#discrete-math
1 messages Β· Page 187 of 1
Yeah those shouldn't be there
why this answer is from the book
yes please
Got a picture of how you drew it?
Haha yeah S is correct, they just used the labels 1,3,5 when they should have used 1,2,3
Same with T just swap the question
see
your original typing was off,that's all it is
this diagram is correct
the 1,3,5 are element of B
the sets drawn in order are A, B, A, B
but the first 2 show how the relation S operates
and the last 2 show T
Isn't this a mistake? The disjunction isn't negated in the original statement
@agile bobcat
it's not a mistake
@frosty musk
this is a direct application of de morgan's law
~P or ~Q is equivalent to ~(P and Q)
π
the answer is apparently B = null set, but isn't it wrong?
Doesn't each set contain itself AND the null set, thus the symmetric of difference of A and B in the case of B being a null set isn't A, but A that doens't have as its members the null set?
I was thinking of B = {null set} or something like this
oh wait no
i think i'm wrong because we are thinking about members and not subsets
am I?
Yeah, you're thinking about subsets when it should be about members
My textbook didn't define division, how do I do it?
division?
i don't know jaccard similarity, maybe someone can correct me if i'm off
i checked it with the answers before and it doesn't work
b) A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6}
1/3 is your answer for J(A,B)?
nvm i'm retarded
oh no worries
you're not lol
1/3 is right though
this is interesting, what book is it from?
he'll probably refer to it later
i've had professors give interesting problems and never refer to their provenance or application
i only realize 2 years later what the problem was about
hahahahha

i add everything to anki
if he doesn't refer to it later, then no real harm done
i'll just check it myself one day
oh my fucking god
the answer to part d) is 2 pages long
does A - B = B - A imply set A is equal to B?
yes
what do you call a graph that is 'almost' regular?
meaning most of the vertices have the same degree but not all of them
something like lattice
but in my case the graph is not planar
well i think it can be called lattice...
it can be embedded to $\mathbb{R}^3$
271828
i found the following definition: a graph is called almost regular if the difference between max and min degree of a graph = 1
$$(p \rightarrow q) \wedge r$$ $$p \rightarrow (q \wedge r)$$ How are these not equivalent
|| Alex ||
hello guys does anyone have the pdf for the textbook discrete math with graph theory?
Does this look good?
I can try and find a PDF, if you want.
If so, just send me the authors and edition you want.
awesome, thank you. Here's the full title: Discrete Mathematics with Graph Theory, by Goodaire and Parmenter. Published
by Pearson, third edition (2018).
π¦
hmmm
cuz I want to make sure I'm doing the right problems for the assignments
Yeah, I know what you mean. My professor makes us check that the problems are right ourselves. It's a lot of extra hassle.
who are you taking 125 with?
I don't think we go to the same uni π
Awesome, np!
yo, can i get some help with truth tables, i just overall dont understand them
For (a), recall the definition of the empty set and what it means for a set to be non-empty.
For (b), recall the definition of subset: $A \subseteq B$ if for all $a \in A$ we have $a \in B$. The empty set has no elements, which means that in showing $a \in \emptyset \implies a \in \emptyset$ there are no elements for which this statement can be false. Equivalently, you can just use the fact that for an arbitrary set $X$, it's always true that $X \subseteq X$.
Anomalocaris
Hmm alright
Well I guess {} isnt an element of {}
so a is false because of that reason
while b is true because {} contains all elements of {}
Ty :)
That is correct.
more generally, no set can contain itself (in ZF) due to axiom of regularity
Hello, I'm new to induction proofs! Can I have help with the following induction proof ```
Prove that 11! + 22! + n*n! = (n+1)! - 1 whenever n is a positive integer.
Here's what I did so far
Basis Step
P(1) = 1*1! = (1+1)!-1
1=1
Inductive Step
Suppose P(k) is true where k is an arbitrary positive int. Prove that P(k) implies p(k+1).
11! + 22! + nn! = (n+1)! - 1
11! + 22! + nn! + (n+1)(n+1)! = (n+1)! - 1 + (n+1)(n+1)!
... stuck here!
My goal is to try and get (n+1)! - 1 + (n+1)(n+1)! to ((n+1)+1)! - 1 so it is in the form of the induction hypothesis and therefore proved. But how can I move the right hand side to get to that? In class, my math prof would always try to factor something out, and thats what I did on the previous question on this hw. But on this question the -1 gets in the way so idk what to do. Help is appreciated
Yeah try to factor something out
Ignore the -1 for now, what can you factor out of (n+1)! and (n+1)(n+1)!
those are not equivalent because if p is false and r is false, then the first statement is false (since r is false), while the second statement would be true (vacuously so since p is false). Clearly, false isn't the same as true and so the two statements aren't equivalent. Notice q could be either true or false and we still see that the statements are not equivalent...this is why I only said "if p is false and r is false"
Ah right, thanks
You're welcome!
