#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 56 of 1
i need more than 80
the degree is from 100
i think it's B+ i don't really now but i need more than 80
Well you should get started
4 hours a day ?
No reason not to try
I can't determine that
i have another 3 courses that's why it's only 4
You are the one person best suited in the world to determine whether you will be able to pass
i'm slow to understand
Even more reason to get started rather than asking about whether it's possible on discord
i need someone that had the same problem and passed because i feel i'm not going to pass
i'm depressed
then you should ask people who have taken the same course
highly unlikely you will find those people here
did u had a similar situation ?
No
😦
Well i have procrastinated before
But never to the degree i needed to learn an entire course in two weeks
also money is a big problem i don't have enough to hire a private teacher
It's safe to say that most people in an educational situation where they need to take that course wouldn't be able to internalize all of it by self-study in 18 days -- there's a reason why the course itself runs over a longer period than that.
On the other hand, surely some would. Not many but some.
You should get in contact with pastoral support at your institution. They likely have councillors or similar support staff available.
If you need an interruption to your studies that can also probably be arranged.
There's really no point in just continuing in the same way if you don't think you're going to succeed, so tell someone who can actually help instead of this discord server.
This kind of thing happens quite often, they will know what to do if you get in contact. You're far from the first person to struggle managing their time at university.
I'm glad to hear that
Not sure if I'm on the right track for part d.
Unfortunately no
You’ve assumed what you want to prove
you need to show, starting from n^2 -2n + 7 being even (and other true statements), that n is odd
So I need to prove n= n^2-2n+7?
Nope!
You need to show that if n is an integer, and n^2 - 2n + 7 is even, then n is odd
You can think of it as - you start with a proof that n^2 - 2n + 7 is even, and you need to turn this into a proof that n is odd
Got it. Thank you
hello everyone, i need help with this question cuz i just cant figure out the logic behind it. i keep getting it wrong
try a smaller example, how arrangements of ABCCD have the subword DAC
Let n, r, s, i ∈ N. Give a combinatorial proof to show that the number of pairs (A, B)
with A ⊆ Nn, B ⊆ Nn, |A| = r, |B| = s and |A ∩ B| = i equals
anyone can help me
3! right?
oh wait 3! / 2!
since there are 2 C
how can i calculate the number of arrangements of 10 different balls in 7 different cells such that the first 3 cells have a combined number of at least 8 balls?
You can choose (i) elements from the (n) ((C)), then (r-i) from the remaining (n-i) ((D)), and finally (s-i) from the remaining (n-r) ((E)). Then (A = C \cup D) and (B = C \cup E).
Kevin
I want to prove that I can fully specify a vector in an infinite dimensional vector space by only determining what is equivalent to a finite tuple of integers:
-Prove that though the vector is expressible in the infinite vector space, it must be part of a subspace of that infinite space that is finite
-Pick a convenient basis for the infinite space
Can the two lines above be taken for free/on the axiom of choice? (Assume line one is a correct proof)
-Choose a finite number of elements from the basis (Can be done by specifying integers)
-Specify the coefficents of the finite number of basis elements (Can be done by specifying integers, in my case the vector space is not on R any variant of)
-.... Importantly I claim to have shown the vector of concern can be described by a finite sized tuple of integers, despite it inhabiting an infinite dimensional space. Does that make sense? Or did I cheat somewhere, in the first two lines?
This lets me prove a further result is the reason I care.
Hmm, every single vector is in the one-dimensional subspace generated by itself ...
even ignoring that, you can write it as a tuple of integers after you fixed the basis I suppose. but how are you specifying what those basis vectors are in the first place. thats the same problem again
sure they exist but that doesnt tell you what they are
I think the overall goal of "fully specify a vector in an infinite vector space" as if it's a list of coordinates is essentially misguided. Using the axiom of choice we can prove that every vector space has a basis such that every vector is uniquely given by a finite-support coefficient function. But these bases are completely impossible to work with other than for theoretical arguments.
If you want to actually compute in the vector space, the only generally useful way is to go to the definition of that particular vector space to see what its elements are and how the vector space operations are defined for it.
By the way, most infinite-dimensional vector spaces are so large that a basis needs uncountably many elements, in which case you cannot point to particular basis elements by giving it an integer index.
This is true even for "innocent-looking" examples such as the space of all countably-infinite sequences of elements of a finite field.
yeah someone said that and I think I need to address
the case of a finite subspace? Then it is appropriate to index with an integer?
luckily I dont actually want to compute in this space
If whatever you need to do happens to fit within a finite-dimensional subspace, then sure.
ye i realised it too but thank you
I also have another question when defining a function take this as example, u see how they write domain -> codomain and then below u write domain in concrete notation -> codomain concrete notation
instead of writing the x -> sqrt(x) below it
can u write it right side of it?
so like domain -> codomain : concrete domain -> concrete codomain
can u by any chance help me with this question too
i mean notation is just a human thing, so yeah sure do whatever you want
as long as it's clear and unambiguous
but will this be clear if I said R - > R : x -> sqrt(x)
because I always see they write it below R -> R
yeah that's fine, it's pretty easy to work out what it means
I also sometimes see R -> R : f(x) = sqrt(x)
but I guess there are just multiple ways to do it
i mean generally it's good to be consistent with notation, so it makes sense that they just picked one way of doing it and then kept going with that
ye that makes sense
will u be here for long I know u are quite smart, and I am doing combinatorics proof now but I am pretty sure I will run into diffuclt questions
i have no idea how long i'm going to be here (i might end up going to sleep) but probably if i'm not here there will be other people here
ah I see, ye it's late too for me
I guess I will ask it tmmrw then if I run into diffucult question
are u asleep already, I actually do have a question
i am still awake
can u by any chance help me with with the function defining
why is the second part x
because y is element of k+1 elements
probably to make the rest of whatever they're going to do with the function work
...is there a specific problem you have with it?
okay well u have to give a 1 to 1 relation from set X to Y
yeah ok it looks like the reason they put it there is so that you can then infer what x was just from f(x), so that f^-1 exists
so u gotta write y in terms of A and x
...what's "y"
uhh what does that mean actually
this part
it says y element of B
so for instance $({1, 2, 3}, 1)$ is an element of $Y$, because $1 \in {1, 2, 3}$
bee [it/its]
but $({1, 2, 3}, 4)$ isn't, because $4 \not\in {1, 2, 3}$
bee [it/its]
(and to be clear the choice of variable letters doesn't matter, if they had written $Y = {(A, x) : A \subseteq N_n, |A| = k + 1, x \in A}$ then that's the exact same set)
but I feel like it;'s hard to see
bee [it/its]
ye but A and x were already claimed
for set X
but uhm
so A u {x} is logical
since Au{x} has cardinality k+1 which matches with B
and is also subset of N_n
but the second part
x matches with y?
