#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 212 of 1
i have a genuine hatred for proof
on another topic, I have to simplify an expression using tautologies to reach a conclusion of F, can't get past 3 steps and I'm just scuffed.
how is discrete math defined
very loosely
set theory, logic, combinatorics, maybe even some shit with sequences and recurrence relations
all sometimes gets called discrete math
you have a genuine hatred for formalized bureaucratic proof
by the looks of it, anyway
I got no clue what that means
ekks dee
Does anybody know the answer to these?
yeah
Would you be able to help me answer them please?
If you present your answers we can help you figure out if they are correct, and if not then what is wrong with them.
But you shouldn't expect to just post a picture of your homework and then someone will do it for you.
Okay makes sense
I am learning converting decimals numbers to binary and binary to decimal numbers. I tried to do a problem where I had to convert 46 base 10 to binary. I got 10111 which is 23 and not 46. To get 46 it would be 101110. When I did the math I had 3 left over so would that make the last digit a 0? So then it would be 10111 with 3 left over being a 0 so the answer is 101110? Did I mess up somewhere?
I completely forgot the 4. That was the issue. Thanks
prove that we can separate the edges of a $K_{p^2}$ graph into $K_p$ subgraphs where p is a prime number
AeroBennu
Label the nodes of K_{p_2} with elements of the group C_p×C_p. Consider all cosets of order-p subgroups.
Let $A$, $B$ and $C$ be sets such that $\emptyset \neq A \cap B \subseteq C$. Then which of the following is not true? \
(a) $B \cap C \neq \emptyset$ \
(b) $(C \cup A) \cap (C \cup B)=C$ \
(c) If $(A-C) \subseteq B$, then $A \subseteq B$ \
(d) If $(A-B) \subseteq C$, then $A \subseteq C$
LazyKnight
Can you help me idk the answer and how I solve
I'll get onto the explanation why
I should also state this solution was for part 2
what grows faster
n or log(n)^2
I know that log(n) is slower than n
but what about the square of log(n)
Squaring doesn't help the logarithm.
okay thats what i thought
but whats the reasoning behind it?
I havent done Big-O proofs in a while and i forgot about it
Do you have to use a squeeze theorem or something?
Let's look at $\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{n}{\log(n)^2}$.
Troposphere
First we switch vatiable to $x=\sqrt n$. That gives us $\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{x^2}{4\log(x)^2}$.
Troposphere
Then we can take the square root of the fraction but immediately square it back: $$\cdots = \lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\frac{x}{2\log(x)}\right)^2.$$
But we know that $\frac{x}{2\log x}$ goes to infinity, so its square does likewise.
Troposphere
shouldnt that be log(sqrt(x))?
No, since log(n) = log(x²) = 2log(x).
log(x^2) = log(x) * log(x) ?
oh wait
im dumb
yeah okay
where does the 4 come from?
Since log(n) = 2log(x), the original log²(n) becomes 4log²(x).
By similar reasoning we can show that n^a eventually grows faster than log(n)^b for any positive a and b, even n^0.01 versus log(n)^100.
(even though that particular pair doesn't break even until somewhere between n=2^100,000 and n=2^1,000,000).
Hey, we think this proof is impossible, they ask us to do a rigorous proof but it doesn't seem to work well backward
what do you mean backward? this proof is not impossible. B intersect C is a subset of B and a subset of C…
your set is A = {1,2,3,4}. the equivalence relation is E = {(1,1), (2,2), (3,1), (3,2), (4,2)}. check that for x,y,z in A, if xEy and yEz, then xEz.
yes
but the explanation is "this is transitive because there is no counterexample"
you just have to try all possibilities
(though there arent much arrows you can "chain together" in the first place, its pretty much only loops you can "chain to" any arrow, and those dont break transitivity)
Sorry for the late reply. The book is The William Lowell Putnam Mathematical Competition 2001 - 2016.
Guys is Game Theory part of discrete math
"Discrete math" is not really a crisply-defined area of mathematics. If you have a question of game theory you'd like to discuss, this channel or #combinatorial-structures would probably be the best channels to try in.
Perhaps think of the existence of a cycle a-b-c-d-a as "Vertices a and c have at least two neighbors in common".
Instead of what I said? Perhaps.
I don't particularly see how, though.
There are N points on a circle. How many N-sided polygons (not necessarily convex) can be formed with these points as vertices? How to think about those kinda problems?
Your polygons don't have to be convex, but can they self-intersect?
yes
Can the same vertex be used twice? E.g. for N=6, will 1-2-3-1-4-5-1 be a valid solution?
Sounds good.
Yes
Would 1-2-3-4-3-5-1 also be a solution, despite the angle at 4 being degenerate?
It's a yes. Because the polygon is formed still.
But 1-2-3-3-4-5-1 wouldn't, I suppose.
Huh, I thought you already had that.
There are 2r-2 vertices that are not your chosen ones. Each chosen vertex has r of them as neighbors ...
the author gave the answer which is n!/(2n)
wanted to hear different angles how to approach these kind of problems
That's the answer if vertices cannot be used twice. Which is much easier.
got it
It's a bit confusingly worded, especially with the "a or c". How about choosing one of them and say:
There are r-2 vertices that are neither a nor c nor adjacent to a. This implies that at least 2 of the r neighbors of c are also adjacent to a.
I would say: No two vertices of the K50 subgraph can be neighbors in the cycle, so the cycle is at least 100 vertices long. On the other hand, if the cycle does have 100 vertices, we can pick every other vertex, and subgraph they induce in the complement will then be a K50.
Um, could you stop pinging me with new problems, please?
could someone check my proof
suppose f: X -> Y is a function and let A, B subset X. prove if A subset B then f[A] subset f[B] where f[A], f[B] denotes the image of A, B respectively
proof: pick y in f[A] then y in Y such that y=f(a) for some a in A
since f[B] is a set that contains all elements in Y that are mapped from every element in B we know that f(a) is in f[B] due to A subset B, since every element a in A, a in B.
thus we see that f[A] subset f[B]
ye
sweet, thanks!
What is the math word to define relashion between two permutation when they make the same cycle? like 1 2 3 4 and 2 3 4 1 ?
"equality"
good. thanks.
Im having trouble with this coefficient extraction. What do I do once I have a product of two sums?
Hi, I'm not sure where to ask this question but. I am writing a small recursive function to generate permutations of the elements of an array with size n. But I've been reading about the random shuffles and I am wondering whether I can just run the shuffle function some number of times >= to n! o get the same result? After googling for a bit, it seems like a limitation is that pseudo-random number generator has a limited number of internal states. Can anyone elaborate more on this limitation? Or maybe point to be a good article on PRNG internal states? Is there an n too large that a PRNG would not allow me to compute permutations using something like fisher-yates shuffle?
You can always get permutations, but if n is large compared to the internal state size, you might not be able to get every possible permutation out. Even so, it is kinda hard to imagine a scenario where that would create a problem in practice.