Like someone else already said, you can factor $(n+1)!$ from the right hand side. Doing so would turn the right hand side into $(n+1)!(1+(n+1))-1$. This becomes, after simplification, $(n+1)!(n+2)-1$.....then you're almost there, there's just one more simplification you need to make! Got it from here?
logician
also, @rose cipher , you should really be using k's instead of n's there and your assumption should be more clear. Assume P(k) is true FOR SOME integer k>0. For such k, show P(k+1) is also true.
Oops youβre right. K. I think I got this from now, thanks for your help!
You're welcome!
How do I do 3 times 92
just do it βοΈ
if A xor B = A xor C does this always imply B = C?
just check the truth table
I meant for sets
The conclusion I'm getting is that this is true, but how do i justify it in words and not using truth table?
you emulate the truth table basically
start with some element in B, consider the case that it is also in A and the case that it is not in A, conclude that it is in C in both cases
do the same starting with an element in C
oo that makes a lot more sense, thanks
Can someone explain to me what this means?
The codomain is R but what is the domain? I didn't understand it.
The real numbers without 1
- is kinda not the greatest notation
Yea, usually my teacher writes R \ {1}
Can someone check this for me? I think it's right, but just want to he sure.
OK, I'll take a look
@weary tiger OK, I guess I'm missing something really simple but I'm not sure why it's wrong. You're referring to the interval [5, infty), correct?
Yeah, why did you cross out (4, infty)?
Because I was thinking that 4 is in C1 and C2, but not C4.
Ooh, wait.
That's exactly what that means.
Haha ok seems like you got it
Lol, thanks. π
so anyway, i realized this works as well for the Gaussian integers, so just using, 0,1,-1,i,i works perfectly
S = {/0,{3},{/0},{4}} is the cardinality of this just 4, or is it 3 b/c the empty set /0 has 0 cardinality
The cardinality of the elements doesn't matter
That would be like saying {} and {{}} are the same set
wait I'm confused so what is it though
It's 4
so would {} and {{}} both have 0 number elements or would {{}} have 1 element
{{}} has one element
ok sorry Ik I'm overthinking and making this more complicated for myself but I was afraid of being wrong
All good
are these correct answers ?
yeah that's where i was confused
is it ok to say the longest path is DGMSW
even though there are other paths with equal length
bofa
S = {(x, y)|x β A, y β A, x β€ y}. how do you go about solving the cardinality for something like this when you don't even know what x and y are
well it certainly depends on what A is! @daring beacon. If A is finite, so is S.
How would I explain if graphs G and H are isomorphic, their complements would also be isomorphic? I just need a hint in the right direction
you can explicitly construct the isomorphism
Something like, let f be the isomorphism between G and H, then we define g to be a function from the complement of G to the complement of H such that .... and then show that this g is an isomorphism
oh ok that makes sense, thank you!
If A is a finite set of real numbers then the cardinality is just n(n+1)/2 I'm pretty sure
Which is the nth triangular number, since the pairs form a triangle
A would be finite in this case
@daring beacon okay since A is finite, so is S
@snow sleet how would you find the value of x and y though
I donβt think find is the right word here. Given A, it should be clear what (x,y) will be given also the assumption that both x and y are in A and x is not greater than y.
Do you mind sharing what A is exactly? Because this is quite hard to go further from here if all youβve told me is that A is finite.
@daring beacon
We got this definition in class but did not talk a bit about like where m comes from? Does anyone have experience applying this definition to find the inverse of a modulo function?
{0,1,2,3,4,5}
this looks very weird
what is N_n? what is a, b, k, c? what does mod n mean?
here ill show you the question on my homework for context as well but im not asking for the answer just showing
So I've found that f^-1 does exist because gcd(5,7) = 1
And that c = 4, f(4) = (5(4)+1)mod 7 = 21 % 7 = 0
that leaves me with an inverse of f^(-1)(x) = (((1-7m) / 5)x + 4) mod 7 for some integer m in Z
But I am not sure this is an adequate answer, and also wouldn't that definition of the inverse imply that there could be multiple inverses
yea this entire textbook is like this
but let me see...