but y is element of D
bee [it/its]
well $x \in {x}$
bee [it/its]
but
so it is in $A \cup {x}$
bee [it/its]
oohhhh
that's the union, so it contains anything that's in either of the sets (or both, but that doesn't happen in this particular case)
but is it allowed to say this?
because he is only element of {x}
but not part of A
well that's how $\cup$ works
bee [it/its]
${1} \cup {2} = {1, 2}$ for instance
bee [it/its]
$1 \in {1} \cup {2}$ because $1 \in {1}$, and $2 \in {1} \cup {2}$ because $2 \in {2}$
bee [it/its]
if we wanted to require that it's in both, then that's $\cap$, the intersection
bee [it/its]
and ${1} \cap {2} = \varnothing$ because no $x$ satisfies $x \in {1}$ \textit{and} $x \in {2}$
bee [it/its]
but if u said x is element of {1} u {2}
does it mean that x can be 1 or 2?
bee [it/its]
that's the definition of union
but in our case x could only be element of{x}
but he could be all the elements in A too?
say A = {1,2,3}
and x = 4
then x is element of {1,2,3,4}?
yep
so x could be 1,2 ,3 or 4?
well it's one of those
oh
ahhh
so it doesn't have to be all?
ahh I can just expand the set
with no problem
I can just say x is element of{x} u C
where C is just a random set
I think I got it right?
I gotta read back to my question iI forgot it
i didn't understand all of what you said but it sounds like you've got roughly the right idea?
uhh so
I can just say x is element of {x} u C
where C is a random set doesn't matter how big or how small
since x is always contained in {x}
yes
ahhh I see now why they chose x
it's actually the only option too
thank you alot
u just have widen my vision by alot
is this true?
also these combinatorics proof, are u able to imagine how the sets relate to each other 1 by 1 or is it more define the sets and try to find a way to connect them. Like do u visualize it too?
I think u went to sleep gn if u did
also how do u laern to type latex so fast, it seems realy covenient when trying to write mathemetical notation
it's way mroe readable
the reason y is being chosen is because x is element of N_n \ A. that means that y should be element of N_n \ (D\y) and that is true
the more you use it the more you internalize all the commands and such
But where did u start learning it
Overleaf has some nice tutorials online
and then basically I started doing all my math HW in LaTeX because my handwriting sucks
and at first it took me a long time since I had to keep googling stuff
but you do it more and more and more and eventually you have to google less and less stuff
So I have question about Berge theorem, does it work on unconnected graphs? As I am looking at it, if our graph is made out of 3 parts with branches 12 34 56, we don't have any augmenting path, but how can we prove that 12 34 56 is max matching and 34 56 isn't max matching
Thanks for the help unsurprisingly some of this was a red herring, although the final answer does use infinite matrices
the approach i'm thinking is make a TM for
$N_0 = 2N_1$
and then take its complement.
But how to take the complement of TM?
like in DFA/NFA we just switch the final and non final states
Pogram
I think its even 11 chromatic
ainit?
How many ways can a person visit 3 cities, each of them 4 times such that he starts and ends at different cities?]
how is this discrete math?
combinatorics could be discrete math?
hm
aight ok
anyway reposting but can someone help me with this:
How many ways can a person visit 3 cities, each of them 4 times such that he starts and ends at different cities?]
first make a injection i guess then what?
call the cities x, y, z
does this count? x x x x y y y y z z z z?
if it does then I think this is easy
if it doesn't I'll have to think some more
paths on a cycle graph?
Are you saying this in relation to the question above or are you asking a different question? In either case can you make yourself clearer?
take your cities x, y, z and put edges between them {x,y},{x,z}, {y,z} creating your 3-cycle graph (or complete graph), then you're looking for paths on the graph that visit each vertex 4 times and start and stop at different cities.
it's like a hamiltonian path with repetition.
Am I on the right track?
you're using x for 2 different things making this hard to read, also 5j - 1 is not always odd (consider j = 5) also I don't get how k = 5x - 1 implies x^2 + 5x - 1 is odd
also idk what you mean by "x is odd since x^2 + 5x - 1 is odd"
since for x = 2 this is false (in fact this statement you wrote is false for all even x)
Can you write what it means for an integer to be odd, the formal definition. Lets start there perhaps. And then tell me if you've heard of the term "proof by cases" before.
okay so I need to redo the statement. since x^2 is even
what do you mean "x^2 is even"
since 1^2 is odd
can you please answer my questions
okay so I was thinking since x^2= 2k therefore that would be even. that's what I was thinking at least.
my apologies, your questions. what I meant by" x is odd since x^2 + 5x -1". I was going off the fact that J= x^2 +5x which would be odd
and k being odd too since k= 5x-1. but I think that's a mistake now that I think about it since there has to be some factorization to go back to the original x^2+5x-1
x^2 + 5x is not always odd, take x = 2. 5x - 1 is not always odd, take x = 1
ok can you answer these please
take the RHS modulo 2
At this stage idk if they've learned modular arithmetic
oh
and besides more basic definitions need to be fixed
like integers?
yea applying those basic definitions, making assumptions without justifying them, and approaching the proof in a better manner (which is what I want to point them towards if they answer the questions I've told them to answer)
noted
so can u answer my questions
these ones
otherwise I'll just stop trying to help since there's no point
odd integar is x=2k+1
what is k?
a natural number, an integer, a real number, a complex number, something else?
k is a rational number
no, k is an integer. If k could be a rational number then something like 2*(1/3) + 1 = 5/3 would be odd, which makes no sense
so x is odd if x = 2k + 1 for some integer k, and x is even if x = 2k for some integer k.
Ok next up, do you know what "proof by cases is"?
is that proof by exhaustion where you prove with the easiest element?
well by element I mean like x or y or integer... depending on the problem and what you're trying to prove
What does easiest mean?
less complicated to prove.
Ehhh that's very vague.
Ok here's the idea. There are two types of integers: even and odd
Suppose x is even, proof the claim in that case
Then suppose x is odd, prove the claim in that case
Those two possibilities cover all cases so you've proven the claim to be true for every integer
okay understood.
So try that, should be a straightforward computation
If you get stuck and/or want me to check your work, ping me here
thank you for the clarification
yes i think probably does
that's what i did with the bijection bit but not sure how to continue
hmm could you elaborate? never done any graph theory or whatever required to understand that
Ok if it does
Suppose you start at x and end at z
Then do you agree that you can arrange the remaining 10 letters in any order to generate a valid trip?
Then compute all such orderings
This will tell you the number of possible trips starting at x and ending at z
From there getting the total number of all possible trips should be easy
it shouldn't count
how 10?
if he starts at x then that leaves 8 (4y's and 4 z's) for him to end at right?
