#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 63 of 1
addition is defined modulo 2, so if you have 1, you can add 1 and get 0, so 1 is its own inverse
wrt addition
see thats the thing ion understand. What is the whole modulo 2 definition of addition thing
where is it coming from
a field is like a set of things together with two operations on those things which satisfies the field axioms, what the operations are doesn't matter so long as the axioms are satsified
so here the operation is chosen as mod 2, that's in a sense what makes {0,1} a field
wrt addition
are you starting with abstract algebra with fields?
I would recommend studying group theory first and absorbing the core ideas
its part of my introduction to proofs course
I see
this term test will include induction (pretty straight forward), functions (doesn't seem to bad), and this field stuff
okay, well, just remember that you have a set, in this case {0,1}, and two operations, one corresonds to addition and the other with multiplication
but the operations need to satisfy a lot of properties
so there needs to be an additive inverse (minus is possible) and multiplicative inverse (division is possible)
by the way division in finite fields is very weird, you won't recognize it as division probably
wait a second, what do you mean by "corresponds to"
as in, it doesn't have to be addition itself?
nope
it just needs to have the same properties as normal addition
it can be almost anything
what is it in the case of the field i provided
hence why this field (of math) is called abstract algebra, it's like algebra but not necessarily on numbers
addition modulo 2
But like how could you tell immiddietly just by the field being provided
well, I know this field so I knew immediately what the operation is, but otherwise you would need to study the operations
on wikipedia they provide a definition of what addition means with tables
you are talking about this field, right?
yes
Note that the operations are part of the definition of a field, so saying that {0, 1} is a field is really underspecified - you need to specify what the operations are
yeah ^
but it turns out that for each prime p and integer n there's a unique finite field of size p^n, so we can deduce what the operations are just by looking at the set
is this a reasonable argument for showing that $\chi_e(K_n)=n$ where $n$ is odd?
Let's assume that $K_n$ is colorable using $n-1$ colors (it's definitely not possible to color using less than that) and show that that leads to a contradiction. Since every vertex has degree $n-1$ we must use all of our colors at each vertex. Then we can construct a spanning tree for $K_n$ out of edges of only two of the colors. The spanning tree is bipartite and hence this coloring of the tree is a perfect matching, which implies that $n$ is even, which is a contradiction
masterbuilder
may need some work, I'm honestly super stuck on this
this is unrelated to your question, but:
is it really exists [negative] ?!
what about vacuous truth?
I.e. we say for all x but there are no x's. so there is nothing to exist 
ion man im new and i think my prof is not that great 😭
he put the negation of it as E! then one another question he put it as E, so like?????
im considering just getting a course at this point he not helping 💀
I mean, I was triggered by the phrase 'picks representative' 🥹
just in case: that wasn't a question to you
oh my bad lol
I'm a bit rusty, but there's some discussion here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1172005/chromatic-index-of-a-complete-graph
thanks, I also found this, to be honest I'm not really a big fan of this, there must be a simpler argument
That's kind of what it does though. A right inverse f : A/∼ -> A to a quotient map [-] : A -> A/∼ would satisfy f([a]) ∼ a for every a in A.
what sites can i practice discrete math in?
I got it, it took a while though, the idea is this: Assume that $n$ is even (the odd case is already taken care of), we have already shown that $\chi_e(K_{n-1})$ so we only need to show that adding a vertex to $K_{n-1}$ does not affect the chromatic index. Because the degree of each vertex is $n-2$ there is an unused color that is not used to color an edge incident to that vertex. We show that these unused colors are all distinct by contradiction. Assume that for arbitrary distinct vertices $u$ and $v$ that we can color the edges incident to them using the same $n-2$ colors. Since $u$ and $v$ are incident we must use one color to color that edge which leaves $n-3$ colors. Now notice that the rest of the vertices all form a triangle with $u$ and $v$, it's easy to show that you need 2 colors to color this triangle. To color all of these triangles you need an even number of colors, but we only have an odd number of colors available, which contradicts the assumption that we can color $K_{n-1}$. Therefore $u$ and $v$ each have a different unused color. But then it's easy to show that we can add a vertex to $K_{n-1}$ without affecting the edge chromatic number, just color the new edges using the unused colors, which are $n-1$ in total and all distinct.
masterbuilder
I believe this proof will work fine for the odd case, so I suppose this proof is acceptable
I wrote the wrong thing when describing the contradiction, but it's probably clear what I meant to write there
Quick question. I saw a video where they had a field GF(3), and the operation they were using is mod 3, so does it mean that that if you have a field with elements {1, 2, ... n}, the operation is basically mod(n+1)?
so for example, the field {0, 1}, we do mod 2
for {0, 1, 2} we do mod 3?
Yeah basically
Not all finite fields look like this, but GF(p) when p is prime is of this form. People also write F_p
Yeah yeah
But any two finite fields of order p^k with p prime are isomorphic
What’s the easiest way to show a $k$-regular bipartite graph $G$ with $k\geq2$ cannot have a vertex connectivity of $1$
KirPlop
This is a rough sketch of what I’ve gotten so far
how do you define vertex connectivity?
specifically, what does connectivity of 1 mean?
The minimum number of vertices required to disconnect the graph
okay
well, the only way to disconnect the graph is if you have all of the vertices of one partition connected to only one vertex of the other partition, right? but that's impossible because G is k-regular with k>=2
so the size of either partition must be greater than 1
Each connected component of G' is a k-regular bipartite graph and thus has connectivity greater than 1, right? Construct a graph K (with repeated edges but not loops allowed) on the set of connected components C_1, ..., C_m of G', with an edge between C_i and C_j for each edge in the perfect matching between a vertex in C_i and a vertex in C_j. Then in K, deg(C_i) = |C_i|. Deleting a vertex v in C_i from G is essentially equivalent to deleting it from C_i (which we know remains connected) and the single edge in K corresponding to it. It should thus suffice to show that deleting a single edge from K leaves it connected. I believe that in K the number of edges between any C_i and C_j should be even, which would prove this.
IG tidying up the idea a bit, after deleting any vertex v, the connected component of G' containing v remains connected by inductive hypothesis, so any path through v using edges of G' can be "rerouted". And if uvw is a path through v with vw an edge from the perfect matching, then (according to my conjecture) there's another edge between vertices in the same connected components of G' as u and v - say u1 and v1 - and v and w - say v2 and w2 - and we can replace uvw by u...u1v1...v2w2...w using the inductive hypothesis for the ... parts.
what other cases are there?
oh. I misunderstood a bit the premise
Let {a,b,c}, {d,e,f} be the parts with edges ad, bd, be, bf, ce, cf for example.
My conjecture in the last sentence doesn't seem to be true: imagine there are four C_i's, all K_{2,2}'s; then we can have 3 edges between C_1 and C_2 and between C_3 and C_4, and 1 between C_1, C_3 and C_2, C_4 just by pairing up vertices (maintaining bipartite-ness) to make edges. In fact, probably pretty much any distribution of edges consistent with the degrees can be manufactured.
It should still be true (because it's necessary and sufficient for the conclusion to hold if I'm not mistaken) that K remains connected upon removing one edge.
not that helpful, but I made these
the same graph, but two distinct ways to 1-factorize it
Every vertex is in a cycle
That's trivial as there are no leaves
If you delete x and a path from u to v uses te vertex x
The cycle might not involve u or v, though.
Yes, but who is to say there are not two cycles connected by the mutual vertex x
Maybe we’ll never know
This is true: for any partition of K into two pieces A and B, the number of edges between A and B must be positive (because K is connected) and even (because every vertex in, say, A has even degree); hence there will remain an edge between A and B after removing any one edge from K.
Which taken together proves this result.
It does feel a bit longer than necessary.
what is the difference between a relation and a binary relation?
none?
relation is short for binary relation
you could imagine a ternary relation but you can;t call it "relation" people would be confused
Hi may I please seek help: Let F: 𝒫(ℕ) ∖ {∅} -> ℕ by setting 𝑓(𝑆) to be the smallest element of 𝑆
How can I know Setwise Preimage({𝑛}) is uncountable for some 𝑛 ∈ ℕ.
my current solution is to use n = 0, but i am stuck
is this sum equivalent to:
$$n((n-1)2^{n-2}+2^{n-1})$$?