If K is a compact convex set in the plane w nonempty interior , then there exists a line which bisects K into two parts of equal area and perimeter. This seems like clear visually, but how do I go about showing this
Like we can obviously get the area part to work if we take any line intersecting k and rotating that line
since the area changes continuously on each half space of the line as we rotate the line
Parameterize the perimeter of K by arc length as p:[0,L] -> R^2.
Consider how the line between p(0) and p(L/2) splits the area of K. If that line splits K into equal-area parts you're done.
Otherwise, sucessively consider the lines from p(t) to p(L/2 + t) as t grows from 0 to L/2. At the end the difference between the area to the left and the right of the line has changed sign. At some point it must have passed 0.
So visually what is happening in what you described -- it seems like the area part of your idea is similar to this rotation idea, but I don't see geometrically what the perimeter part is doing
Since I've specifying parameterizing by arc length, the perimeters of the two parts will be equal by construction no matter what t is.
Good evening, would anyone be able to help me with a combinatorics question?
Is anyone help to help me with linear orderings by any chance?
I'm a little bit confused on something
∃x : ∀y ≥ x : P(y) In the context of limits, these terms refer to some (unspecified, even unknown) point at which a phenomenon prevails as the limit is approached. A statement such as that predicate P holds for sufficiently large values, can be expressed in more formal notation by ∃x : ∀y ≥ x : P(y). See also eventually.
how do I read the stuff in quotes
I understand it says There exist some x and for all y
but I am not sure how I parse it all together
Do the : have a specific meaning here
do the ":" denote "such that"
yes
is the fact that they mean such that enough to answer your question or do you need more explanation
I understand it but it really doesn't make sense just replacing it with "such that". There exist some x "such that" forall y >= x such that P(y). I would read it more like There exist some x such that for all y >= x p(y) is true
at least the part after the for all y >= x
but I get it
I think
Your reading of it is correct. I get why having the second colon mean "such that" is confusing, reading it again the second colon is odd lol. usually you'd see a comma or something in its place. Given the surrounding text explaining what it means though, There exists some x such that for all y >= x p(y) is true is a good reading of it
the colon for such that is usually seen with an existential quantifier(∃) or in set builder notation, not with a universal quantifier(∀)
Have I formulated this correctly?
I'm not sure about the objective function.
<@&286206848099549185>
since I didn't include any x variables, I'm unsure if the objective function is correct or not, as it looks weird
but in the question it says it just want to maximise Time cycling and running
doesnt mention swimming
the objective doesn't have to mention all of the variables
obviously, if a variable doesn't participate in the problem at all you should just drop it as it'll be completely free
Ah ok wicked, so does it look like I formulated it properly? because next part is initial tableu of two-stage simplex and I don't want to start it with an incorrect part a
but in this problem, x (time spent swimming) is not completely free because it participates in at least some constraints
your constraints appears at first glance to me to be correct
I see, so are you saying I need to include it in my objective function?
no, it's sufficient that it appears in at least one constraint, which it does
if it didn't appear in any constraints, you'd get a singular constraint matrix, which would be problematic. bt you can fix that by deleting the variable from the problem. but that's not the caes here, just providing a practice note.
oh ok cool, cheers.
these constraints appear sufficient to at least guarantee a bounded solution
np
u can see on the bottom what I've done
I have 2 artificial variables but in the table provided there is only 1, so what have I done wrong?
oh, man i haven't done one of these by hand in decades
oh, slack variables, right
ok, three slack, that appears correct
yh its the artificials which are apparently wrong
it's been years and i don't want to give yuo bad advice, so i'm reading through the formal algorithym again, give me a moment
np, i appreciate it
I guess I could swap the 3x >= inequality?
and make it 2y + 2z - 3x <= 0
and then I wouldn't need the artificial variable?
i'm trying to find a clear definition of canonical form thta is actually written in words i understand
i use LPs all the time, but i usually just use software because the programs i'm dealing with have hundreds or thousands of variables and doing them by hand is...
haha yeah understandable
are u a data scientist?
not really, a lot of the time this shows up in gaming contexts actually
ah ok, what's your job?
parent
finding an optimal strategy, proving one exists, proving that the game is exploitable or not exploitable, stuff like that
game design more than game playing
also writing ais to play games
Bring the constraints into equality form. For each constraint in which the slack
variable and the right-hand side have opposite signs, or in which there is no slack
variable, add a new artificial variable that has the same sign as the right-hand
side.
i think the issue is that you didn't canonicalize x+z >= 28 correctly
no, sorry, that one is right, it's the other that's wrong
you don't need an artificial variable in the second equation because its RHS is already 0
so only the third equation requires an artificial variable to canonicalize it
Ah ok thanks
A gambler played the following game with a friend. The gambler bet half the money in his pocket on the toss of a coin; he won on heads and lost on tails. The coin was tossed and the money handed over. The game was repeated, each time for half the money held by the gambler. At the end, the number of times the gambler lost was equal to the number of times he won. Did he gain, lose, or break even?
I thought that $\mathbf{E} = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{x}{2} - \frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{x}{2} = 0$
Where x is the amount of money he starts with. Why is that wrong?
n/c
that's for only one round
starting with x and playing the game for one round the gambler ends up with either x/2 or 3x/2 in bank
so your issue is probably that you did not make it clear to yourself what your E really represents @weary tiger
||also you don't even need to do any expected value shit here||
I understand that but what if I wanted to?
you want to shoehorn some probabilistic shit into this?
I don't know what you mean by shoehorn, I just want to apply the definition of expected value but it is proving to be difficult
before you apply the definition of expected value you need to make it clear to yourself what you're taking the expected value of.
So I understand that's a single round, but it seems kind of impossible to go from there because we need casework depending on whether he loses or wins
i mean let's be honest
the change in the gambler's bank is multiplicative, not additive.
it is multiplied by a random variable which takes values 1/2 or 3/2 with 50% probability each
though calculating the expected value of the product of n independent copies of this will give you 1 [since E(XY) = E(X)E(Y) when X and Y are independent], which isn't very informative.
So there's no easy way to use expected value here?
yes, i would say there isn't.
i hope there is nobody (not even yourself) holding you at gunpoint to solve this problem "using expected value" or else.
I was just checking to make sure.
anyway just to be clear the gambler's final bank is (3/4)^k times his starting bank, where 2k is the length of the game (k wins, k losses)
I know, thank you.
One subtle point here is that if we don't have the assumption of "exactly as many wins as losses" but instead take the expected value over all possible sequences of wins and losses, then the gambler's expected pocket at the end is exactly what he started with.
There are some (rather unlikely) sequences with a lots of wins where you end up very rich which pull the average upwards from the median. There are other sequences with a lot of losses which are exactly as unlikely, but they don't pull the average downwards to the same degree, because those unlikely additional losses don't have much of a dollar value.
So the scenario serves as an illustration of a case where the formal concept "expected value" is quite misleading and not even close to the most likely range of outcomes.
