#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 117 of 1
stfu and don't drag me into your bs
Sorry I'll stop xD
@pallid rampart you insult me though???
I said stop
hey this might sound kinda dumb but is the whole point of upper triangle matrices that they have the eigenvalues on the diagonal and its an invariant transformation?
I feel a deja vu
I suppose it's useful in backward substitution when solving a system of linear equations?
ok
a second deja vu wtf
hahaha its a similar question
Upper/Lower triangular matrices also lend themselves to easy calculations of the determinant of the matrix
cool
I remember somebody asking that question like 2 days ago and the first answer being bws sub or somethigng similar
Oh that's true
So if you can reduce a matrix to upper/lower triangular form, calculating its determinant is easy
sometimes i just expect something deeper idk
reminder you can use them to do LU
then p much do anything else
doing jacobi for instance
so it makes things easier?
well yes
its hard to pinpoint the motivation of concepts
sometimes they just appear in a bunch of things
and later somebody generalizes
im satisfied with that answer I appreciate it
eh not really sometimes that is th answer i feel like
i wasnt sure if there was some massive theory or importance that I was missing other than "it makes things easier"
but what you mentioned also is a point
theyre a type of matrix with special and easily computable properties
also appear in qr decomp for example
out of curiousity if you can reduce a matrix into LU form does that mean the original matrix would be invariant as well?
like does it exhbit the same properities im not sure if that makes sense?
dont think so
the answer is probably no, but cant say Im familiar with spectral properties preserved by LU
would have to search
thanks no worries

i love your emotes
Ah yes I miss Aragog the Acromantula
thought br was brazil 
there was a spell i thought was really cool when i was younger called brsingir
and i wanted to make that my xbox name
but i mispelt it and it became brzig
ah
then it just sorta stuck
unique enough
oh
not that unique
when my name is taken I just do
fractal+capuccino = fraccuccino
hahahha i like that
what is your username about?
@median forum
mathematics
yeah i know
but when I do nicks, its generally more flexy shit
like what
like paracompact hausdorff fractal
tangend bundle fraccommuter
i dont know any of those words
neither did I 1-2 years ago when I used them 
now I at least know paracompact hausdorff
tangent bundle is still kinda hard to grasp
vector field commuter is more general ig
I like the name PCLPCSLSC space
fractal is my known nick
Which stands for path connected locally path connected semilocally simply connected space
so I combine it with other concepts
but path connected is locally path connected
not sure, slim
in fact, Im not familiar with the concept of fractal at all besides the idea of fractal dimension
Path connectedness does not imply locally path connected
but ig itd be nice to have some top structure to fractals
isnt locally path connectedness having a path connected neighbourhood for every point?
not equivalent
if thats the case every pc should be lpc
#point-set-topology y'all
ah mb
your indices in checking the "positivity axiom" are wrong
other than that, it looks like you have the right idea (some more words would be nice though)
For b, you should have $\left<u+v, w\right> = (u_1 + v_1)^2w_1^2 + \dots$
@ivory basin
\left< \right>
or like big brain roka taught \ip{}{}
Lunasong:
ah ok i originally had it in that form but i changed it
what about part d im not sure if its correct or not. I feel like its wrong but idk where i would have messed up
sorry not part d i meant part 4 of part a the last axiom rule
Positivity? Yeah, any counterexample works
It would be better to write explicitly. If u = (0,1,0) then <u,u> = 0 but u ≠ 0
ah ok that makes sense thanks
I have z^4 = something, and have to find all z and give the answer of polar form, how do i do that?
Commander Vimes:
Hey, so I was watching 3blue1brown's series on linear algebra, and I was kind of stuck on the idea of viewing a system of equations as a transformation of a vector, since I'm not sure how to relate the understanding of systems as a way to find the intersection of two lines with this new understanding
does anyone have any resources that "bridge the gap", so to speak?
mit strang's lectrues
at least in the case of homogenous systems, if you enjoy your "intersection of two lines" intuition, you can view a system acting on a vector as "reframing" the vector to now exist in a new space with the "lines" of the system serving as the new axes
(at least in a very specific, very narrow 2 dimensional case)
wait
I'm still kinda lost as to how that happens
ngl
ok so
the way i'm currently seeing it is
a system of equations can represent a linear transformation because it follows the same mathematical rules
and so it's sort of like a tool to model a transformation?
but said tool can also represent the intersection of two lines
because they follow the same rules?
finding the solution to a system of equations is represented by an intersection of two lines
itd be very easy to get into some very sophisticated linear algebra topics here involving kernels of linear transformations and etc but i'll avoid that
lets just use a concrete example
suppose we have a system of equations
kk
2x + y = 0
x + y + 1 = 0
im keeping it homogenous (equal to 0) here for simplicity
of course then the solution is represented by the intersection of two lines
but each equation here itself represents a line on the coordinate plane
2x + y = 0 is a line (specifically the line y = -2x)
and similarly x + y + 1 = 0 is a line (y = -x - 1)
so now suppose we have a vector (x, y)
here this vector is just representing what values x, y take
the solution to this system is the vector (1, -2)
and indeed:
$\begin{pmatrix}2&1\1&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}1\-2\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}0\-1\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
you might be able to see how that relates to the original system i gave
just visually
(rearranging the second equation to become x + y = -1 might be useful)
yeah I can see how that works
so in a sense, this tells us
if we care about setting the first expression equal to 0, and the second expression equal to -1
or geometrically, if we find where they intersect when we set the first expression equal to 0 and the second equal to -1
the solution to that is the vector (1, -2)
but what if we try a different vector?
say, (1, 0)?