>_<
Any subset of N that contains 0 is in the preimage of 0, that's quite a few!
Hiw would I go about proving?
Let X be any subset of N containing 0, then X is not empty and so F(X) is well-defined. Since 0 is smaller than any other natural number, it is also smaller than any other element of X. Therefore 0 is the smallest element of X. So F(X) = 0 and hence X is in the preimage of 0.
Now we still need to show that the set of all such X's is uncountable
yeah this is correct
Would it be like: Since every f-1({0}) can be written as {0} U S, where S is a subset of positive integers, there is a bijection between f-1({0}) and Power set of positive integers
That's the idea, but you still need to show that this operation P(N) -> F^-1(0) that sends a subset S to {0} U S is a bijection
How would I do that? Like this? Let S_1 and S_2 be different elements of P(N)
Then {0} ∪ S_1 ≠ {0} ∪ S_2.
Hmmm I guess it's not actually a bijection, since both {} and {0} get sent to {0}
hmm the domain excludes {}
Right, that works, then we still need that P(N) \ {} is uncountable
This is not a proof yet, you need to use that neither S_1 nor S_2 are {} somewhere
Cantor rule says that when N is countable infinite -> P(N) is uncountable
Yes, but why is then also P(N) \ {} uncountable? (This is really obvious but you should prove it)
How would I do this though?
I'm not sure how to prove that g(a).g(b) is also composed of positive integers that have gcdAB = 1
This is for a homework so don’t give direct answers please
Just hints or similar problems
You made a mistake, fg(n) is not f(g(n)) here, but rather f(n) * g(n)
But then it just means f(n)*g(n) = f(n)*g(n)
I’ll ask to confirm with my prof but that sounds too easy to be a proof
No that's not what is asked
Oh
The question is to show that f(n)g(n) is a multiplicative function if f and g are
Oh wait I have reread it
Thank you
the "fg(n) = f(n)g(n)" in the statement is just the definition of the notation fg(n)
So the prop is
f, g are both multiplicative => f(n)*g(n) is multiplicative
you missed one word
Both
one more xd
f, g are both multiplicative => f(n)*g(n) is multiplicative
does anyone have any ideas for 1a? I tried writing it as the union of the sets A_n = {X in P(N) | |X| = n} and showing that each A_n is countable (ie a bijection onto N) but I haven't been able to come up with one
For a set to be countable, you only need an injection into N
my prof defined it as |A| = |N|
but yeah that's the definition i've seen
but ig he wants us to use his
but yeah, i'm assuming an injection would suffice, bc other than that I have no clue how to construct a bijection
A bijection is not too hard either I think. For example, {X in P(N) | |X| = 2} is precisely N*N
You could use a similar construction to showing that Q is countable
Wait no it's not
Almost precisely the same (except for the diagonal)...
on possible way:
take some particular subset {a1,...,an} and try to assign a number to it
what if we use some prime numbers?
yea that's also an idea
i remember showing an injection from N x N into N also used prim enumbers
just make sure that that 'assignment' is a function
But this will never make a bijection
yeah but just in terms of injections it seems apt
why not:)
if we do a1^p1 • ... • an^pn — no, not a surjection. not even an injection
what about p1^a1 • ... • pn^an?
tho first — order the a1,...,an's — bc ow it might not be a mathematical function
surjection part will follow from decomposing every natural into primes
How about {a,b,c} |-> 2^a * 2^b * 2^b?
Send any finite subset of N to the binary number that has a 1 in those positions
Bam immediate bijection
this ain't injection
sends {1, 2} and {3} to the same number
No {1,2} gets sent to 6 and {3} to 8
O wait
That should be 2^a + 2^b + 2^c ....
As in binary numbers
if we let A_n = {X in P(N) | |X| = n} maybe we could produce an injection into N x N x ... x N (this is the product of N n times over itself) and since that has the same cardinality as N that would show each A_n is countable?
oh wait no, sets don't preserve order
maybe adding up the numbers in the set?
nvm lol
My suggestion is: do (b) first, then use it to prove (a). You don't need the "countable union of countable sets" in this case
this one is kind of annoying
b that is
because {0, 1}^n is clearly finite, it has cardinality 2^n
but i think i have to show that
in other words show that there's a bijection from {0, 1}^n onto 2^n (as a set)
Binary numberssss!
And then you can split up (a) not by cardinality but by the maximal element of the finite set
uhh so would something like $f \mapsto \sum_{i = 0}^{n - 1} f(i)2^i$ work for a bijection onto $2^n$
okeyokay
Yes
I think so? These are just binary numbers right?
yeah it should work
but then I would have to show that $\sum_{i = 0}^{n - 1} 2^{i} \leq 2^n - 1$
okeyokay
Thats an equality
That's a geometric series
my automated DPLL algorithm works for most test cases except for one with over 100 clauses and I have no clue how to debug it except for manually applying DPLL to a 29 variable 123 clause set 😭
Could there be an overflow somewhere? Maybe try generating some smaller test cases that fail?
Trying my best rn to do that
Its really strange
I'm pretty confident there's no overflow
Could be a fun case to learn about fuzzers
Yeah probably should
Whip up a python script
Just generate satisfiable CNFs of a small size until my DPLL fails one
Is it crashing or just giving incorrect results?
Latter
I'm considering even making it create tex output in a tree form so I can check where it's applying a rule wrong
oh i thought the formula was only valid in the infinite case lol
how to proof this? help $$\sum _{ u \ \in I } \ \sum _{ \left( u , v \right) \ \in E } f \left( u \right) = \sum _{ u \ \in I } \ \sum _{ \left( v , u \right) \ \in E } f \left( v \right)$$
However that probably wouldnt exactly work since THIS is the clause set
Aku
It seems trival, but i can't give a concrete proof
The I is the set of all nodes, The E is the set of
all edges
i'm having a little trouble on b, namely showing that f = g. bc what if f(i) = 0 and g(i) = 1 so that f(i) - g(i) < 0, then we could have f(k) > g(k) for some other term so that the sum would still be zero
i'm tempted to just say that oh each natural number has a unique binary expansion or whatever
but that doesn't seem rigorous enough
never mind
the terms don't cancel out
so we're chillen
or maybe i could just say they're linearly independent
my solution didn't convince you? 🙂
btw, that's how we solved it in class
anyways
lol mb i kinda skipped over the problem and will come back
Off by one error in the stack of assignments
When backtracking instead of remvoing every assignment strictly after the point of backtrack
I removed the backtrack itself from all but one variable, so that inconsistency messed it up lol
Classic!
But then the question remains why the smaller test cases didnt catch this
Yeah thats really strange
I guess maybe the smaller test cases just through sheer chance
didnt even have to backtrack?
I dont see how 💀
Ah wait i see it, damn
The homset is isomorphic to the dihedral group D_6, right?
does anybody know what the continuum is here
R?
yeah
Sorry, but someone told me to message this in #discrete-math which is why I am doing it because I am not sure how to solve the following problem:
Isn't the b) false for third case?
cause imagine u(81)
take m = 3
then m² = 9
So it works
But then n=9*9
So then gcd(9,9) is 9
So not multiplicative for all a,b
This is an assignment btw
Don’t give full response but do point out mistakes in reasoning or hints
If gcd(a, b) /= 1 then there isn't a contradiction?
there is I think because that doesnt fit the definition of multiplicative functions which we're trying to prove for the 3rd case
if gcd(a,b) =/= 1 then it follows that it is not multiplicative
If µ isn't multiplicative you have to show for some a and b s.t. gcd(a, b) = 1 that f(ab) \neq f(a)f(b).
What is your contradiction example?
Could finite projective planes and combinatorial designs be appropriate for this channel, or would that be too advanced (and hence more appropriate for #combinatorial-structures)?
