#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 54 of 1
elrichardo1337
Why is this anti symmetric ?
hint: how does it fit the definition of antisymmetry?
If (6,2) exist it breaks, think more from here. and read the definition again
It satisfies the definition
Well, if x related to y, then y related to x, then x = y. In this case 2 to 6, but 6 doesnt go to 2
how
That's not the definition
If x is related to y and y is related to x, then x = y
This is the definition of antisymmetry
Wait isnt that what i said
"Well, if x related to y, then y related to x, then x = y"
No
im confused
You are saying that y should be related to x when x is related to y
There is no such assumption in the definition
"Well, if x related to y, then y related to x, then x = y"
ekafeman
that's what it reads like
(I just used the tilde because it's one of the many symbols that exist)
liar, you like the tilde
read the definition word by word
10 times, maybe with a dictionary
Mfw implication is not associative
The first "then" here should be an "and"
I need some help with the following: Consider the set {-4, -2, 0, 2, 4}. I want to figure out all the possible numbers of the form a + b + c with a,b,c distinct elements of that set, and for each possible value, I want to know how many different ways we can get it. For example, we can get 0 as -4 + 0 + 4 or -2 + 0 + 2 and nothing else
The only way of solving this I can think of is to brute-force it. Is there any other way of doing this?
For example, I know the answer to this problem if instead of a+b+c with a,b,c distinct, we are interested in values of the form a + b with a,b distinct. Is there a way to use this information in order to make it easier to solve this?
Ignoring the x = 0 typo (I'm sure that's supposed to be x = y), that is indeed (equivalent to) antisymmetry if we associate to the right here, i.e. x ~ y -> (y ~ x -> x = y).
I don't think
but one thing you can do is make your life easier by proving an upper bound on the possible value of a + b + c
and then similarly prove a lower bound on a + b +c
then you only have to brute force numbers between those
from there you could argue that you don't need to check for sums of odd numbers
you could use this as a black box
say you want to test if a + b + c = d
then fix c
find a + b that add up to d - c
and combine answers appropriately
The second attempt is me trying to work from the books example
my thinking was r squared should be a multiple of three but i couldn't properly show how
sorry the question was prove sqrt(3) is irrational
@edgy lintel I believe the same idea holds for sqrt(3) as it does for sqrt(2). This error doesn't arise for rational roots like root(4) since that is simply 2/1 and thus satisfies the definition of a rational number. So consider the proof as follows:
Assume sqrt(3) is rational. Then there exists a p and q such that sqrt(3) = p/q and q does not equal 0. Wihout loss of generality assume p/q is in lowest form (or reduced form i.e no common factors besides 1). Well then squaring both sides yield 3 = p^2 / q^2 and this implies 3q^2 = p^2. Well then 3 is a common factor and we have reached our contradiction and sqrt(3) is therefore irrational.
Not 100% sure but that should be on the correct track.
Ah I see yeah, that should be an and like the other person said
But even then, nothing on that screenshot represents the definition of anti symmetry ?
I think I might be cooked man, atp I can only memorise variations of questions and hope for the best ☠️ understanding the underylying logic has me finished
everyone else in the lecture seems to click with things so fast
how to simplify this boolean algebra expression? ad+c'b'+b'd'+c'a'
@hard citrus
there must be something else, my lec told me it should be the sup of 3 products with 2 literals each
Everything can be abstracted as some structure in some sense, every structure that does't violent the definition are called met the definition/be the defined thing in this case are called being anti-symmetry so everything that exists and can be abstracted(such as graphs) and not violating the definition of anti-symmetry can be called anti-symmetry. If I can be abstracted by some explanation as some structure which doesn't violent the definition of anti-symmetry then I'm anti-symmetry as well.
Another example, an empty set {} is anti-symmetry.
References:
predicate logic:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First-order_logic
First-order logic—also known as predicate logic, quantificational logic, and first-order predicate calculus—is a collection of formal systems used in mathematics, philosophy, linguistics, and computer science. First-order logic uses quantified variables over non-logical objects, and allows the use of sentences that contain variables, so that rat...