$\begin{pmatrix}2&1\1&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}1\0\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}2\1\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
this represents another "set of values" our equations can take
the important thing here is that
for any given input vector, we come out with a certain set of values of the equations
visually you can intuit this as
we "remap" the x and y of the vector to instead use the lines generated by the equations (2x + y and x + y) as axes
and then figure out where the vector would end up
under this new system
(in the case of the vector (1; 0) it ends up at (2; 1))
let me try and draw this
it might make more sense
that makes sense, though ngl I'm still kind of confused as to how the interpretation of "lines" fits in
like
idk the way we were taught systems was "these two lines intersect somewhere"
the orange line represents the expression 2x + y
er wait
i drew it upside down
one sec lmao
ok so the orange line is the expression -2x = y, the blue line is the expression y = -x
and the red line is (the endpoint of) the vector (1; 0)
but when we write (1; 0)
we're thinking of this vecotr in relation to the x and y axes
i.e. the white lines
let's instead try and think of this vector in relation to the blue and orange lines
with the orange line being our sort of "x" (call it x') and the blue being our "y" (call it y')
now if we try and "deform the plane" to make x' end up where the x axis currently is, and y' end up where our y axis currently is
Oh I see
wait but ok
if that's the case
say our system was
2x+y=0
3x+y=0
why would our matrix be:
[2, 1]
[3, 1]
instead of
[1, 1]
[-2, -3]
because if the new basis vector were in the direction of the second line
this isnt quite a change-of-basis
oh okay
if thats what you mean
we think of ``applying a vector to this system" as writing [\begin{pmatrix}2&1\3&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}x\y\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}0\0\end{pmatrix}]
Namington:
if you actually do the matrix multiplication
to expand the left hand side
you might see why
yeah no I get that
I just don't see how those basis vectors that we get are related to the lines on the plane
maybe this is helpful
my drawing skills are kinda bad but
the yellow line is supposed to be parallel
to the blue line
and the green lines to the orange line
note that we're making the orange line our "new" x axis, and the red vector is now 2 "green lines" away
and similarly the red vector is 1 "yellow line" away from our "new" y axis
this drawing is very bad since i was imprecise
oh i see
but you might be able to get the idea here
so those lines are like
the old basis? kinda
like
yeah okay I kinda get it, though I'm probably going to need to revisit this once I wake up
thank you so much for explaining!
yeah admittedly the connection here is fairly abstract
To find the transformation of [x]B I've to do A.[x]B right?
A is the attached matrix
Well if your transformation is defined by a matrix A, and you want to transform "x" then you do Ax @split heart
Alright and the indirect way to find T([X]B)
Is: [X]B . P . [X]B' . B . [T(X)B'] . P ** -1?
What are the dots and the ** ? I've never seen that notation
and the dots ?
multiplication
And what's indirect
I can't reallly make out what it is your doing.
Do you mean inverse ?
Your english is fine it's just the notation
To find the inverse of a matrix I make an augmented matrix with my matrix on the left, and the nxn identity matrix on the right
and row reduce until the left matrix becomes the nxn identity matrix
[A|I]
Oh yes, that's not what I'm talking about. Maybe that scheme is more clear
Yes
You're trying to see if your doing the matrix multiplication the right way so it follows the diagram.
One sec.
So the diagram is telling you two ways you can find what you want. I.e. you can take two paths $${[T(x)]}{\beta '} = P^{-1}AP{[x]}{\beta '} $$
That's one way to perform the multiplication to get the desired vector
And then there's another
which is ${[T(x)]}{\beta '} = B{[x]}{\beta '}$
JohntheDon:
That's what the diagram is telling you
Alright
Does that make sense?
yes I've to go through the diagram
JohntheDon:
but what happens if I wish to go from [X]B to T[X]B without using A[X]B
P^-1 A P = B right?
Yea you can say that.
I've seen Riesz rep written as both f(v)=v*f and f(v)=f*v. Is one of these wrong (assuming this is in a complex inner product space) or are they alternate versions?
for a complex inner product space it depends on which argument your inner product is linear in
if it's linear in the first argument it's <v,f>
if it's linear in the second argument it's <f|v>
can someone give me a bit of a hint on this
im struggling with eigen/invariant-related proofs
👍
oh I like that problem!
yea honestly these problems have been really hard
im getting stuck around 3
does anyone know of any other books that might have easier eigen/invariant proofs so i can get some more practice and come back
The text used in at universities is david c. lay and we used jeffrey holt at my school.
holt as a ton of problems.
perfect thanks
Can someone check this? I know this is probably in the wrong channel but I'm very anxious to know if I got this right or wrong on an exam I took
@tardy quail #prealg-and-algebra
A question regarding Direct-Sum of two Subspaces and it's proof:
Axler makes no mention of the mutual subset inclusion, but I thought that was necessary.
What's the working definition of "direct sum" here? That a vector w in U⊕V can be uniquely written as w = u + v?
mutual-subset inclusion is
$$\mathbb{U} \cap \mathbb{W} = {\vec{0}} \iff \mathbb{U} \cap \mathbb{W} \subseteq {\vec{0}} \text{ & } {\vec{0}} \subseteq \mathbb{U} \cap \mathbb{W}$$
ninnymonger:
Oh. Extensionality of set equality.
this is lecture video about the same proof from the same book, it also makes no mention of the double subset inclusion: https://youtu.be/wUEmkt7Qxck?t=199
The first part checks out.
of my proof?
Yeah, you proved the one direction just fine.
kk, tyty.
Although I wonder if there's a more direct, intuitive way of doing it. But your proof is valid, for sure.
θ is in U and it's in W, therefore, θ = θ + 0 = is one decomposition into U⊕V while θ = 0 + θ is another.
but since you have a unique decomposition, you get the factors equal to each other: θ = 0 (and on the other side, 0 = θ)
But that might come off as more hand-wavy without taking time to establish that such a unification argument is valid
is there some possible simplification to this
$\vec{b}\times(\vec{a}\times\vec{b})$
nix:
It would be easy enough to check by components, I'd think
Or to look it up on Wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vector_calculus_identities
feel free to check my work but this is what i got and i dont see anything immediately
$\begin{vmatrix}0&b_3&b_2\a_1&a_2&a_3\b_1&b_2&b_3\end{vmatrix}\vec{i}+\begin{vmatrix}b_3&0&-b_1\a_1&a_2&a_3\b_1&b_2&b_3\end{vmatrix}\vec{j}-\begin{vmatrix}b_2&b_1&0\a_1&a_2&a_3\b_1&b_2&b_3\end{vmatrix}\vec{k}$
nix:
or this but i dont think its much better lol
$\begin{vmatrix}(b_3\vec{j}-b_2\vec{k})&(b_3\vec{i}-b_1\vec{k})&(b_3\vec{i}-b_1\vec{j})\a_1&a_2&a_3\b_1&b_2&b_3\end{vmatrix}$
nix:
Probably want to go with the just-look-it-up route then 😮
b×(b×a) = b(b•a) - a(b•b)
i guess top row looks like ijk crossed with b which is weird but idk
aha that looks promising
so minus that
let me see if i can massage this
My thought if you want to work at it algebraically is that the Jacobi identity might be useful.
a(b•b)-b(b•a)
Question : Suppose V is finite dimensional. Prove that if $U_1,…U_m$ are subspaces of B such that $V=\bigoplus_{i=1}^{m}U_i$, then $dim V = \sum_{i=1}^{m} dim U_i$.
