#discrete-math
1 messages Β· Page 218 of 1
I haven't learned that
Do you not know what the notation means or are you just stuck on how to prove this
I don't know what it means and I have an exam in 3 hours

Oh ok so that bracket looking thing is the floor function
Basically floor(x) always rounds x down
So floor(5) = 5 and floor(2.3) = 2
That make sense?
yea ik
by Let?
I have the answer to that equation btw, I just don't know how to get the answer
What's let
.
That looks really confusing lol
Lol np
What I'm thinking rn is to split it into cases: one where x is an integer and one where x is between 2 integers and then go from there
how do we do that?
" Prove that if m and n are positive integers and x is a real number"
x integer and x between integers covers all real number
He's splitting it into 2 cases
Yeh sorry I forgot to say that
Basically we know x is in the reals so we can divide it into 2 cases, either it's an integer or it's between 2 integers
I think if x is integer you can just say floor or roof doesn't affect it at all?
we know it's in the reals cause it's devided by smt or wut?
Yeah that's right
arent real numbers numbers with decimal expansion only?
It's just given in the problem, not sure what you're trying to get at
5 is also a real number
5.0 u mean?
look in a number line.
essentially he split it into 2 sections
- The points (x integer)
- The areas between the points (x between integers)
Oh I get it
$N\subset Z \subset Q \subset R \subset C$
Max..
Yep
Nope
Yeah that's a really concise way of saying what I was trying to get at
R includes pi
oh sh
Also include irrationals
Z u Q doesn't
Ye
π
so you also have a case for irrationals, but in this case you can treat them as decimals since floor/roof?
Real numbers = any number that doesn't have an imaginary part
You could but it doesn't matter either way since we only care if our number is between 2 integers
yeah
hard part is proving between integers didn't learn that at all
m & n are just positive integers
the letters m and n do not have any meaning outside of context
they are sometimes chosen to stand in for integer-valued things, but that's by no means an absolute requirement
(just so it's easier to see)
$m,n \in Z^+$
Salt
but m cannot be 0, correct?
$\mathbb{N}, \mathbb{Z}, \mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C}$
Ann
Correct
m is stated to be a positive integer, so yes it can't be 0
so how do I prove this?
i would write $x = mq + r + z$, where $q$ and $r$ are the quotient and remainder on division of $\floor{x}$ by $m$, and $z \in [0,1)$ is the fractional part of $x$.
Ann
i think your two cases would be on whether r+n β₯ m or not
Yeah I was thinking of something similar, basically if x is an integer the claim is going to be true since floor(x) = x. If x is between 2 integers, the part after its decimal point will be bounded by 0 and 1 so we can do something like x = y + k, where y = floor(x) and then you just manipulate the equations to get the claim
idk if this will help but here
so what Ann said is the answer?
It should get you started on the path to the answer yea
Are you stuck at a specific point, we can try to help
yes, I don't know how to solve the rest
since my teacher showed smt and I got smt else in here so I am confused now
I'd suggest to try to develop your own answer, you'll learn more that way
So we had 2 cases right for x
If x is an integer, what would floor(x) be
itself
Right so floor(x) = x
yes
So for the left side what would that be
this ?
x + n over m
x + n over m
too
Yeh
Actually to be more precise for both of these it'd be floor(what you said)
But they both end up being the same so π€·ββοΈ
So do you see why when x is an integer the claim holds
yup
but I should remove the floor for x in the left side right?
and keep the outside one
Yes
hello
quick question
if im proving that a set is countably infinite
it means i have to prove that the set has the same cardinality as the set of positive integers
correct?
When it comes to proving the cardinality between the two sets, there must be a one to one correspondance?
so I get this
Yeh or I think the natural numbers would work too, not sure if there's a difference
Yes in order to have a bijection and show they're the same "size"
Yeh
thank u good sir
well if they are the same, why do I need to prove it?
We showed they are the same
We didn't initially know they were the same
And btw we've just proven the claim holds when x is any integer, still have to do the other case
hard part
Yup
Not that hard in my head (~~might be doing something wrong tho
~~)
@vernal cypress Do you have any idea of what to do for the 2nd case
so I should say since x E R then ?
to solve for what exactly ?
You mean $x \in \mathbb{R}$?
math man
If so you don't need to, problem already gives you that
yes
To prove the claim holds true when x is between 2 integers
I think you could try thinking for 2nd case something like
$\floor{\frac{\floor{x}+n}{m}}$ vs $\floor{\frac{x+n}{m}}$
as
this
$\floor{\floor{x}}$ vs $\floor{x}$
Double floor function?
yeah since we know that m and n are positive integers
they won't really affect the balance
idk my wording kinda bad
but it's essentially double floor on x
Doesn't really do anything
because you have floor for x then floor for the entire thing
Oh ok I thought of it a different way
yeah just my way of thinking idk how to prove that rigorously tho
but essentially you ignore the m and n since they don't affect anything because they are positive integers
if you think of double floor x it is obvious why it works for x all real numbers
wait I might be high
no I'm right??
yeah
Salt
So I was thinking since x is between 2 integers, we can say y = x - r, for some r between 0 and 1. This means x = y + r so the left side becomes floor((y + n)/m) and the right side becomes floor((y + r + n)/m) = floor((y + n)/m + r/m). r/m has to be between 0 and 1 so the floor function will ignore that and just return floor((y + n)/m)
Lmk if that doesn't make sense
This statement is problematic because I didn't take into account m divide resulting in decimal
I feel like I am adding nothing of value to the conversation as well ;-;
Rip π
amma fail this exam
I am going to memorize what the teacher wrote and try to make sense of it in the exam ig
I still need help with 1 question which I think is way easier but I am not 100% of my answer
You can send it
how do you mitigate the risk of getting a higher integer after adding r/m?
