#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 60 of 1
so, $((p \land \neg q) \lor (q \land \neg r)) \lor (\neg p \lor r)$?
bee [it/its]
yep
and I was thinking of removing the parenthesis and moving the -p from the end to the beggining
and maybe using the absorption law but I'm still searching how
cuz idk if I can use the law with a -p with a p
yeah no i don't think the absorption law is useful here
i think what you want is the distributive law
$\neg p \lor (p \land \neg q) \equiv ((\neg p \lor p) \land (\neg p \lor \neg q))$
bee [it/its]
true
and then $\neg p \lor p$ is true so it reduces to just $\neg p \lor \neg q$ which is a lot more convenient
bee [it/its]
well i'm not entirely sure which $\neg r$ you're referring to but yeah i think you want to use the distributive law on $(q \land \neg r) \lor r$
bee [it/its]
ohhhh I think im done wait a sec
I think I can cook from here give me a minute
nvm
it give me p->r V T
well this is near the start of the table so i'm not sure that in particular is your issue
you don't really need the last step where you rewrite ¬p v r as p -> r
yeah I guess
it's just that I forgot about the domination law
so I tried to make the equation resemble what I needed in the beggining for some reason
this just gave me inspiration
i forgot it was called that
is this a trick question if a and b are an integer then the answer is going to be an integer?
i guess im not sure how to "prove" it
No, this is not a trick question
The question is not to show that the thing on the left is a subset of the integers.
You have observed that it is a subset, and indeed this is trivial.
But you have forgot the other direction. The question is saying if every integer can be written in the form 12a + 25b for some integers a and b, and that is nontrivial.
When you are asked to prove that two sets are equal, this is what you should be thinking: is every element of the former an element of the latter, and is every element of the latter an element of the former. If both of these things are true, you know the sets are equal.
for instance if it was ${4a + 6b : a,b \in \mathbb{Z}} = \mathbb{Z}$, then this is false, everything in the set on the left is even so it doesn't contain integers like $1$ or $3$ (in fact it turns out to be exactly the set of even integers)
bee [it/its]

OK do you have any further questions.
okay so those are 2 different subsets inside the { }
No
The notation {4a + 6b : a, b in Z} refers to the set of all numbers of the form 4a + 6b, where a and b are any integers.
There is only one set being described there.
12a + 25b in this case if tha tmatters
Yes, in your question it does matter.
so since a and b $\in \mathbb{Z}$ , and the sum and product of $\mathbb{Z}| are also $\mathbb{Z}$ we know that 12a + 25b will always be an $\mathbb{Z}$, meaning every $\in$ of the set {12a + 25b: a, b, $\in \mathbb{Z}$ is in $\mathbb{Z}$
ThorKhan
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every element of the left hand side is in the right hand side.
right
This is what I said here.
so now i have to reverse it to see if the Z is a subset of that whole bracket?
Yes
what is that a proof by "____"?
ah okay so are we now plugging in 12(Za) + 25 (Zb)?
I don't know what that means.
if we express Z as an integer
But Z is the set of all integers, not an integer
therefore every integer Z can be written as 12a + 25b for some integers a and b
You should try to investigate the set on left on your own to see how you might find any integer there
You're not going to use some standard trick here, you will have to think.
You may have seen something previously about linear combinations of integers, called Bézout's lemma. If you haven't, just explore. If you have, then you should use this fact.
Haven't seen that in the textbook
do i need to prove that two sets A and B are the same
is the quotient set for b ${[k]_{\sim} \mid k \in [0, 1)}$?
okeyokay
[0, 1) is a set of representatives yes
N.b. what you've written isn't actually saying that [0, 1) is a set of representatives, only something a bit weaker, but it is still correct.
You could also have chosen e.g. (0, 1] or [5,6)\{5.5}u{12.5}
so say i do n = n * 1 = n (12(-2) + 25(1)) = 12 (-2n) + 25(n), and both n and -2n are integers, so it follows the n is an element of the subset {12a +25b : a , b E Z}, therefore Z is a subset of {12a +25b : a , b E Z}.
You have the right idea even if your terminology is a bit off
Oh no wait I read wrong
No you're bang on the money
Well done
ok let me write my whole proof out on latex and ill post a pic and if you could check
and then the quotient set for c would consist of those equivalence classes which relate points which are equidistant from the origin
and then a possible set of representatives could just be (x, x)
No
Oh for (c)
Yes
ok thanks
oh wait
(x, x) is a point, so surely you don't mean that
And it's the empty interval
so you don't mean that
So what do you mean
oh no i meant like the coordinate (x, x)
So what is a set of representatives
${(x, x) \mid x \in \mathbb{R}}$
okeyokay
okeyokay
No problemo
does a have to be a =-2n and b = n for this to work
and then D would just be the partition itself lol, with {7} and say {0} being a set of representatives
why would it be {7, 0} instead of {{7}, {0}}?
(we haven't got to the idea of numbers being sets yet if that clarifies things)
all good
to show that a quotient set is something, does it suffice to take elements of set the we're quotienting on and show that it belongs to one of the elements of that quotient set, and to also show that the set of equivalence classes are disjoint?
Not sure if this is true, i know everything can be factored by 1, but 1 isn't prime
like there is the integer 4, but that can't be divided by a prime
is 3d just that P(E) is a set of representatives for the quotient set lol
4 can be divided by 2 and 2 is prime
oh ur right lol
Look up the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
so if it's 5 it can be divided by 5 which is prime
Yeah
Yeah there's no prime that divides 1
What do you think
well if x can be anything besides 0
and y can be any real number, if you multiply by it's recpriocal youll get 1
so like 5 (1/5) = 1
-5 (-1/5) = 1
true!
is there a better way to write this formula so i can start pluggin in numbers?
in latex form
technically it isnt $\approx$ its $\sim$ meaning that the quantities are asymptotic
thank you all for your help
actually 1 more
so i have to prove both ways
If 0 | x then there exists an integer c, such that x = 0 * c. For any c, 0 * c = 0, therefore x = 0.
If x = 0, then 0 | x. Some integer c such that x = 0 * c. C can be any integer because 0 * c = 0

sorry but I forgot what I did
what did I do between step 7-8
can someone tell me if there is a mistake in my reasoning ?