Here is my proof : Since $V = \bigoplus_{i=1}^{m}U_i$ ,every $v \in V$ can be written as an unique representation $v = \sum_{i=1}^{m} u_i$ for some $u_i \in U_i$.
Then choose a basis from each $U_i$ and express $u_i$ as a linear combination of those basis vectors, hence there are scalars, $a{i1},...,a_{in} \in F$ such that $u_i=a_{i1}v_{i1}+…+a_{in}v_{in}$ for each $i=1,…,m$. Substituting this into the unique representation of $v$ yields, $v=a_{11}v_{11}+…+a_{1n}v_{1n}+…+a_{i1}v_{i1}+…+a_{in}v_{in}+…+a_{m1}v_{m1}+…+a_{mn}v_{mn}$. So the list $(v_{11},…,v_{i1},…,v_{mn})$ spans $V$. Consider the linear combination of 0 from the list, $0=a_{11}v_{11}+…+a_{mn}v_{mn}$, as each list (v_{i1},...,v_{in}) is a basis of $U_i$, they are linearly independent, implying that the only combination of 0 is when all the scalars $a_{11}=...=a_{mn}=0$. Hence is a basis of $V$.
Therefore, since the cardinality of the basis is the sum of the cardinalities of the bases thus $dim V = \sum_{i=1}^{m} dimU_i$. Any problems ?
dont you have to prove LI?
for each some u_i \in U_i.
in the second sentence, did you mean to write "express u_i as a linear combination of those basis vectors"?
yes
Otoro:
as fractal says
you should probably give some more words of justification for why that list of vectors is linearly independent
the last sentence is kind of nonsense. although it's clear what you mean (to someone who's done this stuff before, at least), you'd benefit a lot from using proper terminology
ah I see, Im working on the lienar independence part now. May I ask what are such proper terminology ?
youre better off saying the cardinality of the basis is the sum of the cardinalities of the bases
^
thank you, I shall correct it
after a while it stops reacting to edits
so what do I do 
alright
Since $V = \bigoplus_{i=1}^{m}U_i$ ,every $v \in V$ can be written as an unique representation $v = \sum_{i=1}^{m} u_i$ for some $u_i \in U_i$.
Then choose a basis from each $U_i$ and express $u_i$ as a linear combination of those basis vectors, hence there are scalars, $a_{i1},...,a_{in} \in F$ such that $u_i=a_{i1}v_{i1}+…+a_{in}v_{in}$ for each $i=1,…,m$. Substituting this into the unique representation of $v$ yields, $v=a_{11}v_{11}+…+a_{1n}v_{1n}+…+a_{i1}v_{i1}+…+a_{in}v_{in}+…+a_{m1}v_{m1}+…+a_{mn}v_{mn}$. So the list $(v{11},…,v{i1},…,v_{mn})$ spans $V$.
Consider the linear combination of 0 from the list, $0=a_{11}v_{11}+…+a_{mn}v_{mn}$, as each list $(v_{i1},...,v_{in})$ is a basis of $Ui$, they are linearly independent, implying that the only combination of 0 is when all the scalars $a_{11}=...=a_{mn}=0$. Hence $(v_{11},…,v_{i1},…,v_{mn})$ is a basis of $V$.
Therefore, the cardinality of the basis is the sum of the cardinalities of the bases $dim V = \sum_{i=1}^{m} dimU_i$
omgosh Im so sorry lol, didn't know that all the _ will disappear
@old flame I think its ok otoro
the since kinda misplaced below
but it looks nice
Otoro:
@median forum "since" is deleted, thank you so much. Final question of the chapter, now I can take a break 🙂
np. anytime : D
and thank you too TTerra
now that you've done it, here's a neat way of doing it (it's basically the same, but shorter):
pick a basis b_i of each U_i. every vector in V uniquely decomposes as a sum of vectors u_i from each U_i, each of which decomposes uniquely as a sum of vectors from b_i. then v decomposes uniquely as a sum of vectors from union b_i, so union b_i is a basis. then you're done by your final sentence
that's just for fun though. what you've done is perfectly good (and if you unravel the definitions, identical)
btw you can use \dim(V) to get a nice looking dim in your tex
TTerra:
@wintry steppe damn that really summed up my proof, very nice indeed
I'm trying to show that given:
the change of basis for the reciprocal bases is given by:
I've been trying for quite a bit. This is what I have so far:
though I can't figure out how the conjugate of T comes in here
I'm really unsure where to go next with this proof
ok phew I got it
Hey guys if I have two subsets with dim1 and dim2, can I say anything about the dimension of the intersection of the subsets without any additional info?
It is less than or equal to both dim1 and dim2
I am assuming you mean subspaces, and not just subsets
Yeah I'm working with two bases for two subsets
Which are subspaces
Whats the explanation for that fact?
for any vector spaces U and V, U ⊆ V implies dim(U) ≤ dim(V)
and A ∩ B is a subset of A and of B (and is in fact the largest set with this property)
What Ann said, and if you want to know why dim(U) <= dim(V) realize that a basis for V also spans U since any vector in U is also in V
Thanks, im trying to make sense of the definitions. I have two subspaces of R^3 and I need to explain the dimension of their intersection. It's not obvious to me if one subspace is a subset of the other.
What we are saying is that the intersection is a subset of both of those spaces
But wouldn't the intersection of two subspaces be larger than either subspace on its own?
Wait im getting confused with the union aren't I
Yes
Union of subspaces is not a necessarily subspace precisely because it can be larger than either subspace
whzup:
most of the time i prefer to write that as dim(U+U')=dim(U)+dim(U')-dim(U cap U') which reads as dim(sum)=sum of dims-dim(overlap)
hehe dim sum
that was intentional
我真喜欢吃点心
Hello
If matrix A is a 6x5 matrix, then T is from R^5 to R^6 correct (T(x) = Ax)?
Also, Given T: R^5 to R^7, then A is a 7x5 matrix correct ?