New to equivalence relations and classes here, but I was wondering if it is a good practice for when two objects are in (equivelance) relation to each other, to consider them as "equal" but in a different context/world . For example, 1 = 6 mod 5 , so 1 and 5 are equal but in this context. Or is this generally bad
this is kind of the point
you forget information by treating two different objects as the same up to something
(in this case "up to" divisibility by 5)
Oooh yes, sorry I'm quite new to this stuff and wasn't super sure
But thank you for your reply!
i mean you figured out decent intuition for it yourself, so thats good
Thank you!
I'd just be careful with calling it equality
Because it's not equality, it's some other equivalence relation
If 2 lines are parallel and non-intersecting, we don't say they're the same line. We just say they're parallel
So you don't say 1=6, you say 1=6 (mod 5). I'm pretty sure you'd generally use a different symbol in place of the equals (like an equals sign but with 3 lines) but idk the latex for it or even what it's called
In my head it's always been "threequals" 
But you're right, under the equivalence relation of mod 5, 1 and 6 are identical
$\equiv$
Troposphere
Latex symbol names make so much sense but only after you learn what they are
Yeah it's that one
$1\equiv 6\equiv 11\equiv -4$ (mod 5)
hiiistrex
in the proof, where does the x^2 >= 0 abd y^2 >= 0 come from
and how do they get the y<= -2 or y>= 2
x^2 >= 0 and y^2 >= 0 comes from squaring a number is always non negative. There are saying any integer y <= -2, it follows y^2 >= 4, hence y cannot satisfies that equation since 5y^2 >= 20, same for the other case. You can show If a <= b < 0 then a^2 >= b^2. It basically says if a solution exist, it must be -2 < y < 2.
if you were to do that in terms of x would it be -2, -1, 0, 1, 2,?
since 2(3)^2 would be greater than 14
with 2 included since 2(2)^2 would be less than 14
oh yeah when they do 5y^2 >= 20, where does the x go
it seems to just disappear from the equation
Do you understand if 5y^2 >= 20, then it not possible 2x^2 + 5y^2 = 20. For the equation to hold, it must be -2 < y < 2. If we were to do it with x, we notice if x <= -3(or 3), then x^2 >= 9 then 2x^2 >= 18 which would not satisfy that equation. So if a solution exist then it must be -3 < x < 3. Observe if we had said if x <= -2, then x^2 >= 4 hence 2x^2 >= 8. So it is possible the equation still holds.
We are eliminating cases for y.
After that we went through each remaining case for y, to check if the equation holds.
so when we do problems like these then most of the time we want to solve for y?
We are not solving for y, we are trying to find the bounds for x or y, which if a solution exist then it must be within those bounds. Doing that reduces the problem to checking if each integer in those bounds satisfies the equation(hence equation reduces to a single variable).
Does this make sense now?
kind of
Which part are you confused at?
im still confused at why we can only find the bounds for y and not for x
We can do it for both, it just it doesn’t matter then since doing it for one reduces the equation above to several cases which we are only dealing with one variable in the equation.
ohh i see now
In fact it they do this for both when doing the cases.
That is how they choose x = 0, 1, -1, 2, -2.
kk ty
is contrapositive of converse always inverse ?
@silent cave yes
Is this identity correct? The book I’m studying for asks to prove it, but doesn’t this counter example disprove it?
b=5, a=b+5k =5, 10, 15, 20…, x=3
bx = 15, ax=bx+5kx = 15, 30, 45 which does not fit the definition so (ax, bx) is not in R
R is an equivalence relation over Z where K is any whole number, x is any whole number
If I am doing binary addition and am adding 1111 + 110101 then would it matter if I put the answer as
0100100 instead of 100100 because they are the same number. Is there a big difference between having the 0 at the front or not having it?
So 0100100 is the same as 100100 correct?
Yes
Thank you
The result should be 1000100 (sixty-eight) rather than 100100 (thirty-six), though.
Hi, I need help with this. What should a and b be in p(a|b)?
Does master theorem apply in such questions?
I saw a solution where It was applied where f(n) = Nlog(n)
Does anyone have an idea on how to complete the last question (rd^-1)?
well, do you know what the inverse of a relation is?
I have to write a proof for that. But I'm confused as to what I'm supposed to prove. Isn't that just {...,-47, 0, 47, 94}. Can someone explain it to me
The proof is showing those two sets are equal, I am assuming.
what two sets? isn't the whole thing just one set?
how did you get that the RHS is "just {...,-47, 0, 47, 94}"
Do you know what it means two set A and B are equal?
you plug what into what
I pluged in integer values into the 33a and 14b to get {...,-47,0,47,97}
do you think a and b have to be the same?
they do not
so i have no idea what the ... is supposed to signify
Showing A <= B and B <= A, where <= denotes subset.
(just use 'sub' in plaintext)
If 2 graphs have the same degree sequence, does it follow that they are isomorphic ?
no
yeah, I think I found a counter example nvm wasnt a counter example
What does it mean to prove something using definitions of even and odd numbers? I answered it by saying "A number is even if it is divisible by 2 without any remainder, and it is odd if it returns a remainder." and "n = 2k is even and n=2k + 1 is odd." Apparently, she marked both wrong.
post the whole question
there are a few ways to think of one
wikipedia has a nice example
you didnt do the exercise then?
you just wrote what odd and even means
what exercise?
the proposition 1 in your picture
I solved the proof. She just took off points for not using the "definition of odd and even"
contradiction tho, assume a is even then a+1, a-1 are both odd
odd times odd = odd
so contradiction
:/
How come, lets say, if two homogeneous relations being Ra and Rb are transitive then Ra ∩Rb is also transitive?
yes, though I'm not sure how that relates to R_d^-1
Does anyone know how I can use the pigeonhole principle here? like, how to start
i could think of something
try to set the points as far as you can one from another
do it with 9 points, try to fit in the 10th one
If a simple graph G has more than one spanning tree then G cannot be a tree right? If each spanning tree provides a unique path between all vertices then we have found more than one unique path for each pair of vertices of G, s.t it cannot be a tree. Thats what I am thinking anyways
I think pythagorean Theorem might also be helpful once you do what Adazak said
that is correct. would be a nice exercise for you to try and prove that! shouldn't be that difficult
@hoary cloak well we can assume by contradiction that G is a tree with two spanning trees which leads to a contradiction since we end up with more than one path between each pair of vertices which is not allowed in a tree.
i mean yeah i would add that two distinct paths between two vertices form a cycle and by definition trees do not have cycles just for the sake of extra rigor
thanks for the help. I should be able to figure rest of it out
when writing proofs, Can I assume that unit square is 1/3 by 1/3? or is that not allowed?
this won't set you back in this particular question but in general assigning constant values randomly can get you into pitfalls
btw is a 3-connected graph the same thing as a 3-regular graph? I take it 3-connected just means that each vertex is connected to three other vertices.
no
what you described is 3-regular
3-connected means that you need to remove at least 3 arbitrary vertices to make it disconnected
ahh, yes that makes sense. So in a way its a measure of how connected a graph is ?
K_6 is not 3-regular but it is 3-connected
think of it as how much the graph can endure getting its vertices removed by an attacker before getting disconnected, if that makes sense
important to notice that is it is k-connected, any k-1 vertices removed will not disconnect it
right, thanks
np!