also the professor is not the best doesnt really explain much so its the perfect storm
but in general if an inverse function exists, it is unique
but the main issue with those "definitions" are that it's not clear at all that those are even functions to begin with
Oh for more context this is a CS class and a CS textbook so I think that might clarify why mod is just talked about regularly
since its a pretty standard definition in CS
this is still very bad
yea its not my favorite textbook
anyways, for your inverse you need to find k and m such that ak + nm = 1
the proofs are pretty bad too it solves like 2 steps of every proof then pulls the leave the rest for exercise
and what this does is ask when a linear function x \mapsto ax + b has an inverse modulo n, this boils down to finding an inverse of a modulo n and this exists iff gcd(a, n) = 1
then bezouts lemma gives you k and m such that ak + nm = 1 and this k is the the inverse of a modulo n
you can compute k and m using the (extended) euclidean algorithm
Okay thanks. So x can range from 0 up to And including 5. When x is 0, y could be 0 through 5. When x is 1, y could be 1 through 5, etc
Iβll give you a hint for when x=0. When x=0, the ordered pairs: 0,0),(0,1),(0,2),(0,3),(0,4),(0,5) are all in S. Now do this for x=1,2,3,4,5 as well
@daring beacon
HELP!!! HELP!! I NEED HELP WITH SET ROSTER NOTATION π¦
calm down a bit and ask your question
WHY ARE YOU YELLING??

ππππππ
I think you mean set builder notation. I have no idea wtf set roster notation is tbh
roster notation is where you list out all the elements separated by commas.
The only thing that confuses me here is the line "it is the subgraph obtained from G by deleting the verticies in V' with their incident edges"
Arent those the only nodes and edges we are keeping in an induced subgraph?
The second sentence talks about G[V\Vβ] not G[Vβ]
V\Vβ is the set of all vertices of G that are not in Vβ
ah thank you
Can anyone help me with this?
I am not able to understand this one
did you try to write this out in english rather than math symbols ?
is this correct for this, or should it look like this? https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/824701621598158848/882149996034674688/unknown.png
@errant bloom also
If P(r,s ) : r= s , is this statement true ? βr β N : βs β Z , P(r,s) How do i proved it with contradiction it is false ?
Yes
P(r,s): a=b makes no sense. What are a and b?
I think you meant r=s instead
yeap
okay, so the first statement is false because no such natural number r exists.
the first statement says that we can find a fixed natural number r that equals every integer...this is not true
if we had: For all r in N, there exists s in Z such that r=s
then this is true
because we could take s=r
what did you get?
make sense @sharp ledge ?
Yeah , makes sense , thanks a lot
You're welcome!
looks a bit strange tbh, but it depends what A and what the other sets are in your picture
For any x there exists a y then whenever there is x there is also y
Maybe π
no
$\forall x \forall y P(x,y)$ means for all x it holds that: for all y P(x,y) is true. So if you chose one x, then it has to hold for every y. Repeat this for each x
lyinch
lyinch
not for all. This is equivalent to saying that there exists an x where the statement does not hold
So the statement is false?
so $\lnot \forall x P(x)$ means: not for all x P(x) holds, which is equivalent to $\exists x \lnot P(x)$
lyinch
therefore they are not the same statements left and right
Ohh I got it
left: there exists a y, such that for all x, P(x,y) does not hold.
right: For all x, there exists a y such that P(x,y) does not hold
yes
no, I think from 0
Nah not lecture
I googled it
it starts from 1 here or the theorem is false
because there's not much difference between 0 1 1 2 and 1 1 2 for some people π
Ohh
It starts from 0?
I see
Then how should I solve this?
Oh btw @errant bloom
The negation is on y on both sides.
Did u used the reverse method?
not sure what reverse method, but I explained the meaning
here
Ohh ok
I just mean ur statement said 'there exists a y '
But there is a negation in the question on y
So shouldn't it be 'y doesn't exist'
?
In the right side it isn't
not you say not for all, which means that there is at least one for which it doesn't hold
but the negation of for all doesn't mean that nothing holds. It means that at least one doesn't hold
@fresh venture what have you tried?
Umm... From well ordering it means we need to show that the number is expressible as product of primes
Right?
Uh no, not really. Do you know what well ordering states?
Kind of
Can you tell me what it says?
All natural numbers except 1 can be expressed as product of primes
No that's not the correct statement
You might want to check your notes or whatever you're getting this from
I read tbh
Huh?
That theorem can be proven using the well ordering principle, but is not what the well ordering principle says
It says all non empty subset of positive ing have a least element
Right
...
Yes?
