#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 182 of 1
are you just trying to negate the statement or are you wanting to prove the statement
yeah, sounds like the right path
I'd suppose that r=m+nx is rational
then solve for x and get a contradiction
okay thanks!
yup you're welcome
Hey guys, could you please explain to me the Transitivity Ratio? maybe with example? on two teams?
the what now?
??
can't explain something if you don't tell us the definition or where you saw that term :p
Uhmm, there is that term called Transitivity, isn't that a known term?
I studied reflex ratio, symmetrical ratio, anti symmetrical ratio, and Transitivity, maybe that rings a bell?
never heard of any of these as ratios
^
though looking it up, it looks like the transitivity ratio is simply the percentage (or fraction) of instances in which the transitive law holds for your graph
with the transitive property holding iff the transitivity ratio is 1
Oh okay, thanks man!
Hey all. I joined this server a week back; been a lurker since. I’m a 2nd yr undergrad student. I just started an online combinatorics course. Was wondering if I could get some assistance/input with the pigeonhole principle.
The theorem(or principle) states that if we have to put N+1 or more pigeons into n pigeonholes, then there exists at least one pigeonhole that has 2 or more pigeons.
I was thinking about some possible examples of this process of putting pigeons into holes in my head. So for instance, what if we had some 5 holes and let’s say 8 pigeons. Then one way to do this is to put 2 pigeons for 3 holes each, and the rest we can put one pigeon for one hole. I know this sounds silly but can we just shove all 8 pigeons into one hole, and have like 4 empty pigeonholes left? Or 3 pigeons for a hole, 3 for another, 2 for another, and hence have 2 empty holes.What I’m trying to say is that can we have empty pigeonholes?
Yeah I thought so as well.. just wanted to have some clarification, thank you!
but if someone's trying to spread them out as much as possible to minimize the maximum number in each hole, it would be kind of a poor choice on their end
yeah you're welcome
Hmm yeah.. makes sense 👍🏼
I have this graph and I have an exercise which asks if this is a planar graph. I know that if |L| ≤ 3*|V| - 6 (Where L is the set of the edges and V is the set of the vertices) then the graph is planar, but the graph in the photo (or at least the way in which is represented) doesn't match the definition of planar graph. So, it's or it isn't a planar graph?
This is the complete graph on 5 verticies
Its definitely not planar
(But you can embed it on a torus )
In class, we've seen a proof that a planar graph is 5-colourable, but the end part of the proof was very handwavey, and I was wondering if anyone had a more rigorous proof.
It basically went like this: By induction on the number of vertices, in the induction step, assume WLOG that G is connected (Otherwise we can look at each connected component separately). There is a vertex of degree at most 5, if the degree of the vertex is <5, then we've seen how to handle this.
Let G' be the graph obtained by deleting this vertex, then G' is 5-colourable. Let v_i, i=1,2,3,4,5 be the vertices connected to our edge v, then if two are of the same colour, we again know how to handle this and so we are done, so assume they all have different colours.
We consider two edges, WLOG v_1,v_2 with colours 1,2, and look at their connected components after deleting all vertices with colours 3,4,5
In the case where the connected components are disjoint, I'm fine with the proof, the problem is when the connected components are identical
the argument basically boils down to the fact that there cannot be a path of alternating colours between every 2 vertices v_i,v_j because of planarity, so there must be a pair where the connected components in those 2 colours are disjoint
but the prof basically showed this by example and not very rigorously which is frustrating
How can I find the number of lattice paths from 0,0 to n,n?
what size is the lattice and what moves are allowed?
right and up
basically the ones that don’t cross x=y
You can touch it but not cross
@stray reef
i think you might want to look into something called the Catalan numbers
Yeah I saw that but that hasn’t been taught to us
So we are supposed to figure it out intuitively and I’m not sure how to do that
Well are you trying to find the number of Shortest paths?
@warped pecan
If so @warped pecan my hint would be to write what one path looks like (and rearrange the letters in that ‘word’).
@warped pecan are you there? Or can we open this channel back up for other questions?
i'm still waiting for an answer haha
@snow sleet I figured it out thanks!
You’re welcome! @warped pecan
Did you by chance get the answer being: $\binom{2n}{n}$ @warped pecan ?
logician_pdx
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Sorry, I saw your question, but graph theory is not my strong suit.
<@&286206848099549185> Would someone be able to help @austere swan with the graph theory question?
You're welcome!
hey guys any insight to prove a bipartite graph on n=10 vertices and 15 edges whose vertices all have degree 3 is not planar
i assumed planar to get f = 7 using eulers
and 2m >= 4f for bipartite graphs as they do not contain odd cycles
is #combinatorial-structures a better place to ask this instead btw?
I would say yes. Because graph theory and combinatorics have much overlap @tranquil flint
You might also try the proofs-and-logic channel since you're asking about a proof
You're welcome!
I think you can repeat it...just maybe also say which channels you've asked your question in and state something like "I'm not sure which channel this is supposed to fall under, and I've asked this here, here, and here. I was wondering if anyone could answer my question regarding bipartite graphs....my question is ...." @tranquil flint That's just my recommendation, totally up to you tho.
But, @tranquil flint , you're not technically wrong posting your graph theory question here since graph theory falls under discrete math...it's just that graph theory isn't always covered in a discrete math course.
Hi I have a question regarding flow networks. If I have a flow network G with some positive flow f. Now I construct G' from G by removing all the edges on which the flow = 0. Let s be source, and t be sink. Consider S the set of vertices reached from s in the graph G'.
isn't t always in S?
I anyone able to help me with the construction on a discrete time markov chain transition matrix
Anyone comfortable with Brooks Theorem?
i have no clue how to do the third one
wait actually
i think i figured it out
but im not sure

idk how to use index 
also how do u simplify this?
i think im being dumb
well, theres 2 copies of 2^(k+1)
4
8
try an example
what is 8=
how 2(2^n) = something = 8?