For nested existential quantifiers can x and y be the same value?
Exp: ExEyP(x-y=1) - can x and y be the same value?
existentially bound variables can take on the same value, yes
Ok thank you!
Hey guys, what does the (n 2) mean in the paragraph?
Google “n choose k”
how can I find number of terms in expansion of
(w + x + y + z)^10
refer to the multi nominal theorem and the number of weak compositions of an integer
What allows him to equate (from < to =) an equation? Is there a rule for changing it?
idk if i understood it correctly just from this image, but he's calculating big O notation which is an upper bound
Can someone help me understand the difference in proper subset and subset?
if A is a subset of B, every element of A is in B.
But in a proper subset, the difference is every element of B is not in A
Does this mean in a subset, every element of B is also in A?
As in A is a subset of B and B is a subset of A?
A is a subset of B, if every element from A is in B, yes. But A is a proper subset of B, if A is a subset of B and there is at least one element in B, which is not in A. So A is a proper subset of B, if A is a subset of B and $A \neq B$
Alexander42
What does that say about a subset?
That if A is a subset of B, then B is a subset of A?
no. if A is a subset of B, it allows for the possibility that A = B. if you want to emphasize that this is not the case, then one says that A is a proper subset of B.
for example, (-1,1) is a subset of R and a proper subset of R. every set is a subset of itself and no set is a proper subset of itself
professor wrote ~ in R^2 is an equivalence relation
(x1,y1) ~ (x2,y2) if
y1-y2 = 2(x1-x2)
they said write the set of
equivalence classes
for C(0,0)
they said that set is
C(0,0) = {(k,2k) : k in R}
how did they calculate that?
plug x1 = 0 = y1 into the definition
you get -y2 = -2x2
which is just that
the second coordinate is twice the first
how did they calculate x2 ? plug y=2x2 back into the original equation?
let’s say you wanted to calculate C(1,0) then is that
0-y2 = 2(1-x2)
-y2 = 2-2x2
y2 = 2x2 - 2
?
and to solve for x2:
0-(2x2 - 2) = 2(1-x2)
-2x2 + 2 = 2 - 2x2
-2x2 = -2x2
x2 = x2
so C(1,0) = { (x2, 2x2 - 2) : x2 in R }
is that how you’d calculate it
i dont get what your "solving" does
but C(1,0) = { (x2, 2x2 - 2) : x2 in R } already follows from what you did above
to write out the equivalence class
C(1,0) = { (x2, 2x2 - 2) : x2 in R }
is the set of all elements in C(1,0) no?
yes
this is what you did here
the example in class was to write that set but they didn’t show their work
i dont get this
so i was wondering if i did C(1,0) correctly to understand
that’s plugging y2=x2 into the equation
how did they calculate x2
calculate x2?
yes you want to write tuples
you just need the relationship between x2 and y2 to write down the thing
which is what you did
C(1,0) = { (x2, 2x2 - 2) : x2 in R }
i dont see how you used the other thing at all
then is my method for solving x2 wrong? i don’t understand how to find x2
i dont know what finding x2 entails
here you calculated what must be true for (x2, y2) to be in C(1, 0)
and you showed that y2 = 2x2-2
your solution is x2 = x2, which is not helpful
you should also solve for x2 i assume
i see how to solve for y2
i don’t see how to find x2
you can only find one
you have an equation in 2 unknowns
but you only have 1 equation
you can either write x2 in terms of y2 or y2 in terms of x2
it doesnt matter what you do
you could also write C(1,0) = { (x2, 2x2 - 2) : x2 in R } = { (y2/2+1, y2) : y2 in R }
so the general procedure is the solve for say y2 and then write (x2, blank) and then write y2 in the blank
yes
ok i see
you can do it the other way around if that looks better
i guess that’s solving for y2 in terms of x2
in this case i think it doesnt, because you have to divide the y2 by 2
Hello, can someone give me a hint on how I can write the formal proof for every n>=1, a_n+1 <= a_n?
I know that this sequence is bounded below by sqrt 2, and intuitively I know that it's decreasing because we are just continuously dividing as n approaches infinity (of the sequence)
I'm just stuck on how I can actually write this formally
how about a proof by induction?
oh yes, sorry about that I forgot to mention that I needed help with the proof by induction, I started by writing down the base case already and I wrote let n>=1, assume a_k <= a_k-1 for every k = 1, ..., n
I'm just stuck now because I don't know how to show that for a_n+1, this would hold true
something like this?
Why is there an equality there if you're trying to prove an inequality?
He has an inequality at the end?
i was thinking that since it's smaller or equal, I can set it a_k+1 = a_k-1/2 + 1/a_k-1
Kinda confusing since a_(k-1) is not equal the RHS expression in the last line
Oh whoops
I might be wrong but I think it's less confusing to use an inequality sign and then replace the terms
And then show that the inequality holds
like on the last line?
a_k+1 <= (a_k-1)/2 + 1/(a_k-1) <= a_k?
Your 3rd line equality is wrong, you should then plug in a_{k-1}/2 instead of a_k
the equality where i wrote a_k = a_k-1/2 + ... ?
No that is 2nd line
Yeah, what I'm saying is that the left side is not equal to the right side in the last line so there shouldnt be an equal sign
okay yeah i see what you mean
it should look more like this
On what basis are you saying a_k+1 is smaller than a_k tho? That's not your assumption
I think I just don't get that part, I know that a_k <= a_k-1
and i tried using that into the first equality where i wrote a_k+1 = a_k /2 + ...
You didn't really use it, the first 2 lines are basically just the given equality for a_n
What you want to do is make an assumption for some inequality, and then prove another inequality, such that if the assumption is true, the inequality you proved would be true as well
Try to prove that a_k+1 >= a_k after making your assumption
By writing that exact statement down
And then manipulating the inequality as if it were true
Until you reach something that is definitely true
so writing down a_k+1 <= a_k
and manipulating this using the fact that a_k <= a_k-1
is that what you mean?