I mean I know how to solve it, but I think you should think about it too
Here's a hint, consider the set of natural numbers that don't satisfy the condition
Try to use well ordering on this set
All integers divisible by 7 are natural numbers
I mean ofcourse 1 can say -7 is divisible by 7 giving -1
But idk if we count those
From my pov I would say answer is uncountably infinite
Cause ig we call countably infinite which are really really too damn many but still isn't out of reach
But no matter how further you go there will always be another which is divisible
N is countably infinite as well
But anyways it's obviously not finite or uncountably infinite
As there are an infinite number of multiples of 7, and it's a subset of a countable set
solve for x,y using the equations and see what point(s) A contains
yes, it is finite
Reading this paper, it's claimed each v_i is simplicial in a perfect vertex elimination scheme. But v_3's neighbourhood isn't a clique.
relevant definitions
v_3 has v_4, v_2, v_1, v_10 as neighbourhood. There is no edge from v_1 to v_4 so it cant be a clique. I must be misunderstanding something here
v7 does not connect to v4 either.
A perfect vertex elimination scheme is ordered. You have to remove the nodes from the left. Could be better to code it and draw the resulting graph after every iteration but I am lazy
ok i get it now, i drew it with ordering and seems to work
why isn't {2} an element of {1,2,3} ?
I see the number 2 in the set 1,2,3.
But 2 is different from {2} in builder notation. how?
2 is just 2
{2} is the set containing 2
an apple and an apple in a box are two different objects
so {2} isn't an element of {1,2,3} because {2} isn't an element, it's a set?
not quite
{2} is not an element of {1, 2, 3}
sets can also be elements
e.g. {2} is an element of {1, {2}, 3}
(this is the set containing 1, 3 and {2})
but in that specific question, {2} is not an element in {1,2,3}. Ok I get it
thanks
i asked something similar to this before but again - i can prove this algebraically pretty easily but is there a more "combinatoric" way of understanding
@mint bane yes. Consider a department with n men and n women. We wish to make a committee with n individuals
Each side of the equation counts the number of possible committees
Choose n from the total (2n) is one way to count the number of committees. We could also choose i of the men and n-i of the women. Let i run from 0 to n and sum up the terms
Each side counts the same thing, so theyβre equal
ok semi related question first, my prof showed us a notation that went like (n r,n-r) [imagine that the r,n-r is under the n, idk the latex for it] what does that mean
because arent the two 'choose's on the right going to evaluate to the same
Uh I think that means n!/(r!(n-r)!) though Iβm not sure
Youβre welcome!
$\binom{n}{r, n-r} = \binom{n}{r}$ in this case. you can generalize it to $\binom{n}{r_1, \dots, r_t} = \frac{n!}{r_1! \cdots r_t!}$ where $r_1 + \dots + r_p = n$.
it's called the generalized binomial coefficient since it lets you express $(x_1 + \dots + x_t)^n$ as a sum
Anomalocaris
ok i understood the first part of this but how does summing each of the terms tie it together
like i get that each element of the summation represents different possibilities for how many men/women in a group and ya add together each one
but how does that end up being 2n choose n
Give me a sec @mint bane . Iβll reply once I fire up my laptop
π π
okay @mint bane I'm back
so each term in the sum is the number of different possible combinations of men and women given that there's i men in the committee at that time
so i can only run from 0 to n
and that's ALL the cases
therefore the sum
equals 2n choose n
2n choose n represents choosing n different people from 2n different people
that implicitly takes care of the different number of males we can have in a given committee
make sense @mint bane ?
How should i explain that for all natural number r and s , if r^2 = s^2 , r=s ?
You could go with a difference of squares:
(r + s)(r - s) = 0
If r + s = 0, then r = -s. However, there's no such thing in the naturals.
Leaving us with r - s = 0
What about verbal explanation ? instead of using equations and number ?
Is there a format you're trying to match?
Dont really understand this, any easier explanation ? in sentence maybe ? I tried to answer as : Since a is in domain of natural numbers where there is no negative numbers and b is in integer, a will not be equal to b for every b , how is it ?
i can't get the compound propositions
I'll use ' for complement, or logical NOT.
Chest A says "it isn't true that A and B both have no treasure"
That is, A says (a'b')'
That one make sense? @spiral pilot
@sour arrow i think i got it
The whole thing? Okay good!
Go for it
I'm with that first one
But the second one, I'm not following
Trunk B basically just says NOT a
bit binary floating-point number representation of 27/128. You must show how
your derived each component of your bit string answer.```
can anyone do this for me im stuck and show working pls
Is it possible to explain that this statement is true using proof by contradiction ?
Would you explain about this sentence ? Why could we only choose r-s = 0 ?
zero-product property. If a * b=0 then a=0 or b=0. So r+s=0 or r-s=0
How do I find the number of integer solutions to a linear inequality?