Ok I negated it incorrectly
Thank you
Can I get a hint on this problem I have no clue how to go about it
reduce it mod 8
x^2 mod 8 can only take values 0, 1, 4
any ideas on bijections from (a) to (b)?
(b) is clearly countable, right? just show a an injective function exists from (a) to (b)
yes that's what i'm trying to do
so any ideas?
maybe i should try to inject the set into N
Let $X\in\mathcal{P}{<\infty}(\mathbb{N})$ and define $\phi(X) = \sum{n\in X}10^{-n}$
KirPlop
KirPlop
Heyyy I think the answer should be
a) G is planar (i can't find a k5 or k3,3 minor)
b) G is hamiltonina (i found a hamiltonian cycle)
c) 4 colorable since G is planar
d) not sure yet
but theres no way our prof will take this as an answer as we will need to provide a justification/proof for each. so Im sorta lost as to how to prove a and b ?
you prove a) by producing a drawing/embedding in the plane. Just because you can't find K_5 or K_3,3 minors doesn't mean there aren't any, but if you can draw this graph, then it is definitely planar
b) it's enough to show the cycle
c) assuming this graph is planar, how do you know you don't need less than 4 colors?
d) is chi prime = edge chromatic number?
ah thanks!
but for b) i found a cycle but would there be a way to concretely show that this is hamiltonian? maybe a relation/proof?
and yup for d its edge chromatic
this is a small enough graph that if you just give the cycle it should be obvious that it's hamiltonian
yeah it's easy for the reader to check that it is hamiltonian
ohhh i wish my prof is like that 🫠 
but yea ill try to work on it thanks!
What is 5 choose 7?
,w 5 choose 7
anyone can explain where does |A{n+1}| gone? and how sum becomes k=1 to n+1
(The SS is taken from here)
i think i got it
$|A_{n+1}|=\sum_{1\leq i_1=n+1}|A_{i_1}|$
Afzal σ − alg
the first sum looks at all possible k-subsets of {1, ..., n} and the second sum looks at all possible subsets of (k - 1)-subsets of {1, ..., n} since i_k = n + 1 is forced
in this way, you enumerate over all subsets of {1, ..., n + 1}
another way to think about it is: any k-subset of {1, ..., n + 1} must either include the set i_k = n + 1 or not. If it includes i_k = n + 1, then you obtain a (k - 1)-subset of {1, ..., n}, which is given by the second sum. If it doesn't include i_k = n + 1, then you obtain a k-subset of {1, ..., n}, which is given by the first sum
and then you enumerate over all set sizes k
ok, but why the $\sum_{k=1}^{n+1}$ is outside?
Afzal σ − alg
in the second sum?
probably for convenience
if you just do k = 1..n, then you're not considering the case where you obtain |A_1 \cap ... \cap A_n \cap A_{n + 1}|
i mean it makes sense now that why
$$\sum_{1\leq i_1<\cdots <i_k\leq n} +\sum_{1\leq i_1<\cdots <i_{k-1}\leq n<i_k=\leq n+1}=\sum_{1\leq i_1<\cdots <i_k\leq n+1}$$ but i wonder how we got $\sum_{k=1]}^{n+1}$ in the second equality (last line)
Afzal σ − alg
remember that the k in the second case accounts for (k - 1) sets being chosen (since we force n + 1 to be chosen)
Oh yeah this makes sense.
oh ya sory its = rather than =\leq in the second sum (a typo)
Well now this proof makes sense

nice!
Thank You so much opengangs :D
nws :)
@final veldt in your problem set 1 problem 1 (:D), can I use the fact that a signature is functional complete if it represents {v, -} or do you want the reader to use formula induction or something?
No need to use formula induction
I guess I would first have to prove that if a signature m is complete and that if n can represent every connective in m that then n is complete?
You can skip that
Can anyone help me figure out on how to go about this?
I checked the reflexivity, symmetry and transivity already but dont know how to determine the partition
In general it can be really hard to do this, but here are some ways to help write down the equivalence classes explicitly:
Try describing the equivalence class of an explicit example or two. For example perhaps you can describe the class of (0, 1). Try to write down the elements, maybe graph them, and try to describe them maybe in words first and then explicitly.
Notice that you can also rearrange the condition on the values a, b, c, and d in a nice way, by moving a and b to one side and b and c to another. If you think carefully about what this means, you can figure out the equivalence classes without computing anything.
Here is a fact about equivalence relations and partitions. For any set M and equivalence relation R, there is some set X and function f : M -> X such that m R n if and only if f(m) = f(n). If you can find a function f and a set X that is somehow meaningful, then you can describe the equivalence classes via this function f. Can you spot a good function f here?
So something like (0,1) R (x,y) = 0-x = 1-y? and I could form that into x-y = -1.
You could indeed
you mean something like f(k) = x-y = k
and if I would replace the f(k) with f(a,b) it would mean the same as k = a-b?
ofc I need to write that different but is that close to the idea?
So I'm not sure what f(k) = x-y = k means exactly but
Yeah, setting f(a, b) = a - b is a pretty good idea. Try making it work
kk thx
what sites can i practice discrete math in?
For a)
I’ve looked at the definitions
Ive tried a few proofs but i cant find a link between gcd(ab) = 1 and the 3 above conditions
Or a zero divisor modulo
If someone can give hints or similar examples that would be nice
It’s an assignment so no full response
Ok no nvm i got it
hey.
seeking help with a proof by weak induction question
Construct a proof by (weak) induction that, for every integer value of n > 27, the claim specified below is true. No marks will be awarded for anything other than a proof by (weak) induction. Please ensure that you clearly state your base case, your inductive hypothesis, and your inductive case, and show all of your work in full detail.
33 + 34 + 35 +...+(n+5)=((n^2) +((2*5) +1)*n) ÷2-513
wow, rng induction, that's something
what do you need help with specifically?
Sorry, I edited the message, I realized the question was missing some stuff. I am struggling with the topic in general. I'd appreciate a breakdown
enclose it in `...` please or use LaTeX
the equation
backtick
it will appear like this
okok thanks
can you please do that? I can't read what it's supposed to be
trynna figure it out give me a sec. kinda new to this
no worries
no, i feel like i'm genuinely lost in this class
no worries, a proof by induction is just a proof of a statement of the form "for all natural numbers n, something is true", it's a bit more complicated than that but for now that will do
got it
and it's good to understand why it works, seeing as there are infinitely many natural numbers, how do you prove that it holds for them all? it's because the natural numbers enjoy a special property that there is a smallest natural number (1, or 0 depending on who you ask) and they are ordered, you can definitely tell whether a natural number is less than some other one
so that means that if you can prove that it holds of the smallest natural number, and also that if you "move up the chain" that it still holds, that means in principle you can continue doing it for ever
you know it holds of 1, and so you can show it holds of 2, so you can show it holds of 3, and so on
if you accept that, then the format of induction proofs is easy
first you prove that your statement is true of the number 1, which is called the base case
there is however one problem here, which is that this statement is not true of numbers smaller than or equal to 27 according to your assignment
so you would start by proving that it holds for 28
I hope that isn't too confusing
if you think about it this is also true of 1 because the implication 1 > 27 -> 33 + 34 + 35 +...+(1+5)=((1^2) +((2*5) +1)*1) ÷2-513 is vacuously true
that's why it's OK to start at 28 instead
are you with me so far? @dense charm
how do i know whether or not it holds 0,1,2 or 3?
it holds for those numbers because the condition n > 27 is not satisfied
false -> x is always true no matter what x is
ohh ok understood
great, so you first start by proving that it is true for n=28
that is your base case
then, you will assume that this is true for some unspecified natural number n
that is you assume that 33 + 34 + 35 +...+(n+5)=((n^2) +((2*5) +1)*n) ÷2-513 is true
this assumption is called the induction hypothesis
because you assume that it the thing you want to prove is true about some arbitrary number
do i always assume it is true?
and if you can, under that assumpion, show that 33 + 34 + 35 +...+((n+1)+5)=(((n+1)^2) +((2*5) +1)*(n+1)) ÷2-513 is also true, this is called the induction step, then your proof is finished
or only in this situation?