or the other way around
I do mean that
okay ill try that out thank you
You just want to write down the statement I said and prove that it's true, and you'll probably be able to do that using the assumption
Sure
I did solve this if you want a solution but you should try it yourself
so, I tried something like this:
I wrote down a_k+1 <= a_k along with their equalities, and I said that since the sequence is bounded below by sqrt2, we have that
-sqrt2 <= a_n <= +sqrt2
and then with the assumption, if a_k <= a_k-1, then a_k/2 <= a_k-1/2
1/a_k >= 1/a_k-1 but this will become irrelevant as n approaches infinity because these values will converge to 0, leaving us with just a_k/2 <= a_k-1/2 which implies that a_k+1 <= a_k
I don't think it's a good idea to just forget about the 1/a_k and 1/a_k-1, they are still relevant at least when using induction
I havent checked if they approach zero but even if they do they still matter when asking if one value is bigger than the other
Other than that the proof might be good but kinda hard to understand through text
I wasn't sure how to show that despite 1/a_k >= 1/a_k-1, these usually retrieve a small value that won't change the original inequality by much since we're just adding a small number
the other part of the sum was more trivial because with the assumption it's easy to show that a_k/2 <= a_k-1/2
A much easier argument would be to write that the inequality that needs to be proven, and replace on of the terms with a value that is bigger or smaller than itself. For example
R.T.P: a < b
Assumption a < c
If we replace a with c in the first inequality, and prove that is true, (c<b) it definitely follows that a<b because a<c and c<b
I don't think that proves what you want to prove
There might be a way to prove it but you wouldn't need to think about it this way using induction
okay so what I'm thinking now is that replacing a_k by a_k-1 in the equality for a_k+1
It shows that a_k+1 <= a_k is true
now when you say a smaller value than itself, I'm not sure what that means in this context
In the example c is bigger than a
So we're replacing a with a bigger value and proving the inequality still holds true
oops sorry, i meant smaller value*
since i'm replacing a_k by a_k-1 knowing that a_k-1 >= a_k
Same thing with a smaller value, if you replace b with a smaller value and show that the inequality still holds true, then the original inequality must be true
you take the expression, make it smaller using what you assumed in your hypothesis and then show that it's still bigger than the other side
Yeah that's a much better explanation
this is what I understand from your explanations
on LHS i replaced a_k by a_k-1, making the LHS bigger
and on the second line i replaced the RHS a_k-1 by a_k making it smaller ?
@empty sequoia try expressing $a_{n+2}$ in terms of $a_n$
crossbeam
it would be a_k+1/2 + 1/a_k+1
and that should be what i replace in the last inequality?
in terms of $a_n$, not $a_{n+1}$
crossbeam
would that take the whole expression of a_k+1 over 2 + the reciprocal of the whole expression of a_k+1?
sounds right, yes
yeah, i think thats a good idea.
@gilded marsh what are you thinking of doing for it?
i'd recommend creating a variable a and b for the first and second numbers. Then having some m and n respectively [figure out how these come into play]. Not sure if they're wanting an algebraic proof but thats what I would do
"Let a be an odd integer and b be an even integer. Then a can be expressed as ___ ..." is ur start
I have a word "TALLAHASSEE"
L repeated 2 times
S repeated 2 times
E repeated 2 times
A repeated 3 times
how to find the number of ways in which 2A's are adjascent?
hmm i got it by using inclusion-exclusion principle
yeah ive got it now, thanks
yes but no one answered?
fair, but you still didnt tell what you tried
Define $\sim$ on $\mathbb{R}^3$ as follows: $(x_1,y_1, z_1) \sim (x_2,y_2, z_2)$ if $x_2 - x_1 = 0$. How can I calculate the equivalence class of $(0,0,1)$ and what is a geometric description of this, so that I have some intuition about the problem?
strings
writing that out I get: (0,0,1) ~ (x2, y2, z2) if x2-0=0
so x2=0
but not sure how to proceed from there in calculating it
so C(0,0,1) = { (0,y2,z2): y2, z2 in R} ?
yes
think of R^3 as euclidean space
with x, y, z coordinates
if the first coordinate is always 0 that means ...
it's always centered at the origin
what is?
i dont know what this is supposed to mean
but its probably wrong
y and z are arbitrary
i think of the coordinates as "walking in the cardinal directions"
so you can walk into y, z directions arbitrarily far
but in x directions you are not allowed to walk at all
that makes sense
My next question is just understanding a statement of these claims: Given a partition {Si}i in I of U we can define relation ~ on U as a ~ b if there exist i in I such that a in Si, b in Si, claim 1: ~ is an eq. relation. Claim 2: Let ~ be an eq relation on U, then {Ci: a in U} forms a partition of U. I want to see if this thinking is correct: Claim 1 seems to say you have a family of sets and if you define a relation on each set so that every element in a particular set is related to each other and any two elements in distinct sets aren't related. Claim 2 seems to say you can define an equivalence. class for each of the sets so all the elements in S1 form an eq. class C1 where all the elements in C1 are just the elements in set S1. Is that a correct understanding of these 2 claims?
kind of but it feels overcomplicated
what's an easier way to describe it
these claims basically say that equivalence relations and partitions are, in a certain strict sense, the same thing
and how to go back and forth between them
related to this specific a~b is my description correct
your description of the equivalence class of (0,0,1) under that relation you gave?
ah no
the one Given a partition {Si}i in I of U we can define relation ~ on U as a ~ b if there exist i in I such that a in Si, b in Si, claim 1: ~ is an eq. relation.
sure
k
like
the equivalence relation is "a~b iff a and b lie in the same part of the partition"
so like U={S1,S2}, S1={a,b,c}, S2={d,e,g} then we have a~b, b~c for example but a not related to d, and C1 = { a,b,c } ?
sure
cool
just did a proof of this type for the first time want to see if this is good
define ~ on R^3 as: (x1,y1,z1) ~ (x2,y2,z2) if x2-x1=0:
Show ~ is an equivalence relation
proof :
~ is reflexive iff for all x1,y1,z1 in R^3 we have (x1,y1,z1) ~ (x1,y1,z1)
(x1,y1,z1) ~ (x1,y1,z1) means x1-x1=0, thus ~ is reflexive
~ is symmetric iff for all x1,y1,z1,x2,y2,z2 in R^3 if we have (x1,y1,z1) ~ (x2,y2,z2) then we also have (x2,y2,z3) ~ (x1,y1,z1)
since (x1,y1,z1) ~ (x2,z2,y2)
then: x2-x1 = 0
adding x1-x2 to both sides of that equation we obtain
x1-x2+x2-x1 = 0 + x1-x2
=>
0 = 0 + x1 - x2
=>
x1 - x2 = 0
thus we see
(x2,y2,z2) ~ (x1,y1,z1)
hence ~ is symmetric
~ is transitive iff for all x1,y1,z1, x2,y2,z2, x3, y3,z3
if (x1,y1,z1) ~ (x2,y2,z2) & (x2,y2,z2) ~ (x3,y3,z3), then (x1,y1,z1) ~ (x3,y3,z3).
we have equations:
(1)x2-x1 = 0
(2)x3-x2 = 0
adding (1),(2) we obtain
x3-x1 = 0
hence ~ is transitive
therefore ~ is an equivalence relation
reflexive seems so obvious i wasn’t sure how to word it
could i get a check for that ^
bruh is this even a legit question
A graffiti artist used red spray on a flat green wall. Prove that one can find two points of the wall so that they are both of the same color and the midpoint of the segment connecting them is also of that same color.
how does my teacher expect me to prove this
i mean, if what is the artist just painted one dot
if the artist painted one red dot you can take two points far away from it with the segment joining them completely in the green
but there are no more red dots
i dont understand what you mean tbh
it doesn't say "prove that there exist two red points whose midpoint is also red"
it says "prove that there exist two points of the same color s.t. their midpoint is that same color"
i.e. 3 points of the same color, one of them being the midpoint of the other two
that said, this problem feels vaguely topological in nature and im not sure what the intended line of attack is for it...
oh
so what if there are no more red dots? did i say the points we pick had to be red? no, of course i didn't. in fact i said we were going for GREEN points.
well, i can imagine this is always true
but i have no idea how to prove it
any ideas?
do you want me to repeat my no
i was speaking to everyone else in a way
can i get a proof check on this
anyone know?