2^3
so 2(2^2) = 2^3
..

^^
oh
shouldnt that be 2k + 2?
no
or do u mean
like 2^2k + 2
are u missing a ^
yeah yeha
yes
but its not doe
calculator says 2^k+2
and the proof also works with that value
so im confusion
i misread
i thougt u meant 2^(k+2)
oh no
not thaf whole expression as the exponent
no no that whole thing as exponent
so
treat k+1 as n for now
we have 2(2^n) like earlier
= 2^(n+1)
now sub back in k+1 for n
if it wasnt clear
hold on what
???????
ok hold on
i thought you said that you recognized 2(2^n)=2^(n+1)
did you not
x^n is x multiplied by itself n times, correct?
yes
so if we have x times x^n its x multiplied by itself n times, multiplied by x again
mhm
which is x multiplied by itself n+1 times
okay what
hurb
yes this was said earlier
okay oaky
its the same as x^a • x^b = x^(a + b)
we are just adding 1 to the exponent
it might be easier to let k+1 = n
either way, we have 2(2^(k+1)) right
yes
so this is the rule
yes
yes
kk
i was wondering if someone could check my homework?
its 6 questions, mostly mathematical induction
with a few summation and product notation questions
no its illegal unfortunately
The denominator on the first one should be k^2+4 i think
ohhhhhhhh yes
wait i think i didnt something wrong for this step?
because for all the other ones LHS and RHS equal
or should it say 2^0 = 1?
for the LHS
yeah lol thanks
also should this say Their difference is also divisible by 8 instead?
oh shit sorry for the ping
wait actually no
nvm
Heya! I hope this is the right channel to ask for this.
I kinda just need someone to check if my logic is correct trying to proof the following:
We need to show that
Proof:
So what I am not sure about is, that one can assume that e < m aswell as simply saying that bcs of this, there wont be a case of a^x mod m = a^y mod m .
(Hope writing it in latex makes it easier to read)
And if one cant just say that (or its even wrong), how would we proof it / whats a better way to approach this?
I can't see the point of your proof. So I can only suggest to try to prove by contradiction. First, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler's_theorem. Then show that there exists inverse of a. Apply the existence of inverse to #discrete-math message and deduce contradiction to 1 <= x < y < e.
The Euler's theorem is regarding your redundant assumptions about exponents of >= m.
Thanks for the reply! The idea was that since Id say that x and y are < m (since e < m , but obv assuming this, cant show myself), a^x mod m and a^y mod m are different (if x,y would be <= m, this wouldnt apply anymore) but might aswell had some mistake thinking about it
ah ic
that link helps, will take a look at it in a bit, thank you
Just take as granted at first that all the considered exponents are < m (see Euler's theorem). The coprime property is necessary. Still, you don't use it.
ic ic. thanks for the hints already. will take a further look once home again
You dont need eulers theorem, simply the fact that a is invertible suffices
As a further hint: look at a^{y-x}
With invertible u mean that
$x \cdot a \equiv 1 (mod m)$
So for, lets say, a = 2 and m = 9 it would be x = 5
Ollowain
Yes
Okay, so because a and m are coprimes we can say that the inverse exists due to the gcd(a,n) == 1 (at least our script reads like that)
Not quite sure how to use this together with a^(y-x) however
well yes, because a and m are still coprimes therefor the inverse exists
practially the number x in Z so that x * a = 1 (mod m)
so a^(-1) would be this x
Might be that for 1 <= x < y < e the inverse for a^x and a^y are different.
but even if thats the case id not be sure how to use that in the contradiction, as it seems similar to my initial thought saying that the modulo for 1 <= x < y < e is always different for a^x and a^y
okay, so let me rewrite the statement you're trying to prove and could you please confirm whether this is the statement you're trying prove?
sure
kk thanks. So you're trying to show the following (I'll LaTeX it)
showing that the inverse of a^x is equal to a^(-x) isnt too bad
then multiplying both sides of the congruence by a^(-x) yields that a^(y-x) = 1 mod n
Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. Then $a^x\not\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for all distinct $x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)-1}$.
look right? @simple token
logician_pdx
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not really sure what the ord_m(a) stands for, basically x, y for 1 <= x < y < e
oh thanks, yea that works then
So I'd use a proof by contradiction for this theorem you're trying to prove
yea, basically assuming that the statement. so a^x = a^y mod m is true and we work until theres a contradiction
(sry, not used to the english terms for stuff like that)
yeah
it's all good
so you can assume WLOG that x>y for some x and y in the set
then you know m divides (a^x-a^y)=a^y(a^k-1) for some integer k>0. This implies m|(a^k-1) for such k
how come we can assume that when 1 <= x < y < e
I assume WLOG = without loss of generality, according to google lol
well, kinda I guess. since we try to show the statement for all 1 <= x < y < e
I think we can because we assume a^x = a^y (mod m) and arent trying to show a^x =!= a^y (mod m)
right it's because of symmetry
aight that makes sense
so now we that we're gonna give a proof by contradiction, where do we go from here?
we pretty much try to show that our assumption is invalid and therefor showing that the original statement is therefor valid
so we need a contradiction for a^x = a^y (mod m) which would be if a^x mod m != a^y (mod m) or a^x != a^y + x * m
well there could be other types of contradictions
Here's a start, (thought not a completed proof):
so where do we go from here?
and I think we actually want to prove this instead:
Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. Then $a^x\not\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for all distinct $x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)}$.
logician_pdx
proving this statement will prove the statement you're trying to prove
So our proof so far is
\begin{proof}
Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. For the sake of contradiction, suppose $a^x\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for some distinct
$x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)}$. Without loss of generality, assume $x=y+k>y$ for some integer $k>0$. Then $m|a^x-a^y=a^y(a^k-1)$. Since $(a^k,m)=1$, this implies $m|a^k-1$.