Always
it is the only way to prove statements that should hold for all numbers unless it is a trivial property
ohhhhh i see
it's important to realize this isn't cheating, what you really are proving is that it holds for n+1, the induction hypothesis is just telling you that the last number in the chain has this property
the trick with all induction proofs is to find a way to rewrite 33 + 34 + 35 +...+((n+1)+5)=(((n+1)^2) +((2*5) +1)*(n+1)) ÷2-513 this kind of thing into something where you can use the induction hypothesis
find a way to use algebra to produce some subexpression that looks like either side of the equation in the induction hypothesis 33 + 34 + 35 +...+(n+5)=((n^2) +((2*5) +1)*n) ÷2-513
you might need some trial and error
in this case it's easy
proving it would include me proving 33,34,35 and then substituting n for k to make sure it is for all other numbers?
you only need to prove it for one number, 28
although in this case that's a bit weird
maybe there was an error in the generation
okok
i wouldnt even be able to tell
I'd say you can prove it for n=30, that means you show that 33+34+35=(30^2)+(2*5+1)*30÷2-513, I hope that's true?
hmm, my calculator says it's not true
oh, my mistake, I misread your formula
all good
ok
it's fine
it even works for 28
so you start with 33=(28^2+(2*5+1)*28)÷2-513
very annoying statement to prove
but yeah, I would say this is what was intended, to start with the first number that satisfies n>27
ok this kinda help. my prof attached these slides thats like a step by step thing i'm not sure if i do it also or the question doesnt ask for that
i'll attach
here
Right, this is kind of like the definition of induction
it's a formal version of what I said here
for your proof the instructions only say to specify the base case, the induction hypothesis and the inductive case
okok thank you very much
you actually broke it down so much for me. before it just felt like i was just following steps without reason
you're welcome! good luck
Yeah so I have a set theory test in 8 hours and genuinely this thing still makes no sense. Every part by itself is simple enough, but putting them all together for convoluted proofs is beyond me. We'll see how this goes
good luck! 🫡
I know that I can aways multiple r1 by an r2 I decide to take such that it’ll turn into a huge number which is a multiple of n
Idk how to explain or prove that
Can someone help with that
No full answer this is an assignment, athough htis is kind of pretty much the finish part
is there a condition on r_2?
If you can decide on what r_2 to pick, you can always pick r_2 to be a multiple of n
No it just cant be 0
Ok that’s smart
Thank you now im done with this gruesome proof
Discrete math is actually fun I must say though
Actually I dont think I can take it as a multiple of n
Or c would be equal to 0 mod n which it can’t be
This is a proof for the zero divisor
The only restrictions we have is that R1 cant be 0 or 1
And R2 cant be 0
But then the issue is that if n is a prime then R2 actually can never cancel both out I think
Hm
Ok I got one of the steps of hte proof wrong but thank you, I might post a new question i I still dont get it
Yeah I guess I’m not sure what to do next
It’s a draft proof so excuse the poor format
It might help to write out the definition of zero divisors and invertible elements a bit more clearly.
- a is a zero divisor if there exist some nonzero element x such that ax = 0.
- b is invertible if there exist some element y such that by = 1.
- Firstly, verify that ab ≠ 0
We now want to show that there exist some element z such that (ab)z ≠ 0 and z ≠ 0
I guess that works, though it’s different from how our assignment defined them
Ok we can work with the definitions from your assignment
do you have the definitions
as in, how do they define zero divisors and invertibility
The above is for zero divisor
For invertibility it is not defined in the assignment itself but in our textbook they define it as
Remainder of 1 or the same definition that you gave
I just realised I can prove it by ab = cd (mod n)
In 2 sentences
How many derangements of the Set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, } begin with the integers 1, 2, 3, 4 in some order?
is the answer 81
yeah
there's no 3,2 in e
thats the only wrong?
Are there any other good resources for learning this stuff outside of lectures: I've got a whole year of discrete ahead of me? I've had some interaction with the libremath textbooks and thought they were decent, but wondering if there's anything else
i like
this book
Kenneth Rosen's discrete math book is decent
Dang sniped
The schaum's series of books have some discrete books. Two iirc. One is a basic discrete math book. The other is a collection of solved problems.
There's another really popular discrete book I always forget.
Epp? Epps? Something like that. 
Susanna epp
yeah
thats another standard
book
i heard
its easier then rosen
My answer for question 2 is 3x5x9x8,is it correct?
Hi can someone help me with these questions please? 🙏🏻🙏🏻
it's not immediately obvious to me either how to prove or disprove this:
countable union of uncountable sets is / is not of the same cardinality that only one uncountable set
This is slightly imprecise, because the uncountable sets might have varying cardinalities.
Unless you mean countable union of uncountable sets which all have equal cardinalities.
any ideas for a?
I've tried diagonalizing by setting f(n) = 1 if f_n(n) = 0 and 0 otherwise, but this doesn't work since it could lead to a sequence containing 00
Hint: look at pairs of characters rather than individual ones
wdym by pairs of characters?
Group the sequence by pairs, not single characters
E.g. view 010101010101 as (01)(01)(01)...
You will get a 0 haha what a threat, anyway what have you tried
FR, Thnx but I've done it, it's funny because due to the way the q is set up, I was trying to add (2k+1)^2 instead of (2k+3)^2 and GOING mad because the algebra didn't prove the Expressions equal
im using that as well for my class
math is hard
no, it's because coding is easy
upd: i mean, i'm biased. i've been coding (unprofessionally) for a few years
but still: there isn't anything intrinsically hard in coding
it completely depends on what you mean by coding
can somebody give me a hint for c?
this is offtopic, but can you give an example definition of coding that is considered to be hard?
I just can't imagine it. 99% of 'coding'/'programming' is implementing ideas someone thought of
leetcode
I mean, you just implement your solution
u can solve it on paper if u want – the fun part
the coding part is just 'translating' it to 'another language'
yeah i mean coming up with the solution is the hard part
idk maybe it's because i've only had like a year of experience with coding
but i thought problem solving from math would translate a little bit more over to coding
but to me it seems to be a different way of thinking
<ChangeMyMind>
into what coding looks like as a job – not to any that I know of ) :
</ChangeMyMind>
Hint: another way of seeing these functions is as sequences of disjoint sets that cover N: a set of things that get sent to 1, a set of things that get send to 2, etc. Two functions are equal iff these sets agree.
The hard part of coding is designing and maintaining complex projects with delicate and intricate moving parts. Implementing a particular algorithm may be easy, but understanding the caveats and pitfalls of utf-8 and utf-16 while having to deal with HTTPS bugs and understanding what security flaws you could introduce when adding a new feature? That shit is hard as fuck.
have you tried programming in dependently typed languages? it is exactly as hard as math because it is math, writing correct programs is incredibly difficult and in many cases impossible, so if by coding you mean using a programming language to do some stuff that may or may not be right, that's not that hard
but programming can be very hard, it depends entirely on the domain
I mean, this is just experience / debugging
not much thinking required, imho
u just bodge ur semi-working code with other quasi-working libraries until everything works just doesn't break
yeah, if this is your definition of coding you can go far by just winging it
and you can even be an excellent programmer, but if your standard is just "it's mostly right" then that is a lower bar than "absolutely right" as it is in mathematics
when you are writing important algorithms that need to be 100% correct it becomes very challenging fast
yep
and in industry 'mostly right' is much much better than 'absolutely right'
because of limited time / budget requirements etc
Correct, that's how it is
I meannnnnn...... we are very much stretching the definition of programming here xD
designing those algorithms – this ain't coding, this is computer science
implementing without bugs – not 100% possible to guarantee anything, but getting as close as possible to 'good enough' is experience and debugging
okay, you're right, I'm talking about computer science
and btw, an 'average programmer' will never in their lives implement any crypo or whatever important algorithms that they will need to use in prod
most likely they will just stick to time-tested code
it is possible to 100% guarantee that certain code is correctly implemented, just not correctly specified
it's not possible to guarantee it for arbitrary code
it is possible to 100% guarantee that certain code is correctly implemented,
your code runs in an os
it doesn't have to
your code uses CPU instructions xDD
which often use verified designs
theoretically you could design your own CPU, but anyway, that's not realistic
that's beside the point, you can do your due diligence, you don't need to guarantee that nothing possible will go wrong
background radiation might flip a bit in RAM, etc.