Leaves 3 x's 3 z's 4 y's
You wanna visit each city 10 times
@small cedar #❓how-to-get-help
This channel is not for stats
No access
Click the channel explorer everyone has access
Thanks
Anyways @weary tiger is this not correct
right but if we start at x we want to end at y or z right?
so we fix the first and last letter?
and then permute the ones in between?
so you're fixing the start and end at x?
and then total - that?
You need to start and end at different cities
oh so you want to do casework? start and end at (x,y) and start and end at (x,z)
and start and end at (y,z)
Yea yea
Because counting the possible permutations of the 10 in the middle is easy once you fix start and end
but wait why can't i start and end at x?
By symmetry you're basically done with 99% of the work once you figure out once case
and then subtract from the total
Read your message bruh you said start and end at different cities
because total would have all permutations and then start and end at x would remove all words that well start and end with x
i know 😭 but check what i wrote
I mean you can but like
total permutation - start/end at x = start end at (yz) OR start end at (xy) OR start end at (xz)
no?
Yea that's equivalent ig
And it's all the same because these are all symmetric cases
You just multiply at the end
Or whatever you get what I mean
It's all symmetric
My way is equally fast
Multiply by 6 vs 3
true okay
Who cares
6?
oh you mean
reverse as well?
start end at xz and start end at zx
okay sure yeah multiply by 6 okay yeah
Yes because I presume those are different
and hmm i need help with the ordering too if i'm not dumb
cuz i can't combinatorics but wait
so if i fix x at the start
i thought constraints kinda matter too?
What constraints
the start and end letters
okay so don't we like account for that or no?
So we just gotta pick what order we go in the middle
Because we already know start and end
😭
It's the same city
right right
I visit NYC today I visit tomorrow it's the same NYC
okay okay so for xz:
you permute 3 x's, 3 z's and 4 y's
Yea
Perfect
I sleep now
idk man I trust the calculator
Yes this is right for all possibilities starting at x and ending at z
multiplying by 6 makes it even bigger and iirc the answer is 800 something
Then you gotta multiply by 6
tbh not sure if that's right
right makes sense yeah
Ok then you omitted some info if you know the right answer is much smaller
Because as you stated the question we have the right answer
wait so i googled it
and found this
But AAAABBBBCCCC is not a proper one.
Why not?
So what you told me above when I clarified was wrong
If I don't have all the info how am I supposed to help
well i guess i don't understand the question myself sorry
Imma sleep now it's 1 AM 💀
this should be D right
can anyone hlep me with this
Any one knows how to prove this without induction.
I think i just need to prove this equation but I don’t know how to prove it.
it helps to note that those two numbers are the roots of x^2=x+1
I know this, and I know it called the golden ratio, but yet I don’t know how to deal with it .👨🏾🦯
in particular it means that ((1+sqrt5)/2)^2 = ((1+sqrt5)/2)+1
also remember x^(k+1)=x^(k-1)*x^2
I will try this out 👍, thank you
so, i gotta solve this exercise using the chinese remainder theorem, from the first congrugence equation 15a ≡ 10 (35) i can get 15a = 10 (7) and 15a = 10 (5)
but since 15a ≡ 10 (5) <=> 3.5a ≡ 2.5 (5) i can simplify to 3a ≡ 2 (5)
from the third congrugence equation 18a ≡ 24 (30) i get 18a ≡ 24 (6) and 18a ≡ 24 (5)
where 18a ≡ 24 (5) <=> 18a ≡ 24 (5) <=> 3a ≡ 4 (5) but since i had 3a ≡ 2 (5) this means the system is incompatible right?
since 3a has two different remainders when divided by 5
it would, if 3a = 2 mod 5 was actually correct, which it isn't
a = 3 satisfies 15a = 10 mod 35, but not 3a = 2 mod 5
so, what i did wrong was divide both sides by 5? i thought we could do that
or since we are dividing by 5, it is a special case?
yes, the problem is that you divided both sides by zero
you can't do that
5 = 10 mod 5 is true, but 1 = 2 mod 5 is false
15a = 10 mod 5 is the same as 0a = 0 mod 5, so it's actually satisfied by every a
(if you had 15a = 10 mod 25, then it would be valid to conclude 3a = 2 mod 5, but that isn't the situation here)
That’s it right? Thank you🙏
so, in general one can't divide the congrugence equation by some number on both sides, right?
or is there a special case for when we can do that? like if the number we are dividing by is coprime with the modulo
you can divide both sides by any number that has a multiplicative inverse
because i've definetely seen the professor divide both sides by some number casually
because that's the same as just multiplying both sides by the multiplicative inverse
this is basically the same as how it works with real numbers, it wouldn't be valid to take 0*2 = 0*3 and conclude 2 = 3 because there's no 1/0 that you can multiply both sides by
but in the case of mod n, yeah the numbers with multiplicative inverses are the numbers coprime to n
when you say multiplicative inverse, you mean that for x, 1/x is the inverse?
ah but then i don't worry about that since we are working only with integers
well not exactly
so, i just make sure that i divide both sides by a coprime of mod n
even though it's all integers there are multiplicative inverses mod n, they just might not look how you'd expect
for instance the multiplicative inverse of 3 mod 7 is 5
because 3 * 5 = 1 mod 7
and dividing both sides of a mod 7 equation by 3, is "really" just multiplying by 5
so, for your example, i can do something like 3 * 5 ≡ 1 mod 7 <-> 3 * 5 ≡ -6 mod 7
<-> 3 * 5 ≡ 3 * (-2) mod 7 <-> 5 ≡ -2 mod 7 <-> 5 ≡ 5 mod 7 <-> 0 ≡ 0 mod 7 when it should have been 1 ≡ 1 mod 7 right?
well all of those statements are true
i don't really get how you got from "5 = 5 mod 7" to either "0 = 0 mod 7" or "1 = 1 mod 7"
got some theorem that says if a ≡ b (x) and c ≡ d (x) <-> a-c ≡ b-d (x) so i just subtracted 5 to both sides, still, i don't get it fully the multiplicative inverse thing with congrugence equations, gotta study more
but not i know i can divide with confidence as long as i divide by a coprime of mod n, so, thanks
alright yeah that's valid then
it would also have been valid to instead subtract 4 and get 1 = 1 mod 7
basically i don't really get what you were trying to illustrate with that example
or to divide by 5 (or multiply by 3) and get 1 = 1 mod 7 that way instead
well for that example i divided by a number which was not a multiplicative inverse and everything that came out after the division was valid, right?