\end{proof}
logician_pdx
logician_pdx
(saved what i just wrote)
kinda lost on this
i assume because a^x = a^y when m | (a-b) and we can use m | a^k - 1 as a contradiction
logician_pdx
Ollowain
Right but we're assuming that already
because this is a proof by contradiction
okay so let's start with my partial proof
Here it is: Remember It's not yet complete
\begin{proof}
Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. For the sake of contradiction, suppose $a^x\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for some distinct
$x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)}$. Without loss of generality, assume $x=y+k>y$ for some integer $k>0$. Then $m|a^x-a^y=a^y(a^k-1)$. Since $(a^y,m)=1$, this implies $m|a^k-1$.
\end{proof}
Since $m|a^k-1$, $\operatorname{ord}_m(a)|k$, right?
logician_pdx
@simple token
logician_pdx
yea that works out. so e (ord_m(a)) is dividable by k
oh sorry, i meant that
kk awesome
so let's show (ord_m(a)) doesn't divide k
this will give a contradiction
right?
yea
kk so isn't it true that k=|x-y|?
kk
well what is the largest possible value of |x-y|
?
and what is the smallest possible value of |x-y|?
well, since y >= 1 and x < ord_m(a)
it would be ord_m(a) - 2
(i.e ord_m(a) = 10 ,x = 9, y = 1, k = 8)
um what?
I'm asking you to find $u,v\in\mathbb N$ such that $u\leq|x-y|=k<v$.
remember, x and y are distinct
logician_pdx
i might just be confused, but yea x and y are distinct.
the largest possible value of x - y would be when x is the max value (ord_m(a)-1) and y = 1 would would lead to ord_m(a)-2 = k
thats what i meant with the answer to the largest possible k
if x and y live in {1,2,3,...,ord_m(a)}, what is |x-y| bounded by?
remember we're proving this instead
I'll give you a hint
$1\leq x-y=k$
logician_pdx
$k$ is less than what?
logician_pdx
well, less than x
logician_pdx
Since x and y live in {1,2,3,...,ord_m(a)}, what is the largest possible value of |x-y|=k?
literally choose the two elements in the set that are the furthest apart from each other
^ thats why i meant largest k would be ord_m(a) - 2 earlier
but no, it cannot divide if its the largest possible
okay awesome. Don't forget the statement I suggested we prove. For the statement I suggested we prove, the largest possible value of k is ord_m(a) - 1, not ord_m(a) - 2.
So now we've reached a contradiction, right?
We said ord_m(a) divide k, but we just showed that can't be true
This contradiction proves the statement (mine and yours)
yep, so the contradiction statement cant be true which proves my statement
well I think you're on the right track, but those aren't the correct words
The contradiction we reached proves my statement, which in turn proves your statement
So here's what the proof now looks like
We show Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. Then $a^x\not\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for all distinct
$x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)}$.
logician_pdx
\begin{proof}
Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. For the sake of contradiction, suppose $a^x\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for some distinct
$x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)}$. Without loss of generality, assume $x=y+k>y$ for some integer $k>0$. Then $m|a^x-a^y=a^y(a^k-1)$. Since $(a^y,m)=1$, this implies $m|a^k-1$. Thus $\operatorname{ord}_m(a)|k$. This is a contradiction since the Division Algorithm guarantees $\operatorname{ord}_m(a)\nmid k$ since $1\leq k=|x-y|<\operatorname{ord}_m(a)$. This contradiction proves the theorem.
\end{proof}
yea, ive never spoke in english about something like that. but pretty much what i meant
logician_pdx
so, i generally get the idea of that. Its just that I personally have no clue how to connect it and formulate as a proof
ah gotcha.
Yeah these can be tricky to come up with, and there are likely other ways to prove this
But one last question which I am not sure u answered already, but u mention here for ord_m(a)
Distinct x, y in (1,2,3...ord_m(a)) would mean that x > y is possible, no? But the actual thing that wanted to be proven was about 1 < x < y < ord_m(a)
(perhaps this was just a typo in the latex here)
thats what i meant earlier where I was confused about the selection of x / y in the set
well if x and y are distinct, then x>y is possible, yes.
so we've covered that case
and also if 1 < x < y < ord_m(a), x and y are still in our set and so the result still holds
so for x = y + k > y would work the same, since x cant be > y
ah nvm, u mentioned that already with symmetry earlier
Yes so @simple token :
Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. Then $a^x\not\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for all distinct
$x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)}$. proves: Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. Then $a^x\not\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for all distinct $x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)-1}$
logician_pdx
not really tbh, except I didnt see / read something.
what you mean?
ah nvm mb, if i read it correctly it says that the statement for x,y in {1,2,3,... ord_m(a)} proves that the same thing just with x ,y in {1,2,3,... ord_m(a) - 1}
so basically because the 1st is already proven, the 2nd, which is in the 1st set is proven aswell
yes
exactly
and we've already covered the x>y case and the y<x case since we assumed x and y were distinct
okay yea that makes sense now
dope
So for your proof, I'd write this:
\begin{proof}
Let $a>0$ and $m>2$ be relatively prime integers. For the sake of contradiction, suppose $a^x\equiv a^y\pmod{m}$ for some distinct
$x,y\in{1,2,3,\dots,\operatorname{ord}_m(a)-1}$. Without loss of generality, assume $x=y+k>y$ for some integer $k>0$. Then $m|a^x-a^y=a^y(a^k-1)$. Since $(a^y,m)=1$, this implies $m|a^k-1$. Thus $\operatorname{ord}_m(a)|k$. This is a contradiction since the Division Algorithm guarantees $\operatorname{ord}_m(a)\nmid k$ since $1\leq k=|x-y|<\operatorname{ord}_m(a)-1$. This contradiction proves the theorem.