but that's not an excuse to just throw your hands in the air if you really care
i never said that
i just said coding it 'getting as close as possible to good enough' and 'bodging until everything just works' in real world
ok, I'm not arguing with you, I'm just saying that programming can be hard, it's not inherently easy like you said
I feel like your position is "easy programming is easy". Have you ever worked on a huge project with 1000s of lines of code? You have to figure out how to structure the code, what classes to make, how should things fit together, etc. If you program in C you would have to be careful of undefined behaviour, a small bug in one part of the code can affect a completely different part by magic. Or if you use async in JS or Rust for example you could get into some really tricky scenarios of deadlocks and race conditions. I feel like the truly "easy" part of programming is just "toy" programming, simple script etc. where you already know exactly what to write
when I say 'easy' I mean 'not much thinking required'
yeah, that's the part I have an issue with. Programming is not just writing things in code, it's almost 100% thinking
of course you could just turn off your brain and change things randomly until bugs disappear, but I don't think you'll get very far with that approach
Or if you use async in JS or Rust for example you could get into some really tricky scenarios of deadlocks and race conditions
again, in practice, you do not prove everything works
you just have to make sure it's good enough
you follow best practices etc
but if your program just stops randomly, it just freezes, what do you do then? How do you fix it without thinking?
u debug with ur accumulated experience
we might have different definitions for 'thinking' xD
anyways, let's continue somewhere else ig
maybe, "debug with accumulated experience" sounds like thinking to me 
i'm trying to show that this set has the same cardinality as R - for this it suffices to show that |A| <= |{0, 1}^N| and |{0, 1}^N| <= |A|. Now |A| \leq |{0, 1}^N| by an injection, however I'm struggling with the converse. That is, how do I uniquely determine a binary string not containing "00" from any binary string?
I would suggest using diagonalisation to show that it's uncountable instead, but if you absolutely have to show it has the same cardinality as R specifically, I'd think about encoding decimals in base 3.
yeah it's an exercise later LOL
are there any tips or resources to use to get netter at discrete maths?
I'm afraid there's no trick beyond practice.
As for resources, I think there are suggested books pinned in #book-recommendations? If not you can ask there.
Can someone help me understand what an S-structure is and what it acually does for first order logic
I dont get the point of having a universe A and the idea of "interpretations of constants,relations, functions within the structure"
My best guess is that an s structure gives meaning to the constants, functions, and relations
So A could represent the universe "Cooking amongst family members".
Then an example of c^A could be the name of someone in the family.
R^A could be x cooks better than y or something
thats the only way it makes sense to me since right after truth assignments are only defined given an S-structure with a universe A.
yes: similarly to how the truth of a formula in propositional logic depends on the truth of the propositional variable (which we would normally determine based on their meaning), the truth of a formula in first order logic depends on what you mean by your functions, relations etc.
and that process of assigning meaning is what the structures are for
Would this be the correct place to ask about context free grammers?
idk what those are, they might be advanced enough for #foundations
they're in my automata theory class but I'll ask there, thanks
so the reason why we never needed structures for propositional logic is because we didn't really need context for truth assignments?
For some truth assignment v, (A V B) is true as long as A or B are true under v.
But for some S-structure with universe A = "Fastest runner amongs friends"
c^A would have different meaning then anothher S-structure with universe B = "Highest jumpers at home".
but now that leads me to the questions how is this different from just another truth assignment w in propositional logic?
If I wanted a representation of both universes A and B, couldn't I tweak truth assignments v,w accordingly?
You're doing something weird with your universes
like here the universe would just be "family members"
because that's what the variables x, y etc. will be
oh
and for "cooking" to get involved, that's what the interpretation of R is for ig
ohh wait I think it makes sense now.
So the reason why propositional logic doesnt have structures is because the sentential symbols dont vary so the selection of a truth assignment v represents the whole context.
but in first order logic the universe decides the meaning of the terms and seperately the truth assignments decide the context they're acting in?
so you have control over both in first order but propostional logic has limited expression when you want to change the meanins of the actors?
I'm not entirely sure what you mean by "truth assignments decide the context" or "change the meanings of the actors"
in propositional logic, we have no way to establish what propositional variables p, q, r whatever actually mean. the best we can do is say whether they are true or false
first order logic gives us that ability, so now we can express things like "all x are positive" or "2 is prime"
but this is clearly going to depend on our universe
the first is only a true if our universe is positive numbers, alongside with interpretations of "being positive" meaning greater than 0 (what's 0? it's a constant, or you can black box "positive" into an unary relation I guess and forget about 'greater than' and '0'), the second on what "2" is, since to begin with it's just a weird squiggle and we need to assign the meaning to it as 1 + 1 (and in turn what '1' is)
hmm okay
thanks, I'll look into it more but I've got a better idea now
I think it'll make more sense once I get to more concrete examples in the book
but I get the idea of what you mean
@sick grail
So like this, where the universe just directly assigns meanings to each f, R, and c
the structure assigns meanings
yea sorry
a universe is just what the objects are, in this case they're natural numbers
the universe is just a set of objects, and the structure assigns the objects to the symbols of S
To the constants, not the function or relation symbols
- isn't a natural number, it's a binary function on the objects that we assign to f_0
hello, apologies if this is not the right channel to send this, but I have a problem: We are given a simple graph of n vertices and k edges and assign nonnegative values to each vertex. Alice gets to choose an edge, and Bob gets to plus 1 to one vertex and minus 1 to the other if it is possible to keep both nonnegative. Bob wins if he assigns values on the vertices of the simple graph such that no matter what Alice picks, Bob can make a move in order to always avoid Alice picking a edge with 0 at both ends. Find the smallest sum of the values of all vertices given a simple graph
refer to this image for simple graphs with small number of vertices:
for the top left one, it’s 0, and we shall refer the next one by going down and subsequently keep going right until we cannot find a graph in that row. The next one is 0 too, next is 1, next is 0, next is 1, next is 2, next is 3, (and for the four vertices I am but unsure but I think I double checked: 0, next is 1, next is 2, next is 2, next is 3, next is 3, next is 3, next is 4, next is 4, next is 5, and finally the last one is 6. from this alone, I conjectured that f(n,k) = k (aka the number of edges), but I don’t even know how to prove this. Maybe by induction, idk?
Is this equivalent to smallest independent set?
Or, sorry largest independent set
You want the largest number of vertices to be 0, and the remaining ones to be 1
and also if no one knows a graph theory or other mathematical approach for this problem, at least it would be great if someone could write a program or python script for this problem :)). (for example the python script could be that we list the vertices a_i by their values and their interconnected edges as (a_x , a_y) for which we could test if Bob always wins due to problem conditions
I am sorry, what do you mean by this?
You want the smallest possible sum of all values on a simple graph where there is no edge with 0 on both ends right?
yes
And in that case, every vertex would either have 0 or 1 on it
And then since we want the smallest possible sum, we'd want as many vertices to have 0 on them as possible
Not necessarily, it can be nonnegative meaning it can be 2, 3, 4, etc.
well I mean depends on the graph
Uh
Then I'm not sure what you mean, like my understanding is if we have these two graphs
2 -- 3
0 -- 1
We would care more about the second one than the first, because the 2nd has a total sum of 1 while the 1st has a total sum of 5
Oh yes, that’s true. 0 — 1 is optimal for that graph
It makes sense that we only use 0’s and 1’s to minimise the sum, but is that necessarily optimal or correct for all graphs all the time? I see it happens a lot though
Well if all we care about is whether an edge has two 0s or not, then in any case we could use a 2 a 1 would work even better, right?
yeah, if you are talking about that graph, ofc 2 — 1 is better than 2 — 3. In fact 0 — 1 is the best we can do
So then the only things we'd want on our graphs are 0s and 1s right?