(or to just say "well every number is equal to itself mod anything" and skip all the steps)
well you divided by 3, which does have a multiplicative inverse
it's the same as if you multiplied by 5
also dividing by a number that doesn't have a multiplicative inverse doesn't always give the wrong answer, it's just not valid in general
"7 = 56 mod 7, therefore 1 = 8 mod 7 by dividing both sides by 7", dividing both sides by 7 isn't a valid step here but it happens to result in an answer that's true anyway
hmm, yeah, since the remainder of 7 and 56 divided by 7 should be 0, not 1 like what we get on the other congrugence equation
...?
i don't get what you mean
if you take 7 and 56 just considered as integers, and divide them both by 7, you get 1 and 8, where would 0 come from
if you take 7 and 56 considered as integers mod 7, then dividing them by 7 doesn't make any sense, you're dividing zero by zero, there's no reason that the answer "should be 0" when you do that
yes
yeah you are right, my bad
I think you can divide all three numbers though, eg 7≡56 mod 7 implies 1≡8 mod 1
Yes
If you divide the modulo by the gcd of the modulo and the divisor then it will hold
I just finished Chapter 1 of Discrete Mathematics with Applications by Susanna Epp (Edition 5). The book is a bit rough at times but when it slaps it slaps.
At the end of the chapter I was introduced to Graphs and it all clicked. I learned a new way to practically solve basic problems using Graphs.
Dose any one know how to solve this question, in the book it says that S_12=904 that means my answer is wrong.
When you're having fun with Math 
The falling factorial is defined to be the number of permutations of length $k$ from an $n$ element set, $$n^{(k)}=n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1).$$I am faced with the following identity $$ \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k k^{(j)} \binom{n}{k} = \sum_{k=j}^n (-1)^k k^{(j)} \binom{n}{k}.$$ Why does the sum start from $k=j$?
Hello all! I'm new here and am trying to self study discrete maths. Could anyone suggest a short book for that?
can someone please help me understand this proof?
I don't get why would a eulerian graph imply that the sum is even
For purposes of odd or even, we can ignore differences in signs: the sum of phi(v)+phi(w) has the same parity as the sum of |phi(v)-phi(w)|.
But the sum of phi(v)+phi(w) is just the sum of all the labels weighted by the degree of each vertex.
And the degrees are always even in an Eulerian graph.
Rightt I think I get it now
Actually nvm i thought of something that wouldn’t work because of the absolute value
Wait actually I think it would
Can’t we say that the sum phi(v)-phi(w) for all connected vertices v and w would equal 0 thus be even
Yeah, if you take care to sum each edge in the direction the Eulerian curcuit uses it in.
Yes exactly
One final question, the labels here are edge labels or vertex labels?
Vertex labels, sorry.
My uni's real analysis course uses the injection f to prove the countability of the cartesian product of the natural numbers, but my uni's discrete maths course (and another source I've found) uses the injection g to prove this fact. Are there any reasons real analysis might choose the proof involving f over the proof involving g? Like, are there any particular advantages to using f instead of g to show countability here?
well g only shows injectivity which is a weaker assertion
you then need schröder bernstein to get a bijection and that theorem doesnt really give you an intuitive bijection
or well, at least I've never thought about how the bijective function that theorem constructs looks like in that case
compared to that, f is a quite natural bijection
Could somebody please check if my proof is legit?
\documentclass{article}
\usepackage{amsmath, amssymb}
\begin{document}
\section*{Question:}
(5 points) Let (G) be a connected graph and let (P) be a simple path in (G). Prove that there exists a spanning tree (T) of (G) that contains the path (P).
\section*{Answer:}
\subsection*{Proof by Induction on the Number of Cycles in the Graph}
\textbf{Base Case:} \
If there are no cycles in the graph (G), then (G) is already a tree. Since (G) is connected and (P) is a simple path in (G), (P) is already part of the tree. Thus, the base case is proven.
\textbf{Inductive Step:} \
Assume the statement is true for any connected graph with (k-1) cycles. That is, for any connected graph with (k-1) cycles and a simple path (P), there exists a spanning tree containing (P).
Now, let (G) be a connected graph with (k) cycles, and let (P) be any simple path in (G).
\textbf{Case 1: (P) is not part of any cycle:} \
Remove an edge from one of the cycles in (G). Since (G) had (k) cycles, the resulting graph (G') will have (k-1) cycles and will still be connected. By the induction hypothesis, (G') has a spanning tree that contains (P). Since (G') and (G) only differ by one edge, this tree is also a spanning tree of (G).
\textbf{Case 2: (P) is part of a cycle:} \
Select an edge (e) from the cycle that is not part of (P). Removing this edge from (G) will still keep the graph connected (since (e) was part of a cycle), resulting in a new graph (G'') with (k-1) cycles. By the induction hypothesis, (G'') has a spanning tree that includes (P). Again, this tree is a spanning tree of (G).
\textbf{Conclusion:} \
The proof is complete. By induction, for any connected graph (G) and any simple path (P) in (G), there exists a spanning tree of (G) that contains (P).
\end{document}
homer
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I'd really appreciate it if someone could read it :3
You’ve assumed what you want to prove at the start
So no
Although you can tweak this to make a valid proof
Essentially you’ve proved the reverse direction
hmm
You’ve proven $\frac 1x \text{ irrational } \implies x \text{ irrational }$
Pseudonium
But this is true
ahhh dang it
yeah a contraposition
thanks
I see
hey can someone explain how thm 15 implies cor 16 i cant find the contradiction argument
Can anyone provide a useful "strategy" for counting the number of homomorphisms between two non-cyclic groups ?
There is an exercise "How many homomorphisms exist between (Z,+) and (Q,+)?" so the integers and the rational numbers together with the standard addition.
I know the solution and I read something about generator elements but it was mainly about cyclic groups. In the solution they also talk about that it basically all depends on what element from Q the 1 in Z is mapped to. Which seemed quite similar to me.
I am not exactly great at algebra so I would really appreciate it if someone could give some useful insight on how to approach such exercises
There is no general method that works every time, but yes exactly it is usually helpful to think about generators.
Generally, I'd say the standard-ish strategy would be (a) identify a good set of generators for the domain; (b) work out which conditions the elements in the codomain they map to need to satisfy in order to produce a homomorphism; (c) figure out a way to count the combinations of codomain elements that satisfy those conditions.
As it happens, Z has a very nice property that makes calculating Hom(Z, G) – where G is any group – very straightforward. It may be interesting to you to try and figure out why this is the case.
@brave rock @coral parcel big thanks to both of you for your help!
ok I will think about it thank you !
so do I understand it correctly that for (Z, + ) the set of generators is {0,1}?
(Z,+) is generated by the single element 1.
Hold on tropo
0 does not generate Z
There is more than one generator of Z, but 0 is not one of them.
1 does indeed generate Z. There is one more single element that generates Z. Can you think of what it is?
Oh I understand, because every element has to be expressable from each generating element , correct ?
it should be -1 right ?
by Hom(Z,G) you mean the number of homomorphisms from Z to G ?
the set of homomorphisms from Z to G
oh alright , thanks !
it's just that if you know what that set is like, one of the properties that's easy to deduce from that is how many there are
could you give me a hint on what that property is ? Is it that it is abelian ? Or that it has a single generating element ?