Hello, in this situation, do I have to write :
For all X, For all Y,
Y(x,y)
R(x,y)
like am I allowed to write this or do I need to write all the possilities (Y(x) and R(y) or Y(x,y) or R(x,y)
how many subgraphs of $K_{n,m} \text{ are isomorphic to } K_{3,4} = \binom{n}{3} \binom{m}{4} + \binom{n}{4} \binom{m}{3}?$
Adamm
why is it needed to change the side of the partition in which we are choosing from ? (adding nC4 and mC3) ... why does this matter
distributive law on the right, then the truth law twice and the identity law twice
why is it that ∃z > 0 (z^2 = 2) cant be written as ∃z(z > 0 → z^2 = 2)
hi does anyone know of any tool to grap sets online?
Since $S \subseteq T$, we need only show that $T \subseteq S$. Suppose there was an element $C \in T$ not belonging to $S$. Since $S$ is a partition, we have $C \cap B \neq \varnothing$ for some $B \in S$. However, $C \in T$ and $B \in T$ (since $S \subseteq T$); thus $T$ is not a partition, since its sets are not disjoint. Since this is a contradiction, we conclude that every element of $T$ is an element of $S$, whence $T = S$.
Can someone check this please?
okeyokay
looks good to me
I am confused how Binding works in discrete math. For ∃xP(x) ∨ R(x), are the Xs in P(x) diffrent from X in R(x)?
can someone help me rq
it's not a hard question just want to know how quantifiers work in the context of my exercise
for a)
do I write " for all X and all Y, R(x,y) V Y(x,y)
or do I write it another way
Y(x) and R(x) are only in one variable
but it says x and y make up the set of all birds
they introduce y only to demonstrate what F(x,y) means
x and y are also just placeholder names, you can use any variable name
but it would probably make sense to stick with x and y for this problem
also ( not the same exercise ) if I need to write that the sum of a positive int and a negative int is not necessarily positive
I can just say that for all X int and all Y int, where y is negative, I can just say "x+y is element of Z"
so R(x,y) V Y(x,y)
No, again R(x) and Y(x) are only in one variable. For any bird x, either x is red or x is yellow
ok mb I read it wrong
I thought you meant it as "stick to using both x and y "
not stick to the variables already given
Nah, just for when you need them
If you need a second variable, use y so it's clear the the problem
Hmm, in a way yes. But this doesn't emphasize that x+y is not necessarily positive. For all we know, x+y could be always a positive integer and it would still be an element of Z.
Could you post a screenshot of the problem
There's a couple ways of going about this
One way is to say there is a positive x and negative y such that their sum is negative. Another way is to say that for all x and y, x being positive and y being negative does not imply that their sum is positive.
I'm trying to think if these are logically equivalent or if they're just different interpretations
oh yeah thats true
But lemme think
what if I just do the negation of P(x)
so like there exists an X and exists Y for which P is not true if P = sum is positive
Yeah you can say it is not true that for all x and all y that if x is positive and y is negative, then x+y is positive
That should be right
That should be logically equivalent to my first statement
This but what I mean is
if I say for all X and for all Y P is true (P = sum is positive)
then the negation is
there exists and X and there exists a Y for which P is not true
Yeah exactly
would that work
But
well you said All X All Y
You need to specify x>0 and y<0
I dont mean just adding negative in front of P
I basically did what you said here
Sorry, maybe I am confusing you
usually for the negation you also flip the all X into an Exists X
same for Y
and you put a negative in front of P
Ye exactly
That's right
I'm just saying you need to specify for positive x and negative y since that's what's in the problem
yeah this I know
but you said its not true that for all X and all Y
omg im dumb
mb you're right in my head you had the negation only behind the P
Yeah so like $\neg(\forall x\forall yP(x,y))$
Dilly
Yeah originally I had it that way, but then I realized it should be behind the whole statement
exactly
yep that should work
thx I think Im good for the rest of the homework
Np, glad we made it to the same page 
Does someone know why this is illegal - ∃x(P(y) ∧ Q(y)) - if y and x refer to the same domain?
this probably means that y is some previously chosen value
but if y is just a variable are you allowed to do this
you can
but its lacking context I guess
and it also wouldnt be very helpful in that statement since x has no role in the truth value of P(y) ∧ Q(y)
But doesnt the y just declare the domain for the qualifier.
Well y isn't specified anywhere, its just some variable unbound to the statement
x and y could be in different domains
its like saying "There exists an integer x such that y is an ocean"
Let y = the pacific ocean
the statement is true, but its not very helpful since no integer will tell you whether or not y is an ocean
So if you just had a logicial expression with two x's, where one is bound and one is free. how can the free one be replaced by a diffrent variable like y and mean the same thing
Hm well it would a little ambiguous to have a free variable x and an bound variable x since they would be referring to two different things but with the same name.
I have been just trying to rack my head around this for 3 hrs
Can you give an example
Ah I see
So you have two separate statements using quantifiers
yea
The first one just says "there exists a value where P and Q are true given that value" and the second said "R is true for every value"
yes
The quantified variables are just a way to assign values to the propositions
Like just a visual/mathematical aid to show you where they are being plugged in
But in these two statements, the variable name itself doesn't matter, and the variables are completely separate between the statements
so this would hold true even if the quantifers werent their?
If the quantifiers weren't there, x would be unbound to a statement and you would have to define what x is. In that case, x would refer to the same x in both things
But if I like assigned a number to x it would not just assign it to all three statements because their not connected
With the quantifiers there, you cant assign a value to x because it would be like saying "there exists a 5 such that..." or "for all 5's ..." The quantifiers just tell you about the existence of a value that makes a proposition true or a universal property. They don't tell you anything about specific values.
It is kind of hard to grasp at the beginning
So in a way, quantifiers kind of make statements about sets instead of single values
Ok so heres my understanding. Quantifiers are applied to variables, which have a domain, and apply to a scope in which the same variable is supossdly used allowed for a propostion to be formed around a set of values. When the same letter of the variable is used as a variable outside scope in another statement it is just the recyling of the same letter in another seperate function which can refer to the same or diffrent domain.
Yeah exactly. And it is better practice imo to use different variable names in separate statements so there isn't that confusion about where a variables scope is
Ok thank you very much
Which one you looking at
the other ones are easy
Do you have an idea of what it would be
It is kinda long
Try to symbolize each part of the statement separately first
You can reword some of it like
"If a bird is yellow, then the same red bird is faster than it."