So.. i dont quite understand why (n!)! > (n!)^(n-1)!
Looking for an argument as to why
@robust pasture http://dontasktoask.com/
sry i will be mindful next time
instead of just going "i need help with math" because like. no shit sherlock you've come to a server dedicated to math help
mb
x_1 can be in [0,100] for there to be a solution to 5x_1+x_2<=500.
If x_1=0 x_2 can be in [0,500].
If x_1=1 x_2 can be in [0,495] and so on. You should be able to find a formula and find the amount of solutions from here
Whenever we decide to say something like βForAll aβ, or if we say βA = { a such that..β, or we say βaFbβ are we treating these lower case letters like a constant or a variable ?
I was under the impression we were treating them like a variable but then I got confused when we went over the formal definition of a function
and when we went into relations
Iβm a little confused because we defined F as being a subset of A x B, and then we also can say aFb which is the same as F(a) = b
But then also a cannot be paired with more than one b
still looking for some assistance on this
do u know induction?
yes
i have this breakdown of (n!)! but i dont quite understand it
this is in the memo
what do you not undersnad
ye
by?
yes i understand how the factorial works
so n! ! would be 1 2 ... * n!
and every n terms they group them
first n terms is just n!
2nd n terms is bigger than n!
like myabe if you see n=3 you might understand it better
can you explain this?
ok see case for n=3
yes
nice 
actually that doesnt matter
but (3!)! would be multiplying all integers up to 3!
so just 1 x 2 x...x6
you group them by 3
(1x2x3)x(4x5x6)
first term is 3! 2nd is bigger than 3!
ok so now its the same concept but for n
ye
because if you group them by less you might not be sure if its bigger than n!
ok yes, n!^(n-1)! you mean?
so we are trying to get the same number of terms, and see how each term size compares
I guess Iβm confused as to wether or not we treat something as a constant or variable and Iβm a little confused at relations
So, when we denote an element a, or an element b, within the set A or B, is this a constant or variable ?
Also, I know a relation is a subset of a Cartesian product, but Iβm confused about what something like aRb would be
Is that stating a specific ordered pair in set R ?
Which could be considered R(a) = b
?
aRb means (a, b) is an element of R
R(a) = b is bad notation, since relations are in general not functions
and there might be multiple different b such that aRb
(think of the relation <)
then yeah a function F is a special kind of relation, where for each a there is exactly one b such that aFb and in this case we can write F(a) = b
here the things are variables
everything is a variable unless it is explicitly given
or sometimes we "fix" certain objects and give them a name, but that is stated
i think it just takes a while to get used to that
@outer hinge
Well thanks. I just went by the math lab and they helped me out with this
I was mainly confused about how we were defining a function
I have to clean up my notation though
I also forgot to put a βsuch thatβ symbol
π
this is mainly just formalising of what our intuition already is
a function is a "machine"; you put a thing in and get some output
same input always means same output (i.e. one input cannot produce multiple different outputs if you run the machine at say different times)
Express $$\xor x \in A, P(x)$$ with other standard logical operators. Does $$(x \in A) \oplus (y \in A), P(x), x\neq y$$ work
|| Alex ||
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
My combinatorics class is going well so far.
If P(r,s ) : r= s , βr β N : βs β Z , P(r,s) How do i proved it with contradiction it is false ?
well suppose such a natural number r exists.
Then s=r+1 is an integer and so we're guaranteed r=r+1. This is a contradiction
therefore, the statement is false
make sense @sharp ledge ?
Why is it adding by 1? for r
halp
I just did that to keep it simple. You could have taken s=r+2 or s=r+3 or so on
x is in A U B if and only if x is in A or x is in B. y is in A intersect B if and only if y is in A and y is in B.
Why are we adding it with some number ?
One proof that proves this statement is false would look like this: Suppose there is a natural number r such that r=s for all integers s. For such r, note that r+1 is an integer due to the closure of the integers under addition. Then our assumption guarantees r=r+1, a contradiction.
what do you mean by "it"?
The r
okay
read this^
that might clear it up^
sure. Look at the things (called elements) that A and B share. Those two things are 3 and 4. Therefore, A intersect B is just {3,4}. For A union B, write down all of A and then add in the elements from B that are not in A. So A union B is {1,2,3,4,5,6}
does this make sense @sharp ledge ?
@snow sleet can you solve Find the HCF of 45, 75 and 120 by division method.
You mean GCD?