Whats confusing me rn is that there could also be groups G where there is no homomorphism from Z to G, right ?
but that should not be a problem
So, Hom(Z, G) is only being considered as a set here
I don’t think it has a group structure
At least not in general
Ok maybe it does actually but
We’re considering it as a set for now
but the point was that Z has a very nice property ?
Yes
I dont understand what you said sorry
I think I misunderstood sorry
oh ok
no no
well ok , so the neutral element 0 has to go to the neutral element of G , certainly
Yep
then the rest depends on where 1 is sent
In what way?
So explicitly, suppose we have $\phi : \mathbb{Z} \to G$ a group homomorphism
I think what Boytjie was after is that (a) it has a single generating element, plus (b) it is "freely generated" by that single element.
Pseudonium
How exactly does $\phi$ depend on $\phi(1)$?
Pseudonium
its because $\phi(n) = \phi (\sum_{i=1}^{n} 1) = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \phi(1) = n \cdot \phi(1)$
barış
for all n in Z
what do you mean by "freely generated" ?
This has the effect that there's a bijection between "homomorphisms Z->G" and "elements of G", which is definitely a nice property.
Right, I would denote that as $\phi(n) = \phi(1)^n$
Pseudonium
aaa spoilers
why to the power of n ?
Just cause usually the group operation is thought of as multiplication
Addition is reserved for abelian groups
But its equivalent to what you wrote really
oh of course, such a bijection is nice for sure
wdym by "reversed" ?
So how do you go the other way? Given an element of G, how can you define a group hom Z -> G?
There's a technical definition for "freely generated", but I'm not sure I have a way to describe it that makes natural sense at the abstraction level of this conversation.
We’ve seen that given a group hom $\phi : \mathbb{Z} \to G$, we can get an element of G by evaluating $\phi(1)$
Pseudonium
Now we want to reverse this process
I am not sure why ?
That’s what bijection means, remember
oh right sorry my bad
we want to find the bijection between Hom(Z,G) and G, right ?
Yep
okk give me a moment to think
I understand, thank you
but actually
the homomorphism is not complete, is it ?
I said n in Z
but it should be n in N
Wait why…?
dont we have to consider the case were n < 0 seperately ?
In order for the recipe to work, we need the convention that g^(-n) means the inverse element of g^n.
Yes that’s true
you're correct that your earlier argument only works for n in N, because for instance ``$\sum_{i=1}^{-5} 1$'' doesn't make much sense, but that isn't a problem with the homomorphism itself, just with your argument
bee [it/its]
I see
okk then give me a moment to think about the other direction of the bijection
(This is already built into the notation g^-1 for the inverse element in the first place).
makes sense
As far as I can see in the conversation we already have both directions of the correspondence -- if anything is missing that'll just be lining them up nicely and putting labels on them, but all the necessary things themselves have been said already,
so it should be that given a g in G we say phi(1) = g , then this determines the homomorphism because now for any n in Z we have phi(n) = n \cdot g , right ?
Yes that’s the idea
cool
This is sometimes called the “universal property of Z”
interesting
It tells you how Z relates to all other groups G in the “universe”
Because it describes what Hom(Z, G) is
Or if you want the completely abstract nonsense,
It’s just in bijection with the elements of G
"Z represents the forgetful functor".
Sure yeah
I'll take the "universe" description
lmao
Would you like to hear about other free groups?
thanks to you all for helping me out so much
I am still not sure what a free group is but sure
I'd like to
So unfortunately
It’ll be a little difficult to tell you what a free group is
But I can do something else
I read about free monoid
I can tell you what a free group “does” first
Well the free group is just like the free monoid except it's a group 
I.e. the universal property of a free group
How it relates to other groups in the universe
So, suppose we have a set with n elements (for now, n is finite)
There’s a way to define a free group on n elements, F_n
And I can tell you what Hom(F_n, G) bijects with
unfortunately I really only read about it, I didnt really spent time thinking bout it
Namely, homomorphisms F_n -> G correspond to elements of G^n
So you pick n elements from G, in order
And you get a homomorphism F_n -> G
Conversely, every homomorphism F_n -> G uniquely picks out n elements from G, in order
So e.g. Z works as F_1
Because homomorphisms Z -> G biject with elements of G^1
Does that make sense?
I understnad yes
I haven’t showed that such an F_n actually exists
We know F_1 exists though, cause Z works
So I haven’t told you what F_n “is”
I’ve just told you what it “does”, how to use it, how it relates to other groups
By telling you its universal property
And indeed, you’d have to separately prove that such an F_n exists
in the definition of a free monoid is says that a Monoid M = (N, o) is is called free over a proper subset A of N if every element n in N can be uniquely represented as a product of k elements a1 o a2 o ... o ak from A
yes of course
Would you like to hear about the general definition of free group, on a set X?
yes
Again, it’s a little tricky to say what it “is”
I mean there is an explicit construction
But proving it’s a group is not trivial
Another (quite handwavy but perhaps more vivid) to say it could be:
Suppose we have some arbitrary set S. The "free group on S" means a group that (a) contains each element of S, (a1) provides some way to combine those elements in a group operation, (b) has as many different elements other than those elements from S as possible under the condition that (c) every element of the group can be made by starting from elements of S and using the group operations (multiplication, inverses) a finite number of times.
If we make this precise it can be proved that there's exactly one group (up to isomorphism) that satisfies the conditions.
So instead I’ll just tell you what it “does”
I.e. the universal property
So, given a set X, we make some group F[X]
Such that group homomorphisms F[X] -> G bijectively correspond to elements of G^X
I.e. functions X -> G
Given a group hom, you get a function
And given a function, you get a group hom
Note that elements of G^n can be viewed as functions from {1, 2, .., n} to G
thank you , I think I understand the idea
Again, I haven’t shown that such a F[X] exists
yes
It’s something you’d have to separately prove
I’ve only told you what it “does”, rather than what it “is”
thank you very much for telling me so much about it
No problem! This is the kind of maths I really like
it is very interesting
Universal properties crop up in lots and lots of different places in math
seems a bit deeper than the "usual" math I know so far
The general idea is to tell you what something “does”
How it relates to other things, how to use it
Rather than tell you what it “is” through an explicit construction
I think I get the idea
but most likely
some month from now , when I might have read a book on algebra , I will look back on this conversation and realize how little I understood xD
but still you all helped me out a lot, thanks again for that !
Always fun to see people finding category theory cool
זה מוכר לי
אבל למה צריך מכפלה
אני יכול למצוא את הפונקציה
נלכסן
זה דיסקרטית תוכיח תזהת
לא
Why are math books written so convoluted and not straightforward?