The term vanishes because
(\floor{x}+n)%m is an integer in {0,m-1}
And frac{x} can't make it add upto m
I think so m is a positive integer and we know 0 < r < 1 so m must be greater than r so r/m must be less than 1. So we're adding something less than 1 to (y + n)/m
yeah but what if after adding to (y+n)/m it increases the whole integer?
Eg.
r/m = 0.4
y+n/m = 0.7
0.4 + 0.7 = 1.1
Yeah that's kinda the flaw in my logic that I just realized lmao
yeah I kinda noticed that b/c of ann's claim here
Pointed to the wrong thing but this should be the proof
dam that's kinda wacko
This makes me see how bad I am at math π
π
can yall help with this?
Didn't you already ask about 3 a)
yes but it seems that no one knows the exact answer and I only have 1 hour before my exam, so it's better to move on to another question
Dude tropo and I literally had a dialogue about it
we got the right answer alr
wait wut? didn't you disagree ?
we didn't
both were right answers just different representations
I see
so this is correct
.
no I made the same mistake as math man for here I failed to take into account decimal result after dividing by m
@unreal stump is discrete math pro his proof should be the most correct
alr
@vernal cypress take a look at this for 3 a)
Since you have exam in 1 hour I'll just tell you the solution to 3 a)
C(21,1) * C(20,1) * C(19,3)
C = choose
do you understand the question now?
Reasoning:
Have 21 players, choose 1 to give gold medal
Have remaining 20 players, choose 1 to give silver medal
Have remaining 19 players, choose 3 to give bronze medal
C = choose, wdym by that
so 21 ways to give gold medal and 20 to give silver and 19 to give bronze
I am guessing C stands for ways
note that the order which you give the medal type in doesn't matter as well
so another possible distribution is
C(21,3) * C(18,1) * C(17,1)
Have 21 players, choose 3 to give bronze medal
Have remaining 18 players, choose 1 to give silver medal
Have remaining 17 players, choose 1 to give gold medal
choose is
Alright thanks a lot, I will try to solve B on my own. Have a great day
Alright, back. the exam was hard af, I might jump off my balcony
π
@vernal cypress pls don't
It's a sign to start preparation sooner and grind harder π₯
Q. In how many ways can 6 cards be taken from
one deck, in such a way that cards of all colors are
chosen?
The way I thought of it is:
I by default assign a red and a black to the first 2 out of 6 places.
R B _ _ _ _
To select a red in that first place there are 26 ways, to select a black in the second is 26 ways and for the remaining I have 50C4 possibilities?
So, 26 x 26 x 50C4?
No, that counts most hands many times, depending which two of the cards you consider "the red" and "the black" card.
Instead, count all six-card hands, and then subtract the all-black and the all-red ones.
(But the way, is the problem translated from a non-English language? "All colors" sounds strange when there are only two of them, and some languages use their word for "color" to denote what is called "suit" in English -- if you want each suit to be represented, you get into a more complicated inclusion-exclusion computation).
sounds like pigeonhole
I don't think any number in the domain can give -1 for f(x)=x^2 right?
omygosh is that composite functions
yes
yeah I can't contribute to that then I haven't learned composite functions nor inverse functions
no worries I figured it out
How would I calculate this?
How many (base 10) integers (leading 0's are NOT allowed) between 1 and 9999 are palindromes?
All of the following are examples of such integers: 5, 22, 373, 8448. The following would not count, because they have leading 0's: 0, 00, 0000, 010, 0440.
Answer: 198
Think about how much information is required to determine a palindrome between 1 and 9999
that should give you an easy way to count them
I'll try to have a swing at this
Case 1: Simple ones
1 digit:
8 possibilities {2,3,4,5,...,9}
2 digits:
9 possibilities {11, 22,33,44,...,99}
Case 2: Complex ones
3 digits:
-> miniCase i: all same
9 possibilities {111,222,333,444,...999}
-> miniCase ii: front back same; middle different from front & back [eg. 303]
= (middle) x (frontback) - (middlefrontbacksame)
= (9x10) - 9 = 81
4 digits:
-> miniCase i: all same
8 possibilities {1111,2222,3333,...8888}
-> miniCase ii: front back same; middle two same but different from frontback [eg. 9009]
= (middletwo) x (frontback) - (middletwofrontbacksame) - (9999 because not included)
= (10x9) - 8 - 1 = 81
= 196
Stuck at finding the last 2 possibilities (answer said 198)... π
Yeah so my thinking was/is that
Given any number 1 <= n <= 99, note we can generate two palindromes by appending a reversed copy and deciding whether to delete a letter in the middle or not. For example 23 would correspond to 2332 and 232. (under this convention, 1 generates 1 and 11, and so forth).
This clearly generates every palindrome and there are no repeats: one or two digit palindromes are determined by their first digit, and three/four digit palindromes are uniquely determined by their first two digits
yeah I'm just stuck at finding the last 2 possibilities
my point is that this a bit more uniform because I'm just saying there's a 1-2 correspondence but ye
I mean you seem to have neglected 1
I neglected both 1 and 9999
because it said "between"
yeah but it's not just 1 and 9999 that got affected by this
Oh true
wacko
Between in discrete questions is usually inclusive of the end points in my experience
can someone explain example 1.3?
does a relation on anything means anything x anything?
in context of sets pretty much iirc
hmm
because
a relation is z is aRb if a|b
do you think this relation is reflexive or not
a|a is always true so yes
I need help understanding this question.
I recognize that the hardest part is figuring out the conditions and repercussions of setting the first element to something. The rest plays out exactly the same as linear arrangement.