Is this system Idempotent??
< P(s), union, intersection >
where P(s) is powerset of S
what does idempotent mean in this context
The hell is discrete maths supposed to be
some topics are mentioned in the topic
i would guess that union and intersection would be idemptotent
is the e statement true or false?
i was thinking that
a^n b^n c^n is NOT a CFL
and this example is close to that case
It’s not a CFL. Since CFLs are closed under concatenation, if the language were a CFL, so would
{a}•L = {a^nb^nc^n}
Which is a contradiction
Can I get help on this?
Suppose that a pyramid is on a regular hexagonal base. The triangular faces are isosceles of the same dimension and are labelled 1,2,3,4,5,6 in a cyclic order. What will be the group of geometric transformations that leaves the pyramid invariant (symmetries), if the transformations were expressed as permutations of the faces?
For a), it might be helpful to remember that the empty language is regular. So you should be able to show that it is false
For b), try showing that the complement of the language {ww : w \in {0, 1}*} is context-free
For c), it might be helpful to look at subsets of L’. Clearly, if L is a subset of L’, then the union is L’ which is regular. Can you construct a nonregular language L which is a subset of L’?
Hallo!
I have an encoding function for natural numbers
its f(x,y) = ((x+y)(x+y+1))/2 + y
this should give a new unique natural number for every pair of N x N
im trying to reverse this and create a function, rev1 : N -> N: rev1(f(x,y)) = x
its harder than i thought and im struggling.
Does anyone have some leads for me?
why is {ww : w \in {0, 1}*} not context free?
Consider the word (0^p1^p)(0^p1^p) and show that it breaks at least one of the axioms of the Pumping Lemma for CFL
@echo lagoon is this your first time working with functions?
yea
but i got help
mkay
What happens in ~(p and q) ?
do we distribute the negation?
im having some trouble differentiating it with ~p and ~q
De Morgan’s laws says that we pretty much “distribute the negative” on p and q AND flip the sign in the middle (so and -> or)
So that would be ~p OR ~q
My issue comes from the notation
so when I see negation outside a parantheses, i should think dem?
does this also apply for ~p and ~q, ~p or ~q
this might sound stupid but what exactly is the difference in~(p and q) and ~p and ~q
i did draw the truth tables and they are not equivalent
yeah ~(p and q) equivalent to ~p or ~q
i get demorgan
the notation is just messing with me
couldnt this also be de morgan? ~p and ~q equivalent to ~(p or q) ?
Alright ty
Does an automorphism over a graph help by making a seemingly complicated problem more approachable by remapping stuff to a more familiar arrangement? Also, I am not sure if this is the correct channel, direct me somewhere else if it isn't
seems like you are in the correct channel (we also talk about graph theory here), also i can't think of an instance of what you're saying right now, mind giving an example?
From what I understand about isomorphisms and automorphisms (not a lot), if you have a very complex graph with say 20 vertices and 20 edges, you could remap it onto a 20-gon to be able to solve the problem of "what is the most efficient way to go through all the points"
i don't see how that would help
especially because not every graph of that form is a 20-gon
Anybody have a moment to explain diophantine equation? I'm having hard time to understand the concept from this video.
Well, that was an example. If you have n vertices and m edges, you could remap the graph into something more familiar
The question is, is that helpful at all?
afaik graph isomorphism (particularly subgraph isomorphism) is helpful in solving an infinitude of problems in math and CS, but not as a mean so "remap" a graph into something. it's not something i studied in depth, but i never really did this
i might be wrong
I'm in fact learning this for a cs thing, tho I was just wondering about the uses of automorphisms since the pdf I'm reading is brief, too brief. Sometimes I get confused about why I'm learning what I am
i mean, if you can prove that a graph has a non-trivial automorphism, it is symmetric, which means it has some interesting properties you could use
every graph has trivial automorphism ofc (just map each vertex into itself)
Hm, what would a non-trivial automorphism be? Stuff like turning the graph 90 degrees and remapping that?
Actually
you shouldn't worry about the geometry of this stuff
I said it wrongly, should've asked about trivial automorphisms
think of a cycle graph and you send a vertex to one that is right next to it
that is a non-trivial automorphism
trivial automorphism means each vertex maps into itself, which is ofc always possible in every graph
Ok, then I have another question
How do you know if a graph has an isomorphism with another?
Wait
Nvm
it is np complete
The pdf covers that, iirc it is about checking every single possibility
Which honestly sucks computationally
n! ew
actually
no
i was wrong
subgraph isomorphism is np complete
graph isomorphism class isn't known apparently?
that's right but no poly algorithm is known to solve that 
Is it part of the whole P vs NP thing or is it just randomly really hard to get a good algorithm?
it is part of the P vs NP thing for a somewhat complicated reason. it's one of the problems thought to be in the np intermediate class (problems in NP that are not in P or NP complete). proving that this problem doesn't belong in any of these classes means that p != np
it's a "special" problem
what if you prove there is a faster method?
p = np?
i assume that by faster you mean poly, then the answer is (i think) not necessarily
if it was already proven to be np hard and you found this algorithm then by all means that would be the case
gotcha. Thanks
👍
I am trying to find the number of unique ways to multiply 2 2 167 3 together
so I know i need to find the number of unique subsets of this multiset since multiplication is commutative and we have 2 2's
so [2,2,167,3]
one method I tried
was
doing (4 choose 2) + (4 choose 3) + (4 choose 4)
but this gets me one short
As in how many ways to write it down?
Should be 12 right
I forget if it has a name but there's an extension of the choose function that does exactly this
$\choose{4}{2,1,1}$
hiiistrex
Ignore my terrible latex skills
The 4 should be on top and the 2,1,1 should be on the bottom
The 2,1,1 refers to how many of each type of object there are, so there's two 2s, one 167, one 3
Computation is (n choose a,b,c,...) = n!/(a!b!c!...)
With the caveat that a,b,c,... have to add up to n
$_4\choose{2,1,1}$
hiiistrex
can somebody help me with a and b
huh that works
ive never known that was such a method
gonna have to figure out how that works now ;p
Hint: normal choose is a special case of this
could someone check my proof
Suppose:
f: X->Y
g: Y->Z
are functions
Prove if f,g are surjective then g o f is surjective
g o f: X->Z means for each x in X
(g o f)(x) = g(f(x))
f is surjective means for all y in Y, there exist an x in X such that y=f(x)
thus g(f(x))= g(y)
g is surjective means for z in Z, there exist y in Y such that z=g(y).
thus g(y)=z
hence for all z in Z, there exist an x in X such that: (g o f)(x) = g(f(x)) = g(y) = z therefore g o f is surjective.
you should start with "g is surjective means..." instead of "f is surjective means..."
it just reads better that way
the proof is fine.
g surjective means that for all z in Z there is a y in Y such that g(y) = z.
f surjective means that for all y in Y, there is an x in X such that f(x) = y.