Yes
I was reading the proof of the spectral decomposition theorem from a Quantum Computation book about the Normal Operators. I get the entire line of reasoning of how the operators PMP=λP, QMP=0, PMQ=0 and how QMQ is a normal operator. What I don't get is the last line of the proof-
"By induction, QMQ is diagonal with respect to some orthonormal basis for the subspace Q, and PMP is already diagonal with respect to some orthonormal basis for P"
Usually, in induction proofs, one says that the argument is true for d=1, then we assume that it is true for d=k and using that prove that it is true for d=k+1. I don't understand the type of induction argument used.
Definitions of Projector and Orthogonal Complements
•Projector: A projector operator defined on some vector space V (n dimensional space) with orthonormal basis {Vi} (i=1...n) projects onto a subspace W (m dimensional space, m<n) with orthonormal basis {Vj} (j=1...m).
P= Σi |i><i| (i=1....m).
•Orthogonal Complement: Q is defined as Q≡ I-P i.e., the projector onto the space spanned by the basis {Vi} (i=m+1....n)
@median forum To show that the derivative operator is a surjective linear operator on the set of smooth functions. Let $f \in C^{\infty}.$
Since $f$ has derivatives of all orders $\implies$ f is continuous on $\mathbb{R}$ and $F(x) = \int f(x) dx$ exist. You then need only to show that $F(x)$ is a function with derivatives of all orders which is pretty easy via induction.
JohntheDon:
@half storm yes ? 
Lol it was a question I forgot question marks
@half storm seems ok
What's the matrix for a rotation around the y-axis ?
Does that mean I have to translate by x, leaving y unchanged, and rotate, then translate back ?
@wintry steppe is the context a map on R^2 or R^3?
R^3
so a rotation in y is a rotation in y, nothing complicated, its matrix representation is the 2nd here https://i.stack.imgur.com/VJNzh.png
Cool, thank you
no prob, and to gut check it IS a rotation in y, see where it maps the standard basis
For $A^{k} = P * D^{k} * P^{-1}$
Septim VII:
is n odd?
No, any integer > 0.
But I realized that in P, I used only "k"
But my prof used @n1 instead of "k"
I'm not sure why
I think "@" tells the calculator that n1 is an integer
I haven't been able to wrap my head around subspaces. How would I approach solving this
I'll sort of start you off and help you with showing that $dim U = 1$. What you need to do is take an arbirtary vector in $U$ and think about how to express that in terms of one vector. But you'll have to make use the defining properties of the set.
So think about an arbitary vectors $ (a,b,c) \in U$. Now, for any vector in $U$ , then we know that $a - 2b + 3c = 0$ and $b + c = 0$. $ b + c = 0 \iff b = - c$ And using this implication $a - 2b +3c = 0 \iff a + 2c + 3c = 0 \iff a + 5c = 0 \iff a = -5c$ Now, with all this $ (a, b, c) = (-5c, -c, c) = c(-5,-1,1)$
So hopefully now you can see that the single vector $(-5,-1,1)$ generates the entire subscape of $U$.
Now you need to explain why it is a basis? Can you do this?
i must prove that all vectors in the set have 3 elements for it to be a basis?
If you're asking that you need to show that all vectors in the set have 3 coordinates, then the answer is no. All vectors in the set will have three coordinates because the set U is a subset of $\mathbb{R}^3$.
JohntheDon:
The definition of a basis for a vector space is a linearly independent subset of the vector space that generates the space.
But before we move further tothere, do you see why $(-5,-1,1)$ generates the subspace U based on the previous algebra?
JohntheDon:
i believe i do from before
O.k. good.
It merely follows from the previous algebra.
Now you need only to show that $ {(-5,-1,1)}$ is a linearly independent subset of U.
JohntheDon:
Do you remember what it means for a set to be linearly independent?
apologies for the delay, yes i do
I need to prove that none of the vectors within the set are linear combinations
I need to prove that none of the vectors within the set are linear combinations
@honest notch *of one another
Good. This is correct, but there is a equivalent statement to this and that's what is going to be useful for showing this set is linearly indepdent.
$$
A set of vectors v_1, v_2, \cdots v_n \text{ are linearly independent if and only if there exists a finite set of scalars }a_1, a_2, \cdots a_n \text{ and } a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2 + \cdots + a_n v_n = 0 \implies a_1 = a_2 = \cdots = a_n = 0.
$$
JohntheDon:
Ugh I'm tyring to TeX this
A set of vectors $v_1, v_2, \cdots v_n$ are linearly independent if and only if there exists a finite set of scalars $a_1, a_2, \cdots a_n$ and $a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2 + \cdots + a_n v_n = 0 \implies a_1 = a_2 = \cdots = a_n = 0$
Whoever:
||sniped lmao||
lol good. It makes the process faster than me fixing it.
O.k. so we're going to use the definition that @pallid rampart TeX'd up.
(they copied your tex lol)
Yeah
In particular we want to show that ${(-5,-1,1)}$ is linearly independet so we use the definition
lol i see.
JohntheDon:
So we suppose there exists a $a \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $a(-5,-1,1) = (0,0,0)$ and we have to show that $a = 0$ to show that we have a linearly independent set. Do you see how to do this?
JohntheDon:
Do you see why a has to be zero?
It wouldn't hurt. It's a very short proof.
$a(-5,-1,1) = (-5a,-a,a) = (0,0,0)$ We know that coordinate vectors are equal if and only if their coordinates are equal yea? So $(-5a,-a,a) = (0,0,0) \iff -5a = 0 , - a = 0$ and $ a = 0$.
JohntheDon:
I see
perfect.
So now we have show that $ {(-5,-1,1)}$ is a linearly independent set. We now just have to show that ${(-5,-1,1)}$is a subset of $U$. Do you think you can show that?
JohntheDon:
whatcha thonking tera
I feel like i've missed something, I'm not sure how to prove this
I messed up lol but I fixed it.
Well, we go back to the definition of U right? $$U := {(a,b,c) \in \mathbb{R}^3 | a - 2b + c = 0 = b + c }$$
JohntheDon:
@wintry steppe don't thonk me or 
So we just have to show that $(-5,-1,1)$ satisfies those equations that define the set right?
JohntheDon:
Can you see why $(-5,-1,1)$ satisifes them?
JohntheDon:
Yes
so proving why this satisfies the equations for the set is the last proof i need?