I'm going to sleep now but would like to have this question answered
Under all possible placements, two placements which only differ by rotation are considered identical. We can split all placements into groups, where in each group there are only identical placements. So we want to find the number of groups. So when we count the placements, we need to count one placement from every group. In each group is exactly one placement with A at the top, so if we count every placement with A at the top, we also get the total number of groups. Thats why we chose A to be at the top.
can u guys come up with a non prime positive integer n such as 4 | n-1 and 3 | n+1
65?
funny thing is, I gave up at 63πππ

LOL
I thought about 5 first but it was a prime, kept increasing by 10 till I hit 65
There might be a smaller value too, I'm not sure
why 10 
No particular reason, just felt like it would keep spitting out numbers in a way that n+1 will have 6 in the unit place and n-1 will have 4
It's okay, it could have taken much longer for me as well. Got lucky maybe. π
whatever it was , I need itπ
it is the smallest

If I want to use any 2 generators to produce a hamiltonian path through a symmetric group, does anyone have any ideas where I might begin?
The two conditions can be restated as n == 1 (mod 4) and n == -1 (mod 3). By the Chinese remainder theorem these combine to n == 5 (mod 12), or in other words n = 5+12k for some k. An obvious way to force that to be composite is to set k=5, which yields n=65.
bro.
π€
I switched to arithmetic not too long ago , and I'm still trying to let go of that calculus thinking
Can you speficy the task more exactly? Do you want to find two generators such the the Cayley graph is Hamiltonian (respecting orientation, I suppose), or prove that every set of 2 generators has this property, or to describe an efficient way to compute a concrete Hamiltonian cycle?
I want to find an efficient way to compute a concrete Hamiltonian path using only 2 generators. I'm not actually sure it's even always possible with any 2 generators. The purpose is for visual art.
When you say Hamiltonian path, do you specifically mean it doesn't need to be closed?
It doesn't need to be closed, I just want to generate the Cayley graph in a beautiful way.
Hmm, feels complicated.
Would someone be able to offer an example of this in practice?
could someone explain why my answer is wrong?
How did you get your answer?
knowing that 0-9 there are 10 numbers
and 0 or 9 can not be used in first slot
so 8 possible digits for the first slot
If 799,992 is a correct answer, we must assume that "should not have repeated digits of the same value" really means "must not be the same digit repeated 6 times".
8*9*8*7*6*5
i had that in assumption, but how to interpret it
Okay, that looks like it corresponds to a reasonable interpretation of the text of the problem, but apparently not the intended one.
π€
It looks like you interpreted "should not have repeated digits of the same value" as "must not have more than one occurrence of any digit".
right
For what it's worth, I initially interpreted it as "any two neighboring digits must be different", leading to a third count yet.
Yes, I understand how you interpreted it.
Evidently it is not the interpretation used to declare 799,992 to be a correct answer.
What leads to 799,992 possibilities is that, for example, 222622 is allowed but 222222 or 987654 are not.
i seem to get your point
It's a stupidly ambiguous question.
π₯
hold on, i have to break my fasting
i am still confused how it is solved, but i will try to do it with your interpretation
I'm confused which kind of answer you expect here?
An example of what that $X$ would look like
Qlinltiqor
An example of some random well-quasi-order or an example of a quasi-order that fails to be well in one of the two specified ways?
Either
In $\mathbb Z$ define $a\sqsubseteq b$ if $|a|\le|b|$. Then $\sqsubseteq$ is a well-quasi-order.
Troposphere
In $\mathbb Q$, define $a\preceq b$ if $|a|\le |b|$. Then $\preceq$ is a quasi-ordering but not well, because there's an infinite strictly decreasing sequence.
Troposphere
Isn't that the symbol for positive semi-definiteness? $\preceq?$
Qlinltiqor
It's also that, but it can be used for random order-like relations to use in examples too. (There are not enough symbols to go around to let every meaning have a monopoly on one symbol).
So if we remove the infinite requirement and just use some small finite subset of $\mathbb{Z},$ like ${1, 2, 3},$ then are you saying ${{1, 2}, {2, 3}}$ is the $\sqsubseteq$ ordering?
Qlinltiqor
In $Q$, defined $a\trianglelefteq b$ if $|a|\le|b|$ and $a-b\in\mathbb Z$. Then $\trianglelefteq$ is a quasi-ordering, but is not well because $[1,2)$ is an infinite antichain.
Troposphere
As a consequence of the proposition, a quasi-ordering with finitely many elements is always a well-quasi-order.
Oh, okay. So,with your example and mine, if the counting pattern follows infinitely, does the ordering I wrote fit the ordering pattern also follow similarly or does $\sqsubseteq$ mean something about the size of sets rather than what's inside of them?
Qlinltiqor
My \sqsubset ordering essentially says "compare integers as usual except ignore the minus sign in front of negative numbers".
That's just a device to make sure it's not antisymmetric, which would make it qualify as a not-quasi order, and therefore presumably not as interesting an exmple.
So we have $5 \sqsubseteq -8$, for example, or $42 \sqsubseteq -42 \sqsubseteq 42$.
Troposphere
Oh, okay. Thanks for that example
I guess should we try thinking of something in analog of graphs?
Just as an exercise*
A graph picture can be useful for thinking of order-like relations, yes.
There's probably going to be something on an infinite induced subgraph and edge coloring?
Or a more concrete way to think of a quasi-ordering in particular could be as the combination of an equivalence relation and a partial order among the equivalence classes.
Edge coloring doesn't sound immediately relevant. (But if you can make it stick to something and get insight out of it, more power to you ...)
I'm trying to invoke Ramsey's Theorem of monochromatic subsets in this
Hmm, that sounds like heavily overthinking something.