One example :
"Every integer a =/ 0 has the trivial parts +-1 and +-1 since a = (+-1)(+-a). Divisors of a, which are not trivial, are called real divisors. An integer p >= 2, which has only the parts +-1 and +-p, is called a prime number. An integer >=2, which is not a prime number, is called a composite number."
Why can't they just say. It's a prime number if it's only divisible by 1 or itself. Otherwise it's a composite number.
Why in the hell do they write books in such a disgusting way? It makes it sooo hard for me to read, learn and understand what they are talking about. Is this normal practice?
Because it introduces more terminology than just prime
It introduces the terms trivial parts and real divisors as well
Also because "it's a prime number if it's only divisible by 1 or itself" is wrong since 2 is divisible by -1 and -2 for example
If you wanted to specify positive divisors then that statement would be correct
Yes that might be so. But how is someone who just started reading at University meant to be able to read and understand this correctly? It feels so surreal that every and all math books are written like this. It leans more towards being a book of terminology instead of a book for learning.
Nonzero chance it's a not the best written book but also reading like this is how you learn
You shouldn't be trying to read this quickly
It's densely written so it will take time to process
@ashen bane
תעשה באינדוקציה
לא הצלחתי
איך אתה עושה דיסקרטית? לא נגמר הסמסטר אפילו
bluds are speaking cardinality
I am trying to show the set of all algebraic numbers is countable. \
Let $A_n:={x \in \mathbb R: \sum_{k=0}^n a_kx^k=0, \text{ for some }a_k \in \mathbb Z}$. My idea is to show that $A_n$ is countable. Notice $\sum_{k=0}^na_kx^k=0$ has atmost $n$ roots for a particular n tuple $(a_0, \cdots , a_n) \in \mathbb Z^{n+1}$. Thus $A_n \sim \mathbb Z^{n+1}$ (not pretty sure about it) and hence is countable as $\mathbb Z^{n+1}\sim \mathbb N$.
Afzal
Does it look correct?
i think the overall idea is correct. a better way to go about it would be to write A_n as the union of a bunch of finite sets
@gusty dome
Union of sets corresponding to each n tuple of integers?
for each polynomial f with integer coefficients, you know that f^{-1}(0) is finite
$A_n = \bigcup_{(a_0,\cdots ,a_n)\in \mathbb Z^{n+1} \text{ with } a_n \neq 0}{x:\sum a_kx^k=0}$
Afzal
yup
Oh yes. Lemme try to formally do the proof again
if you want more concise notation, set $P_n = {f\in\mathbb{Z}[x] : \text{deg}(f) = n}$ so that
$$A_n = \bigcup_{f \in P_n}f^{-1}(0)$$
c squared
(sorry i mistakenly touched on delete)
you know that $P_n$ is countable, since it injects into $\mathbb{Z}^{n+1}$
c squared
Oh that's really concise!
Do you mean bijects?
But what about the 0 tuple?
degree zero polynomials are constant polynomials with non-zero integer coefficients
Yes. I see how A_n is written. We are combining (taking union) of all roots of each polynomial in integer ring with degree n.
right, but how do you show that the algebraic numbers are countable knowing that each A_n is countable
Using the fact that countable¡union of countable sets is countable so $\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb N} A_n$ is countable
Afzal
alr sweet
Thank you! I will try the polished proof!
Is it looks good? (sorry for late I was busy)
This is authors solution but I did not understand first four lines I mean from the set (stated in first line) is defined
I see how the red ones are a strong congruence, but not the other 2
In particular I don't see how it holds when taking q, q' in the left class
https://arxiv.org/pdf/2401.15384
In case it's too small (page 15)
how do i do this?
Since his retirement, Jack goes for walk Monday to Friday, for 3 hours on each
of these 5 days. On average he walks 1.5 miles every hour. Find the probability that the 3rd day
that Jack walks more than 8 miles is on Friday, the last day of walking week?
its probability but idk its confusing
i am confused
maybe they tell you what distribution to use, like they describe it right before the problem?
In probability theory and statistics, the Poisson distribution is a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event. It can also be used for the number of even...
it doesn't make sense to model it as poisson, but i have no better idea myself
can you please help me with this question
i need to calculate number of walks from s, of length n, now in their answer they defined only 3 recursive formulas
i defined 6, idk why how they defined only 3
i'd love if someone could explain it to me :3
Looks like total distance he walks is only 22½ miles, so there cannot be three days with 8 or more miles.
Maybe they use the symmetry, in that you just have to count walks whose first step is towards the upper left vertex, and then multiply the result by 2?
Tbh someone from my class already helped me
i for some reason thought i should end the path in s
but it wasnt written in the question
so i got basically stupid
Hi can I get help here
I got this [given (G,* ) and the subset H of G is not empty I need to show that (H,* ) satisfies all the axioms of a group except for identity element]
Well this is false for most subsets H so you're going to have to add context.
Its difficult to find
OK so the answer is this is false.
I think maybe I explained in a wrong direction the question is to give an example for a set G that satisfies the axioms to be a group and to have H as a sub set which satisfies closure inverse element and Associative property but not the identity
I don't understand what you're saying. Maybe you could just post the question.
"Given a set ( (G, *) ) that forms a group and a non-empty subset ( H \subset G ), provide an example where ( (H, *) ) satisfies the properties of closure, having an inverse element, and associativity, but does not satisfy the identity element property."
AHM3d
Hint: for any group G, there is exactly one set H that might have this property
Second hint: suppose x is an element of H. What do the closure and inverse properties together imply?
I will take the hints and think about it thank you very much
Three numbers a,b,c in that order, are in geometric sequence with common ratio r.
Given further that a,2b,c in that order, are in arithmetic sequence, determine the possible value(s) of r.
I am unaware on how to solve a question like this does anyone have a text book or video they can guide me towards so i can learn i have frantikly searching for a method or teaching but cant and ChatGPT wont teach it to me XD
Express b and c in terms of a and r. Then write down an equation stating that a, 2b, c is in arithmetic sequence.
Ari helped me sovle that thankfully i get it now but now im stuck on another question 😭
I'm reading through Terence Tao's Analysis, and I'm currently on the set theory chapter, but I'm a little confused on his definition of generalised intersection. Here's how its defined: \
For some non empty index set $I$, a set $A_\alpha$ assigned to each $\alpha \in I$, as well as some $\beta \in I$, we can define the intersection as
$$ \bigcap_{\alpha \in I} A_\alpha \coloneq {x \in A_\beta : \forall \alpha \in I (x \in A_\alpha)} $$
I understand how the definition results in the intersection of all sets $A_\alpha$, but I dont get why you couldn't just define it to be
$$ \bigcap_{\alpha \in I} A_\alpha \coloneq {x : \forall \alpha \in I (x \in A_\alpha)} ,$$
since the fact that $x \in A_\beta$ is already built into the second part of the definition. Is there some reason why its defined the way it is?