If I have g(x) = 1/(1-2x) the image of g(x) under the mapping g(x) -> g(x/(1-x^2)) would be (1-x^2)/(1-x^2-2x) right?
So the word g is overloaded and the pre-image can be R i guess
If the following notation "->" can be read as "=" it will be more familiar to me
If so It would be like (1-2x)/(4x^2-4x) i guess?
How did you get that fomula
The way I got my formula, is thinking of f(x) = 1/(1-2x) and g(x) = x/(1-x^2) then f(g(x)) = 1/(1-2(x/(1-x^2))) which can be rearranged to (1-x^2)/(1-x^2-2x).
I was thinking that the "g(x) under the mapping" meant the same thing as the way I got f(g(x)) above but I guess they mean different things?
so lets say you get g_1(g_2(x)) when i read as g_2(g_1(x)), where you called g_1 as f there
I think "a set S under a mapping f" means there is a corresponding image set T such that f: S->T.
Ok, thanks
I think here "=" should't be used, whenever we use "=" to describe mapping we need a word(it's like the predicate but not sure) such as "f"/"f(g(x))" but here isn't such a "f" so your notation looked correct. @true venture
Ok, I will have to look into mapping more.
so in this sentence g(x) -> g(x/(1-x^2)) there isnt explicit word/placeholder for the mapping we are talking about, both g(x) and g(x/...) are representing some sets like pre-image and image
But this answers my question, being that what I had written as f(g(x)) is different than the statement about g(x).
The mapping statement is a comment on from the oeis,
Written in full "Image of 1/(1-2x) under the mapping g(x) -> g(x/(1+x^2))."
I misunderstood that statement to be what I was doing with f(g(x))
The image became a pre-image later in this case.
I'm cs major so i might be wrong tho
OK now i get you, all good
@true venture you can try google "under the mapping" to force search including these words
I'm afraid i misled you @true ventureneed someone else to explain.
No worries.
Ohhh okay
After some more readings, i think your original way is correct, but according to the definition here you might have to find out a set or an interval corresponding to the image set of (1-x^2)/(1-x^2-2x). But still i hope someone who is familiar with those can confirm.
which i think is R{0}
@wide sentinel I found something about the graph representation
Could someone please point me in the direction of the correct topics to research to be able to awnser a question like this. (i have no previous knowlage). Many thanks
I think my main issue is simply approaching the relations questions
I know that equal is symmetric yet I got a lil nervous and said no for some reason ☠️
for S
Because the way I was thinking was that min(B) has to be a different number, but at the same time i was thinking the relation cant even exist if min (A) and min(B) dont hold the same number
so if the relation exists it will always be symmetric
anti symmetric was fine but the answer they gave was different than what i expected
thats linear algebra
That's basic linear algebra, just with a finite field instead of R or C as the field of scalars. But the computations go just the same way apart from that.
Yeah im gonna read up and watch more videos on digraphs
bro this explains the whole a^phi(b) = 1 for gcd(a,b) = 1 thing
since the set of elements of the natural numbers modulo b whose gcd with b is 1 equipped with multiplication is itself a group
how does the 3 mod 4 part work here?
there is a demonstration of it by Hirschhorn derived from the jacobi triple product
but i honestly don't remember, if you are interested it's able to find it online
Hello! I have a question about the Graceful Tree Conjecture. I am reading about it at the moment and I saw that it was proven for a lot of special cases and tree configurations (most of which are not very popular such as bananas or firecrackers)
Do you guys know of any other special tree configurations where the conjecture is still unproven? Looking online is not really helpful since those obscure trees are not really talked about.
Thank you!
I think this is technically discrete math, i'm like 90% there with understanding this im just a little confused by one part
"It says that a(i) = 1 if any only if i is an element of A"
But it seems to me that in the examples that it gives, like: " a=[01101001] encodes the set A={0, 3, 5, 6}," it's the zeros that encode for the elements of the set? if a(i) = 1 only when i is an element of A, wouldn't A = {1, 2, 4, 7}?
The text says "we write a_w-1 on the left and a_0 on the right" which results in it working out
But that is a bizarre convention
OH i see now, it's totally backwards, it's just a coincidence that the 0s line up with the encoded numbers
like wtf yeah why do it that way
Is it possible to define a DFT over an arbitrary ring as long as you choose a unit with order N?
and if so, are there any ways to actually compute the prime?