What are you aiming to achieve?
So, from the proposition: if $x_{0}, x_{1}, \dots$ is any infinite sequence in $X$ and we let $K$ be a complete graph on $\mathbb{N},$ coloring edges $ij (i < j), ij \in E(K)$ with three colors: green $x_{i} \leq x_{j},$ red $x_{i} > x_{j},$ amber $x_{i}, x_{j}$ if incomparable, how can we apply Ramsey's Theorem to speak about the antichains or decreasing sequences in the context of the green subsequences?
Qlinltiqor
And then subsequently give it as a proof of the proposition using an analog of graphs.
I don't think that will work.
To begin wth, Ramsey's theorem as usually stated is for undirected graphs.
It doesn't give you any good way to speak about the central requirement of a quasi-order being a transitive relation.
In general it sounds like a horribly complicated and indirect way to argue for a quite simple proposition.
But again, I don't know what you're trying to achieve here.
I'm just trying to show the proposition for graphs.
hi
I think first you will need to be a lot more explicit about what "the proposition for graphs" is.
The proposition for a complete graph on $\mathbb{N}$? π¬
Qlinltiqor
I don't know which proposition you're speaking about.
You don't need to tell me, of course, but it will be kinda difficult to have a conversation otherwise.
Oh, wait, my English is bad. I'm trying to show the proposition in the context of graphs π
But I'm still not understanding what "the proposition in the context of graphs" is.
It sounds like you have some kind of graph-based generalization or analogue to the characterization of well-quasi-orderings in mind, but it is not as obvious as you think what exactly that analogue would be.
Could you please state it explicitly?
I die π
some kind of graph-based generalization or analogue to the characterization of well-quasi-orderings in mind
Yes.
but it is not as obvious as you think what exactly that analogue would be.
Could you please state it explicitly?
I do not know what to do now.
I'll admit, the attempt at the graph example was not mine. I was just trying to understand the part I didn't mention (but asked about) in this proof:
Okay, now it makes sense what you're saying.
I thought the original proposition would have a much lighter-weight proof, but I haven't been able to find one for the last hour or so...
This is (9.1.2) for reference:
Yhea, this is from a graph theory book (Diestel, 5th edition) that a friend of mine is trying to teach me but I'm trying to learn a bit before our session starts.
Interestingly, this proof concludes a stronger property than the definition of "well-quasi-ordering" in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Well-quasi-ordering, which only requires every infinite sequence to have at least one good pair. It could look like your book defines "well-quasi ordering" such that it wants a whole good subsequence. It doesn't seem to be obvious that those definitions are equivalent, other than by going through this proof.
So, now that I understand what you're saying, do you still have a question?
I need help understanding this question.
I recognize that the hardest part is figuring out the conditions and repercussions of setting the first element to something. The rest plays out exactly the same as linear arrangement.
Huh, how does that connect to well-quasi-orders?
it doesn't. It's a separate question that I asked yesterday but got buried in messages
My annoyance with getting randomly pinged will lead me to ignore that question henceforth.
what counts as 'randomly pinged' ?
I don't think I've ever randomly pinged anybody? (I only ping Helpers or people I am currently in active convo with. I never do random pings...)
Did you mean 'reply pings'?
You should have likely replied to the last comment our helper made to your question and not mine.
there wasn't any
But the helpers are volunteers. They can only answer at a rate they can. Anyways, my question got buried in an hour but bumping it after a while got a response by our friend here.
yes but replying also counts as ping?
Anyways, this is digression to the channel. Probably just bump your question again.
Ah right have you learned about circular arrangements before?
you might be able to help me with my issue
Ehm, possibly. I have yet to understand the page the helper linked me so me helping you might be backlogged by that π¬
But it's an open channel, so I'm sure someone can help in the mean time. Is it the same screenshot from above?
you could try seeing my help thread (same question) to not clog up this channel and re-bump your original question here
Is this arithmetic viable?
Itβs different from the solutions but it seemed okay to me, I would like confirmation or advice
Seems fine, ig you're saying if 2^k < (k+1)! then (k+2)! = (k+2)(k+1)! > (k+2) 2^k >= 2*2^k = 2^(k+1) and I'm not sure how else one could phrase it
In which way was it different?
they subbed in for 2^k instead
Well it's the same work, just the inequalities being written in a different order
yeah i'm just kind of frustrated by discrete because there r so many ways of doing things
and my mind is not creative in any way
but if it works it works i guess
ty
The trick to inequality proofs is taking advantage of inequality on n
Np
wdym
like i understand i have to use the induction step to literally do anything
it just doesn't click immediately sometimes
but this shit is so hit or miss like ugh
In your case $k \geq 2$
Then you can assume freely in your inductive step after proving base case k=2
$2^k < (k+1)!$ You abuse this and sub it in during your inductive step and try to get it to match the hypothesis you are trying to prove
Salt
If I assume the equality is true, how do i prove the RHS ?
Say you have inequality
$x < y$
for your induction step
you are free to use anything that is greater than y for your right side because overall inequality still stands.
so you are allowed to transform the top to
$x < y^2$
or whatever you want
im struggling to follow this proof
Salt
what part are you not getting?
what 'because'?
if you prove basecase n = 5 is true
you are free to use k in your induction hypothesis
where is the 2k+1 from
on the right side
i was thinking you were turning 2k+1 into 2 * 2k
dude this is like I have a balance
I add 1 to both sides
is the balance still correct?
okay it just seems arbitrary to me
i understand that
i just wouldn't think to do that ever
Ok I'll walk through the steps with you
it's actually more obvious than you think
So we initially work with induction hypothesis
$k^2 < 2^k$
we want to show
$(k+1)^2 < 2^{k+1}$
Salt
are you okay with this so far? @weary tiger
yes
so now you take what you are trying to prove and expand it
you usually always do this. Always have your "want to prove" statement expanded
$(k+1)^2 < 2^{k+1} = k^2 + 2k + 1 < 2^{k+1}$
Salt
@weary tiger is this clear ?
oh wait mb
that was a wrong step
or you can change 2^k+1 to 2(2^k) and use it somehow then
what you do next is
Now that you have your expanded " goal"
$k^2 + 2k + 1 < 2^{k+1}$
Leave it for now. This will be the final template you are trying to reach.