For such r, note that r+1 is an integer due to the closure of the integers under addition. Then our assumption guarantees r=r+1, a contradiction. What does this means ? Closure of integer ?
since r is an integer, and since 1 is also an integer, r+1 must also be an integer @sharp ledge. That is closure of the integers under addition. Given two integers x and y, x+y is an integer
mabye lel
Yup
wtf you mean maybe lmaoo. What does HCF stand for? Highest Common Factor?
yus
okay cool so does my proof that the statement is false make sense to u?
okay that's also known as the GCD just so you know lol
ah
anyway, I'd solve that using prime factorization @warm zinc
"division method" makes no sense to me as that's very ambiguous

well, write each of the three numbers you stated as a product of primes
logician
What about the statement that r= r+ 1?
r=r+1 is a contradiction
because 0 doesn't equal 1
do you know why our assumption guaranteed r=r+1? @sharp ledge
it's because they said r=s for every integer s. So since that's true for every integer s, it's also true for r+1. Hence we have r=r+1.
and then we see r=r+1 can't possibly happen. So it is a contradiction
make sense @sharp ledge ?
Should s+ 1 also when r+ 1? since r=s we assume ?
this is actually quite easy to check that the GCD is 15 because each is divisible by 5 and each is divisible by 3 (note that 75 isn't divisible by 9) and after viewing the prime factorization of 45, it can't be any higher than 5 times 3, which is 15. Thus the gcd of 45, 75, and 120 is 15
s was just a place holder in the statement "r=s for any integer s". In my proof, I took r+1 to be s. And I'm allowed to do so because r+1 is an integer. So talking about s+1 doesn't really make sense here.
A perfect number is a positive integer n such that the sum of its factors equals 2n. For instance, 6 is a perfect number since 1+2+3+6 = 12 = 2Γ6. Prove that a prime number canβt be a perfect number.
Can anyone help with this?
does that make sense @sharp ledge ?
sammee_here, i think you're interrupting a conversation here.
Yup
either wait or move to a free questions channel
okay great
@brittle dove you're free to ask now
next time don't just barge in
A perfect number is a positive integer n such that the sum of its factors equals 2n. For instance, 6 is a perfect number since 1+2+3+6 = 12 = 2Γ6. Prove that a prime number canβt be a perfect number.
Can you help with this?
maybe
have you made any progress on this so far?
any thoughts at all on how this problem may be approached?
nah I was like blank
Yeah
okay
a number that can be divided exactly only by itself and 1,
1 and itself
and what is their sum?
1+p
and can it ever happen that 1+p equals 2p when p is a prime?
(if yes, for what p? if not, why not?)
this is where i am struck
1 + p = 2p
can I suggest an algebraic approach to answering Ann's question @brittle dove ?
you "guess"?
sounds like you're massively overthinking it, sammee_here
you are familiar with algebra, yes?
it cant be Yes other than p =1
Yeah but not good
correct.
the equation 1+p=2p has only one solution, p=1.
but 1 won't do, because 1 is not a prime.
yeah
Thanks a Lot @stray reef !!
This channel is open for questions
Will Come here with more doubts thenπ
have you ever seen set-builder notation before?
also, i presume that you meant $y \in \bN$ at the very end?
Ann
@warm zinc
this depends on how you have defined N. Some profs include 0 in N and some don't
is this correct? {(1,5)(2,8)(3,11)(4,14)(5,17)}
no
elements of that set are not ordered pairs
What about proving with contradiction for :: For all r in N, there exists s in Z such that r=s , which should be true. How different is the steps in proving in compared to previous one ?
there's no need for a proof by contradiction for this statement. It is quite easy to prove it directly like so: Given a natural number r, clearly r is an integer and r=r. Therefore, the statement is true.
make sense @sharp ledge ?
you can write B equivalently as ${3y+2:\text{$y<6$, $y\in\mathbb N$}}$
logician
again @warm zinc , B depends on how you have defined N as I said before here^
Hey, I'm struggling with this problem a bit:
Write a generating function for the following equation and formulate it: x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + x_4 + x_5 + x_6 + x_7=n
Where: x_1, x_2 & x_3 are divisible by 3, and x_4, x_5, x_6 & x_7 are not divisible by 3.
I think I understand that, the generating function itself would be:
f(x)=(1+x^3+x^6 ...) ^ 3 * (1+x+x^2+x^4+x^5+x^7 ... ) ^ 4
I managed to formulate the left part of the equation: 1/(1-x^3)^3. However, I'm not sure how to formulate the right part (1+x+x^2+x^4+x^5)^4.
Would super appreciate pointers, since I feel like I'm missing something very fundamental.
Thank you very much!
