xi be represented as a new xi?
ok, let's say "linear in x_1 and x_2" then
ok
then that means it can be written in the form a_1 x_1 + a_2 x_2 = b
can your given equation be written like that?
yes 4x_1 - 5x_2 - x_12 = 0, where x_12 = x_1 * x_2
the scalars a_1, a_2, b should be independent of x_1, x_2
and the variables x_i should definitely be independent of eachother
i dont know what those terms mean
i dont see how this isn't a linear equation
book hasnt defined independent or dependent
it means they don't depend on one another
i see if i multiply x1 and x2 and get say x12 then it should be linear
4x_1 - 5x_2 - x_12 = 0 fits that definition
x_12 depends on x_1 and x_2
yes
because you defined x_12 to be their product
correct
i dont understand the justification why its not linear
why should variables x_i should definitely be independent of eachother
book doesnt state that in def
maybe i can say it in another way
yeah i don't know what more to say, sorry
Linear is referring to the degree of the expression
as opposed to quadratic, etc
hrm
the book doesnt talk aout independence
you mentioned it
and thats your reasoning
but dont explain why
so i dont find your answer very helpful, since the definition mentions nothing about independence
Specifying that something is a linear equation is saying you're only allowing scalar multiplication and addition, without any higher dimensional multiplications happening or anything
ah i see, so only scalar multipcation is allowed?
between the coefficient and the variables?
If an expression is to be linear
Think of the scalars as something with no dimension, so you can multiply by them and preserve linearity
so by def only scalar mult is allowed, not variable variable mult?
Linear independence is a property of a collection of vectors, or subspaces. You can ask "Is this stuff independent of this other stuff?" and there's a yes or no answer
no idea what that means
book only defined basically one thingg at this point, a linear equation
so by def only scalar mult is allowed, not variable variable mult?
?
Independence comes later ๐
brb i have to go somewhere
Multiplying vectors together is "multilinear", and one gets into Tensor Products of vector spaces.
hmm can you answer my question because youre talkingg about stuff i dont know what it is
so by def only scalar mult is allowed, not variable variable mult?
In linear, you don't multiply vectors.
the variables are vectors in a linear eq?
sometimes you can treat them like that. There's a lot of things that carry over from the regular, one-dimensional algebra setup.
I don't see why it isn't linear, there isn't a good explanation i understand
"Tensor Products of vector spaces." doesn't help me understand why x1 * x2 as a new x_n doesn't make the equation linear
it fits the definition of the book so therefore should be linear
because then you have a linear equation in x_1, x_2, and x_12 and not solely in x_1 and x_2
note the "in ..." after the definition of linear equation you gave
so the variables are vectors?
and therefore not linear when you do vector vector mult?
There's coordinates, the components of a vector in certain directions

With the word "variable" I think of something to be solved for. You will encounter these in linear algebra, but I think what you're referring to are the components of a vector
As in, (3,4,5) are the components for a vector, 3 in the x-direction, 4 in the y direction, 5 in the z-direction
A linear equation in the variables x1, .. , xn is an equation that can be written in the form: a1x1 + ... + anxn = b
so variables are always vectors?
and so vector vector mult isnt linear
therefore x1 * x2 isnt linear
due to vector vector mult
the x's are assumed to be vectors, and the a's are scalars
You might want to check out 3blue1brown on youtube, they have some fantastic linear stuff
x1*x2 would be considered a quadratic expression, and much like in highschool analytic geometry this entails a bit more curvy stuff
this formula is supposed to return the angle in between two vectors above, but it doesn't. what does this formula do?
$\theta = \arccos{\frac{a \cdot b}{|a||b|}}$ ?
moshill1:
I know this formula, yes, but what about that one?
looks like you're using cross product, which iirc is 3D vectors
dot product yields theta ~ 167.3 degrees
how can I adapt it for two dimensions?
cross product makes no sense is 2D
cross gives a 3rd vector orthogonal to the 2 "input" vectors
can someone help me with this?
the last part
also for first part is it just |(u v w)(x)|?
and for second the matrix (u v w) should be orthogonal
first part meaning "what does it mean that u,v,w form a basis for R3"?
oh no then the next part
for u,v,w to be a basis we need {u,v,w} to be linearly independent and spanning
it means x=x1u+x2v+x3w
so |x|=|x1u+x2v+x3w|
but im not sure if this is what theyre looking for
right but i think its possible to get more specific
whats one way to get the magnitude of a vector
well that works in 2d but i mean in general
3d pythagoras
far more general than that. it has to be something we can do without knowing the coordinates
think about some of the operations youve learned so far that are in terms of the magnitude of a vector
scalar and vector products?
yeah the dot product
so magnitude is โu.u
we dont know what type of a basis uvw is
we dont need to
so do we just expand it and leave it terms of uvw?
yeah
id only bother with the square root at the end btw. no need to drag it along the whole way
oh right so just โ((x1u+x2v+x3w).(x1u+x2v+x3w)
exactly
how do they expect us to know which expression they want
for the next part do we want (u v w) to be orthogonal?