Now, we start working with your Induction Hypothesis
$k^2 < 2^k$
Salt
okay
ive never approached a problem like this but im listening
is it a hard and fast rule that you always want to expand something like (k+1) ^2?
A neat thing to point out is that you most of the time want to "reach" the template via the left side first.
So how can $k^2$ become $k^2 + 2k +1$?
Salt
if you somehow turned k into k+1
no don't think about $"(k+1)"$ just purely think about making the left side become exactly the same as the template's left side
Salt
okay you add 2k + 1
Alright, so we add $2k+1$ to the left side, but if we add it to the left side, we need to also add it to the right side to maintain balance of the inequality
Salt
So now induction step becomes
$k^2 + 2k + 1 < 2^{k} + 2k + 1$
Salt
oh cos 2^k is larger than k^2 the proof is done?
no don't rush this
okay
Ok, so you now have the left side completely matching the template. The rest goes to trying to get the right side matching the template (Want to turn ${2^k + 2k + 1}$ into ${2^{k+1}}$)
ok
Salt
where are you lost
k gotcha
Next step is the part you will fiddle the most with.
Think back into your induction hypothesis' right side.
${2^k}$
Even though you have $2^k + 2k +1$ in your induction step right side right now, you want to go back and think in terms of
$(2^k) + (2k + 1)$
Now you think to yourself:
"What would turn $2^k$ into $2^{k+1}$?"
Ah right, $2^k \cdot 2^k$
"So I need to turn the (2k+1) in my induction step right now into $2^k$"
"Wait, I can abuse inequality and turn $2k +1$ into $2^k$ because:
$2k+1 < 2^k$
we know that this is always true because our restrictions for k is $k > 4$
and in terms of the induction step,
$k^2 + 2k + 1 < $2^k + (2k + 1) < 2^k \cdot 2^k$
so we can say
$k^2 + 2k + 1 < 2^k \cdot 2^k$
Proved!
Oh i didn't know that 2k+1 < 2^k for k > 3
im seeing that's a theorem now in my textbook
how tf am I supposed to know that
Salt
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
not symmetric i think
where are you lost?
The part you have to fiddle with (right side)
is to just look at what will make induction hypothesis right side into template right side
Then literally force them to match via abusing inequality
Yea
am i supposed to just know these theorems
that's just how inequality proof works there's no "theorem"
Yeh there's some creativity involved as well to figure out how to bound certain quantities
isn't 2k+1 < 2^k for k > 2
main part of inequality proof is just recognizing that you can abuse the sht out of inequalities
a theorem
there just isn't a formula to follow
which is why this shit is so confusing to me
i also don't know basic exponent rules
This is kind of a lot of math
Mood lol
what part are you still confused about
you can literally write an algorithm for this
it's so mechanical
i think im fine now but idk there's too much creativity
you don't need to be creative
like the next thing i struggle with is gonna be so obvious once i get it
there is nothing creative about this
I literally found out 2k+1 < 2^k via forcing right side in induction step
it feels like what i lack is creativity when i look at these problems and have no idea what to do
no the only "creative" part is not even creative
you find it when you are trying to force the right side to match
I'd argue that while the process of induction itself is very much mechanical the actual details of how you apply it to certain problems can involve creative steps
there's a reason they give you a bound for n
The equality of sets
π΄Γ(π΅βπΆ)=(π΄Γπ΅)β(π΄ΓπΆ)
is true in general.
Write a formal proof of this equality, using the Test for Set Equality.
Does anyone know the proof?
also i have another question
Show left set is subset of right set and right set is subset of left set
yeah other cases of induction (not inequality) can be really wacky and creative
Ahh I see thanks
But inequality induction proof in a nutshell is abusing the property of inequality itself
Yup
what do you mean substitute?
why woudl you do that
$k \geq 2$ maybe?
math man
Yeah in general you don't do that unless you're doing base case
okay my prof was doing that sometimes for proofs
and it feels like a slippery slope like it just doesnt make sense to me
why you would be allowed to do that
screw your prof's method
just follow the method I showed you
sometimes the role of the right side and the left side alternates if your prof is really evil
my prof is really sweet
but other than that I really don't know how this doesn't work
he goes over things quickly sometimes
but do you get inequality proofs now?
it's not "I think up of how to sub this"
it's "I want this because the template clearly indicates to me that I need this"
"ok can I force this in via abusing inequality"
the first case is creative
the second case is mechanical
the method I showed you is not creative at all
you literally jsut let the template dictate to you what you need then abuse inequality to force that in
@dire obsidian Do you do competitive math
no
force in (k+2)?
ok i know that but how
Yeah
you literally can do
$2 \cdot (k+1)! < 2 \cdot (k+2)!$
Salt
then your proof is done
Yeah this is just kinda pattern matching
note that you need to have restrictions given for the variable if you want to abuse inequality
You see (k + 1)! and you want something in terms of (k + 2)!, just multiply by k + 2
you know this is true because you were given restriction k >= 2
yeah
okay
this message I am replying to is basically what your book said
so doing the right side of the induction is about using the k>= from the ih
to sub in and simplify
?