And we'd want as many 0s as possible on the graph, without any of them being connected to any other
How can you prove that this works for every graph, especially one with a big number of vertices? Like I get your intuition, but I found cases where it might not be true
Uhhh
like for a 4 vertex complete graph, we can assign each vertex to be 1, 1, 1, 3 which is minimal?
How is 1, 1, 1, 3 minimal?
so youre implying that through a series of operations this can be changed to 1's and 0's
Why not 1, 1, 1, 0?
let us call a_1 = 1, a_2 = 1, a_3 = 1, a_4 = 0 in this 4 vertex complete graph. Perform an operation with (a_1, a_3) and then an operation with (a_2, a_4). No matter what there exists a (0,0) pair in the end
the order of the operations in this case does not matter here
Okay I guess I don't understand the question
thats fine, what doubts do you have?
Can you tell me what the graph looks like after you do these operations?
sure, ill send a pic
actually you only just need the (a_1, a_3) operation, mb
here
oh because Alice wants to win no matter what which is why she picks (a_1, a_3)
Oh I see now
I thought Bob was picking the edge and Alice was doing something else, mb
ah thats fine
Okay then, but wouldn't 1,1,1,1 still work?
(a_1, a_3) and (a_2, a_4). no matter what Bob does Alice forces a (0,0) in the end of the complete graph
Alright yeah
try with smaller simple graphs and see how you go:
for example, if you had a triangle of 3 vertices, the minimum sum is actually 3. and you can apply smaller graphs into bigger graphs too which should help you
after finding the minimum for all these graphs, i conjectured that the minimum sum happened to be the number of edges in the graph, but idk if this is true or not (probably not actually).
Hmm well
I think it's possible to show that the number of edges is at least an upper bound
Like, if you started with all the vertices being 0, then for each edge you added 1 to one of its vertices, then Bob could always swap that 1 between either vertex without affecting any other edge
i think so but im not sure
Okay well... think of the set of all graphs that can be made with that pattern, where for each edge a 1 is added to one of its vertices
For any edge Alice picked, Bob is able to do the change so that he winds up with another graph from that set
how does he wind up with another graph? wait, are the graphs same, but just all the ways of adding 1 to one vertex of an edge different?
i think it makes sense
thats fine, i get what you mean
do you know any programming perhaps for this problem?
does anybody know how to show that b has the same cardinality as R
I know that the set of injective functions is the continuum
so I'd like to ideally define a bijection between the two sets
The exercise asks you to use diagonalization, so you want to show that no function f from N to non-infective functions N^N is surjective (using diagonalization).
Denote by I the set of non-objective functions from N to N.
If f is a function from N to I, your job is to construct a g in I which is not in the image of f.
well then 6 says to prove that it's the cardinality of the continuum, and i don't see how you can do that other than by constructing a bijection
if you have schroder-bernstein (if there's an injection from A to B and an injection from B to A then there's a bijection) then this is easy
if you don't then it's more annoying
Oh I see. It's about 6, which wants you to say something about (b)
I just read 5b
tbh i think what i'd do is show a bijection between that and N^N, the set of all functions from N to N
something about constructing reals with sequences
assignment (no full answer) how does this work because i cant go back to the m of the “n” case cause m could be bigger for the “n+1” case
i thought of just doing n = r (mod m) and then n+1 = r+1 (mod m) issue is that m wouldnt necessarily be the same if i use induction
like imagine n+20 well then ck wont be smaller than k! if i dont change the m so the induction doesnt work if you get what I mean
is there any way i can learn dicrete maths im so tired watching all the yt videos
pick up a book
but if there's a specific topic in discrete math that interests you then you could just get a book on just that too
ican understand topics but i suck at solving problems :/
any recommendations ?
idk our class used Rosen but theres probably better ones around, try looking at some msg history in #book-recommendations
im cooked
practice
do exercises, that's the only way to learn
I was looking at a solution for this problem but I don’t understand the last step which claims that there is a ceiling of k/3 minor in G that corresponds to the one I got from induction hypothesis. Like I contract w to u and then to v to apply hypothesis but then how can I just claim that I must have a k/3 minor?
Do exercises, seek feedback, incorporate feedback, repeat.
how to find out in how many ways you can divide a group of 12 people into groups of 3,4, and 5 peoples? (of course each person can be in only one group)
is it 12C3+12C4+12C5 or 12C3 + (12-3)C4 + (12-3-4)C5 ? or some other way entirely? combinatorics is my weak spot and i struggle with basic questions
i don't understand how E ends up being this; the probability of choosing a red ball is just 10/16, because there are 10 red balls out of a total 16 red balls, right? or does the fact that he must first choose a box make it so that the probability is different?
we can have the following splits:
- one group of 3, one group of 4, one group of 5,
- three groups of 4,
- four groups of 3
note that you can't have two groups of something; two groups of 3 will leave 6 people remaining and that can't be partitioned using the remaining group sizes, two groups of 4 will leave 4 people remaining and that can't be partitioned using the remaining group sizes
it suffices to compute the number of ways in each case
is there a closed form solution to the sum of factorials till n, so 1!+2!+...+n!
it depends on what you accept as a closed form
you might be interested in: https://mathworld.wolfram.com/FactorialSums.html
oh yikes, but thanks!
i didn't explain myself correctly, you have to divide them into a group of 3, a group of 4 and a group of 5
Choose the group of five first. Then of the remaining people, choose the group of four. Then of the remaining people, choose the group of 3
That gets you C(12, 5) * C(7, 4) * C(3, 3)
what is the sum $\sum_{i = 1}^n i * \log(i)$? I just need big-$\Theta$ analysis for this. Upper bound by saying $\log(i) \leq \log(n)$ is easy but not sure how to get a matching lower bound.
NVM got it
Hi, kind of a long shot but I have a question since I believe I'm misunderstanding something when implementing my SAT solver
I know I shouldn't ask to ask but the question is kind of long, so if anyone is familiar with CDCL and the two watched literal approach when implementing unit propagation could you ping me?
Spamakin🎷
is it the right understanding that " A If and only if B" means that B is a nesscary and sufficent condtion for A?
Yes, the biconditional operator is symmetric
A necessary and sufficient for B, B necessary and sufficient for A
ok thank you
when proving partial order relations, given we have a relation that is absolutely reflexive in nature (since every set is a subset of itself), could I say that "the following is vacuously antisymmetric given that for a R b, b R a, we must have a = b to satisfy reflexivity?
I mean I already know it has to be antisymmetric because spoiler it's specifically the subset relation but still
Please I need a lot of exercises in logic, proofs, sets, and relations.
You can have a reflexive relation that isn't antisymmetric.
{(1,2),(2,1),(1,1),(2,2)}
I see. So a more acceptable statement would be the subset relation ⊆ is antisymmetric because a set A ⊆ A, and A = A?
I have a good amount from this epp book, type "discrete math with applications epp" and the first result should be a PDF of it.
Well for the subset relation it is true that if A ⊆ B and B ⊆ A, then A = B.
But for relations in general, it's not necessarily vacuously true that if it's reflexive then it's antisymmetric
But basically what I said here is enough for proving that the subset relation is antisymmetric
Heyyy guys I'm really struggling with proving minors. like edge contraction is really not braining 😅
My approach is induction like this, but I’m kinda stuck on the last part when I want to show that this will lead to a contradiction…
Could you please send it to me on private
yeah of course
is the following a well-defined statement?
let A be a set. a,b in A
let R subset A x A be an equivalence relation on A
then either
- [a]_R=[b]_R; OR
- [a]_R intersection [b]_R = ø
we can't take the intersection if we are not sure if the sets aren't empty, right?
ah, wait
by reflexivity eq classes aren't empty
my bad
do i have to state "transitivity property" when proving things?
i feel like the reader can pick up on that on their own, right?
like if i do x = y = z, then the next step i have x = z, i don't have to write out "transitive property", right
Depends on the context.
the orange is my reasoning
i don't have to write out "transitive property" here, right?
i mean it doesn't hurt to
Yeah I mean you can, but if thats not the focus of the topic youre on then it's a given (for integers/reals)
No, in fact it distracts because transitivity isn't what the proof is about.