And
"If a bird is red and not the same as the red bird in question, then the new red bird is faster"
yeah so "slower than all other red birds" is the same thing as saying "all other red birds are faster"
a
what's the rule for the cardinality of the power set of a set that contains the null set?
like what is the cardinality of the power set of {null, a, b, c, d}
2^5 = 32?
Yeah, the null set as an element is treated as a regular element
but the cardinality of the power set of the set only containing the null set is 1, not 2^1
is that the only exception?
Wdym
No it's still 2
AH i'm dumb, i getchu i was thinking uh
cardinality of power set of the null set
It is a strange example tho
Yeah
Yes. In ∃xP(x) ∨ R(x), the x in P(x) is bounded by the existential quantifier (∃). I.e. if I were to instantiate the existential quantifier, then that x inside P(x) would be instantiated as well.
However, the x in R(x) is not bounded by the existential quantifier. It is fully independant from it.
If one wants to make it so that the x in both P(x) and R(x) are bounded by the existential quantifier, then they should write :
∃x(P(x) ∨ R(x))
The parentheses are not needed
Because we want to explicitely assert that x is bounded by the existential quantifier
ik, I just wanted to emphasize that the negation is for the entire thing
There's no such thing
for this, i'm confused. wouldn't the intersection between all of these be like... a set that starts at infinity and counts onward?
i'd understand if it were bounded at n, then it'd be easy, the set's just {n + 1, n + 2, ... }. but idk if you can do that with infinity
Think of any integer. Is that integer in the intersection of all of these sets?
yeah basically this
no integer is contained in the set, so it is empty
there's no way of saying {infinity + 1, infinity + 2, infinity + 3, ...}?
well because this is an intersection of integers, of course no other numbers would be in there
nah
since in this case, "n" is infinity
If you supposed the set was nonempty, then there exists some integer N contained in the set. But N is not contained in A_{N+1} so theres a contradiction
ah
that's a good way of putting it
ty
for whatever reason our prof decided that we weren't gonna learn proofs by contradiction??? 😭
smh
i mean we understand like... theoretically what one is, but we've never done one
only biconditional proofs, proofs by cases, direct proofs, and proofs by contraposition
I have a midterm coming up with these topics covered and I will be allowed to bring one handwritten paper (one sided) with anything that I'd like. We also have this reference sheet provided for us. Any tips on what I should include?
Prove that if n and m are perfect squares, then (n · m) + 2 is not a perfect square.
Wlog let u,v and k be positive integers where n=u^2 and m=v^2. Suppose nm+2=k^2. Now solve for 2 and factor. This implies a contradiction with a little case work.
In particular notice that 2 is prime and not 1 or 4. What are the possible cases for your two factors? Why are both cases a contradiction?
can we draw a graph whose degree of each vertex is different ?
great problem to experiment a bunch with. try drawing such a graph
If it's any graph, if the # of vertex is higher than 2 the degree can be different
Ur asking an existence proof so an example is enough to prove that it's true
Draw a edge between 2vertices and on either vertex make a loop.
U will se that the degree on one of the 2 is 3 and the other is 1
*non directional graph btw
with parallel edge right ?
Wdym parrallele edge?
.
two vertex connected with two edge like multi graph.
I don't know the answer but if it helps the handshake lemma says that the degree sum must be an even number and the degree of any vertex in any graph is at most n-1, so that rules out a lot of possibilities already
the graph must contain an even number of odd degree vertices I think
for this to work
ooh but that for simple graph only I think
yes
the handshake lemma applies for all graphs though, doesn't it?
Let me check
but yeah if you allow loops or multiple edges the degree can be more than n-1, I thought they were thinking of simple graphs
The restriction is undirected graph
So it would work for looped graphs
And multigraphs
@next ocean
Do u means simple or any graph
ok, I was just thinking out loud, it sounds like a fun problem
Specifically for 18b). idk how to show that such a rule works. My initial idea is just to say that since a euler cycle exists then as long as you don't abruptly terminate any rule works.
Are my Hasse Diagram correct?
I'm trying to get it in simple graph... though
directed or only undirected?
also yeah, this is trivially possible of course, e.g. K_0 or K_1, both graphs have all vertices with different degree
ok so what do you mean in the case of directed?
cool, share it?
doesn't the bottom vertex and the rightmost vertex have the same degree?
I think for undirected graph you can show this is impossible by handshake lemma somehow
but how ?
for a directed graph do you mean that any pair of vertices has different in degree and different out degree?
both at the same time?
not for directed graph, we have to work on undirected graph only
Ok, got it
yup
I need some help with the second part specifically showing that $g$ is indeed an injection. I think the set of equivalence classes is really confusing me.
mss
Okay I think what’s happening is I have $g(\pi(a))=b \forall a \in A$. But how do I know $\pi$ is an injection? Is it because of how they defined the relation on $A$?
mss
@noble geyser f(a) = g(bar(a)) = g(bar(a')) = f(a') means what about a and a'
@inland zenith i got the proof
if n vertices have n different edge, but one can have max degree n-1, hence if there is a graph with all different degrees it means there has to be a vertex with 0 degree, contradiction
no such graph can form with one vertices with degree 0 and one with n-1
Okay I think I understand it. I said g(bar(a)) = f(a). Now for injection on g we need to show that g(bar(a)) = g(bar(a’)) which implies bar(a) = bar(a’). But they way we have defined g(bar(a)) it is actually f(a) so we can show f(a) = f(a’) which implies a=a’. Using the eq. relation on the set A, a=a’ which implies bar(a) = bar(a’). Boom.
@next ocean Nice, well done
Can someone tell me how "For every real number x and y" translates to ∀x∀y because it doesnt make sense to me. I was taught to look at it as every x being looped with every y value but how does that sentence say that?
Think of it like a grid with the x values as the columns and y values as the rows. You can loop through the columns and then the rows, or the rows and then the columns. Either way you will go through every pair of values, so it doesn't matter the order you consider them.