But i am dumb and stupid so I literally just think
if k>=2
then it is always true that (k+1)! < (k+2)!
so I am free to force that sht in
hmm ok
im gonna try one more and then get din
would you mind sticking around a couple mins
k
im just completely hitting a brick wall
like I want to multiply the right side by 4 and subtract 3 to get it equivalent to the IS
You knwo what in this case I'd use strong induction
but I kind of forgot how to do strong induction
give me a sec
Strong induction is just: base case is the same, inductive hypothesis is just assuming every case from 1 to k works, and inductive step is using any combination of those k cases to prove the k + 1 case
yeah
the problem with forcing things in rn is
the case 4^0
it's not bigger than 3
if you use strong induction iirc you can bypass that
I am going to grab dinner but I will read anything you guys discuss
and will be doing the next lesson tomorrow
wait I'm sorry I need to review this stuff ignore what I said earlier for this question
it's okie
the more methods I can use the better cos I am not feeling amazing about this stuff and I have an exam on Thursday
discrete math is fun but pain π
it is fun when it clicks
yeah
if you come up with a solution lmk
yeah I might get stuck on this problem as well XD
Is the problem to prove that $1 + 3n \leq 4^{n}$?
math man
yeah I'm kinda stuck as well
Ah ok I might try to solve this in a while
OK wait I think if you deal with the special case when k = 0 for the IS claim then check and prove that is still true (it is because 4=4)
you can just assume k > 0 then do your regular thing of subbing 4^k for 3
Yeah you don't need strong induction for this one
yeah I think it's solved now
just needed to explicitly prove via calculating induction step claim for k = 0
then do the rest the usual way
Yeah mb watch this video to see what antisymmetric is
(indian accent kinda thick but this video explains the concept very well)
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=t39BW_0eEAA&ab_channel=KNOWLEDGEGATE
Okay, thank you for the video suggestion.
I literally just watched it
earlier I also didn't know what antisymmetric is lol
it's certainly not saying "not symmetric" I was clowning when I said that
what is that
Its from the oldschool book about machine learning.
this has nothing to do with connectivity from graph theory or order from number theory does it
is this for a course?
no it don't
no its for me.
Marvin Minsky - Perceptrons
perceptrons is like old school ML
Yeah
This proof looks simple. The definition is simple
Like I don't need to understand complex stuff to get it
Still I don't connect the logic flow from axiom to conclusion in both of these pages
what's your mathematical background if you dont mind me asking
does this book require abstract algebra knowledge
don't know anything about them, but thinking about it motivated me to self study combinatorics
no
its just simple logic
basically the books says we have a function which checks if poly is convex
we do that by taking any 3 points
and checking if they make line
and if middle one is not in a poly - its convex
i think i understood my answer
i mean that's not all that the book says
no its only related to my problem
and then it talks about how to check if figure is not connected
if there are two figures on paper instead of one
that's just like the notion of connectivity from graph theory
there must be
since it's well studied
so if you remove the dashed line the graph becomes disconnected
analogous to you saying there are two figures instead of one (in graph theory we would say there are two disconnected components)
a graph is connected if you can travel from one node to another via edges for any two pair of vertices (if you pulled one vertex by applying a force the whole thing moves)
graphs may be connected or disconnected but every graph is made of components that are connected. You would call them figures ig
the connections are represented by unordered pairs of points
i see
yeah i suppose you pick a point, travel to all the points you possibly could, and if at least point isn't travelled to, then the graph is disconnected
more formally a graph is denoted by (V,E) where V is the set of points and E is the set of connections
two sets
yup
i guess graph theory helps you better on visualising systems
like complex frameworks and api's
if you do enough problems to burn the brain
graph theory goes beyond literally networks although it's pretty good for representing network like objects where you have some idea of a set of elements and a set of connections between them
for example in your figure the squares could represent vertices and edges exist between pairs of vertices if the squares are in contact
then you could apply an algorithm to see if the graph is connected or not
applications connecting different math areas are motivating
or seeing how theory could be applied on problem solving
like mine
im sure i'll see them again when I take an algorithms course
which problem?
Any tips on finding the longest cycle in a graph?
Is it something you have to brute force?
can't be a because you have no means to get back
How does line with written with blue pen is justified?
i was just adding to turn the left side of the IH into the left side of the IS
it's supposed to be 2k, not 2^k
oh
i think its correct. but i would write it more simple way.
(n^2 + 2n + 1 < 2^n + 2^n)
[ (2n + 1 < 2^n ) and (n^2 < 2^n) ] --> (n^2 + 2n + 1 < 2^n + 2^n)
When you are applying matrices for relations you apply them in the same order as you would the expression you are interessed in?
in this case
I would make a matrix to represent S and R
lets call them S and R
so then it would be S * R
to get the S o R pairs I want
right?
` a b c d
a 0 1 1 0
b 0 0 0 0
c 1 0 0 1
d 0 0 0 0
S`
` a b c d
a 0 0 0 1
b 0 0 1 0
c 0 1 0 0
d 0 1 0 0
R`
S * R is the correct way to compute this.
I computed it online and it seems correct in that order with what I drew but im not sure
nvm
I think it is R * S
okay yeah it looks like it is
matrix R * matrix S
to get S o R
This is a mess

The matrix for the composition SoR is denoted by Mr*Ms, where Mr is the matrix for R and Ms is the matrix for S
we only applied the idea with the idea of graph powers
and those were always the same matrix so I didn't get any notation like this but it makes sense
Anyways, thanks
I knew my notation was a mess as soon as I started tying
I'm confused if the existence of b and c basically nullify any chance of the function being symmetric. I already proved that it can't be antisymmetric via existence of b and c
I know what "symmetric" and "antisymmetric" is but Im confused if the term is used to describe only 1 nodes or the whole graph
because I am asked to answer this quetion
Is it possible to have a relation on a set that is symmetric and antisymmetric? If so, give an example. on the problem set
I would think not if you are speaking about an entire relation
but you could have "local" portions between 2 nodes that are symmetric and 2 other nodes that are anti symmetric
I am going to go with it is describe the relation on a whole and in which case I would say NO.