It's the second equality that should be spelled out. The thrust of the proof is that you're applying the binomial theorem.
You should state the binomial theorem and say how this is an instance of it.
Or at the very least say "by the binomial theorem"
i did in a previous step
Like this:
\begin{align*}
0 &= (1-1)^n \
&= \sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} 1^{n-k}(-1)^k && \mbox{by binomial theorem} \
&= \sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} (-1)^k
\end{align*}
Cufflink
I'm not illustrating content that's missing, I'm illustrating how to guide the reader through the forest without getting lost in the trees.
You can fully state the binomial theorem if you'd like, e.g., "Recall the binomial theorem: ..."
It's not like Pokémon. Gotta catch 'em all! Gotta list every assumption and theorem!
You're telling a story. Stories have an appropriate level of detail, depending on the nature of the story and the person reading.
Like, I wouldn't ever say "Assumption: (text of binomial theorem)."
If someone knows the binomial theorem, they don't need the text, but it might be helpful to give them a heads up about what to expect below. If someone doesn't know or doesn't recognize the binomial theorem they'd read that line and go "Uhh...how?"
So that line is either about reminding the reader of the content of the binomial theorem or giving them enough to go look up a proof in their own.
Hence, if you're going to include the text, you'd say: "We use the binomial theorem: (text)" or "Recall the binomial theorem: (text)" or something similar.
I’m super stuck on this problem - 3 fair 6 sided die, what is the probibility that the product of the 3 rolled is not a multiple of 8
First, what are all the possible products you can get rolling the 3 dice?
1-216
Ok, then what have you tried next?
I tried splitting into cases
So like we know we must have 3 factors of 2 minimum to have multiple of 8
I also wanted to solve all cases that are a multiple of 8 then doing 1 minus that
Would it be easier to do the opposite because I feel like accounting for cases with 4 might be annoying
Can you write a program, or do you need a written answer?
Written answer
Dang, I think the first approach is good then think of all the ways to get a multiple of 8
But thays weird to solve becusse not all two even cases will work
Like 2x2x1 won’t work
Yea
I’ve been stuck on this problem for like 2 days haha I really don’t know how I should approach it
I feel like it’s the right track
I have an idea for the two evens we have 2 choices for the even spots being 4 and 6
Then 4 for the last did
Think you can just find all triplets that have at least 3 factors of 2, then account for all permutations of those triplets
I would just write out all the triplets first
No like (2,2,2) (2,2,4), (2,4,1)...
Ah ok
Wait I've errored 6×2×1 is not a multiple of 8
Hmm
I wonder if it’s easier to go the other way we know that 3^3 will not be a multiple of 8
No, duh 621 is only 2 factors of 2
So yea, first find all distinct triples that have at least 3 factors of 2.
So that will be 3 choices for the odd number, 3 choices for the even then we make the last one 4 ? So 3x3x1 cases
Wait don’t we know that we must have a 4 becusse we can never have just 6 and 2
In the case of it being one odd
For the triples you can first order them, so how many start with 2, how many start with 4...
Only the even numbers need to be ordered
Because once you find all distinct triples of numbers 1-6 that mutiply to 8k, you can find all permutations of those triples. That gives all ways to roll the dice and get 8k
That makes sense
For the case that the first die is 4 don’t we need to take out the permutation with a repeating 3
4*
Starting with 2:
(2,2,2)
(2,2,4)
(2,2,6)
(2,4,1)
(2,4,3)
(2,4,4)
(2,4,5)
(2,4,6)
Idk, for this it is helpful just to write them all out. Then you can probably find a better pattern or closed form for the total number
Would it be 1x2x3 for the cases that have an odd number then we permute that so x 3!
Wait but for the other cases we would be over counting Nevermind
Did you write them all out?
There are only 6 triples other than the ones starting with 2 I think
I get 6/27 as the probability that a roll of 3 dice is a multiple of 8
I’ll see if I get the same
The answer to the original problem, will be 1 - 6/27
Pretty much
I wrote out all distinct triples that will multiply to a multiple of 8. Then summed up all the permutations of each triple. To get all the total number of dice rolls that product to a multiple of 8.
From the ones i typed above ? Yes
I got 7/8
My ta in my class said that the solution was 1- (216/8)(216) which is the same
But I really didn’t beleive him
With the ones I forgot I still get 2/3.
How are (4,6,1) (4,6,3) (4,6,5) counted?
Sorry I’m had class, thanks for pointing that out though I didn’t account for that
Got .819 with that last case
How did you get 2/3?
I get 72 total ways to roll a multiple of 8.
(216-72)/216 = 2/3
3^3 =27 with all even
3! * 3 =18 for (2,4,odd)
3! * 3 =18 for (4,6,odd)
(3!/2!) * 3 =9 for (4,4,odd)
27+18+18+9=72
That’s what I did do I think I must have some arithmetic error
Thanks for the help !!!
If a planar graph has loops, do they count as a face when constructing the dual graph?
Would they be considered a single face enclosed by a single edge?
why do we need two maximal elements in 1c? can't we just say if there is a largest element x and we have one maximal element m, m < x, contradicting the maximality of m?
x=m in that case
ah right
well isn't this the case only for a weak order
if a < b then we can't conclude b < a
no matter if it's maximal or not
if a < b and b > a in a total order, then a=b
sorry
oh
wait
no yeah if its total umm
no but how can you only have one maximal element that isn't the largest
if there's one maximal element it's implied said maximal element is also the largest
how tho, isn't that what we're trying to prove in the second half of 1c
does strong order mean it's total? i.e all elements are comaprable
i don't believe so no
otherwise it may be the case that there is a uniquely maximal element that is incomparable
i.e the skyscraper is maximal since no building is taller than it, however (this is a bit of a strange example) you can't even say its bigger than a shack because it's just not comparable
yeah i'm just trying to think of a example involving set theoreteic inclusion
because something like {{0}, {1, 2}} doesn't work since {0} and {1, 2} are both maximal elements
hence not unique
is this even true?
If neither are comparable they're both maximal
but Im also confused yeah
yeah but they said unique maximal element contradicting two maximal elements
I think the solution would involve a lone element with no connection to the main "island" of the relation
So it's only related to itself
But then I'm trying to imagine how it could be the case how the main island has no maximal element
Since the relation is transitive it can't be the case that an element in the island is related to the lone element since that'd mean the entire island is lesser than the lone element
@novel ore Oh it says there can be more than one maximal element
what if there's a set {a, b} such that the relation is just empty
a and b are both maximal and unique but neither are the largest
i see i see
wait by unique element they don't mean only one right
there can be multiple unique maximal elements
?
@fast forge
No
Just that it's not equal to the other maximal
And by equal not like
ordered equal, like they are just not the same element
i see
thanks for the help!
what is a strong linear order? aren't these two incompatible lol
strong order means a < b => not b < a
wait nm
hey all, do you recommend any resources to prepare for discrete mathematics or at least get a head start before i go into CompSci in the spring? thanks!
I have never been very good at math but I really wanna learn because i've always been fascinated by it :D
in general for proofs i would recommend How to Prove It by Velleman
it also covers most of discrete math
thanks! i'll give it a look 👍
bruh wait how is this true, if R is a linear order and a, b in A, then either a = b, a < b or b < a, if a = b then (a, b) = (a, a) is in R, but then we can't have (a, b) or (b, a) in (A x A) \ R because then (a, b) = (a, a) = (b, a) \in (R)...
You can also check out Discrete Mathematics and it's Applications by Kenneth Rosen. It's definitely a much longer read than Velleman, but itll also cover graph theory which isn't in How to Prove it.
thank you!
Chains are implicitly tosets as they’re subsets containing all the comparable elements of a poset, right?
I’m working with Epp’s book but each chapter confuses me more and more
prof is lowkey bouncing around
Yes, chains of poset P are themselves posets.