\end{proof}
logician_pdx
exactly yea. the contradiction part makes sense now, prolly wouldnt have gotten that myself however
I mean, that's what this server is for (to help with a little guidance)
this is perhaps a little off topic, but do u have some good sources for stuff like that? as our script isnt really, uhm, great.
yea, thanks a lot <3 hope my tired ass hasnt been too annoying / stupid. ill try to go over it slowly tmrw again and perhaps do the same thing alone again w/o the preset.
you mean for like how to write proofs?
You've been a pleasure to work with.
i doubt
well, kinda yea. Also the theoretical knowledge for the implications / conversions (guess thats not the correct word)
oh that just comes with practice
ive generally been scraping some online sources trying to find stuff / math exchange, but couldnt find anything like a source where most of the stuff is gathered
sometimes reading other proofs (valid and sufficient proofs) can help too
yea i guess
well. thanks a lot again. if u dont mind could I ping u if ill have some follow up questions tmrw after going over it again? (obv keeping timezones in mind)
You're welcome! Sure you can dm me if you'd like
ty :) hope youre gonna enjoy the rest of your day / evening. gn
You're welcome. Thanks, I hope you're enjoy your day/night too.
This channel is open for questions
Hi, I've been trying to prove this statement : let E be an infinite set, prove that there exists a one to one correspondence between ExE and E. There is an easy injection E -> ExE, but I can't figure an ExE -> E injection. Also apparently the axiom of choice is required for solving this exercise. If anyone has an idea, thanks
this is the first paragraph of a proof from Enderton's Elements of Set Theory.
Hopefully that hint is enough to get you off the ground
is there a way to do this with writing E x E as the union of {e} x E for all e in E?
something mirroring the proof that the countable union of countable sets is countable?
I think that's a good idea. I don't know if it works.
idk too much about cardinals, but just on a limb, is it true that if k is some infinite cardinal and there is a collection of at most k sets each with cardinality k, then the union is also of cardinality k?
Yeah, that's not too different than what we're trying to show here
How do you count # of lattice paths from (0,0) to (n,n) that do not pass thru points A, B or C?
Is it: total # of paths from start to finish - total paths from start to finish that pass thru A - total paths from start to finish that pass thru B - total paths from start to finish that pass thru C + total paths that pass thru A and B + total paths that pass thru A+C + total paths that pass thru B+C - total paths that pass thru A+B+C?
I would count the complement and subtract from the total @tranquil flint
Thank you!
Well you've already kind of shown half of what you need to show since you've shown $f:E\rightarrowE\times E$ is injective. \textit{All you need to do now is show $f$ is surjective}. I'm not sure exactly how that'd be done, but I don't think you need to find an injection $g:E\times E\rightarrow E$.
logician_pdx
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The obvious injection from E to ExE is never surjective if E has more than two elements
Ah, I was thinking he had found a nontrivial but relatively easy injection
I mean, Tarski's theorem about choice says that this property of infinite sets implies AC
By contrapositive, it isn't true if you don't assume AC
Hello everyone, quick question: are ∃x(S(x)∧∀y (F(y)→A(x,y))) and ∃x∀y(S(x)∧ F(y)→A(x,y)) equivalent? (it's just the scope of the universal quantifier for y I'm not sure if it has the same meaning if I put it at the beginning)
Okay, after revising my example, this isn't true
Take S(x)=x≥0, F(y)=y≤0, A(x,y)=x>y
The first is saying "there exists a nonnegative number larger than any nonpositive number". 1 works, it's true
Okay nevermind that still doesn't work
Perhaps it is true
Do you have any information over what sets x and y range?
Yes sorry that would have been helpful. We are assuming that the predicate S(x) is "x is a student", F(x) is "x is a faculty member" and A(x,y) is "x has asked y a question", where the domain for x and y consists of all people associated with your school. I need to use nested quantifiers to express "some student has asked every faculty member a question". The proposed solution is ∃x(S(x)∧∀y (F(y)→A(x,y))) but I came up with ∃x∀y(S(x)∧ F(y)→A(x,y)) so I couldn't really get my head around the difference.
It can cause some issues if say, the faculty is empty
Then the solution you came up holds as long as you can find any person
"There is a person that (is a student and has asked every faculty member a question), since there are no faculty members"
These statements are equivalent
I don’t see any issues even when the set of faculty is empty. Both statements are still equivalent and are the same and correspond to what they asked him
Feels iffy, but oh well ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Thank you both guys, I think I'll stick with @red nest even if one of the sets is null the equivalence wouldn't be impacted
Is it true that if $m,n$ are coprime, then every element of $\bZ/m\bZ$ contains a multiple of $n$?
abs_0
Nah nah nah
Thanks tho
bzoo
Assuming axiom of choice there is a well ordering on E. Conclude from there
he may not yet have proved well ordering tho
proof is simple tho
To well order S, let f be a choice function on P(S), define s_α=f(S-{s_β|β<α}) and we're done
@past burrow the recursive steps says that you can connect strands of RNA together
it's just an easy way to go from {A,C,U,G} to all possible strands of those letters
``It is pretty clear that if $a$ and $n$ have a common prime factor, then there is no hope of finding a reciprocal element $b$ so that $ab = 1$ in $\bZ_n$''
abs_0
If we think about $ab$ modulo $n$, the congruence implies that for nonnegative $k$, $$ab = nk+1 \implies ab-nk=1.$$ Suppose $d= \gcd(a, n) > 1$, which is given since $a$ and $n$ have a common prime factor, this would imply the LHS is divisible by $d$, while the RHS is not divisible by $d$, implying that there does not exist a $b$ that satisfies our diophantine equation.