So a symmetric relation is defined as:
if aRb then bRa
and antisymmetric as:
if aRb and bRa then a=b
So it is possible to construct a relation that will be both symmetric and antisymmetric at the same time by 1) making it symmetric and 2) making a=b
When we talk about these properties (reflexive, irreflexive, symmetric, asymmetric, antisymmetric and transitive) we look at the whole relation, not just a part of it
hmm so you mean 1 node?
What do you mean by a node
Yes
so 1 vertex that is reflexive
well symmetric I guess would lead to reflexive (in a 1 vertex case)
Reflexive is if for all the nodes you have a loop around them
You can have a symmetric relation without it being reflexive though
Actually
Vertices are just the points
You mean loops
Cause
R={(a, a)} would have one loop around the vertex a, and if it is constructed under the set A={a} then it will be both reflexive and symmetric but under the set A={a, b} it is not reflexive
Shouldn't the 3^k here be 3^(k-2)?
Oh wait tropo is here just ask him
If you fix that, it looks like the terms that bother you at the end will cancel each other out.
Omg
im gonna cry
thank u
how would I go about for the IS in this question
my P(n): n is odd
I don't know what else to say
like am I supposed to be using the def. of odd integer here?
You're supposed to know that the sum of three odd numbers is odd.
If you want something more symbolic than that, then yes, by all means use your definition of odd integer.
how does that get me anywhere
I'm just lost
also my prof did this problem in class
and I kind of don't understand how he did that at all tbh
like how can you just sub bk-1 and bk-2 for 4p and 4q
I simply dk what to do
How doesn't it give you everything you need:
how do I assume that any arbitrary indices are odd
how is that assumption validated
any three arb. indices*
like obv 0, 1, 2 are odd
- You know by definition that b_i is the sum of three particular numbers.
- The induction hypothesis tells you each of those three particular numbers is odd.
- You know that the sum of three odd numbers is an odd number.
- You're asked to prove that b_i is an odd number.
I'm unable to fathom how this is now not just a matter of connecting the dots in the obvious manner.
The indices are not odd -- but nobody claimed or asked for them to be.
like obv 0, 1, 2 are odd
Neither 0 nor 2 is an odd number.
i feel like im missing a step when i assume that every index is an odd number
b_0, b_1, and b_2*
Every index is not an odd number.
The indices are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ... and only every other of them is odd.
i dont mean the index number, i mean the value corresponding
like b_0 = 1, b_1 = 3, b_2 = 1
ok I get it now
ty
how did they get this as the probability of best case?
the best case there is only 1 comparison
the first element 42 or z is empty
In what you sent, there isn't a mention of 1/(2n) being the probability of best case (which I believe you mean is finding 42 immediately).
Can you clarify what you meant, or give more context?
that was the solution key
im literally gonna cry this is way too complicated
like it's time to be a business major
The probability that you get a list that contains the number 42 is 1/2.
Given a list that contains the number 42, and since it is equally likely for that 42 to be in any position, that means that getting 42 to be in the first place will have the same probability as getting 42 to be in the second, third, or any other place.
There are n such places, so for a single position you would have 1/n chance to get it.
And since we assumed that the list contains that element, the probability is (1/2) * (1/n)
Im a bit confused how to start this
like (c)
I think I have an answer
but im not sure about the others
actually idk...
Each of them is trivial, but in two different ways.
oh it is just R_3
Yes.
not trying to interrupt since youβre getting help so ignore me until youβre done, but what does \circ mean there?
same thing as
f o g
but with graphs
it is the composition
okay
I think I got it
R_1 o R_2 = {(x,y): x=y or y=x-1}
@coral parcel sorry to ping but does that sound right?
I realized the R_4 I guess is easily as it is the identity
I think this is right now
Can I get a little help with this problem? If it's a problem of telling me the exact answer could I possibly get a nudge of how to do it?
Does the Cayley graph of any finite symmetric group always have a Eulerian path?
Consider that for example 29 >= 1 and 1 < 7 ... so you should have (29,7) in R1 o R2.
How many paths pass through (30,32). How many pass through both (20,26) and (30,32)? Inclusion-exclusion principle.
Yes, every finite group in fact; it doesn't need to be a symmetric group.
@coral parcel remarkable!!
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eulerian_path#Hierholzer's_algorithm works to find one.
Thanks! I was in fact looking for a practical algorithm, for art purposes
I still have no good attack on the Hamiltonian question.
No worries, all the forums I posted it in gets no strong recommendations hehe
Could you help?
have you made any progress on this so far or are you stuck not knowing how to begin?
I don't know how to prove this
so that's a "stuck not knowing how to begin"
do you have the definition of a group written out in front of you?
okay
so you know that you need to show + is associative, that it has an identity element, and that every element has an inverse.
do you understand that these are your goals? Y/N
Yes
okay
I understood but how can we use in power sets
would you like to be taken through how to prove (A+B)+C = A+(B+C)?
you can do a proof either by element-chasing or by means of a venn diagram, whichever you prefer (as long as your teacher is okay with the venn diagram)
No, he is not okay with Venn diagram unfortunately
okay then you will have to rely on your knowledge of elementary set theory
and do a somewhat boring and bureaucratic element-chasing proof
Yes thank you Δ± will try
Can you solve combinatorical problems algebraically or geometrically?