But how does "For every real number x and y" mean that
What if you reword it to "For any pair of real numbers x and y"
Yeah that make sense
That's what it's saying
ok thank you
But I can see now why it's a little strange of wording
is ∀x≠0∃y( xy = 1) a valid way to write ∀x((x ≠ 0) → ∃y(xy = 1))
Yeah, this is a very common method for simplifying
ok thank you
Does someone know why Expressions in predicate logic add variables. Like for the Sentence "Everyone has exactly one friend" could you just do ∀xB(x) where B(x) is "x has exactly one friend" instead of ∀x∃!B(x,y) where B(x,y) is "x is friends with y"
Hey guys, I need to take discrete math in college but I'm scared for it. Do you guys know any resources online I can use to self study?
depends on the specific class ur in, there's not really a set curriculum. see if you can find old course notes from the same prof or a syllabus or just e-mail them or something
if you want a good legal introduction you can self study w anyways then https://discrete.openmathbooks.org/dmoi3.html will do
Thnx to u man, u initialize the intuition
$\forall xB(x)$ doesn't really specify who this friend is and if they are different than $x$
javier
we don't want our statement to come off as vague, so we add another variable
to my understanding
ok ty
boutta go to sleep but if anyone wants to solve this (preferably using induction or binomial theorem) much would be appreciated. spent wayyyyy too much time on this >_<
Consider the implication $$A\subseteq B\implies A\cap C\subseteq B\cap C,$$where $A,B,C$ are arbitrary sets. Can one write this as an equivalence too or is it only an implication?
psie
You need to be more specific with quantifiers to get an equivalence: $A\subset B \iff \forall_C (A\cap C) \subset (B\cap C)$
Outsider
(I'm using \subset to mean weak inclusion, as is standard in real analysis, because I didn't notice this is #discrete-math )
ah ok, subtle detail but crucial probably 👍
for something like this, do i need to prove that x and y are not integers if i'm using contrapositive?
since the forward implication has "x and y are integers" in the antidecent
or do i just consider that as my domain and leave it out of the implication?
That “if” is quantification, not implication. So no.
So it's saying "for all x that are integers and y that are integers"? would i then have to invert that to make it "there exists an x and y that are integers where..."
For this, I can really easily do this via a proof by exhaustion, but is there any easier/less tedious method?
what are you doing to call it tedious
4 cases, x is an element of a and b, x is an element of a but not b, x is an element of b but not a, x is an element of neither
2 cases, x in AnB or not. if not then its not in one of them, wlog not in A.
Iverson bracket notation is pretty nice for this problem
$[x \in A \cap B] := \begin{dcases*} 1 & if $x \in A \cap B$ \ 0 & otherwise\end{dcases*}$
sheddow
we have not learned about wlog yet, good to know
Iverson brackets have the property that [P and Q] = [P][Q]
ok. but at the very least you dont need to consider the case that its not in either of them
how come?
if its not in A for example then f_A(x)=0 already and in the product you dont care about what f_B(x) is
it doesnt matter at that point whether x is in B or not
This is probably messier than most people will want to check. I'm pretty sure you can brute force out the cases to get a roughly tree shaped nfa. Based on skimming what you wrote I think you are aware of this as well. I don't see why you are forcing so many edges to QF and QFF however. You ought to be able to use as many reject states as you like. I think this will lead to a cleaner more obviously tree-like nfa that will make your thinking much clearer.
In fact, depending on the nuance of how your course formalized nfas, you might be able omit reject states entirely here.
Sometimes there is a convention that in an nfa, if there is no outgoing edge and you need to consume a symbol the particular branch of computation you are in just rejects+terminates. So, if you have a string like aab and you consume aa and there is no edge to consume b on then that branch of your computation ends and the aab string is rejected.
Though it may possibly be accepted on some other branch
yeah youre right, i think i got mixed up with thinking of it mroe as a dfa and obsessing over creating every possible edge
tons of unnecessary transitions and states
The brute force/cases idea feels right to me. If you make it cleaner it'll probably be easier to check too.
If you don't have this convention in ur course then just ignore this btw.
WLOG = without loss of generality, it just means that you're making some simplifying assumption without sacrificing the generality of the proof. Usually because there are two cases which are completely symmetrical; you could also assume that x is not in B, but it would be the exact same proof as when x is not in A
i think we do but in all the professors examples he writes teh edges regardless (likely to make it easier to understand on our parts)
ill try to clean it up thanks for the advice
would you mind glancing at a less convoluted one lol
so how would i write this? do i have to prove that there's no loss in generality?
Usually we just claim WLOG and expect the reader to understand. Like if you were to prove something for two real numbers a and b, you can WLOG assume a <= b. For this particular problem just do what Denascite suggested: if x is not in AnB then we have that either x is not in A or x is not in B. We can assume WLOG that x is not in A because the other case is symmetric
Do you need to specify WLOG? for example, i proved something worked for all real numbers, can i then WLOG say it works for all integers?
or is that something else?
No, that's not what WLOG means, that's just because the integers are a subset of the reals
Let's say you want to prove P(a, b) for all real numbers a, b. Then you can assume a <= b in your proof. But this doesn't mean that you have only proved P(a, b) for all a <= b. It holds for all reals because you know that either a <= b or b <= a, then you just call the smallest one a
If you first assume that x is not in A then secondly assume x is not in B, then you'll find that the proof of these two cases are identical, except A and B have swapped places. So you can just do it once
is the conclusion if someone is wearing white gloves they look fascinating
and for this one is it 52 x 51 x 50 x 49 x 48 - 39 x 38 x 37 x 36 x 35
An assignment wants me to
"Prove that A ∪ (B ∩ C) = (A ∪ B) ∩ (A ∪ C) using the distributive law for binary literals"
But this is the distributive law... so what is there to say?
It's been a long day and I'm a bit groggy, but are these two expressions equal? $$\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty\bigcup_{j=1}^\infty E_{k,j},\quad \bigcup_{(k,j)\in \mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}}E_{k,j}.$$
psie
Basically, I'd like to know if the left expression is a countable union, but I can't figure out the index set.