I wanted to ask about overflow/underflow errors, precision, floating point numbers and round off errors because I'm kinda confused on how to apply these topics to math problems and how they work
despite learning this in uni
did you have a specific question
not really since the notes just covered the general idea of the topics
well
if there's a way you can compute something that avoids those erroes, we generally prefer to compute it that way
ig the most simple example i can think of is binary searching
are you familiar with the process?
No, I haven't learned about binary searching
catgirl pee
and suppose this x value is large
now if i proceeded naively and simply started with x^100, i would surely overflow
then if i take the 50th root of my overflowed result i wouldn't get an accurate value
instead we can just simplify the expression to x^2 and compute this directly, which will use far less bits than x^100
ig i can just tell you, in binary searching we're interested in a value mid = (left + right) / 2
where left, mid, right are all variables, and mid is just taking the average of left and right
now left + right can overflow
so the common way to circumvent this is to write
mid = left + (right - left) / 2 instead
(right - left) / 2 is small, so adding left to that quantity is small,
I would really appreciate any help
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Numberphile is supported by the Mathematical...
The question seems a bit backwards. It's not like named classes of trees just hang around waiting for things to be proved about them. Instead, it seems likely that most of the special classes you found got a name because someone discovered a proof that the conjecture is true for them.
For example MathWorld https://mathworld.wolfram.com/FirecrackerGraph.html cites the concept of a "firecracker graph" to the same paper that showed they are graceful, and it sounds like the grace is the most interesting thing there is to say about them.
So if you dream of proving the conjecture for some class of trees that haven't been proved yet, the strategy is not start by picking an existing class that still needs a proof, and then attack that class specifically. It is to start by coming up with a proof that is stronger than what is currently available. Then you get to invent a name for the kind of trees that your proof works for -- and if your result is considered interesting enough by other people thinking about graceful trees, they may even start to use the name you came up with ...
That makes sense, thank you! Do you know how I could find all the classes for which the conjecture was proven? I am looking at A Dynamic Survey on Graceful Labeling by JA Gallian but it seems to be missing a few cases
Other than being an expert in the area who follows the literature, such survey papers are your best bet. Sometimes you can be lucky and one of the experts actively maintains a website that's kept up to date with the newest results, but it's hit and miss how to find such a site unless Google happens to be your friend.
is anyone familiar with pigeonhole pricniple?
I'm sure someone is. But see https://dontasktoask.com/
so apparently these are equivalent (n,m are integers >= 2)
i cannot prove it, can someone give a hint?
they both are valid solutions to the same problem
go ahead ask
well im having trouble finding the N and k
when given a problem i find it hard determining N and k
what is N and k in your case
During a month with 30 days, a baseball team plays at least
one game a day, but no more than 45 games. Show that there
must be a period of some number of consecutive days during
which the team must play exactly 14 games.
no way lmao
what
well time to teach it again ig lol
do you already know the solution ?
i meant to say i know what is the answer
there is no real answer, the answer is a proof
yea
yes
that was a brain fart
so regarding pigeon hole principle I usually try to start with the end in mind
whats the basic argument of the pigeon hole principle ?
not sure
whats your understanding
of what
pigeon hole principle
tbh all i know is that if we have 3 boxes and we want to fit 4 pigeons we fit 2 in 1 hole
and by that we get k+1
okk thats the main idea
in general when you have two sets X and Y and you have a function f:X->Y then there is at least one y in Y such that f(x) = y for at least ceil(|X|/|Y|) , x's
but what you said is enough
so basically, when you have objects that we wanna put into boxes and we have more objects than boxes then at least one box has to contain at least a certain amount of elements
now the boxes usually are some type of category
regarding integer valued variables , what could these categories be ?
quick question before this
yeah
well usually youd wanna spread them as evenly as possible
but the pigeon hole principle allows for both
it says "at least one that has at least x amount"
oh ok
no idea
well what do you assign to those variables usually
so what do i asign the boxes and what do i asign the category?
no I mean
when you have variables
a,b,c,d,e
from N
they have values
now if for example we said we only allow values 1,2,3
ok
then what do we know ?