QuantumBaqel
If the index set I were empty, your second definition would be attempting to produce a set of all sets, which is not allowed.
Picking a particular A_beta to take a subset of makes clear that the whole thing can be justified as an application of the Axiom of Separation (or whatever Tao calls that axiom; it has a bunch of different names).
Oh that makes sense, thanks!
hi everyone
I need some help with my assignment just to better understand the material cause I'm self doubting myself here
What does it mean by the 3rd rule ?
means all clubs are diferent
So there is no member which is in intersection of any two clubs ?
...no? where did you get that from
{A, B, C, D} and {A, B, E, F} are different clubs
they both have A and B in them, but one has C in them and the other doesn't, so they're not identical
Did the easiest graph theory problem set but was pretty fun to do
Okay thank you
Whoops discord did not load sry for ping
if the cartesian product of 2 sets A, B is defined by the set {(a,b) such that a in A and b in B} then why is the cartesian product of A, B, C the set {(a,b,c) such that a in A and b in B and c in C} rather than {((a,b), c) such that a in A and b in B and c in C} ? or rather why is the cartesian product of 3 sets not an ordered pair containing an ordered pair but instead being an ordered triple?
We simply write it like that by convention
You are right to point this out, but this is just something mathematicians do to make their lives easier.
is ((a,b),c) = (a,b,c)?
or by convention it's just a different operation?
This may as well be true, yes
This is pretty much the conversion that people make
But the whole point is that mathematicians usually don't want to deal with this kind of annoying detail so we just write (a,b,c)
yes but i've always associated n-tuples with vectors so it's just confusing to me xd
All that's really important is that you can be sure that (x1,x2,x3) and (y1,y2,y3) can only be equal if x1=y1 and x2=y2 and x3=y3.
Which particular things we choose for the notation (x1,x2,x3) to mean should not matter, as long as thy satisfy this/
There are a few rare-ish contexts where we also want to be sure that, say, (x1,x2,x3) and (y1,y2) are never the same thing (such that we can put both kinds into the same set and trust we can distinguish which is which when we take them out again). When that's the case we'll need to choose something else than nested pairs for representing the triples.
It's common that not a lot of fanfare is made of this, but instead it is left to the reader to notice it, in the rare cases where the reader is particularly interested in the details for formalizing the stuff that's happening in some foundational framework.
I am working on exercise 8.5.13 and I am almost done.
I know why {y \in Y: y<= a} = {y \in Y': y <= a} = {y \in Y \cap Y': y <= a} and I know why that shows why Y \cap Y' is good.
However, I am having trouble showing that s(Y \cap Y') = min(Y' - Y) when Y'-Y is nonempty
I want to use the universal property of min, but I don't know why s(Y \ cap Y') is forced to be in Y'-Y when Y'-Y is nonempty or why s(Y \cap Y') is less than any element of Y'-Y when Y'-Y is nonempty
Any guidance would be appreciated!
I found this post explaining it, so I now know how most of the answer to my previous question, but I am not sure about the following:
I am not sure why s(Y \cap Y') is a strict upper bound of Y'
Also y is a typo and should be y'
Also when the author says "since otherwise there is an element y'...", it looks like Y \cup Y' was assumed to be a total order.
not every element of Y\Y' being a strict upper bound of Y' means the same thing as:
There exists a y' \in Y\Y' and an element y'' \in Y' such that (not (y'' < y')).
You can't convert the (not (y'' < y')) to a y''>= y unless Y \cup Y' is a total order
maybe use proof by contradiction?
For which statement? there are multiple.
In this part, we only have not(y'>= y''). To go from not(y'>= y'') to y'' > y', we need to know Y \cup Y' is a total order
This part was also a detail left out of the original stack exchange post that I wasn't able to fill in
I only know that s(Y \cap Y') is a strict upper bound of Y \cap Y'.
The statement claims it's a strict upper bound of Y', and I don't see how that follows from it being a strict upper bound of Y \cap Y'
Show that planar graph has at least 4 nodes of degree 5 of less
Actually we know automatically that Y \cup Y' is a total order because Y is a subset of Y' and vice versa. We know the previous statement because Y-Y'=empty or Y'-Y=empty
I now realize that Y \cap Y' is Y', which proves this claim
When doing proofs, is one allowed to make up an example to prove or disprove something?
If your claim is "there exists x such that ..." then this is provable by example.
No other kind of proposition necessarily follows from an example.
N.b. "Not all things x have the property that..." is equivalent to something of the form "there exists an x such that ..."
You can prove existential claims by showing the thing exists
You can disprove universal claims by finding a counterexample
ah thank you i understand
Does anyone know of a graph algorithm which could generate the right graph from the left? The right graph is a graph which contains all possible new edges which could be added to the left graph which would keep it acyclic
There's a cycle between B_ and C_
Also do you just want a maximal way to add edges? It won't necessarily be unique
I think I have an idea but I have no confirmation if it's a correct idea.
a sorry I wasn't clear enough - any single edge in the right hand graph could be added to the left hand graph while keeping the left hand graph unique
duplicate edges are allowed
each time a new edge is added on the left, the right graph will need to be recalculated
But that doesn't answer my question that the right hand graph isn't acyclic
Ohhhh wait I see
NVM NVM
I understand now
The algorithm I have in my head runs in O(n^3) time
Very brute force
Do u mean acyclic instead of unique here?
currently my idea is to do a transitive closure -> transpose -> for each vertex get the list of out_edges, minus that list from the full set of all vertices. But i have no idea of the complexity of that
ah yes I do, thanks
Do you know what a topological sort is?
yep
Cool
Then my idea is basically test every possible edge
For each possible edge, add it, see if topological sort exists
If it does, add edge to result graph
There's gotta be a smarter way
Is the input always a tree?
It's always a directed acyclic graph
Although I guess it could be any graph since if it isn't acyclic you can't add any edges lol
hmm I wonder if I take the transitive closure of the transposed graph's complement?
How does that help? I don't follow
(I've never looked at this problem before so I'm just spitballing here)
Actually what you want is the reversed complement of the transitive closure, as far as I can tell.
I think that produces the result. The complement removes all which would create direct loops just by its nature, then the transitive closure fills in the remaining ones which "jump across" branches
oh yes maybe the other way round
I'll just run through an example on paper to check
sorry if my wording isn't proper, I haven't actually studied much graph theory I've just come across these problems through some electronics projects
Once I get to some paper I'll try this, I don't see it
by "reversed" do you mean the transposed graph?
Uh, I suppose it could be called that too.