Ok, I think these sets are equal and the index set is simply $\mathbb N\times\mathbb N$.
psie
I dont understand the fourth and fifth column of the table
what is LHS premise and LHS -> q inference
I think its meant to be
$$LHS \equiv p\rightarrow q \wedge p$$
Dilly
ok but what is LHS
ok I THINK I get it
LHS and RHS are used for equations, theyre not specific to logic
its just simply doing the and of the two premises
oh ok I think I understand but here since the second premise is just p its the same as the first p
in the truth table
makes sense thank you
and then LHS -> q inference is ?
so the "argument form" is really saying
$$((p\rightarrow q) \wedge p)\rightarrow q$$
Dilly
Dilly
makes sense
but it's related to what other part of the truth table?
so like it's LHS -> q like written?
in that case wouldn't the third one be false? since LHS premise is false and q is false
it should be F -> T for the third one
either way, F -> T and F -> F are vacuously true
yeah but here it's T -> F?
yeah its a little confusing going backwards
well thank you 👍
this is wrong, right? someone said this was an answer to a test question, but the question seems like it's cut off or something. if p and q are both true, then the biconditional is still true, but the "answer" is not true
unless i'm translating "p is not a necessary condition for not q" incorrectly, i'm translating that as (not p and not q)
nevermind, i see it now. p is not a necessary condition for not q is true, but it is not equivalent.
a) true
b) true
c) false
d) true
e) true
f) false
g) false
can someone lmk if these answers are right?
f) is true, and g) is true assuming ⊂ means non-strict subset
sorry i forgot to add that ⊂ means proper subset and ⊆ means subset in this text book
okay, then f) is true and g) is false
a) yes
b) yes
c) no
d) yes
would this be correct?
which set is Ø the power set of?
i believe itself
Remember that the empty set is a subset of every set, so every power set must contain the empty set
Spamakin🎷
I'm just plugging in the emptyset into the definition
Spamakin🎷
Is that a true statement or not? Is there no such set X?
not true
tysm
hey guys, I have this question that ive been working on for a few hours and im at a road block. made some decent progress but i just dont know how to find the prime implicants and determine which are essential using the quine mccluskey method
"Find all the prime implicant for the following Boolean functions, and determine which are essential using the Quine-McCluskey method: F(w, x, y, z) = Σ(0, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 13, 15)"
heres what i got so far:
so in the leftmost table i wrote the equivalent minterm values with their binary representations
in the 2nd table i arranged the binary numbers in groups. at the top is the group that contains binary numbers with zero 1's, the group under that has binary numbers with just one 1, etc. (each group is separated by a bold horizontal line)
in the 3rd table i formed the 2-minterm implicants by seeing which minterms only differ by 1 bit.
in the 4th table i formed the 4-minterm implicants by seeing which of the 2-minterm implicants only differed by 1 bit
then on the bottom table i attemped to make a prime implicant table but i wasnt sure if i did it properly
then here i tried filling in the prime implicant table
so the green circles are the minterms that are only covered by one prime implicant
but im not sure what other horizontal line to make or even how to finish this prime implicant table
i know this is A LOT of text but i would really appreciate some help if anyone knows how to do this
TLDR: trying to find prime implicants and essential prime implicants of F(w, x, y, z) = Σ(0, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 13, 15) but dont know how
Does anyone have any good video resources for Big O, Big Omega, and Big Theta notation?
Specifically something that focuses on working with the functions and inequalities themselves to prove things. Especially proving Big Omega
All the videos I'm finding are contient to just give a conceptual overview and ask basic questions but this course I am taking is wanting something a bit more involved than that
Reading the same handful of examples from my textbook isn't really soaking in
yes because from 1st premise we know P is true. 2nd premise since we know P is true and P - > r , so r must be true. 3rd premise P -> ( q v ~r). we know that r is true so ~r must be false and since ~r is false and (q v ~r) is true, q must be true. 4th premise (~q v ~s) since we already know that q is true, ~q must be false and thus ~s must be true, therefore s is false. so s = 0, q = 1, r = 1, p = 1. it is correct
if x + y = ( x ↓ y ) ↓ ( x ↓ y )
Would that make x + y + z = ( x ↓ y ↓ z ) ↓ ( x ↓ y ↓ z ) ?
nesymerp1, the C++ lover
note, B and C bar is seperate.
@quaint flower You could use a kmap table
Oh yeah, I could map out the minterms on a k-map and derive the solution with the least amount of minterms.
but assuming I wasn't allowed to do that, how does one do this without k maps?
factor it out and use identities. Idk if u get a table of them like I do. give me a moment let me go find the table of identities u can use
Yeah idk how to factor such thing tbh.
ok
you can start with 2 terms since these are all ors
so let say
I know the laws, just not where to apply them
(compliment A and compliment B) + (A and Compliment B and Compliment C)
you can take out a compliment B
factor out A for example, then you have BC or compl(BC) which is true
$$ Y = \overline{B}( \overline{A} + A\overline{ C}) + ABC $$
nesymerp1, the C++ lover
Yes
could do that too
I go microsoft pain and write it out. Writitng it out on discord too hard
I think it becomes:
A bar + C bar
$$ Y = \overline{B} \overline{A} + B\overline{ C} + ABC $$
nesymerp1, the C++ lover
This is the final solution I bet
(And also, B and A is seperate, the bars are not joined)
One sec i go check this
ok
Though, I am unsure how to factor A bar + B(Cbar)
$$ Y = \overline{B} \overline{A} +\overline{B} \overline{ C} + ABC $$
nesymerp1, the C++ lover
nvm this is the correct solution
note, B and A are seperate, so are B and C.
$$
But my only problem is, how does one factor this?
\overline{A} + A\overline{ C}$$
nesymerp1, the C++ lover
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
what canceled out the A infront of the A b bar and c bar?
I am unsure, is it the absorption law? It doesn't sound right though.
unsure, im also kind of stuck here. very sorry that i offered help and am confused myself
$$ \overline{A} + A\overline{ C} $$
nesymerp1, the C++ lover
Like how does one factor this, xD
and np, dude, i just don't know what to do with this other then using a k map
ok
i figured it out
you are right
ye
If you think of A bar as x, A as y, and c bar as z
there for making it
(a bar + a)(a bar + c bar)
a bar + a = 1
so leaving it as a bar c bar
Oh I see...