so how do we fit 1,2,3 into a,b,c,d,e?
doesnt matter
the pigeon hole principle gives us a conclusion independent of how the objects are distributed into the boxes
im so lost
do you agree that at least two variables have to have the same value ?
in this situtation
how
I dont understand what you dont understand
we have 3 possible values and 5 variables
we assign one of 3 values to each variable
in all cases there at at least 2 variables that have the same value
thats what the pigeon hole principle tell us here
i was asking if we need to do this
if yes then i wouldve asigned them
thats true
but it matters if we asign them
yes but you asked "how"
and that is irrelevant
the pigeon hole principle talks about existence
yea thats true
okk
so you agree that having 3 values and 5 variables we have to have at least 2 variables that have the same value assigned to them ?
yes
great
now
just to be sure
to check your understanding
does the pigeon hole principle tell us that there are at least 3 variables that have to have the same value, when we have 3 values and 5 variables ?
our domain is {a,b,c,d,e} , the range is {1,2,3}
so the pigeon hole principle says
there is at least one r in the range
such that
at least ceil (|Domain| / |Range|) elements from the domain get mapped to y
so thats ceil(5/3) = 2
so the answer would be no
since we have a counter example with what you provided for example
wait a sec
so not for all cases there is a r in the Range that gets assigned three elements from the domain
so we only use ceil (|Domain| / |Range|) when we want to fit more than 1 pigeon in a hole?
I dont understand your question
this "formula" tells us that there is at least one element in the range, r in R , that is assigned to at least ceil(|D|/|R|) elements from the domain
so for example if D < R then this is 1
oh nvm
uhh
1
for D not empty
but that wouldnt make much sense anyways
so yeah
ok maybe another question before moving on
let A = {a,b,c,d,e,f,g} and B = {1,2} and f : A->B a function
what do we know for sure
by the pigeon hole principle
idk
check this out again
you have to understand this
that we will fit c, d, e, f, g in 1 and 2
otherwise the prove will seem like magic
no
no
again
the pigeon hole principle doesnt talk about the specific assignemnt
it makes a different statement
we can have 1c or 2c, 1d or 2d, 1e or 2e, 1f or 2f, 1g or 2g
thats not what the pigeon hole principle is about
then im lost
read this again pls
i dont understand it
there is at least one y in Y such that f(x) = y for at least ceil(|X|/|Y|) , x's this part
@everyone sorry to disturb yall kno circle theorem
bruh
then you know for sure that one element in y is assigned to at least ceil(|X|/|Y|) values from X
do you understand this ?
wdym by this
it generalizes the concept of "if I have 3 pigeons and 2 holes, through one hole at least 2 pigeon have to pass"
do you know what a map or function is ?
everyone can ask questions
he tried to mention everyone
...
no I dont
I could try to use fuzzy language
by showing me an example
instead of math
I already showed you an example
5 variables
3 values
now another one
no
ok what
well
I dont understand how this would benefit you in understanding the thing
we went through an example
thoroughly
5 variables
3 values
assign one value to each variable
so by the pigeon hole principle there is at least one value that gets assigned to at least ceil(5/3) = 2 variables
that is what I said earlier
and you agreed to understanding it
then to check your understanding I said
A = {a,b,c,d,e,f,g} and B = {1,2} , and f : A -> B a function
what do you know by the pigeon hole principle
i do understand this
what exactly do you not understand
i think we already went over this
no
your answer implied that you didnt understand yet what the pigeon hole principle was about
so I wont go on to the proof
it would be pointless
ceil(7/2)=4
correct !
and what does the 4 tell us
it says, that either 1 or 2 is assigned to at least 4 variables from A
thats the entire thing
we cant say if 5 get assigned to one of those two
but we know for sure that 4 will
well i thought it was harder than it seemed
ok great
now
back to the original question
I dont have so much more time left
but well finish this
do you see how the pigeon hole principle could be of use here
thinking of the variables
and their assigned values
not really
what do you wanna show here ?