I don't see how geometry would be useful at all
Explain
Hi everyone
Is the correct answer 220?
That's how I calculated: (12!) / (9! * 3!) = 220 π
its really depending on the actual combinatorical problem you wan't to solve. Sometimes it helps and sometimes it doesn't work at all. Eg look at the following: show that p choose k is divisible by p for p prime. p choose k is the number of opportunities to color the vertices of a regular p-gon s.t. k are white and p-k are black. You now can use the rotational symmetry of the p-gon to show that always p colorings are the same up to rotation. So the total number of colorings must be divisible by p. Of course this isn't really hard to solve without the geometric approach, but you might get the idea of what you could do
what is a skeleton of a graph? I never heard this term before...
so its the same as a spanning tree?
There are a total of 12 edges, there will always be 9 edges (so that there are no cycles in it)
and from that I got this:
(12!) / (9! * 3!)
I don't know, I thought well?
12 choose 3 is the number of possibilities to choose any 3 edges, so you also counted the case where the edges ab, bc and cd got removed. I think you don't want to count that
Is the answer 36?
How did you get it?
In the first circled part(abc),you can remove either ac,bc or ab but no two of those at once
That will be 3 possibilities
Similarly 4 for the middle rhombus
And 3 for the last circle(hij part)
Yes it can be
Okay thank you very much π
im really not sure how to approach this. is it just R1 o R2 = {(x,y): y<=x}?
i have been drawing it out and not really sure how to work with it just with the inequalities
Similarly, since 7 >= 1 and 1 < 29, you should have (7,29) in R1 o R2 too.
π I see it with examples but idk how to do it for an arbitrary number
because at the inbetween stage
you would always have some number (y) < x
(7,y_1) => y_1=x_1 => (x_1, 29)
(7, a) => (a,29)
hmm
a < 7
and
a <= 29
but idk how to relate
the 7 and 29 :/
(x, a) => (a, y)
x > a
a <= y
x > y?
Why?
Basically, when you're given an x and y, you need to ask yourself "does there exist a number that is smaller than one of these and also smaller than the other?"
well isn't that always true
Sure looks so to me.
but how did you get that from it :/
How did I get what?
^
from
This
And this
So it seems to me that you have solved the solution when you wrote:
well isn't that always true
and I'm struggling to understand what you think is still missing.
Can you come up with any example of x and y that the relation should not hold between?
Someone gives you and (x,y) and asks you "is this pair an element of R1 o R2?", which we have just agreed is the same as asking "does there exist a number that is smaller than x and also smaller than (or equal to) y?"
I don't understand what you feel is difficult about answering that question.
You already stated the correct answer.
As you wrote here, yes.
guys I have a question. Show that at most a countably infinite number of books can ever be written in English. ( We define a book to be a finite sequence of words, dividied into sentences, paragraphs and chapters) How would one go about solving this problem
Do you know that a countable union of finite sets is at most countable?
Or would it help to consider a "book" to be a string over the alphabet {a, b, c, d, ..., x, y, z, space, paragraph break, chapter break}?
(The definition in the problem seems to ask you to disregard punctuation and capitalization.)
wdym so sentences?
Oh oops, missed that. Sure, add "period" to the alphabet.
yes but this was my original answer to this question
There is a finite amount of words in the english dictionary. Using these words we can create sentences of a arbitrary size with an infinite amount of word combinations. Books are made out of pages which are numbered. Pages are of an arbitrary size and filled up with sentences which is a infinitely countable set. Then that means we can make an infinite amount of pages which are numbered and have a one to one correspondence to the set of natural numbers meaning that a infinite amount of books can be written in english
my friend said that its infinite but i need to show its countable
by showing a one to one correspondance to the set of natural numbers
but I dont know how too
The friend's criticism has merit.
I think the easiest way to argue that the set of all books is countable is to consider each book as a finite string over a common finite alphabet.
Then sort all books according to their length.
Do you agree there are only finitely many books containing, for example, exactly 123,456 symbols?
yea
So if you pick some arbitrary order to place all the books of each particular length, there will be some finite number of books (including all possible shorter ones) before any given book in the whole set.
I see but does this show a one to one correspondance to the natural numbers
Can you help pls? "A subgroup N of G is called normal if for every n 2 N and g 2 G, gngβ1 2 N.
a) Given an arbitrary subgroup H of a group G, is there a largest subgroup of G containing H as a
normal subgroup? Prove your answer.
b) Show that the subgroup K = hfgβ1hβ1gh j g; h 2 Ggi is a normal subgroup of a group G.
Map each book to the number that tells how many books there are in front of it.
ok
Why on earth are you typing the set membership symbol as the number 2?
I've seen people type "e" and "E" and "in" and "\in" and "Ξ΅" and even one time a Euro symbol, but "2"??
i think this is bad pasting
Ahahahsah I have just copy-paste. I already took a screenshot when I noticed the 2
yep
Okay.
Seems a bit harsh to make these two properties your first introduction to normal subgroups.
For (a) you might look for a condition on elements of G that means "there is no way this element can be in any H that contains N as a normal subgroup", and then hope that the set of everything that does not have this property turns out to be a subgroup.
For (b) it's more or less a follow-your-nose proof, except the definitions you need to unfold are fairly complex and the same variable letters are used for different thing in each of them - so there's a risk of getting confused by all the details. At least, that is, once you're familiar with the fact that that $gxyg^{-1}=(gxg^{-1})(gyg^{-1})$ and $gx^{-1}g^{-1}=(gxg^{-1})^{-1}$.
Troposphere
but then doesnt this give the possibly 42 is at the end of the list? and then it wont be best case