i just think the way this reads is easier to understand. you get the existence of some y, then you use a property pertaining to all y in Y to finish the proof. i just think this is better in terms of the order in which your variables appear
ah
ok, ty for looking over it
the book defines composition of functions as:
g o f: X->Z means for each x in X
(g o f)(x) = g(f(x))
why doesn't it mention anything about elements in the range
it doesnt need to. g(anything in the domain) is in Z
ok
ty
wanted to check if this is correct as well: show (x1,y1,z1) ~ (x2, y2, z2) if x2-x1=1 is not an equivalence relation. i have it failing reflexivity: (x1,y,1,z1) ~ (x1,y1,z1) if x1-x1 = 1 => 0 = 1, contradiction
im still kind of confused by this @cerulean wind - can you show me the proof written out as you see it
dont worry about it. its my writing style coming through. i shouldnt have mentioned it
for this one, there is no need for contradiction. it just isnt reflexive because no element is related to itself, that is, what you have shown is fine, my point being, x1 - x1 = 1 != 0 is enough to show that its not reflexive
thanks for checking both
5n = 2m + 1 tells you that 5 times n is odd.
an odd times an odd is odd.
an odd times an even is even.
what can you say about n if an odd number (namely 5) times n is odd?
ye
proof by cases (so contradiction). n is either even or odd. can’t be even, so it’s odd
a possibly shorter way, an odd divided by an odd is an odd when divisible. n = (2m+1)/5 so n is odd
can someone help define what a loop invariant is or exactly what I am trying to do.
the definition says "A loop invariant is an assertion that is true before each iteration of a loop. "
and then they go on to show this example
So is my understanding that this loop invariant thing is basically if your pre conditions valid that the loop will always execute as expected?
because I am really lost as to what they mean when the bring up the term in these examples and which part it is actually referring to
this kind of misses the point of what a loop invariant is supposed to do
this is true, but a loop invariant has to give you correctness at the end of the loop as well
its very similar to induction
except you have a step where the loop condition is false and at that point the loop invariant is supposed to give you correctness
so is a loop invariant just basically a proof that a loop executes correctly given you have a satisfactory pre condition?
yes, thats what its supposed to do
and I guess also execute the way you want it to within that loop
not just "complete the loop"
the loop invariant doesnt talk about what is happening inside the loop
oh.
this example is kind of simple but a more complex loop invariant would be on certain sorting algorithms
the loop invariant would be something like "the list 1..j is sorted and the list j+1..n contains the other elements in whatever order"
well they have this example but idk if it is the same
but again this really doesn't bring up a loop
only the pre condition (before the algorithm) and then post (after algorithm)
there is no loop invariant here
yeah :/
this works for insertion sort for example
and the point i wanted to make is that it doesnt talk about what the algorithm does in an iteration
just what the result is
and the result gives you correctness once the loop is left
I have some examples I have to work through
I am just not sure I guess what the "loop invariant" means
you are saying it is just a condition that is true during each iteration?
it is true before each iteration
hence invariant
but there are many things that are true before each iteration
and I would prove that based on my algorithm implementation and the pre conditions?
the loop invariant also has to give you correctness once the loop is left
yes
okay I see
like, in the first example the loop invariant is true before ever entering the loop
and then you have to argue what happens in the loop
it changes prod in some way and then adds 1 to j
so after those things happened the invariant is still true
but the argument didnt depend on what j or prod was at that point
so it is true before each iteration of the loop
so it is still true once the loop condition is not satisfied anymore
in this case this happens when j=n
but then prod=m*n, which is what you wanted to show
okay I think I get it. I was just confused of the context on its own
I think it is clear now that is is a statement that is used in conjunction with pre condtion and the loop to show that a loop will execute properly, I believe
yes
the end goal will always be proving correctness
i.e. the algorithm does what you claim
which is the post condition
so the loop invariant has to be true (obviously) but also "strong enough" that you can prove correctness with it
they are chosen here with that in mind
okay I see. It is isn't much of a loop invariant to just say j <= n throughout the loop (and before and after)
yes
that would be true but not helpful
but its usually part of the invariant
since you need this info to show that the loop operates correctly in an arbitrary iteration
well thanks for the help 
ye, i hope it helps
my explanations arent great but i think you get it after spending some time with it
You see how the complement of a regular language is regular?
yes
Does anyone know what this proof is called or where I can find some information about it?
How are regular languages related to context free languages?
in CFL, the closure property are closed under union and concatenation
not under complement and intersection
Think simpler lol.
but what is tricky is they are asking NON cfl
closure properties dont apply to them
Oh shit I'm just misreading my bad.
Maybe there's some contrapositive trickery going on?
Like this: $\forall x(x \not\in CFL \implies x^c \not\in CFL) \iff \forall x(x^c \in CFL \implies x\in CFL)$.
DootDooter
Where "in cfl" is just shorthand for "is a cfl"
The rhs of that equivalence seems like it ought to be false. 
Just a rough guess.
if 4 different people flip 1 coin each (independent events), what are the odds that at least 2 of them guess the outcome of their own flips correctly
If I have a finite set X in the plane where X has an even amount of points, does there exists a line such that each half space (each half space will include the line itself) determined by the line contain exactly half the points of X?
It can easily be shown that in any direction, there exists a line of that direction such that the closed half spaces contain AT LEAST half the points, but can equality always be reached? The method to do this is just to take any direction, and a line of that direction which contains ALL of X in one of its open half spaces. Then we can translate this line in its orthogonal direction and use the IVT to get that there exists a translated copy of this line which contains at least half the points. But I don't think this is strong enough to show equality
assuming the points are distinct, yes
Yes, it is easy to come up with counterexamples if not distinct. But does it use this rotation argument? If so, I don't see how this rotation gives the needed equality
do you mean fixing a point on the plane and rotating the dividing line about that point?
yes
or is there another way to see that fact... I'm am having trouble convincing myself of it. I certainly see it is possible to get at least half the points in each half plane using that argument, but not equality which we need
I'm learning sets right now and I am trying to prove: Let A, B be sets. Then B − (B −A) = A ∩ B .
This is what I have so far... not really sure if I am on the right path, could some one please take a glance and give some pointers on this?
for your first part
think about it like
(a in B) and ~(a in (B - A))
where ~ is the negation
From that, I did this:
maybe it will help you if I expand this
(a in B) and ~(a in (B - A))
=> (a in b) and ~( (a in B) and (a not in A) )
and then negate the second part, knowing that the and will turn into an or
$a\in B-(B-A)$\
$a\in B \land a\not\in (B-A)$\
$a\in B \land \neg (a\in (B-A))$
$\land$?
thank you
np
hmm
nope
$a\in B-(B-A)$\
$a\in B \land a\not\in (B-A)$\
$a\in B \land \neg (a\in (B-A) )$\
$a\in B \land \neg (a\in B \land a\not\in A) )$
Joe Mama
yup
form here
use de morgan
$a\in B \land (a\not\in B \lor a\in A)$\
($a\in B \lor a\not\in B) \land ($a \in B \lor a\in A) $
oh, directly changing the set only?