During a month with 30 days, a baseball team plays at least
one game a day, but no more than 45 games. Show that there
must be a period of some number of consecutive days during
which the team must play exactly 14 games.
just wanted to have the problem closer
well the answer to this is inside the problem
ok look
I have to go
I am sorry
the main idea is
you want to show that there is one day until which you had some amount of games , lets say that number is d_i
you know d_i is at least i
and at most 45
now you wanna show there is some i < j such that d_j = d_i +14
all you have to figure out now is what values the d_i and the d_i + 14 can take
then you have an increasing sequence of variables
no you have two such sequences
and a certain range they get values assigned from
ill try to work on it
if you understood the pigeon hole principle you should make it from here on
wat
This is for the master theorem, what is the "2nd term" they're talking about? Not sure what they mean by terms
ping if you reply please
the second term in that equation
b^d?
cn^d log_b(n)
why would that make the 2nd term dominate the 1st
i can see that you can replace the d with log_b a but other than that I'm not sure
log times a polynomial dominates polynomial of the same degree
could you elaborate and show what you mean sorry using the formula i showed
i can't picture that in my head with what's given above
f(1) is a constant, so f(1)n^d grows as a polynomial
log_b(n) is increasing, so log_b(n) n^d grows faster than a polynomial of degree d
if we take the ratio of these two we get log_b(n)/f(1)
as n grows large that ratio gets bigger and bigger
(thus the reciprocal of that ratio goes to zero)
and the one with the log dominates
Ah ok, but how does the a = b^d show that, there is no a in the equation
Since if it were a > b^d it would be something else
alr ill look into that thanks for the help
np
sorry but @twilit sundial what does it mean when they say "n is a power of b"?
does that mean n^b is possible or that n can be found when b is to the power of some number
n=b^k for some integer k
ah ok thanks
np
Should I put my entire course on a double sided cheatsheet ? 😭
Discrete maths is a little different, no ? It's not like a calculus exam where you can just paste all the past paper questions into the cheatsheet and follow instructions
good for practice/study but probably impractical to use
Yeah... probably only definitions will help
i usually put weird examples/counter examples on mine if i’m allowed a note card as well. sometimes hw problems i had trouble with or thought were important too
Need help understanding absolute and relative errors and how to solve these questions
Can someone help me with catalan number question
Going from 0 to 2, in 20 steps, without going less then 0
Can anyone help me with this question? Genuninely strong induction is killing me. Apparently we should try the induction step to reveal what the base steps are or something
I can't find any good videos on it either
It would be helpful if you provided a clean version of the exercise
It is hard for me to read that
What exactly is your question?
Hey, I am working on the following problem. I think I have the solution but, I am not sure if it is correct. There are two things specifically that I am not sure about.
(1) I am not sure if I defined the first premise correctly. According to Chegg, the first premise I defined is (nor r or not f) -> (s and l). But, this would imply that if it rained and it's not foggy, the sailing race and lifesaying demonstration will happen. But, that seems incorrect.
(2) I am not sure if I can do the simplification in step 5. In the YT video from Kiberly Brehm and the textbook, they only simplify when the statement is standing alone. I am not sure if it is legal to simplify when it it's in if then clause.
Any help is appreciated!
(A and B) -> C does not decompose into A -> C and B -> C, but (A or B) -> C does
And the premise you defined as (nor r and nor f) -> (s and l) is incorrect. That they would continue the event even when it's raining doesn't matter, this is math, anything goes
Okay. This makes sense. It felt wrong to do the simplification there
The other steps look correct, but you should fix your premise, and then break apart the implication in step 4 correctly, preferably in two steps
So, the statement (nor r or not fog) --> s and l is just saying that the event can't happen if it's both rainy and foggy
Rains, Is Foggy --> event does not happen
Does not rain, Is foggy ---> event does happen
Rains, Is not foggy ---> event does happen
Not rain, not foggy ---> event does happen
So, would it look like this rewritten? :
4) (7r or 7f) -> (s and l) premise
5) 7r -> (s and l). simplification of 4
6) r. Modus Tollens on 5 and 3
or am I still missing a step here?