Yup
Because you have shown that that ${(-5,-1,1)}$ is a linearly independent subset of U and it generates U.
JohntheDon:
So we're done.
You need to explain that when one or more of the Bs is not 0, the As cannot be all 0 to prove that last point. Though otherwise your method looks good
Is there a special name for matrixes whose inverse is the matrix itself ?
symmetric orthogonal? (edit: oh I guess that doesn't account for all cases nvm)
would this be a proof for U being a subspace?
while we're on subspaces, what are the full subspace requirements, written out with all the quantifiers?
i know theirs names as
- must contain the zero vector
- closure under addition
- closure under a scalar multiplication.
yep, fixed it. thanks
even if the alpha were distributed out. how does that shows it's in the subset of interest?
whzup:
is it not the following:
- $\exists, \vec{0} \in \mathbf{U},$ such that $\vec{0}+u = u + \vec{0} = u \$
- $\forall, u, v \in \mathbf{U}$, if $u, v \in \mathbf{U}$ then $u+v \in \mathbf{U} \ $
- $\forall, u \in \mathbf{U}, , \forall, \gamma \in \mathbb{F}$, if $\gamma \in \mathbb{F}, u\in \mathbf{U}$, then $\gamma u \in \mathbf{U}$
so start by saying vector x in U, meaning x1 = x2 + x3.
then ax in u, means ax1 = ax2 + ax3 => ax1 = a(x2+x3), then i can divide both sides by a, then use the fact that x is in U
to say that ax is in U
whzup:
whzup:
or using 3 with alpha = 0
the subspace's being non-empty and there being at least the zero-vector in the subspace are consistent with each other. i have a proof of this.
I'm having some trouble with this:
5 students are sitting next to each other. They are numbered 1 to 5, and the professor, watching them, is #6.
Every minute, the student in possession of the answer sheet tries to give it to his neighbor. There is a 1/2 probability that the prof. sees him and takes the answer sheet. If not, the student gave it to one of his 2 neighbors if he is in the middle of the row, or his only neighbor if he's at the end of the row.
What is the state transition matrix for this situation?
If anyone has hints or like the dimension of the transition matrix ?
Would this be right ? Does 1 have 50% chance to pass it to 2 since the teacher might see him, or does he have 100% of passing it to 2 since it's the only person he can pass to
50%
the former.
your diagram doesn't even have a node for the professor
and why write 0% arrows explicitly when you can just... not?
is "the prof has the sheet" not a valid state for the system
oh nvm ic
would every node be linked to the professor node in the middle ?
or instead of a pentagon I make a figure with 6 nodes instead
but then I don't see how that would work 😅
I don't know enough about this stuff for my answer to be reliable, so I wouldn't trust what I say unless someone else confirms it
but this makes the most sense to me:
That seems like it makes sense
Each one adds up to 100%
thanks for taking a look
Quick question about unitary matrices:
if my matrix U is unitary
does that mean U* = U^-1?
Yea by definition.
ty! 👌🏾
👍
I need help with the following problem, i have to prove that if 3|17a and 3|(2a-7*b) then 3|b. Thanks in advance.
Suppose U and W are subsets of V with $U \subset W$. Prove that $W^0 \subset U^0$.
Konoha:
Let $\varphi\in W^0$, for all $w\in W$, we have $\varphi(w)=0$. Since $U\subset W$, for all $u\in U$, we have $\varphi(u)=0$. So, $\varphi\in U^0$; hence, we can deduce the conclusion since $\varphi$ is arbitrary
Konoha:
if you are asking someone to check your proof, then it looks fine
thanks, I also want to know whether we can use basis on this problem
the vector spaces arent guaranteed to be finite dimensional
so unless you like working with infinite bases (hamel bases?), no, no basis stuff can be used here
the proof here is plenty nice anyways
I thought he was answering someone question that I couldn't see 😆
or like someone asked him a question in another channel and he was answering it in here basically.
so unless you like working with infinite bases (hamel bases?), no, no basis stuff can be used here
@wintry steppe i see
Is W^0 the annihilator?
First time I've seen that notation 
wait, about this question earlier:
the book im reading defined unitary matrices as anything satisfying:
in which case A doesn't need to be square
is this an uncommon definition?
it's true but it's definitely uncommon, I wouldn't define unitary matrices that way
that's more of a property
hmm ok ty
(Ux, Uy) = (U*Ux, y) = (x, y)
$$A=\begin{bmatrix}0&0&0&a_1\0&0&a_2&0\0&a_3&0&0\a_4&0&0&0\end{bmatrix}$$
for which complex number $a_1,a_2,a_3,a_4$ the matrix is diagonalizable.
Konoha:
Currently, my idea is to compute $A-\lambda I=0$ to find all eigenvlues, and show them they are distinct
Konoha:
...
@latent ledge
why did you ping ann lol
that matrix is not upper and lower triangular. "upper and lower triangular" means "diagonal" and that's definitely not the case here
hes probably gonna pull some bullshit like calling me "really smart" or something to that effect as if that was an excuse to ping me ootb
KW likes to pester me in DM and then have me try to battle through his combination of dyslexia and general ineptitude and lack of reading comprehension
thank god poly is no longer here tho
@spice storm the problem asks to determine the value a1,a2,..
they might be trolling, but just in case they weren't i explained why they are wrong
anyways @latent ledge one big case you can get done quickly is if all of the entries are real (why?)
that matrix would be called antidiagonal @spice storm since the entires are on the off diagonal
diagonal always refers to top left to bottom right
@wintry steppe Oh okay. Thanks I'll remamber that put it on my notebook
anyways @latent ledge one big case you can get done quickly is if all of the entries are real (why?)
@wintry steppe all eigenvalues are real
not necessarily, take (0 1 \ -1 0)
do you know that real and symmetric matrices are diagonalizable?
not yet
ah
i thought of it cause it's a cute way to get rid of a large number of cases quickly
anyways
computing the characteristic polynomial is probably your best bet
at least, that's the first step i'd take if faced with a problem like this
yea, that is way I am doing, it is just tedious to compute the eigenvalues
at least to me
i haven't sat down and tried computing it yet
maybe you can try a smaller case to see if there's a trick?