Oh, toset
Yes chains are totally ordered, or have a total order
i got this question for homework:
- In this question, x represents some specific integer (Note: it just means that you do
not know its value). In each of the items there is a mathematical statement. Determine
whether it is true or false, or whether this cannot be determined without knowledge of
the value of x. If the truth value cannot be determined, show one example of a value of
x for which the claim is true, and one example for which the claim is false.
(a) x2 + 1 = 0 or x ≤−2.
(b) If x^2 = 4 then x = 2.
(c) If x^2 = 4 then x^4 = 16.
(d) x < 4 if and only if x ≤3.
(e) If x^2 > 0 then (x > 0 or 0 > x).
i assumed it was
a) depends (T:X=-3, F:X=3)
b) F
c+d+e) T
but some people suggest the case for (b) in which they say it depends because, of course, if the first part is false, then the statment is correct.
but for the x=-2 case, its true leads to false, which is false. which mean it could either be true or false. what do you think?
am i overthinking these problems or just dumb lost, and if you have a recourse I could use to help me solve them (that isnt chatgpt or chegg) id appreciate
I think you would just write out the series a0= a1= a2=
and then use induction and do the
Base case
induction hypothesis
solve
is there more to it then that or no
the last part too says "what common mathematical operation does this sequence implement?" which afaik it wasnt in lecture
For (5), what is a_10?
would it be 120?
How did you calculate that?
that looks like you calculated a_5, not a_10
Yes, a_k is k factorial
Reflect on your "afaik it wasn't in lecture" 😉
It vanished as soon as you looked at a few concrete examples.
So your job is to prove that a_k = k! by induction
I got induction down
As for the last portion asking for the common mathematical operation does this sequence implement
will that become more apparent or is it just google search
You said it yourself! Factorial!
They want you to notice that this is the factorial function and prove it
Thanks cuff for the explanation it definitely helped alot
Awesome! Thanks
in this question, why is the combinations formula used instead of the permutations formula?
shouldn't a bitstring "1111000000" be counted as different from the bitstring "0001111000"?
the order of the 1's in the number does matter
nevermind i get it now. the order at which the numbers are selected doesn't matter, but the position of the numbers in the string does matter
hello, I need some final exams in discrete maths examples, urgently
Guys someone help me with thus
I dont understand why did we put in the steps S --------> t at first?
and i dont understand how we did the steps
I'm trying to show that $(A \times A) \setminus R$ is a linear order, however I'm having trouble in the case that $a = b$ and $(a, a) \in R$. If that's the case, $(a, a) \notin (A \times A) \setminus R$; moreover, $(a, b) = (b, a) = (a, a) \notin (A \times A) \setminus R$, so it appears that $(A \times A) \setminus R$ is not linear; where am I going wrong?
okeyokay
oh nvm, (a, a) is not in R since it's a strong order
I'm having trouble understanding the concept of k-degenerate graph. Informally I was told that it means every vertex has at most k "forward" neighbours.
But I'm not sure how to draw an example of this for say, 2-degenerate. Can someone help me out?
Like starting from the graph, then knowing how to label the vertices
how do you prove that a graph doesn't have a topological minor?
I think I have an idea, find a cycle in the topological minor and show it doesn't exist in the graph, subdivisions can't create new cycles
I don't think that will work in this case sadly
oh wait, yes it will, use the hamiltonian cycle (the minor is K5)
that definitely is not in the graph
s implies t, and t is false. therefore, s is false. you need the context of "s implies t" and "not t" to get to "not s"
Not sure how to see the contradiction for the => part, I think the issue is i don't know what to actually look at
(Assignment) I am unable to do the inductive step
the algebra here is just wrong, x^(2^(m+1)) is not the same as (x^2)^(m+1), and also (x^2)^(m+1) is not (x^2)^m+x^2, it's (x^2)^m * x^2
maybe try again with that in mind
Thank you
I'm kind of stuck here too
Cause a^p - 1 is not congruent to 0 for all "a"
and since a^p - 1 encodes all of the terms that should at least have 1 of them possibly be divisible by the prime
then i should be getting another result
Hey guysss i feel like this problem should be relatively straight forward induction on number of vertices and then proving the induction case by removing a vertex with strictly less than 10 neighbours and adding it back in.
But i dont know how to work out a degree argument with "no k4" graphs
any help would be really beneficial 🙏 🙏
Hadwiger’s conjecture on k = 4 tells us that H is 3-colourable
Anyone have advice for this? I think it is hard to find the contradiction for me because I don't fully know how to use the definition
do you have the formal definition that your class is using for k-degeneracy
hi i have a problem with this predicate proof, would this be correct? if not im unsure from line 10
the last part thats cut out (my bad) is ... or exists z in U (not Q(z))
Humm thats true, and then I can conlcude via four color theorem that G is 4-colourable. But then dealing with the color overlap cases would be tough
[
\sum_{x}^{} \sum_{y}^{}
\left(
\binom{40}{x} +
\binom{35}{y} +
\binom{25}{10-x-y}
\right) =?
\binom{100}{10}
]
MadAbdo
what is the difference between discrete and continous meth?!
{0, 1} vs [0, 1]
set vs domain?
interval
before and after melting it
Lol
Let A=[1, 3], B=[3, 5], C=[2, 4] and D=[4, 6]. What is the set of (A × B) n (C × D)?
meth! 🤤
So the answer is =[2,3]×[4,5] or ={(2,4), (3,5)} for (A × B) n (C × D)?
the first one yes
{(2,4),(3,5)} is just a set of 2 points or a set of 2 intervals (intervals are sets, so it could be a set containing 2 sets)
so {(2,4),(3,5)} cannot be written as answer because it is just set of 2 points (does not form a rectangle)
then if I write all the four points in a set (to form rectangle), can it be as an answer?
well no because like
(2.3, 4.6) is also in (A × B) n (C × D)
but it's not any of the four corners
there's not really any way to write the answer by just listing every point because there are too many points in that rectangle for it to be reasonable to list them
okay, but by Cartesian Product of two sets A and B, they list all the ordered pairs (x,y) such that {(x,y)}. How do you know by forming as an answer for A x B = {(x,y), …} or A x B = [x1,x2] x [y1,y2]?
is the set of A x B (to form as a rectangle) only used to = [x1,x2] x [y1,y2]?
...i don't actually understand what question you're asking but i guess i can just say some more things and hope that works?
so yes, A x B is the set of all (x,y) with x \in A and y \in B
but [2,3] and [4,5] have a lot more elements than just 2, 3, 4, and 5
(if we were looking at {2, 3} x {4, 5} then this would have only the four points (2,4) (2,5) (3,4) (3,5) and is therefore equal to {(2, 4), (2, 5), (3, 4), (3, 5)})
so in an abstract sense it's the same thing, the problem is that it's just not practical in real life to list all of the elements of an infinite set one by one
you could spend the rest of your life just adding more points that should be in there and you'd have done basically nothing compared to how many there are in total
so that's why we're writing it as [2, 3] x [4, 5], because it's infinite
i was doing my discrete math homework and i somehow discovered that adding up the total number of permutations of a set of n elements (nP0 + nP1 + nP2 ...... + nPn) equals floor(n! * e)
is this known to be true cause I don't know where to look up if it's true
i don't think it's super useful info anyways lol but i thought it was neat
...huh
yeah i think that is true actually
nPk is n!/(n-k)!
so you end up with $n! \sum_{k=0}^n \frac1{k!}$
bee [it/its]
yeah that's what i did
oh hey that's my textbook!!
❤️
it's a pretty popular one i'm sure
I attached a photo in my image, that's the one we use
I am like 99% sure I should prove it using a similar argument as Schur's theorem's proof but I am struggling coming up with how I should color the edges and like if it is actually a k6 that I want to construct?
Is there a notation for the degree of the term with the lowest degree in a polynomial?
something like if $P(x) = \sum_{i=0}^n P_i(x)$ where every Pi is a monomial, then $F(x) = min{deg(P_i)|o\leq i\leq n}$
VY (Logic_VY)