Hmm, almost, but not quite. If it's not both raining and foggy, then we know for sure the event happens. But if it's rainy and foggy, the premise is false, so we can't use the implication. The event may or may not happen. We don't have an implication (rainy and foggy) -> event doesn't happen
That looks good, but for clarity you could consider adding a step from (not r) -> (s and l) to (not r) -> s
Okay. You are suggesting that (nor r or not fog) --> s and l looks like this:
Rains, Is Foggy --> Not defined
Does not rain, Is foggy ---> event does happen
Rains, Is not foggy ---> event does happen
Not rain, not foggy ---> event does happen
But, if you are looking at the truth table, it looks like that. I am still a little confused 😅
yeah that's the same thing, it's just, a slightly different perspective
for instance if it doesn't rain and it's foggy, then if "(nor r or not fog) --> s" is true, then the event happened - reflected in the truth table by F T F being F, and F T T being T
so the only row where the outcome is T is the one where the event happened
if it does rain and it's foggy, then "(nor r or not fog) --> s" is true either way, which means that just knowing that it's true is not sufficient to determine whether the event happened
It's definitely confusing, but when looking at the truth table here, you need to look at the rows where the rightmost column is T, since you know the implication itself is true. Then you know f and r are true. This leaves two rows, so there isn't enough information to determine what s is
Instead of thinking with truth tables, I like to think of implications as paths or functions. If you have an implication A -> B, you know that you can get to B if you have A. If you don't have A, you can't immediately get to B, but there may be other paths to B
Okay. I think this is making a lot of sense! I had this misconstrued in my head. Thinking about this way helps a lot!
Just one last thing. What is this step called? I can't quite connect it to the rules I have learned
idk if there's a specific name for it, but the reason is basically that (s and l) -> s
Okay that makes sense. Is there a reason you could apply that on the right side and not the left side. (like you mentioned here)
well you can, but you'd do it the other way around
if A -> C, then (A and B) -> C
because to chain two implications together it has to be "A -> B and B -> C"
Oh I see. But, you can't decouple A and B beause it's part of a condition. It would break the meaning
if you have (A and B) -> C, then just having A isn't enough to use that implication, because B might be false
whereas with A -> (B and C), if you have A it's entirely valid to get B and C from the implication, then ignore the C and just conclude B, so A -> B
and if (A or B) -> C, then just an A is sufficient, because that's how "or" works
This makes a lot of sense. Thanks for taking the time and helping out, bee and sheddow!
I am really grateful for this community. Self learning this through YT videos is only possible because of this wonderful community!
Boss energy limited pays a current dividend of $0.5, which is expected to grow at a rate of 4% indefinitely. The required rate of return agreed by Boss shareholders is 6%. What is the current value of the Boss share based on the constant-growth dividend discount model (DDM)?
That's definitely not "discrete math", and is probably a question of finance terminology rather than of mathematics.
no way, is that John Deepwoken?
Curious about this. So for the first part, I know it's a permutation for any b and any invertible a. But how do I get the cycle structure?
I tried writing this permutation as a linear recurrence. $x_{k+1} = a x_k + b$ and solve that, but I got stuck
Faputa
Is there a nice way to see the solution without setting it as linear recurrence and solving it?
there is a closed formula for h(h(...(x))). not sure if that will help but it is what I would try
I have tried this as well, I get a kind of a geometric series. The problem is... In both the cases (recurrence approach and that geometric series) I end up having to calculate 1/(a-1)
But a-1 may not be invertible
I'm struggling with this question.
We have a bipartite graph $G$. We have a matching $M'$ with n > 0 more edges than a matching $M$. We take the symmetric difference between $M'\M$ and $M'M$, and call this $M''$. Is it true that in the new graph $G'$, with the same nodes as in $G$, there are exactly n node disjunct augmenting paths?
If I label the n edges that M' has, that M does not, from 1 to n, I could consider them one by one. I take the first edge k, so now M' has 1 edge more than M. Whenever I consider M'', it will only have the edges that belong either to M' or M (thus, the other n-1 edges that I left out will not be in M''). As the M was not maximal, there will be an augmenting path in M''. But, since I do not consider the other n-1 edges, each of these augmenting paths will be disjunct and there will be exactly n.
Does this make any sense or is there something wrong in my reasoning?
Could someone help with my discrete hw?