On homework at least just because it was tedious
I would only recommend doing that once you understand the process though
I just used it as a timesaver after I was able to do it consistently
@latent ledge i sat down and computed the characteristic polynomial
the roots should have a somewhat nice form
somewhat
nvm they still kind of suck (i mightve made an error tho)
there has to be a smart way to do this
ok, there's definitely a nice form for the eigenvalues
so i'll say you can go the route of finding the roots (heh)
shouldn't the charpoly be $(\lambda^2 - a_1a_4)(\lambda^2 - a_2a_3)$
Ann:
i have a hunch the eigens are just $\pm \sqrt{a_1a_4}$ and $\pm \sqrt{a_2a_3}$
Ann:
and i think the matrix will ALWAYS admit a diagonalization
$\vec{v}=\vec{p}+k\vec{n}$
nix:
is there a way to minimize the magnitude of v without calculus?
sure, |v|^2 is quadratic in k
i assume youre indicating to find the vertex?
$\vec{v}=\vec{p}-\frac{\vec{p}\cdot\vec{n}}{|\vec{n}|^2}\vec{n}$
nix:
thats what i ended up getting
$\vec{v}=\vec{p}-\operatorname{proj}_{\vec{n}}\vec{p}$
nix:
is that right?
yes
i suppose i could go even further with
$\vec{v}=\operatorname{proj}_{\vec{n}^{\perp}}\vec{p}$
nix:
pretty cool. now i just have to think about why that is.
thanks for the help, Ann.
Hi, it's i^715 = -i?
yes
Thank you.
How is that not in rref?
I try to find the eigenvectors of this problem but it doesnt work. I found the first 2 (for 2 and -1) but im stuck at when the eigenvalue is 1
If it's 1 you subtract by the 3x3 identity matrix
You didn't say what your problem is
Its solving a diffeq by using the method of eigenvalues and eigenvectors but im stuck at the eigenvectors part
Subtract A by the 3x3 identity matrix and then put that into rref and then augment it with a 0 column
then solve for the general solution, then write the general solution in parametric form and you will have your eigenvector
That's for the eigenvalue 1
Are you solving a system of differential equations? I'm trying to remember why you would find the eigenvalues of a matrix for anything related to DE.
It's been a while.
I got you I can see it in my head now.
Does this method only work if the differential equations have constant coefficients?
yes & if coeff matrix is diagonalizable
shouldn't the charpoly be $(\lambda^2 - a_1a_4)(\lambda^2 - a_2a_3)$
@dusky epoch I have lambda^4-a1a2a3a4, what are the reasons that you split char-ploy into (\lambda^2 - a_1a_4)(\lambda^2 - a_2a_3), is it we are seeking real symmetry matrix?
??
ann did that to find the roots, i.e. eigenvalues
if you havent learned "real symmetric implies diagonalizable" then forget about making things real and symmetric
We consider the origin O (0,0,0). Let the vector OP where P(2,1,3). Find the image of this vector if we apply a rotation of 45 ° around the y axis followed by a reflection with respect to the x axis. Give the matrix of this transformation.
Can someone check my work please? And the range of the vector is just the OP vector ?
Image = range I think ? I translated from french.
Also here u is the original vector (2,1,3) and w is the vector with just a 45 degree rotation around the y-axis
Why does it look like it's been rotated clockwise ?
I thought rotations were counter clockwise ?
lol
had not considered that
thanks
Do you know if the range is just the new vector itself in this case ?
It says "Trouvez l'image de la matrice"
Find the image of the matrix
I gotcha
So if the image is the set of vectors than can be expressed as a linear combination of it's columns
and it only has 1 column with no variable, then the image must be that column ?
Well if I had let's say [r - 2w, r, w] - then the image would have 2 vectors right ?
Yeah
Like a solution of a linear system ?
Okay, I will try to say it more clearly
No
If I solve a linear system for it's general solution, I can get the vector form of the general solution: [r - 2w, r, w]
Do we agree ?
And if we say that the image is defined as "Given some matrix A, which vectors can be expressed as a linear combination of its columns?"
Then the image of the general solution would be easily found if we rewrite it in parametric form:
r * [1, 1, 0] + w * [-2, 0, 1]
The image is {[1, 1, 0], [-2, 0, 1]}
How would you have written the image then ?
Ok, I gotcha
So now in the question, they ask me for the image of the new vector
Unlike [r - 2w, r, w] - the new vector has no variables
Therefore the image is simply span{[new vector]} ?
I see, and A is the transformation matrix right ?
Therefore, the image of v under A, is Av because A * v only has one result ?
Oh I think I get what you mean
The meaning of image in this case, is simply the vector resulting from the transformation ?
Ah I see 🙂
Right, that was ambiguous
But now I know
Thank you
lol
a basis of a vector space is a linearly independent, spanning subset of that vector space
do you know what all those words mean
"spanning" means "every element of the vector space can be written as a linear combination of the subset's members"
A basis for a vector space $V$ over a field $F$ is a linearly independent subset $\beta = {x_1, x_2, \dots x_n } \subseteq V$ such that $\forall v \in V,$ $\exists a_1 ,a_2, \dots , a_n \in F$ s.t. $v = \sum_{i = 1}^{n} a_ix_i $
sorry namington I already know you answered but I was still already in the middle of TeXing and wanted to practice.
yup
and its not clear where the scope of the \exists ends
welp, gotta start at vectors again i suppose
I think that's a neat TeX
How do you guys format multiple existence quantifiers like that
use words instead
JohntheDon:
Oh yea I use words on exams and stuff
and maybe colons
I don'treally use logic symbols
But sometimes I like for them to look pretty with my symbols.
I don't really. One of my professors didn't like them.
quantifiers look really ugly for some reason
a mathematical text is an english text primarily
Yea I got you. I use them in my notes because sometimes I do get tired of using for all and stuff.
Yea yea.
i use snipping tool to do my bidding
Symbols and notation are a god send honestly.
Thank both India and the Middle East for our numerical system.
and thank whatever mathematicians and logicians came up with symbols. Sometimes I get little overwhelmed with so many words.
lol you ever get points off for handwriting
like they can't read your work?
If you guys have ever tried reading an old math paper without any sort of the conventional notation we have now it is literal hell to read.
I remember in school they made us read some stuff on the study of algebra. An arabic mathematician was doing some work on algebra ; his name escapes me. But basically he was doing something with the quadratic formula I think. And it was like "the roots of a polynomial are given by the negative of it's second coefficient added to square root of the second coefficient squared ... " so on and so forth.
i mean that is really old then
math papers from the past century are understandable
Yea, lol. It was small excerpt but it was super old.