Green4Applez
How do I find # of solutions to:
x+y+z+w = 20
where 9>=x,y,z>=0 and 9>=w>=1
Is generating functions a shortcut? im not sure how to use them
is there any reason in particular why you wrote the bounds backwards
i.e. 9 ≥ w ≥ 1 as opposed to 1 ≤ w ≤ 9
anyway, you could instead count the solutions to x + y + z + w' = 19 with x, y, z, w' ≥ 0; x, y, z ≤ 9; w' ≤ 8
which can be done with generating functions if desired
or via some applications of inclusion-exclusion
Oh no no reason
yess i was thinking this
for the generating function (i didnt learn them yet fully but would rather use them than PIE)
since they seem shortcut level easy
is it just the coefficient of
4 sums
coefficient of $t^{19}$ in $(1 + t + \dots + t^9)^3(1 + t + \dots + t^8)$
Ann
OOoooh ok
thank you sm
period
Do we have to use taylor series to reduce that
🤔
Ann
so really it's 1/(1-t)^4 whose taylor series you would need
and even that you can get from differentiating 1/(1-t) thrice
wait can i ask how u got this
1 + t + ... + t^9 = (1 - t^10)/(1-t)
omg
Wow
1/(1-t) = 1 + t + t^2 ...
taking deriv 3x
is
2*3/(1-t)^4 = 3! + 4! t + 5! t^2 + ...
i think
it'll be $\frac{6}{(1-t)^4} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (n+3)(n+2)(n+1)x^n$
Ann
o yea i missed one term
ok period
$\frac{1}{(1-t)^4} = \frac{1/6}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (n+3)(n+2)(n+1)t^n$
LMFAO
WOOPS
$\frac{1}{(1-t)^4} = 1/6\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (n+3)(n+2)(n+1)t^n$
$\frac{1}{6}{(1-t^{10})^3(1 - t^9)}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (n+3)(n+2)(n+1)t^n$
Ramtin
ok latex is cool
i have no idea how to use it properly tho just copy pasting ur text lmaoo
@tranquil flint you can get more information at #latex-help but in general
$ are used to enclose math.
\foo indicates latex "macro" named foo (e.g \foo)
_ for subscripts
^ for superscripts
Hm but looking at it im not sure how much faster this is since still gotta find coeff of t^19 which doesnt seem that easy
Oh thank you so much 😄
Dont use \ in front of $
.
Any guidance?
try working out small examples by hand to get a feel for it
maybe work out the even simpler case of just one power of a prime first
ohhhhhhhh you're amazing thank you. that's so cool
no problem!
can someone tell me what a cancelled mod is
are u referring to the cancellation property of mod?
yes
ah ok
Consider positive integers $n, k, u$, and $v$. Also, suppose $n$ and $k$ are coprime. From this, $$kv \equiv ku \pmod{n}$$ may be simplified by cancelling $k$ from each side. This is done by multiplying the multiplicative inverse of $k$ modulo $n$ on both sides. So, that would result in $$v \equiv u \pmod{n}.$$
Green4Applez
oo gotchu
Also, an additional thing is that if $n$ and $k$ had some common divisor $d$, then the congruence could be simplified by dividing both sides of the congruence by $d$ along with dividing the modulus by $d$.
Green4Applez
oo alright thank you for the help
what if its an integer lets say, k and the questions says can k be cancelled mod of n.
how do i approach this problem
So do u mean the question asks u what k mod n is?
okay let me give u problem the problem states, can 2 be cancelled mod of 2987638218
,w Expand[((Sum[x^i,{i,0,9}])^3)(Sum[x^i,{i,1,9}])]
@tranquil flint See above, the answer is the coefficient of $x^{20}$.
logician_pdx
Omg wow ok
i kinda like generating functions thank you sm
but idk how ud get that coeff
by hand
usually people don't expand those out by hand. That'd take too long
but we reduced the
4 sums x each other to this:
for t^19
coeff of t^19
ann helped me find this
and i guess the infinite taylor polynomial
we can stop it at n = 19
since any further is not relevant
but not sure how that finds
the thing
the coeff
yeah so you still got a messy sum there that you're prolly not going to do by hand lol
even the things outside the sum, can be messy
yeah I'd use a calculator...polynomial expansion is one of the reasons I love Mathematica
You could also make use of the binomial theorem if you really wanted and that might help, but I'm not sure it would be super helpful
kinda stuck on this question
so far I have
$D_r={(x,y)\in{\mathbb{R}\times{\mathbb{R}}}||x-y|<r}, D_s={(z,t)\in{\mathbb{R}\times{\mathbb{R}}}||z-t|<s}$ so we have that $D_{r}\circ{D_s}={(x,y)\in{\mathbb{R}\times{\mathbb{R}}}|\exists{c\in{\mathbb{R}}}(|x-c|<s|\land{|c-y|<r)}}$
jswatj
but im not really sure where to go from here
must i prove that for every real number $x,y$ there exists a $c\in{\mathbb{R}}$ such that $|x-c|<s$ and $|c-y|<r$?
jswatj
i think your set needs to be $$D_r\circ D_s={(x,z)\in\mathbb{R}^2:(\exists y\in \mathbb{R}:(x,y)\in D_r\wedge (y,z)\in D_s)}$$
coycoy
Yeah
sry if it’s the same
just didn’t feel like parsing it lol
i just wrote it out
sorry
yeah so i would have to prove that for every $x,z\in{\mathbb{R}}$ there exists a $y\in{\mathbb{R}}$ such that $(x,y)\in{D_r}$ and $(y,z)\in{D_s}$
jswatj
but hmm
im not sure how to go about doing that
triangle inequality says $|x-y|\leq{|x|-|y|}$ and $|y-z|\leq{|y|-|z|}$
jswatj
bad example
what
but my point is, i don’t think D_r o D_s is all of R^2 like ur suggesting
Ok
I don't think it is either
but
how would i go about justifying my answer with a proof?