I do not remember that law, but I need to remember it.
xD
I see now, I need to memorize this law actually
Me too bro me too. I hope its not on my next exam
happy to help
I don't quite get it why I have this in my note, I mean I can't get to the "then" part from "if"
they need to at minimum buy a network switch; this kind of configuration is ridiculous in the real world
agreed no self-respecting computer user would ever do this
anyways this is pigeonhole
interesting, I accidentally proved it without using the assumption that they each have at least one connection
maybe I proved the wrong thing 🤣
that, or the added assumption makes the pigeonhole proof simpler
lmfao
Ah, I found my mistake but I'll post my fake proof for n computers and you can spot where the error is for funsies:
There are n(n-1)/2 possible connections between n computers. If we try to take the best case of each computer having a different number of connections we would have 0 connections for the first, 1 for the second, etc... so in total there are 0 + 1 + 2 + ... + (n-1) = n(n-1)/2 connections being made. However this is impossible because the first computer has 0 connections and the last computer is connected to everyone.
||we would have 0 connections for the first||
!
that's valid cause I've removed the condition they have at least one connection
that's part of the proof so that's ok
does it count tho bc the last computer can't have ||n-1|| connections so the formula is invalid
well we're trying to pigeonhole for that result
minimum number of ways to get distinct number of connections 0, 1, 2, etc
hmmmmmm
||so in total there are 0 + 1 + 2 + ... + (n-1) = n(n-1)/2 connections being made||
||if you just add up the degrees you get twice the total number of connections||
winner
ah shit i really should have seen that
now despite that proof being wrong, I think the result is still true
guess if someone has a counterexample that'd be convenient before I waste time on that lol
yeah for a bit i was confused by like, "i mean this works but half of the steps are irrelevant" because when i read it i ended up filling in the correct logic instead of following the incorrect steps that you intended
it's always going to be 0 for the first one, 1 for the second, etc., up to n-1
because you can't have less than 0 connections, and you can't have more than n-1 connections (not enough computers to connect to)
or, roughly equivalently, we can just say 0 and n-1 aren't compatible as an extra step at the end of the pigeonhole proof
pigeonhole principle 🔛🔝
we're stuck in either [1, n-1] or [0, n-2], because 0 and n-1 can't both happen, and so we only have n-1 numbers available
yeah, I guess the trickiest part is realizing 0 and n-1 are mutually exclusive. Does the original question's assumption that every computer has at least one connection have a simpler proof I'm not seeing then?
pigeonhole
^
isn't it already pigeonhole
n-1 holes (number of computers connected), n computers, so there must be a duplicate
the point is that if you assume they all have at least one connection you get to skip over the hard part of dealing with 0 and n-1
uh
we know if $ac \equiv bc \pmod m$ then $a \equiv b \pmod m$ if $c$ is coprime to $m$.
if $c \equiv 0 \pmod m$, $a$ and $b$ can be anything,
and if $c$ is coprime $m$, this is trivial to see
let d be $\gcd(m, c)$
we can substitute this equation as $\frac{c}{d}a \equiv \frac{c}{d}b \pmod \frac{m}{d}$
however, $\gcd(\frac{c}{d}, \frac{m}{d}) = 1$, therefore $a \equiv b \pmod \frac{c}{d}b \pmod \frac{m}{d}$
oh wow no newlines :(
somehybrid
Very glad to get an answer after my nap
wait no thats bad im dumb
actually is it
formatting fix so i can actually read
we know if $ac \equiv bc \pmod m$ then $a \equiv b \pmod m$ if $c$ is coprime to $m$. \
if $c \equiv 0 \pmod m$, $a$ and $b$ can be anything, \
and if $c$ is coprime $m$, this is trivial to see \
let d be $\gcd(m, c)$ \
we can substitute this equation as $\frac{c}{d}a \equiv \frac{c}{d}b \pmod {\frac{m}{d}}$ \
however, $\gcd(\frac{c}{d}, \frac{m}{d}) = 1$, therefore $a \equiv b \pmod {\frac{m}{d}}$
somehybrid
hmm
this doesnt feel right
imma look at it when i get home
no there's definitely an issue here
the proof is left as an exercise to the reader
and the mistake
I am doing a problem where I want to find the smallest number of people n such that the proability of two people having the same birthday is > 1/2. I am doing this by calculating P(2 people (of n total people) have same birthday) = 1 - P(no 2 people have the same birthday)
Then P(no 2 people have the same birthday) = #(ways to have no people (n people total) have same birthday)/#(ways to assign birthdays without restrictions) = {365 \choose n}/#(weak permutations of n into 365 parts). However, this is not correct for some reason as the denominator should be 365^n...
so where did I go wrong?
Hi does anyone know about college math? Specifically permutations and combinations? I’m barely making it through math class because my professor isn’t the best at teaching
actually is this right?
how would you simplify these and make a circuit?
ive used k maps and tried simplifying but i feel like im not doing it correctly
does having the method for finding the partition is a sufficient condition for the existence of the partition?
google split pdf
I'm in an inquary based learning class and I'm stuck on this problem. When I asked my professor for help, she just told me that my classmate would be presenting the answer tomorrow and that might help. But I want to actually understand the steps into doing this.
bruh
I guess you see that (k+1)^2 -k^2 = 2k+1 that is exactly an odd number by definition
discrete math
i wrote my own script :p
yeah i started by trying to prove that O is a subset of D by showing this, but I was stuck on showing how D is a subset of O other than just showing the same thing. I showed my professor that and she told me I needed to explain more with words and it needs to be a full proof, but I honestly don't know how to explain or prove mutual containment since we've never done it in class
prove that the definition of a odd number is 2k+1
so if it is an odd number then it is of the form 2k+1
and then prove that if it is of the form 2k+1 then it is an odd number
ohhh, and that's how I would prove that D is a subset of O?
what did you get
bunch of different answers but i got i think (P and Q and R) v (~P and Q and ~R)
but then i searched up the answer and it said it simplifies to (P and ~R) V Q V (~P and R)
im just confused on what method should i use to get the simplified expression for the circuit
do i simplify manually using boolean algebra and laws
or using a k map
it's easy to visualize with a k map
and faster probably
Thanks! are there any good videos on k maps? my textbook only shows us simplifying using boolean algebra
also u probably know already (P and ~R) V (~P and R) simplifies to P xor R
i did not know...
so the simplest answer is Q V P XOR R
im not sure but im sure u can find one
alright thanks for the help
First time formally using latex so forgive any odd formatting. can I get some feedback on these proofs
``Let $U = {x_1, x_2, x_3, \dots, x_i}$ for any $i \in \mathbb{N}$ be the universe'' - why is this here?
bee [it/its]
the rest of the proof doesn't use x at all, and in fact it's valid even if U can't be enumerated (because it's infinite), so you kind of just, made the proof longer and less general for no obvious benefit
if you don't want to just start using the symbol $U$ with no explanation then you can introduce it as just ``Let $U$ be the universe''
bee [it/its]
ok that makes sense
what would im g be in the case that g is not a functoin? just the range of g?
wdym
Pretty sure the idea is just like
if g isn’t a function then there’s some point in the domain that it maps to more than 1 value which means two functions f,f’ in X disagree at that point, which means either f doesn’t contain f’ or vice versa violating the assumption
how does my proof look?