Might have been during Euclid's time or something.
Well maybe not that old.
I don't think they new of polynomials or roots of them.
That wasn't the exact example though, I can't remember exactly what it was but it was definitely and like elemntary algebra at that.
I remember in school they made us read some stuff on the study of algebra. An arabic mathematician was doing some work on algebra ; his name escapes me. But basically he was doing something with the quadratic formula I think. And it was like "the roots of a polynomial are given by the negative of it's second coefficient added to square root of the second coefficient squared ... " so on and so forth.
@half storm https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Muhammad_ibn_Musa_al-Khwarizmi this guy?
My level is "I'm self-studying Axler". I'm just worried I'm over reaching trying to prove that "the set of all univariate polynomials forms a valid vector space."
I know what the zero polynomial is.
If you give me two specific examples of polynomials, I can take their linear combination with two arbitrary scalars. (I don't exactly know how to do this in a general case.)
So what Axler is having me do is to show that the set of all polynomials of at most degree m is a valid subspace of the vector space of all polynomials.
- Am I not supposed to show that all univarite polynomials forms a vector space?
- How do I add two polynomials together, as a general case?
okay, some definitions:
$p \equiv \sum^{m}_{i=0} \alpha_i x^i \equiv \alpha_0 x^0 + \alpha_1 x^1 + \cdots + \alpha_m x^m$
$q \equiv \sum^{m}_{i=0} \gamma_i x^i \equiv \gamma_0 x^0 + \gamma_1 x^1 + \cdots + \gamma_m x^m$
ninnymonger:
what does it mean to add two polynomials p+q?
like what if deg(q) < deg(p)?
and that's like just okay?
some of those \gamma terms could be zero, (or maybe they're all zero) and it's still valid to just smash the two functions together?
What is 5x plus 1-x^2
@wintry steppe
-x^2 + 5x + 1
@north sierra Yup that's the dude!
$\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{F}) \equiv {\text{set of all polynomials over a field F}}$
@north sierra He was perisan not arabic though. Messed that up
Specify the coefficients
$\mathcal{P}_{m}(\mathbb{F}) \equiv {\text{set of all polynomials of with coeffs in F of degree at most m}}$
okay, so if i have polynoms p and q
and i add these to together
p+q \in P(F)
but how to show this, just smash the summands together?
just to satiate my curiosity, can you walk me through the closure axiom for polynomial addition?
$(\alpha_0 + \gamma_0)x^0 + (\alpha_1 + \gamma_1)x^1 + \cdots +(\alpha_m + \gamma_m)x^m$
ninnymonger:
okay, and does that prove:
- closure under the subspace polynomials of at most degree m?
OR - closure under the vector space of all univariate polynomials?
(i can't tell if i'm over complicating this or if i'm actually confused about something)
okay, yeah, how do i do that? how do i account for different degree sizes?
intuitively i know that adding two polynoms of at most degree m will not create a new polynom of degree exceeding m, but how to state that explicitly?

i feel like there's a inequality here i need to prove:
$deg(p) + deg(q) \geq \deg(p+q) ??$
ninnymonger:
I prefer to write it more strongly as deg(p+q) <= max( deg(p), deg(q) )
with equality when deg(p) != deg(q)
this is called the strong triangle inequality
or also the ultrametric inequality, although that's not relaly important right now
- is this outside the scope of axler?
or - is this something i should be able to do?
idk, how obvious does it seem to you
if I add x^3 and x^2 I get x^2+x^3 so the max degree wins out
if they're the same degree they have a chance of competing and cancelling out to smaller degree
like x^3 and x^2-x^3 both degree 3
but added they're degree 2
i mean, intuitively it's very obvious, having worked with a lot of polynomials.
but the intuition of the argument is not a 1 to 1 translation into the intuition around the proof
I can't answer this question for you, you have to decide how deep you want to go in anything you learn
it's ultimately a bottomless pit and you must draw a line somewhere
if it interests you, learn it
if you think it's obvious enough and not interesting, don't
okay, i guess what i want to know here is "in what class is this proof regarding degrees" usually encountered?
the MSE article says "rings" which is an algebra topic
(my skill points in abs. algebra are minimal)
the lecture series i'm following that uses Axler as the main text for the course just says "it should be obvious that you can't get a larger degree, just try a few examples"
lol I used to have this problem and still do sometimes. Sometiems I'm like "this is intuitively obvious" but there really is no way to be super formal about it.
How do I prove that if $Ax = b, Gx \leq f$ has no solution, then there exist y, z such that $z \geq 0, A^Ty + G^Tz = 0, b^Ty + f^T < 0$?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
So far I have'nt been able tod o anything with it
I tried wwriting it as a single matrix but that hasn't beenn going anywhere
@cobalt tartan you sure y and z multiply from the right?
Yea
ah
Liria ^(;,;)^:
is that the full question?
I can see that being the case if y and z multiply A and G from the left
So that's a dot product.
ye
dot doesnt matter the order anyway
Yea
Yea if it's left multiplication then I might be seeing where you're going with it.
I took a look and immediately my first thought was to take the transpose of matrix equation so you end up $x^TA^T = b^T$
JohntheDon:
But then I got back to looking at what I was trying to prove and I was like "this might be out of my depth"
Fractal:
Like if $\forall x (xA^T \neq b^T)\implies \exists x ( xA^T > b^T)$
JohntheDon:
Pardon?
Yea it should be ad ot product, b^Ty + f^Tz < 0
but iunno what to do with A^Ty + G^Tz = 0
My course's lecture notes allow for the basis of {0} to be {0} itself
that's wrong because {0} is a linearly dependent set and hence cannot be a basis
1*0 = 0
to be clear, the zeroes here denote the zero vector while 1 denotes 1 the scalar
i.e. the zero vector can be written as a nontrivial linear combination of {0}
Does every matrix that has a null space also have a left nullspace ?
I think you mean a right nullspace. The usual thing that we refer to when we say the "nullspace of a matrix A" is the same thing as the "nullspace of the left-multiplication of matrix A" i.e. the set of vectors such that $L_A(x) := Ax = 0$
JohntheDon:
The fact that A has a left nullspace wouldn't affect whether it not it would have a right nullspace though. You would just define the right nullspace to be the set of vectors $x$ such that $xA = 0$.