this is not true. do you mean |x-y| <= |x| + |y|
well, i don’t have an answer yet, but i think the question is asking, what set is D_r o D_s. my initial guess is that it is equal to D_{r+s}
it would be that $|x-y|\geq{||x|-|y||}$
jswatj
both of those were true
yeah this would be more helpful
if it were $D_{r+s}$ then we would have $|x-y|<r+s$ for any $x,y$ real numbers no?
jswatj
so the reason i say this is because it’s really easy to show that D_r o D_s is a subset of D_{r+s}
can you see why that’s true?
i think its because
using the 'and' statement you can manipulate one of the inequalities such that $|x-y|<r \implies |x-y|+s<r+s$ and by transitivity $|x-y|<r+s$?
jswatj
so we can have $D_{r+s}$
jswatj
since s>0
that shows that D_r is a subset of D_{r+s}
if (x,z) is in the composition, then there is a y so that |x-y|< r and |y-z|<s
by the triangle inequality, we have |x-z|<=|x-y|+|y-z|<r+s
so (x,z) is in D_{r+s}
do what lol
|x-z|<=|x-y|+|y-z|?
that is the triangle inequality
wouldn't it be |x|+|z|?
|x-z|=|(x-y)+(y-z)|
ohhhhh shit
so is that part clear now?
ok cool
wouldn't the other way around just be the same
if we can show that D_{r+s} is a subset of the composition, then we’re done
after some more thought, my initial guess isn’t true. it’s something else
How many spanning subgraphs of K5 have no vertex of deg4:
K5 has 2^(5C2) spanning subgraphs
then if I label each vertex {1,2,3,4,5}
is it just PIE
case where vertex 1 has degree 4 + vertex 2 has degree 4... - vertex 1 and 2 degree 4 ... + vertex 1 and 2 and 3 degree 4 .... - vertex 1 and 2 and 3 and 4 degree 4 ... + case where vertex 1,2,3,4,5 degree 4?
Or is my logic flawed
yeahh i may just skip it and come back
this text looks like vellmans. is it?
@weary tiger
okay. so maybe i was right. let’s just suppose that |x-z| < r+s.
then i believe the set (x-r, x+r) intersect (z-s, z+s) is non-empty.
if y is in the above set, then |x-y| is less than r and |z-y| is less than s.
so we have D_{r+s} being a subset of the composition, hence D_{r+s} is equal to the composition
I think the way backwards is the same no?
well, in what sense
so
backwards would just be that
|a-c|<r+s
because of that there exists an element b such that |a-b|<s and |b-c|<r by the triangle inequality
so we'd just have the original
i think we can move forwards and backwards using the triangle inequality
can u explain this step
yea
cause we said that since
|a-c|<|a-b|+|b-c|<r+s
so |a-c|<r+s
can't we just reverse the steps?
bring in an element b
no because if |x-z| < r+s, then |x-y| + |y-z| < r + sis not true for arbitrary y
isn't it just there exists a y?
yes. but if you just know that |x-z| < r + s, then you need to choose y carefully to have |x-y| < r and |y-z| < s
and y should be in the intersection of the intervals (x-r, x+r) and (z-s, z+s)
see here #discrete-math message
well, let’s just assume that we have shown that the intersection of those two sets is non-empty first
Ok we'll assume
pick some y in that intersection
then x-r < y < x+r so -r < y-x < r
which implies |x-y| < r
similar argumentation shows that |y-z| < s
since we also have z-s < y < z+s
so we have shown the existence of some real y such that |x-y| < r and |y-z| < s given that (x,z) is in D_{r+s} hence the ordered pair (x,z) is also in the composition
is everything clear there?
awesome! all that’s left to show is that the intersection of the two intervals that we care about is non-empty
can you try that?
hey uhhh in general is this class very time consuming? i'm taking it next semester along w/ a bunch of other stuff and im wondering what your guys' workload usually is like, ty!
If I perform right rotate on the node with element 4, do I get
4 2 1 3 8 6 5 7 9 10
as the preorder traversal?
I am a bit skeptical about this tbh
the node with element 4 became root
and its right subtree was attached to node with element 8, is that the correct approach when right rotating? In other words, node 6 and its children was attached to node 8
I was solving the textbook questions of Kenneth Rosen's "Discrete math" related to quantifiers and come to this question:
f will be $\exists y\forall x !L(x,y)$
Buncho Dragons
My answer to number f) is different from the model answer but I think they are the same
These 2 are very very different
Your answer is "If you choose some x,you can find some y such that x doesn't love y"
That y need not remain the same person as you vary x
That's what I missed
Thanks a lot
As a concrete example for why the two are different and why one is far stronger than the other
$\forall n\in\bN,\exists N\in\bN,n\le N$ : given a natural number you can find one larger than it \
$\exists N\in\bN,\forall n\in\bN,n\le N$ : there is a natural number N greater than every natural number
Syst3ms
Modular exponentiation 3^65 mod 7 , (1,4 5,10,20,25) ,3^1) mod 7 = 3 , (3^2)^2 mod 7 = 4 m (3^5)^1 mod 7 = 5 , (3^5)^2 mod 7 = 6, (3^10)^2 mod 7 = 2, (3^5)^5 mod 7 =3 ,3 *4 *5 *6 *2 * 3 this isn't making sense to me the remainder is suppose to be 5 but the way I did it which I though was the right way ended up giving me the wrong answer, any help is greatly appreciated . thank you
can u be clearer as to what ur doing here
. i dont really get it
ok i think i get what ur doing but u made a slight error
3^10 = (3^5)^2 = 4 (mod 7)
not 6
u can do this much more easily by using fermats little theorem
fermats theorem says 3^6 = 1 ( mod 7)
so 3^65 = 3^(6*10 + 5) = (3^6)^10 * 3^5 = 3^5 = 5 (mod 7)
Using nested quantifiers:
Is there a logical difference between both answers?