Is N considered to be strictly positive integers or just nonnegative integers here
strictly positive
ok
Found this nice pattern from the discrete slope case
(yeah, it is just the inverse function of the sum inside, but still nice pattern)
What is the lcm of a non zero x and 0? Some sources say it's 0 but my teacher said lcm is positive
Umm, 1 maybe? Idk
It's 0, since every multiple of 0 is 0. Alternatively you can use lcm(a, b) = ab/gcd(a, b)
Hi everyone
I'm reading a book called Discrete Mathematics with Graph Theory
And I don't understand this example right at the beginning of the chapter named "Adjacency matrix"
How is it possible that a matrix on the right is adjacency matrix of the graph on the left? It's not even 5x5
This example it seems contradicts their own definition
Am I stupid or what 
Yup I agree seems wrong to me
lmao they forgot the before last line
That's legit a typo, they forgot the line for v_4
Could someone help me see where I've gone wrong here?
thanks, I was thinking that I'm going insane
I am lost man
Idk maybe this book is full of typos but again, the text description does not match the permuation matrix P
maybe if they said that the columns of identity matrix instead of rows, the picture would also match
I just want to get some intuition on how this linear algebra works. Like, why can't we just multiply by P on the left? Why we also should multiply by the transpose on the right?
this is literally the last question
💀
you are asking someone who passed
wdym
logic
yeah
what is your doubt
see my man if you are not logical you are cooked
bro what
and then lava and water
💀
and where are starting
ye
t??
tautology
yeha
because i wanna bring in A
so I can use conjunction to craft in this tutor
so I need ¬D and C
and thats where im lost
oh
if I can find how to get (B ^ ¬C) I can get ¬D from MP
<=> ¬D∨C
<=> ¬(D∧¬C)
huh
you wanted D and C
there isnt a single equivalence operator in here bro
that's not the point
I cant pull shit outta my ass bro
this looks like you are trying to rewrite the same statement until you get somewhere
bro i dont even know the game
but if you wanna get from A to B
all our steps need to be equivalent
game lmaooo
lets start here
so whats the next step sir
;/
A -> (B -> C)
I needa go back to highschool
done
?
ye
¬A ∨ ¬B ∨ C ∨ (D ∧ ¬D)
so get d..?
but i am bad at these games anyway so i wont be of a good help for that
also you should be careful here around with needing help on graded stuff
why
against the rules
bruh
thats dumb
its a tutor that keeps going until i pass lma
okay so if I get A
I win
You can add (A ∨ ¬A) ∨ (B ∨ ¬B) shouldn't change the D->C statement
why
becaue it only lets me add specific things
i showed you
okay
i need the oppositve of either 1 or 4
weird game
oh you got far
I think I got it
please share sir
select wisely then
bro??
one should fit what i have
Suppose $A=E\cup F\subset\mathbb R$ and $s\in\mathbb R$. Does $$A+s=(E\cup F)+s=(E+s)\cup(F+s),$$hold without assuming the union $E\cup F$ to be disjoint?
psie
I have the same question about tA=t(E cup F)=tE cup tF.
sure, to both:
Let $A = E \cup F$.
If $x \in A$, then $x \in E \lor x \in F$
If $x \in E$, then $x+s \in E+s$, so $x+s \in A+s$.
Analogously for $F$.
If $x+s \in A+s$, then $x+s \in E+s \lor x+s \in F+s$
If $x+s \in E+s$, then $x \in E$, so $x \in E \cup F$, so $x \in A$.
Analogously for $F+s$.
Then, assuming that $A+s=(E+s)\cup (F+s)$, we have the desirable property that $x+s \in A+s \iff x \in A$
MSP729
Can anyone help me with this? Everytime I try and solve it, I end up doing so with contrapositive instead of contradiction
the contrapositive proof would be to prove the statement: if n is not prime then 2^n-1 is not prime
the contradiction would to be assume 2^n-1 is prime but n is not prime and then try to reach some kind of contradiction
@toxic gorge
I'm having difficulty showing the direction where assigning odd number to edges => eulerian.
I am trying to show that there is an eulerian circuit. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
I noticed that if I cross an edge to arrive at a vertex, then cross that same edge to leave it, if f_e > 1 I'd need to come back to it eventually and alternate "leaving" and "arriving".
I feel like this observation isn't enough though because it's still not clear how to use it to show there's an Eulerian circuit: I need to show that I can start at a vertex, and end at the same vertex, and along the way I only cross each edge once. When I'm done, I would have crossed all edges without repeats
I feel like my approach (and I haven't done a done of graph theory) would be to show that if you complete a circuit by crossing an edge n times (for odd n), then you can do it by crossing that edge n-2 times and the proceeds by induction on n, starting with if you can do it by crossing an edge 3 times then you can do it by crossing an edge once
Yeah for f_e = 3, I can just repeatedly enter a vertex and leave it then finally enter it again. I am assuming this property though, but I can see that instead of doing that I can just go through it once
Prove that the following is a valid argument:
All real numbers have nonnegative squares.
The number i has a negative square.
Therefore, the number i is not a real number.
is this a good proof
Struggling with conceptualizing proofs and disproofs. Primarily "reading" the equation and understanding what it means. Could anybody give me a rough translation? I am familiar with introductory concepts of discrete math.