JohntheDon:
@viscid kernel
np
slimvesus:
At first i was confused but your basically considering $\mathbb{R}$ as a vector space over itself.
JohntheDon:
@wheat shoal most people would say that the empty set generates the null set. Though in another channel, I was speaking with someone who was a TA and a certain professor - who specialized in LA - was teaching his graduate students that the zero subspace is not generated by any set.
pretty nonstandard.
I feel like you can't do that though because of Hausdorff's maximal principle that says every vector space has a basis.
but they know more than me and there is probably some cavaet there.
Yea, it makes sense to me.
but he was doing something weird.
I don't know. What you just said is the way it was taught to me.
I tried to get more information out from the guy because I was geninuely curious but he said if he revealed anymore he would doxx himself lol.
Must be this one dude that does it and is known for doing it in the community; no clue though.
Hi, what complex is defined by z=e?
the number e?
Yea
no problem
That's it?
I mean, I'm not sure if you can really deduce anything from just that alone.
I mean, I'm not sure if you can really deduce anything from just that alone.
yes you can
are you allowed to assume V is findim?
then the dimension of the kernel will be dim(V) - 1, simple as that
i invite you to prove that a nonzero linear functional has as its image the entire number line
I see.
But i was just like if there are no other assumptions, then you can't really say anything can you?
Probably could have asked for the context though.
Yea
I was a bit confused because i usually seen anyone write one-dimensional matrices i.e. numbers like really
hello, can anyone help me with the following T/F question?
If X is a spanning set for a subspace U, and V is any set that contains X, then V is a spanning set for U.
I think it should be True, would that be correct?
Yea it's true.
Ok, my logic is
Since X = {x1, x2,..., xk} and U = span(X) = span{x1, x2,..., xk}
Suppose V = {v1, ..., vk, x1, x2,... xk}, which contains X.
Which means U = span(V) = span{v1, ..., vk, x1, x2,... xk}
Yup that's pretty much it.
- unless you're guaranteed that the spaces are finite dimensional you should be more careful with the notation
- if V = X union {vector that isn't in span(X) = U} then span(V) will be larger than span(X) = U, so unless "spanning set" means "span contains the space" and not "span equals the space" then the answer should be false
@modern palm
Find the basis of the subspaces associated to the eigenvalues
That just means find the eigenvectors of an eigenvalue?
yes
more accurately, find a basis, and find linearly independent eigenvectors forming a basis of the eigenspace
@wintry steppe I don't think we are at the level to take that into consideration yet, at least I'm not sure what you mean by be careful with the notation because it doesnt say that the spaces are finite dimensional.
and yep I think "spanning set" means "spans contains" not "spans equal" to the space for us.
i can't respond to this right now, in a lecture
Yea that's more nuanced. I guess i was just thinking about the fact that span(X) is a subset of the span(V) so U is contained in span of V but yea if you're taking a "spanning set" to mean the spans are equal then you have no real idea whether U = span(V)
ill let someone else answer this, unless you want to ask again in 30 minutes
I was thinking of span as generates the set; and I think that's how I've always learned it.
does "generates" mean span equals or span contains
we defined it as span(x1, x2, ..., xk) = {c1x1 + c2x2 + ... + ckxk} where c1,c2,...,ck are constants. So I was thinking the v1, v2 v3 vectors can be multiplied by 0.
That's the definition of span, but TTera is asking a bit of a question regarding the terminology that you've been taught. Like if you have a vector space V, if I say that "S spans V" does that mean that the span(S) = V or that V is a subset of the span of S.
the latter
because the terminology is important to determine whether the question is correct or not actually.
Then it's correct.
or true.
so you say that {x_1, ..., x_k} generates V if V \subseteq span({x_1, ..., x_k})
i don't like it, but if it's the convention you're following then the T/F problem is indeed true
the LA book i used took "X generates V" to mean span(X) = V
i'm sure there's some standard meaning of generates, but it feels very wrong to me to say that X generates V if span X contains (but is not necessarily equal to) V
Yea mine does too.
friedberg :)
Yup
lol
Friedberg has some weird stuff though. Like it calls the rank-nullity theorem "The Dimension theorem" and the exchange theorem the "replacement theorem"
also uses N(T) for null spaces / kernels lol
Yea
I only knew that the dimension theorem was known as rank-nullity from my first class in LA where we used a different book and I had to look up exchange theorem.
I saw someone in the channel use it in here and I was like "is that the replacement theorem?".
yeah, friedberg has some strange conventions and notations
otherwise it is a solid LA book
has a shit ton of examples and actually covers determinants unlike another popular choice
lol.
Yea I like it. It's definitely a textbook geared towards people who really want to do math for the sake of math.
Not like a super applied approach like some other ones
It's proofs-based.
Give the relation between a, b, and c so that [a, b, c] is a linear combination of v1, v2, v3
Wut ?
There's gotta be more info than that
Basically:
a = mv1 + nv2 + ov3
Find m,n,o
But if you don't know anything about a then that's not reasonable haha
hmm
a, b, c are variables
the vector is [a, b, c]
and we want that as a linear combination of v1, v2, v3
weirdness
we want the relation between a, b, and c
so that [a, b, c] is a linear combination of other vectors
ugh lol
What relation? [a,b,c] is just [a,b,c] there's no room for a relation there haha
If v1, v2, v3 span R³ then [a,b,c] is definitely a linear combination of them
Given that a,b,c are real I suppose
Yeah, that makes the most sense
So say I have a 2x2 matrix A with a repeated eigenvalue. That means I can decompose it into the form PJP^-1
$P\begin{bmatrix}\lambda&1\0&\lambda\end{bmatrix}P^{-1}$
nix:
Does the second column of P even matter as long as P is invertible?
Linear algebra is easy
@cursive crest lmao that's not linear algebra
apologies, I don't mean to interrupt
Oh ok
@tribal nebula hey but that’s algebra and it’s a linear equation, so it must be linear algebra
I don’t see anything wrong
🤔 if you think about it, x is just a 1x1 matrix...
Math is cool
Sure is
does that mean you can't square a matrix??? Cause then it's not linear... 😢
technically squaring a matrix should be defined as A^T A
since it makes it square and is well defined while A^2 isn't
Well A² works for square matrices

ngl mero, A^T A ≠ A² If A is a square matrix