@desert badger yes since your model does not indicate that x != y
You mean I must add $ \land x \neq y $ ?
PeterFayez
yes
(it wouldn't be fun if the student had just chatted with themself)
Commander Vimes
anyway i would prolly state this in a fashion similar to their
$$\exists x \exists y \forall z (x \ne y \land C(x,y) \land C(x,z) \implies y 😒 )$$
yes leave it be in utf8
Commander Vimes
or i we want be funny we can formulate this is complicated manner lol
this is not of particular use but
Actually
I am having hard times with the nested quantifiers
Commander Vimes
$$\exists x, \exists y, (x \ne y \land \forall z, (C(x,z) \implies y=z))$$ suffices
this is really weird and unuseful formulation
Syst3ms
Right
but 
what is the name of E shape like symbol I think use in calculus
∃ ? ∈ ?
latter one
set membership
right
and what is the name of the symbol S tail attach with back
S like fish like bird tail ?
now here i have no idea what you're talking about
this website may help https://shapecatcher.com/
You need to find a specific Unicode character? With Shapecatcher.com you can search through a database of characters by simply drawing your character into a box. It can find the most similar character shapes for your drawing.
delta
δ
that's a greek letter
also I'm guessing I got the first one wrong
If you meant ε then that's epsilon
also a greek letter
please learn greek letters, they're everywhere
that doesn't change anything to my point though
is calculus is important for discrete math or just cover needed topics side by side
look at the channel description
most of these are only distantly related to calculus
but it can crop up in a couple of places
discrete math's is the thing that makes you better in logic building and help you to made algorithms in a nutshell a better programmer?
ehhh, programming can be applied to so many fields I doubt the advice you need all lies in one channel
was just trying my hand at the overlapping circle problem by categorizing configurations using the number of intersections, found that only one 3-circle configuration has the same number of intersections of a 2-circle configuration
so I started to look at how many ways sets can be catagorized
as a computer science student I realized that this could be useful for file systems and databases
I wonder is there a way to calculate how many ways there are to catagorize a collection of data in a file system?
More playing-arounds
Nice drawings
Not gonna lie, not sure what you are doing
Oh
you are counting the number of ways you can have inclusions I think
So like say you have A,B,C and XY=X intersect Y
so XYZ = XY intersect Z
Is your question if you were to make a set of all combinations of types of inclusions given some sets, how many are valid?
So like for A,B,AB you have:
A in B
B in A
AB in A
AB in B
B in AB
A in AB
A in AB
B in AB
And out of those only 4 are valid
oh i forgot
A in empty and B in empty
So we calculate all possibilities and exclude invalid ones?
Thats an easy way of doing it
ah
but does not seem to be the most efficient
Yea doing it that way is not efficient
but we can probably come up with an algorithm that can calculate it easier
becasue if there exist any XY then we can ensure that there XY in X and XY in Y holds
and because of that there are X and Y which contain the empty set
$\emptyset \subset XY \subset X \ \emptyset \subset XY \subset Y \ \emptyset \subset X \ \emptyset \subset Y$
bruh moment
celina baeza
Also i found ambiguity in your 3-tuple on the left
You write (2,1,0) But 2 doesnt specify if its A B or B C
so if you have a function f:(s,d,t)->N where s are sets with 0 intersections, d are sets with 1 intersection (XY) and t are sets with two intersections (XYZ)
(s,d,t) isnt well defined
So you should work with another tuple that is more clear
The function in the end will resemble something using nCr function
this is exactly what got me from circle overlapping to set inclusion
I think if I can find a pattern in set inclusion I can generate most of the possible configurations, at least with a low number of circles
I dont know about you but setting up a function seems obvious to me
So im not sure if you want a function or not
Because I would make the function f:P(X) -> N where P(X) is power set of X
And the input would be collections of sets in the power set.
So say you have X = {A,B,C} then the powerset is P(X)={empty,A,B,C,AB,BC,AC,ABC}
And if you were to input a set T ={A,C,AB} we can find the number of proper inclusions from here.
There isnt any easy way to calculate the number of proper inclusions for any random collection given as input besides counting
A simple computer program can figure it out though
I see
The reason there isnt any quicker way besides counting is because the result heavily relies on the colleciton you give as input
The program would treat each set in the collection as a string and then parse it
I'm having issues understanding De Morgans law in this instance. In particular with regards to the movement from (¬p ∨ r ) ∨ ¬q = ¬(p ∧ ¬r) ∨ ¬q. How does the law move the negation out from p and add to r?
You start with (p^q)->r
you negate and you get (~p or ~q) and r
you can distribute the and r
we have that (p and q) implies (p and ~r) -> ~q
By distributing we get (~p and r) or (~q and r)
So to recap (p and q)->r implies (~p and r) or (~q and r)
a hint is to use (p and q) implies (p and ~r) -> ~q
In particular with regards to the movement from (¬p ∨ r ) ∨ ¬q = ¬(p ∧ ¬r) ∨ ¬q.
Remember that ¬(p and q) = ¬p or ¬q
So (¬p v r) v ¬q turns into ¬(p ∧ ¬r) ∨ ¬q.
Since ¬p v r=¬(¬(¬p v r)) =¬(p ∧¬r), This is because ¬(¬P) = P and P in this case is (¬p v r)
Thank you for the explanation
Its impossible to have a lattice path go thru (2,2), (2,4) and (3,3) right?
lets say from origin to (n,n)
or even
(2,4) and (3,3)
is impossible in the same lattice path
🤔 unless im mistaken
@tranquil flint Yes, that's impossible if you've assumed shortest lattice paths from (0,0) to (n,n). This is because if you have the restriction that you're considering only the shortest number of paths from (0,0) to (n,n), then the only moves allowed are 'right' and 'up', but going from (2,4) to (3,3) implies one did the opposite of 'up'.
could someone check if these are right? got a little confused about 2a.