personally, i think when they say length or magnitude, the dot/inner product should be the first thing you think of
that will be part of it but it will be more clear once you expand out the whole expression
there it is
id still work out the expansion because that is necessary for the last part
but doesnt that get included in calling the matrix orthogonal?
since colums and rows are unit vectors
yeah the matrix will have to be orthogonal
ok so now i should expand it
nix:
and yes
akskhannaaks:
how do we use this for the equation of unit sphere
we know x^2+y^2+z^2=1 in cartesian coordinates
@hollow finch do we use this?
yeah that looks good
so for the unit sphere
would you agree that
x^2+y^2+z^2=1
is equivalent to
|(x,y,z)|^2=1
yeah exactly
np. gl 
do u have time for 1 more question?
sure why not
the last part of this
i showed the identities work by equating dot and vector products separately
but idk what they mean by the significance
is it just that the coordinates stay same?
so lets call (x,y,z) v and the tilde (x,y,z) v'
and the basis B
we're given that (v)_B=(X,Y,Z) and same with (v')_B and the tildes
RHS of the second line is v dot v' right?
and the LHS is (v)_B dot (v')_B
with me so far?
yep
alright so we have that the dot product of the original vectors with respect to the standard basis is the same as the dot product of the coordinate vectors with respect to the orthonormal basis B
i would say that is pretty significant
dot products are preserved through the change of basis
yes because B is orthonormal
third line says something similar. what would it be?
third line says vector product is preserved
so its an isometry?
yeah exactly
but i assumed that in showing that its true
the question is basically asking you to prove it
so i said v_B.v'_B= v.v' to show the identities
oh lol
yeah they only want you to assume that e1,e2,e3 are orthogonormal and they have those defined vector products
youll get something similar to this. and like you remarked before that we want them to be orthonormal for the standard definition of length to be true, youre sort of deriving that
from here the e_i . e_j cancel when i is not j
yeah exactly
i mean theyre 0
right
can i say this is true (Xe_1+...) . (X'e_1+...) = (xi + ...) . (x'i+...)?
The significance maybe is the wedge product formula?
never heard of it
The upside-down v
the cross product, vector product
oh yh so we can see dot and vector products are preserved
yes you can say that
Also yields the area of a parallelogram...
in 3d?
The parallelogram formed by the two vectors X and Y has area equal to the norm of the vector product |XxY| in 3-space
i thought the significance was that a point with coordinates abc wrt standard basis gets to mapped a point with the same coordinates wrt B
under B
I'm looking at a different prob, sorry
oh lol
the screen captured problem, #3?
yes
yeah, I still say vector product for the bottom identity
cant we see that from the top line too?
since distance is preserved
then its an isometry so vector ptoduct is preserved
Ohhhh I didn't notice there were two different bases. Yeah that would be saying that both the dot product and vector product are preserved under orthogonal transformations
silly me
its a weird question since this result has already been established in lecture notes
so i thought were looking for something different
can u help me with 1 last question?
its part ii) of qu 4
we already did part i) before doing qu 3
we know the basis are orthonormal
Well, you already did some invariant stuff with the other problem. The dot product is preserved for two vectors. If you use the same vector instead of two different ones...
we dont know if uvw UVW are unit length
That's simply orthogonal. So they've told you all the good stuff is assumed by these bases, and you want to prove a certain thing is invariant
so the equations are x1^2+x2^2+x^3^2=X1^2+X2^2+X3^2=1
Yes, and these are dot products in disguise
Yup
idk what they mean by the equation being invariant
Invariant meaning if you calculate the equation for a circle in one coordinate system, it is the same (invariant) as you would get if you apply your transformation first
Invariant under a change of coordinates
the sphere isnt invariant right?
or is the origin the same?
if the origin is the same then the sphere is invariant
wait origin is same
origin must be the same since its a linear transformation
it must be because they are linearly independent
so the only solution to c1e1+c2e2+c3e3=0 is if c1,c2,c3=0
by definition
well thats how youd prove it anyway
yh i see that now
and the sphere is indeed invariant under the euclidean inner product
so if the sphere is invariant then its equation is too?
no since the equation is based on your choice of coordinates (i.e. your basis)
yes but the centre is same and the basis are orthonormal
so basically if the equations 'look' same then theyre invariant?
i mean i still dont understand the concept of invariant equations
so if i have an equation and then i transform the space and find out the equation is the same then its invariant
i think i get it
thanks! ill continue the rest of the problems
can I get some help setting up the system of equations
not entirely sure where im getting the y vector
or the v vector to be honest
@mellow solar adj(B) for any matrix B denotes the adjoint of B, which is the transpose of the cofactor matrix, you can look at the wikipedia for that
basically the cofactor matrix helps you find the inverse
got any hints for me?
oof i looked at your problem and im afraid i dont know enough linear algebra to help lol
i myself am learning
shiiiiit
maybe someone else will come along and know