Yep
yes, it could work
.itsjustnai
With this
Joe Mama
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
yep, make sense
$a\in B-(B-A)$\
$a\in B-(B \cap A^C)$\
$a\in B \cap (B \cap A^C)^C$\
You have it the other way around
$a\in B-A \Leftrightarrow a \in B \land a \notin A \Leftrightarrow a \in B \land a \in A^c \Leftrightarrow a \in B \cap A^c$
thank for the correction
How would I go about showing this by "induction"
I see this the example "( () () ) )" isn't properly nested
and it just makes sense just based on the principle that it isnt an even string length.
but I would also need to show ")(" is not properly nest
which I would assume is based on lack of following either the basis or the recursive rules. Im just not sure how I would prove it for cases that have a correct strength count but have incorrect structure
???
Joe Mama
Denote all the set that possible properly nested paranthesis
with n open bracket and n close bracket
Then
Wait, the notation will be tedious
$P_n=\union^{n}{k=0} (x_k||x{n-k})$
where
$x_k \in P_k$\
$x_{n-k} \in P_{n-k}$
Joe Mama
|| is concatenation
Joe Mama
maybe word wont help much
Suppose
for n=3
$P_3 = { [][][], [[]][], [][[]], [[][]], [[[]]]}$
Joe Mama
Joe Mama
Just like stated at a) and b)
Hi! Anyone know how to do part (a)? I can workout that there are (n - 5) Choose 3 ways, but how do I describe that using Stirling Numbers? I got that solution by $(x_1 + 2) + (x_2+ 2) + (x_3 + 2) + (x_4 + 2) = n$ where x is the lab number. Since every lab must at least have 2 students. Then there are (n + x - 1) Choose ( x - 1), and therefore there are (n - 5) choose 3
Rasperro
@unique epoch I think that the students are different. you calculate the number of possibilities of the sizes of the labs. For n=8 you get one possibility (two students each day), but i think that it matters which student is in the Monday lab, which in the Tuesday lab etc. So its not n-5 choose 3
Hello, Ive been trying to learn resolution but I am getting stumped. Can anyone help me?
What would be b then?
if you have a finite set of n distinct points on a plane then it is always possible to draw a straight line through them such that there are k points above/below it for an arbitrary integer k <= n.
(if you need convincing of this think about how there are infinitely many real numbers between any two real numbers and how n is finite)
(1) if n is even, you chose your line to have n/2 points above/below it, done.
(2) if n is odd you can ignore one of the points so that n-1 even, solve the problem as in (1), then add the ignored point back and move/rotate the line so it intersects the closest point in the direction of the ignored point. then there is 1 point on the line n/2 points above and n/2 below.
#proofs-and-logic, but that isn't unsatisfiable
Could we call this a directed cycle as it includes a directed path?
the clockwise cycle is a directed cycle, yes
@native sable But is the graph called a directed cycle? like we have DAG directed acyclic graphs, so Im wondering if we have directed cycle graphs as well?
well, names are just conventions so ultimately you can call it whatever you want, but i've never heard a graph itself being called a directed cycle.
aha, thanks
@native sable does it also hold that if a graph contains directed cycles then it is strongly connected?
doesn't even have to be connected
however the cycle will be part of a strongly connected component.
that makes sense, thanks
im to prove if m is even then 3m+5 is odd
I let m = 2k+1 and substitute and multiply to 6k+5
what do I do from here?
i feel like factorizing but dont know what to do about the 5
2(3k) + 5
oh think i see it
Hey I have this pretty basic proof. I think my proof makes sense just not sure if I showed it properly. Would anyone be able to look at it, thank you!
Do i even need to talk about x
Since like I'm just talking about one element of the set and not all
I wouldn’t say “arbitrarily chosen” I’d say “suppose x is an element of A”.
And then at the end maybe say “since every element of A is an element of BnC, A is a subset of BnC”
The definition of a subset is
[ A\subseteq B\iff (x\in A\implies x\in B) ]
you are using $\subseteq$ which explicitly includes the possibility of the sets it connects being equal
Ann
ok thanks I will change that and keep the x part
also do I need to re state the original statement inside the proof
like the original question
Why? That’s up to you. But I don’t see why you’d need to do that
That’s like dependent on how your teacher grades assignments, if they require that (I don’t see why they would), then yeah do it
ok I will check past assignments
It doesn’t really matter as long as your proof is coherent
Ok thank you!! I will fix it up
Oh and do I need to talk about x in the conclusion
Just changed it to this
That looks good!
(Now I’m just being a little nitpicky, but maybe add a comma between “… is a subset of B” and “x belongs to B”, and the same for C)
But that doesn’t really matter
It looks good!

😄
I also have this proof and it seems pretty simple since the proposal is just the contrapositive so I had trouble putting it into a proof
Would anyone be able to critique it?
Thank you!
This is a bit confusing? I’m not entirely sure what you’re doing here. But the proof that you’re giving seems a bit convoluted and more complicated than it needs to be.
What you can say is that:
Since $A\subseteq B$, this means:
[ x\in A\implies x\in B ]
Which is equivalent to its contrapositive, so:
[ x\in B^\complement\implies x\in A^\complement ]
Which by definition means $B^\complement\subseteq A^\complement$
Ya I feel like the proof seemed too good to be true so I tried to make it more complicated
Which seems to be what you were getting at?
Is it really just showing it’s the contrapositive
Ah okay. Just keep in mind that these are all basic set theory identities, so there proofs will sometimes be quite simple actually
Yep
Ya I’m just starting set theory today after doing some complicated proofs for other sections so I may be thinking too hard lol
Ahh I see
But I guess our teachers was giving questions that take much more work than these ones
Well it’s the natural order of teaching an introductory discrete math course
So I’m over complicating them a bit
You’ll need induction later on
Thank you!

im a bit confused how to set this up with the 2 different terms
k and n
I assume I need to show that something like b_(n+1) = b_(k+1)?
this seems like some induction shenanigans
technically you have to use 2 different variables
but you dont need to show anything like this
just proceed with the proof using n
hmm?
well if it is induction I assume I need to show if $b_n = 2^{n+1} -1$ then $b_{n+1} = 2^{n+2} - 1$ ?
Brandon7716
ill go ask proofs/logic maybe
yeah
but I would need to really show that all that holds for b_k?
seeing I need to prove that b_n is holding to that of the recursive defintion of b_n
yeah exactly
don't I need to go towards b_(n-1)?
I don't think so?
seeing the previous definition is recursive and then I would hit a base case eventually?
first you need a base case then induction step
yeah but idk what my base case should be
b_1 since you're given b_0
yeah
see now this is where the whole 2 terms I think is needed?
because one is subbing in the b_k values from the recursive defintion and the other is subbing in b_n where we using n values :/
and i guess k = n in the test case
sure I mean I think I need to prove 0
yeah
but then start the induction step from b_1?
The induction step involves k.
Specifically you wanna show b_k=blah blah formula for k implies b_(k+1)=blah blah formula for k+1
Discord messed up my ghetto subscripts :/
discord formatting pog
I don't see why you need to show that?