Try splitting it into two sums
@plush dock
Alternatively, you know what 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + x^4 + ... is, and in some sense, the left and the right parts make up that
That makes sense, thank you
I think I get it! @faint narwhal
Would it be correct to do this:
[(x+x^2)^x^3 + (x+x^2)^x^6 ...]^4
[1/1-x^3 * (x+x^2)]^4
Yes that works
Thank you!
help
@stray reef ?
don't ping me like this please
factor it. n^3-n = n(n^2-1) = n(n+1)(n-1)
then just note that this is a product of three constructive integers.
how do i prove that if n is even integer, then there exist an integer p such that n is sum of (p-1) and (p-3)?
you use the definition of even
Yeah, i mean i first assume n = 2k , then summing up the given p-1 and p-3 , i got 2p - 4,which is then factorised to get 2 (m-2) , and how should i proceed ?
ok, so p = k+ 2
Then ?
Why is it that p in terms of k instead of k in terms of p ?
Anyone ?
because you start with n = 2k and then have to find a p such that your statement is true
what have you tried?
Hi again!
We have the following statement: "Between every 2 numbers, there exists another number that is different from them".
We have 2 options (that I will post down below).
I picked the 1st one since it made more sense to me, but it was incorrect, and I'm trying to wrap my head around why the 2nd option is the correct one.
The fact that z can be equal to x or y really, really confuses me, and I can't wrap my head around it.
In addition, I don't quite understand why the 2nd one is incorrect, though I think I have an idea (probably because it has no conditional statement, and if we were to write it within a conditional statement, it would be different?)
pull the negation into the quantifier, it becomes "there exists a z such that z > x and y > z"
i.e. "there exists a z such that x < z < y"
the problem with the first statement is that x < y need not be true and then the statement is false
Ah I'm such a goofball. I handled the negation into the quantifier extremely poorly.
As for the first statement, what you mean is that if x<y is false, then the entire statement is false?
Sorry, I'm just learning the subject, I may be bit slow
the statement after the universal quantifiers that is
so as long as numbers x < y exist, the whole thing is false
which we do not want
to be more precise, 3 and 5 are a counterexample to that statement: set x=5, y=3
(also no reason to apologize)
Thank you very much, this is an excellent explanation and makes tons of sense to me
I honestly never thought of coming up with a counter example
But this is a really nice trick
I just done this
Can you check whether its correct/not @pale epoch
Express the following sentences using logical expression:
No students like Ram
in a) it is not clear what you are quantifying over, b) makes no sense since p(x) and R(x) depend on x and x is a variable here (you are missing some kind of quantifier)
what you wrote for c) is "every student takes analysis and geometry
when you write {S - x} do you mean the set S with the element x removed?
because that's S \ {x} (or S - {x} if your class uses normal minus for set difference)
Yeah we remove
Hello, i would like some guidance if possible. What does it mean "Find two sets A and B" ?
Do i need to show two examples of like A-B {numbers} and A-B {numbers} ?
or like show the numbers that these properties have in common
Give an example of a pair of sets A and B such that A union B = {1,2,4,5,6,7} and ... etc
I'm not sure what you mean by 'A-B {numbers}'
No, you have to give two sets A and B that simultaneously have all of those properties
'that satisfy all of the above properties at the same time'
I can't really understand the question, having a hard time to grasp my mind around "two sets a and b that satisfy all of the properties"
,
oh like
I think i'd rephrase it as 'Find a pair of sets A,B that satisfies all of the above properties'
A - B = {1, 4, 7}?
it satisfies the first and the third one
but not the second one
you haven't given any sets there
Sorry if i'm slow
so if the properties were A union B = {1,2,3} and A intersect B = {2} then an example solution would be 'A = {1,2}, B = {2,3}'
because A union B = {1,2,3} and A intersect B = {2}
yeah so like kinda of what they have in "common"
I don't need to use any sign for the answer? Can you just write like A= {1,2}, B={3,4}
or nvm that's not what they are asking for
Thank you, i believe i understand the question!
wdym by sign?
i meant like "union" or "intersect" but that's not what they are asking for
they want two sets so i'm not sure why that'd be relevant?
yeah, it's not relevant at all. I just assumed that's what they are asking for.
left side will be $(P\land{\neg{Q}})\lor\neg{R}$
jswatj
which u can use distribution laws to reach the right side with
Conditonal law right
demorgans law
jswatj
Okay I see now
Thank you, I was stuck on the first step but you got me going! I appreciate your help!
sounds like you've already got your question answered here, but perhaps maybe another helpful observation would be that the right hand side (r -> p) ^ (q -> ~r) is equivalent to r -> (p ^ ~q).