All the edges that are not opposite to something in the transitive closure.
okay I've run through it on paper with a couple graphs and I think you are correct @coral parcel . Take the first graph, generate its transitive closure -> then the complement of that -> then the transposition/reverse of that. I might try to generate some more complex examples which I can test with code to be sure but it seems right to me
thanks so much for your help everyone!
how do you prove a is in A but b is not in C therefore (a,b) is not in A x C? formally
So you want to prove that $a \in A$ and $b \notin B \implies (a, b) \notin A \times B$. What ideas do you have? (changed $C$ to $B$ just for clarity)
Spamakin🎷
yes, i don't even know how you would start which is why im asking
No ideas?
Nah I think we can do something easier than that (in fact since we are dealing with single elements idk how set builder would help in a not convoluted way)
Do you know what the contrapositive of an implication is?
sure
is that "sure" a yes or a not quite?
yea ok
someone1010
so try to prove the contrapositive
i don't have that statement though
Spamakin🎷
well technically but i'm not sure how you would get that statement as this is part of a 2-col proof
i have the statements
a in A
b not in B
how would you prove (a,b) not in A x B
does it have to be 2 column in this format? Do you have to prove directly and not via contrapositive?
A x B = {(a,b) | a in A and b in B}
oh wait you would just demorgans and then that's done
can u elaborate
so what would it mean for (a, b) to not be in A x B?
Lets rewrite the definition using different variables just to keep things clearer
no clue
A x B = {(x,y) | x in A and y in B}
so if (x, y) is in A x B, then x is in A and y is in B right?
just by definition
yup
this is an implication. Can you take the contrapositive of this?
this is why 2 column is fucking dumb man 😭
it would be 10x easier if you could write sentences and such rather than 2 column nonsense
I'm actually struggling myself to think how to write this in some 2 column format
even though I have the proof in my head just using sentences
which would be clearer
it seems quite easy to proof it via contradiction
but i don't think that's possible
or by contrapositive
these proofs make me wanna die
Prove that F = {(x, y) ∣ x ⋅ y ∈ Z^+} on the set Z is a transitive relation with 2 col
how tf you do cases in 2 col ?
ok you can do cases but that'll take like 100 steps
Let P(x, y) =“x has parked their car in suburb y”.
Let N(x, y) =“x is a nicer suburb than y”
rewrite the following statement:
There is a nicer suburb than all the suburbs somebody has parked in.
can someone help me with this 🥲
Do you have an attempt?
(Oh I see you also posted in #proofs-and-logic, where someone already engaged. Please don't post the same question in several different channels).
sorry mb i forgot to remove it, didnt realsie that there was proofs and logic channel 😬
A certain neighborhood has 80 total households.
Which of the following statements individually provide(s) sufficient additional information to determine the number of households in the neighborhood that have a swimming pool or a yard, but not both.
A) 30 households have a swimming pool, 39 households have a yard only, and 11 households have neither.
B) 30 households have a swimming pool, 46 households have a yard, and 11 households have neither.
C) 7 households have both a swimming pool and a yard and 11 households have neither
Is A wrong because 80 = 30 + (39 + x) - x + 11 can't actually be solved and thus the intersection can be anything from 0<= intersection <= 30?
I'd say A is wrong because neither of the numbers you have there makes any distinction between "pool and yard" and "pool, no yard".
is that a verbal description of my equation?
basically the x's cancel out?
I meant it as "we don't even need to write down that equation".
None of those givens would change if we add a yard to a house that already has a pool, or remove the yard from a house with both.
But those changes do change the number we want to determine.
ah yeah you mean the both can be anything? cuz i can just sya something like 10 households could have a house with swimming pool and yard
and that doesn't change thd description of the sentence
that 10 could be 20 as well, for example
but then the maximum is 30, correct? cuz you can't have 31 houses with yards + swimming pool? so in a way we can bound it but we can't be certain what exactly the number is?
Right.
So we can say there's somewhere between 39 and 69 houses (inclusive) with "pool XOR yard".
sure thanks
Does C has 19 elements?
mext?
Yes
it’s just principle of inclusion exclusion, i can’t calculate it rn cuz im doing something, but it’s just using the formula tbh
PIE for 3 sets
Thr answer is 92
i couldn't find a graph theory chat so ill put it in here since its the closest
so im trying to prove that if a simple graph G is 2 connected then that implies there exists two u-v paths P and Q that are internally disjoint. Its a proof by contrapositive so given that the graph has no two internally disjoint paths I'm trying to show its not two connected. My argument is basically that if there is no internally disjoint paths connecting some u and v in G then there exists some vertex I'll call x which is the last point of intersection of all u-v paths with path P which must exist because if it didn't then it would be a disconnected set. removing x disconnects the graph which means it's not 2 connected
does that make any sense
another one
This isn't true
Take arbitrarily many empty sets
well they need to be different subsets
i translated this myself so it may be not that clear but they are supposed to be different subsets
im assuming n >= 2?
yeah
First notice $\Omega=\bigcup_{i=1}^nA_i$
Sara
And that for $i\neq j$, $|A_i\cap A_j|<2$
Sara
Those should help
oh yeah thats right
Hi, I am new here and hope this is allowed here, let me know if it's not. I am trying to prove that in the coin change problem, the greedy algorithm is optimal for US coin denomination of 1 cent, 5 cents, 10 cents and 25 cents. I prove it by induction but the base case seems a bit long. Want to see if anyone can give some feedback/suggestions?
wow yes that base case is indeed very long
i'm also not really convinced that you actually proved the statement?
like you've shown that this gives a way of making change, but how do you know there isn't some clever collection of coins that's faster than just taking as many 25s as you can get
this isn't true in general for arbitrary denominations - if you add a 24 cent coin to the set, then the greedy algorithm still works perfectly coins below 25, but splits 29 as 25 + 2 + 2 instead of the more efficient 24 + 5
Yes, this algorithm doesn't work for arbitrary denomination. I am trying to prove specifically for US denominations of 1 cent, 5 cents, 10 cents and 25 cents.
well it does work in the sense that it produces change at all, as long as there's a 1 cent coin
...and that's all you've proven
the property that makes 1/5/10/25 special is that the greedy algorithm is optimal, and you haven't written anything resembling a proof of that
and my point with the 24 cent coin is that nothing you wrote actually distinguishes that case from 1/5/10/25, so if it was valid reasoning it would also prove that the greedy algorithm is optimal in a case where it actually isn't
So I made the argument that for any amount greater than 25, I can just repeatedly take 25 cents (which is optimal) until the amount is less than 25, and when it's less than 25, I have showed in the base case that it is also optimal.
I don't understand your 24 cent coin point though. I know that for other denomination it doesn't work. I am new to this so I really appreciate you taking a look, please elaborate on why I have to consider other coins when I have restricted the problem?
which is optimal
you never proved it was optimal, you just proved that it's something you can do