Looks fine
<@&268886789983436800>
can someone check my work here? I’m also curious if there’s a way to write the answer to (d) more concisely
where do i go from here?
also fyi this isn’t an actual assignment, I’m just trying to study ahead for the fall
I haven’t really done proofs yet, but maybe you can use the fact that 6 and 18 * something will always be a multiple of 6, and the +4 and -2 must make those multiples meet/equal each other because 4+2 is also 6...
idrk but is this right
@fierce osprey all in all it looks good to me, I am not sure how important that is but in (b) you are missing parentheses and the order should be T and S not S and T although obviously equivalent (same with (d) only very nitpicky things)
@deft dock r=3s-1 no?
ohhhhhhhhh yes yes
other than that its right?
but otherwise its correct yes
find an element in A thats not in B
and just mention it or do i have to write a formal proof?
I mean A subset B means: forall x in A it follows that x in B
so finding x in A which isnt in B is a proof
ah thanks! I’ll keep the order in mind. Also where in (b) should there be parentheses?
and is the implies ok? I used it just to mix things up, but I’m not sure if it’s any more or less correct in this context...
if f: A to B
is it possible for some a in A
to be undefined when inputted into f?
f(a) = undefined?
where f is surjective
if it's surjective then by definition you have an answer
it might help to draw an image of two sets with arrows
where is the modus ponens in this picture?
It is below freezing now therefore it is either below freezing or raining
question regarding this statement
how you eleborate this statement
where is rain in this statement
does q denotes to rain and p to freezing ?
You have P and P->Q so the modus ponens is P with P->Q to get Q
you tell me???
How would we know
what do the predicates stand for
how do we know when it is modus ponens or tollens
how does this tautology form from above modus ponenz
modus tollens is if we have $P\implies{Q}$ and $\neg{Q}$ then we have $\neg{P}$
jswatj
it derives from the idea of a contrapositive
$P\implies{Q} \iff \neg{Q}\implies{\neg{P}}$
jswatj
????????????
Tautologies have the form $P\lor{\neg{P}}$
jswatj
What's the difference between a reflexive and symmetric set?
are you talking about relations/functions?
Yeah
I think I got it tho
Something can be reflexive but not necessarily symmetric.
other way around
if (x,x) is in the relational set, then so is (x,x)...I swapped the x's but you can't really tell I did cuz they're identical
Note that I'm not saying a reflexive relational set is a symmetric set
consider the relation on A={1,2}. Suppose the relational set is {(1,1),(2,2),(1,2)}. This set is reflexive but isn't symmetric. It's not symmetric because (2,1) isn't there. It's reflexive because (1,1) and (2,2) are there.
Oh
yeah if the relational set is only reflexive, then it is symmetric.
again here
it is reflexive
@last timber What are you saying? I already stated that was reflexive
and I explicitly said it's not symmetric
i mean this
I was talking about relational sets on a set B such that for every x in B, we have (x,x) in the relational set and nothing like (x,y), with x not equal to y, in the relational set
This channel is open for questions
h-hi log
uhm
i just started discrete mathematics
and i just dont get it
@snow sleet so will u teach me the basics pls
You have to ask questions, no one is going to teach you XD
For something like
oh
ik but my junior said this dude @snow sleet
Why is it C(19,1)*C(34,7).
Why don't you do something like 19 * 34 * 33 * 32 * 31 * 30 * 29 * 28? I think I am getting the ideas confused.
he explained him pnc it seems
i need to start from the basics
i missed a lot of classes duo to some irl problems
and my mam wont start from basics
my junior told me to ask @snow sleet help
so i am asking
This is me asking my own question ^_^
kk
$\sum_{i=0}^8\binom{19}{i}\binom{34}{8-i}=\binom{19+34}{8}$
Johnson
,w Sum[Binomial[19,i]*Binomial[34,8-i],{i,0,8}]-Binomial[19+34,8]
T(n) = 4T(n/2) + n^2/lg(n)
Can anyone tell me how to solve it using Masters theorem
I am confused in this question
^^ hey logician remember how you were explaining how setting the divisor equal to 2 or 4 or any even number works? why wouldnt an odd number work? or would it? like could we have done three cases and said: 3s, 3s + 1, and 3s + 2?
We could've done it with any positive integer (even or odd...other than 1) it's just that the number of cases would increase
wait i just tried with 3
no work
because
if we let n = 3q
then square
so 9q^2
we cant represent that as 4k or 4k+1
what was the statement we're trying to prove again? it's been a while
oh! that one
sorry I was thinking of something else
yeah you can use 2, 4, 8, or any other multiple of 4 as the divisor
2 is nice because when you square it, you end up with a 4 and 2 reduces how many cases we have to consider down to a whopping 2
very satisfying
what do you mean only four?
you said any other multiple of 4 as the divisor
and it has to do with the fact that 4 is even and odd integers are well....odd
right I meant positive multiple there
that way you're guaranteed to get a 4
which you can factor out
and then get 4k or 4k+1
as you noticed with 3, you can't factor a 4 out
but dont we gurantee it will work with any divisor?
huh?
no
that's not what the theorem is saying
the theorem is saying that the square of any integer leaves a remainder 0 or 1 after division by 4
mhm
when I was talking about the divisors, I was talking about how we can partition the set of integers
but there's no reason why one should try 3 as the divisor cuz that just makes things really hard
you can technically use 3, it's just that showing 3q^2 is divisible by 4 or of the form 4k+1 depends on knowing/showing more about q^2
how do you show 9q^2 is / by 4???
ah so we'd take a different path from factorization