?
purga
this is distributed like so $(P\lor\neg R)\land(\neg Q\lor\neg R)$
logician
@simple nova see above^
ahhhhh okay I see now
when you switch it to conditional it gets rid of the not in q
just leaves the not r
yea ~Q or ~R is equivalent to Q implies ~R
I think you mean & instead of | here
everything that logician said
Yeah typo! Thanks so much @snow sleet
sorry.
what are you struggling with @fleet hare
i did p ^ q
okay
would (p^q) -> p be TTTT
No
No
oh then idk
yes
?
(p and q) implies p is always true this is because p was assumed to be true (if you think about it without truth tables)
..
apologies
yes
yup
p implies p is a tautology so (p and q) implies p is also a tautology this is because (p and q) being assumed to be true necessarily entails p is true.
so i gues p -> ( p v q) is also a taut
it's even easier to see this if you realize p -> ( p v q) is equivalent to [ (~p or p) or q]
think about the fact that we're already assuming q to be true and due to the following equivalence
this is equivalent to [(p and p and q) implies q]
a contingent proposition is a proposition that is neither a tautology nor a contradiction. One example of a contingent proposition would be p->q
agreed
sure I can help.
Let's first negate the left hand side of ^
no. The given statement has S and T's anyway...not P, Q, and R. That given statement is just for you to note that equivalence and make use of that equivalence in this giant mess they handed you
we will use the given statement for later part?
using de morganz law?
I would say yes
first rewrite $[(\neg P\land R)\implies (Q\implies R)]$ before negating
logician
do you know what this^ is equivalent to @waxen nest ?
I have no idea what implication law is ( I don't care to remember those things by name), I just know them from experience
this statement is equivalent to $[(\neg P\land R\land Q)\implies R)]$
logician
~(~P ^ R) or (Q -> R)
yes, but I think my approach is a little simpler it'll likely help if we ever use deMorgan's law
hmm what did you just do here
I literally pulled that Q out since it's really in the antecedent anyway
because the statement is kinda like: Let t be true. Then if y is true, then q is true. So really, if t and y are true, then q is true
okay then what do you do next?
you mean after this?
yes
okay, then we negate this
we still have a negation outside right
yes
negate the whole statement here
so it becomes (P V ~R V Q -> ~R)?
no
oh yes
okay, so what does this become after we negate the statement here?
(P V ~R V Q ^ ~R)
(P V ~R V Q)
this negated becomes $\neg P\land R\land Q\land\neg R$
logician
I have no idea what you're doing here.
read this^
a implies b negated becomes a and ~b
i thought ~~P will become P π€
you literally take the antecedent and negate the consequent
because that was literally part of the antecedent
we're NOT negating the antecedent!!!
read this again^
why? you said negate the whole thing but why leave out the antecedent
because that's how negating implications work
Again negating (a implies b) yields (a and ~b)
a ^ ~b
notice how a wasn't negated there
with that in mind, negate this^
you should get this after doing so^
are you following @waxen nest ?
yeah
okay
its already done here
no it's not...well it depends on what you meant by "its"
ok from here we can simplify?
the negation is done, but we're not done with the problem
associative law
remember we have an extra "and P" at the end right?
yes and commutative
R ^ ~R becomes F?
the extra P comes from here on the right of the ^
so really we just need to simplify $\neg P\land R\land Q\land\neg R\land P$
logician
no
oh right
look at what you said here
R is gone
right
so this becomes?
F ^ Q
it can be even more simplified than that
yes its F
so this whole thing reduces down to F
one way to use it would be to rewrite $[(\neg P\land R)\implies (Q\implies R)]$
logician
try using the equivalence they gave to rewrite this^
@waxen nest
isnt it what we did earlier?
rewriting that part
we rewrote that part, but we didn't not use that equivalence
I used the equivalence $[s\implies (t\implies u)]\iff [(s\land t)\implies u]$
logician
@waxen nest
this makes no sense. you brought in S and T. The statement you were asked to simplify had neither an S nor a T in it
okay, you should have stated that in your paper so your teacher doesn't mark you off
you can simplify this further
your approach? or mine?
mine
yea, but I'd show more steps
I mean
I'd simplify further
after stating what S and T are
you can use deMorgan's law to simplify this further
that should be an F not a T in the last line
hang on a sec
I've forgotten how you have defined T
T does not mean true in your case
yea it doesnt
this should be (S ^ ~T ^ P) on the last line
right okay
now substitute things back in
you really only need to substitute S back in
@waxen nest
oh okay
let me try that
ok heres what i got so far
@snow sleet
so after this i can just show that its = F?
since F and anything will just be F right
yes
looks good! although your second to last line is exactly the same as the one above it
I said second TO LAST line and the line right above that second to last line
@waxen nest