So, for A, r is going to range over all integers so we're going to have stuff like
r | 6r + 12 | m
---------------------
-2 | 6(-2) + 12 | 0
-1 | 6(-1) + 12 | 6
0 | 6(0) + 12 | 12
1 | 6(1) + 12 | 18
2 | 6(2) + 12 | 24
``` so on and so forth. So, `A = {..., 0, 6, 12, 18, 24, ...}`. Similarly for `B`. Does that help at all ?
Hi. Does anyone recognize the book with these exercises? I'm looking for the solutions to compare them with my answers.
is that from kenneth rosen 8th edition?
hello
Some element of K is both in L and greater than 5.
the answer is:
∃x(b(x,K)∧b(x,L)∧x>5)
but why not
∃x(b(x,K)->b(x,L)∧x>5)
what is the function b?
did you have the original question
it's about predicate logic
any function where x belongs to K
the correct answers captures the statement correctly because it is saying that there is an element x which exists in both K and L and also is greater than 5.
the wrong answer is wrong because it says that if some element x exists in K then it exists in L and is greater than 5
so there is an implication
simply, first statement says there is an element which is both in k and l and also greater than 5. second one( wrong answer) says that the element must exist in K in order to exist in B and be greater than 5.
hopefully it makes sense
ahhh got it
yeah it does
thx
np
guys, what am I missing?
Isnt the minimum weight spanning forest of a graph G always just (V(G), {}) , when the edgeweights are positiv ??
For all the nodes to be in the induced subgraph, every node needs to be "matched" by an edge
So if you chose E = {} the induced graph would also have no nodes
I dont get it, a graph H is a spanning subgraph of G iff V(H)=V(G). A forest is an acyclic graph. Where does the induced subgraph thing come from ?
for this to make sense we would need to define a spanning forest as an edge induced graph
but afaik thats not the definition
okay so i have a very stupid counting problem that i somehow am struggling with
how many sequences of A's and B's of length m are there such that there are at most n A's in a row
if this cannot be generalized, then the specific case would be m=22 and n=4
i think you'd use recursion from say the back of it based on if it ends with some number of As, or some Bs and build it up, but idk
is this the correct approach
Hm thats seems to be true. I don't have a definition for spanning forests in my textbook, but I assumed for this problem to make sense that it would be defined via induced subgraphs. If there is no definition in the book from your excerpt, check the (hopefully?) following algorithm
well in wikipedia they define it as the union of spanning trees of the components. So yes it fine.
The paper I had didnt define it anywhere but it wouldnt make sense otherwise. But anyways, seems like it was a very basic definition that I just wasnt aware of. Thank you very much for helping!
I was solving some questions... and faced this. The correct answer said its a, why? And why not c if a is true
C says "If there exists an x such that P(x) is false, then there does not exist an x such that P(x) is true"
This is false because it is possible that P(x) is false for some x but then P(y) is true for some y != x. Basically one value doesn't tell you the whole picture.
A says "If there does not exists an x such that P(x) is true, then there exists an x such that P(x) is false"
This is definitely true. If P(x) is never true for any given x, then of course there is an x where P(x) is not true (assuming that the set that x comes from is nonempty).
The wording is kinda hard to comprehend if you dont look at it closely
Basically C says "If P(x) is false for at least one value, then P(x) is never true" while A says "If P(x) is never true, then P(x) is false for at least one value"
can u give an example, i don't think i fully get it
Let P(x) be the statement "person x is a male" and let the universe of discourse be everyone on Earth.
A says this: "If no person on Earth is a male, then there exists a person who is not a male" (that would be true because everyone would be not a male. "I know no one on Earth is a male, so if I approach any single person, I know they will not be a male")
C says this: "If there is some person on Earth who is not male, then no males exist on Earth" (not true because there definitely could be another person who IS male. This is like saying "well I know someone who is a female, so therefore males do not exist")
looks about right to me. Maybe for part b instead of saying if p^k divides... just say if p divides. Since x and x-1 are relatively prime, p can only ever divide one or the other. Once you know which one it divides then the fact that it's 0 mod p^k tells you all of p^k divides it from knowing p
not sure if that is what you mean by feeling you're missing something or not
Ah ok, I'll definitely make that clarification
Mostly felt like I was missing something since it was super short and simple compared to other problems in the chapter
i completely understand it, many thanks for your help!!!
Trying to prove this statement through induction. Here's my attempt: Case n=1: 3^1 > 2^1. This case is true. Induction case: Let n{N be arbitrary. Assume 3^n>2^n is true. Multiply each side by 6. Now we have 6(3^n)>6(2^n). Factoring 6 we have (2)(3^1)(3^n)>(3)(2^1)(2^n). Simplifying we have (2)(3^(n+1)) > 3(2^(n+1)). I'm confused on what the next step would be
Think I had some time to think over this, for proving that it is Eulerian, we just need to somehow justify that the degrees of each vertex are right?
would it be something like divide by 2 on each side leaving 3^(n+1) > 3/2 (2^n+1) > 2^(n+1) ?
I wouldn't approach it this way personally, I was thinking more like start from 3^{n+1} = 3 * 3^n > 3 * 2^n ...
we were just introduced to induction today and only saw one example. I get the 3^(n+1) part but what does multiplying by 3*2^n do?
oh that's using the inductive hypothesis 3^n > 2^n
assuming that's meant to say "even degree" then yes that would be sufficient
(I'm unsure what the expected way to do this exercise is, and the way I'd do it is not something I can really provide just hints for nor do I think it's particularly nice)
Oops, yes I meant "even degree"
Hmm yeah this is harder than i thought
I was trying contradiction but couldn't really see anything
the more I think about it the more I think my method might actually be the intended one, although it must just be me being blinded to alternatives now that I have one proof
it's essentially to construct a different graph G' so that there's an obvious analogue to the walk which shows G' is eulerian and hence has every vertex of even degree, and justify this means G also has vertices of even degree
Constructing a different graph
You mean it might not even have the same edges?
I'm guessing the value of each f_e is supposed to help out with this
I mean there's a way to do it with G as a subgraph, with the small downside of being only slightly more annoying to describe
The graph is undirected, does that simplify anything?
it's more a question of whether you're allowed multiple edges between vertices
sounds like a multigraph, I think no
the annoyance is incredibly small btw: it's the difference between introducing a new vertex in the middle of each edge of a multigraph (this turns it into a simple graph!) and leaving one of the edges between each pair of vertices as is (which still turns it into a simple graph)