What is your problem with it? You have the definition of A(m,n) right there, so just apply it to m=1, n=1.
anyone able to help me with a graph theory proof?
Don't ask to ask
When we say x is an element of A union B, we can mean x is in A\B or A intersect B or B\A, but when we say x is not an element of A union B we mean x is not in A\B and A intersect B and B\A right
To say that x is not in A union B is to say that x is not in A and x is also not in B.
need help with this. do i have to solve this using PIE? also does xn = n for some odd n means xn = n for at least one odd n?
"pi" is just a symbol, probably used here because it's the greek letter for p and "permutation" starts with a p. It doesnt have anything to do with 3.14...
The phrasing "for some ..." is a bit ambiguous imo, but if we take it literally, you should let n be some odd integer and compute the number of permutations with x_n = n. It's not hard to show that this number does not depend on n, so you could just take n=1 without loss of generality.
i know its very ambiguous, but if i interpret it as x_n = n be odd at every instance, then the num of permutations become 6, and if i interpret it as "at least", then it goes beyond 2000.
the answers are miles apart
What do you mean by "at least"?
If only x_1 = 1 then there should be 720 such permutations, right?
Oh
wait
Yeah that makes more sense
What is the number of permutations such that there exists an odd n with x_n = n
we can imply the same for other digits -> 3 5 and 7
"an" odd n, thus implying at least 1 odd n right? and permutations are found out using PIE here if i am not wrong?
Whats PIE?
Yeah, I'd say at least one odd n.
principle of inclusion exclusion
not at all. im mainly confused about what the question wants, as it so stupidly ambiguous. Im assuming it wants where at least 1 odd x_n = n exists, because the previous answer 6 wont make sense, they wont give something that easy.
Yeah I agree, the answer should be somewhere between 720 and 5040
indeed
Which definition of union is correct?
Both are correct
Both describe the same thing.
In mathematics when we write "or" we do not mean exclusive or, and x is in A u B iff x in A or x in B.
I have a question: say I have some satisfiable boolean formula. I want to find the maximal subset of variables that agree among all satisfying interpretations. Is there a name for this problem?
fun fact:
the computable reals are order isomorphic to the rationals
Wouldn't you need a bijection between R and Q?
no, computable reals
Ah right
Noncomputable numbers are fun to think about
ok so t^k is fixed so pull that out of the product. Write 1 / (1 - t^i) as an infinite sum via geometric series formula. That should make things clearer hopefully
hey need help with a combinatorics problem anyone here?
Just ask don't ask to ask
etc
Hi, can I ask a question regarding graph theory?
just ask, don't ask to ask
First, the probability of selecting $ k $ elements from an $ n $-element set, where the $ k $th selection is the first time a duplicate occurs, is given by:
$$
\frac{\binom{n}{k-1} (k-1)!(k-1)}{n^k}
$$
This equation represents the selection of $ k-1 $ elements, multiplied by all permutations of these $k-1$ elements, and then the $k$th selection which must be one of the previously selected $k-1$ elements.
The expectation of $k$ is given by:
$$
E(k)=\sum_{k=1}^n{\frac{\left( \begin{array}{c}
n\
k-1\
\end{array} \right) (k-1)!(k-1)k}{n^k}=}\sum_{k=1}^n{\frac{n!(k-1)!(k-1)k}{\left( n-k+1 \right) !\left( k-1 \right) !n^k}=}\sum_{k=1}^n{\frac{k\left( k-1 \right) n!}{\left( n-k+1 \right) ^k}}
$$
Then I got stuck. I need to use the Stirling formula to find the answer for this:
$
n! = \sqrt{2\pi n} \left( \frac{n}{e} \right)^n \left( 1 + \frac{1}{12n} + \theta \left( \frac{1}{n^2} \right) \right)
$
How do I derive to this? $$ E(k) = \sqrt{\frac{\pi n}{2} - \frac{1}{3} + \theta \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}} \right)} $$
Aku
had a typo
$$
E(k)=\sum_{k=1}^n{\frac{\left( \begin{array}{c}
n\
k-1\
\end{array} \right) (k-1)!(k-1)k}{n^k}=}\sum_{k=1}^n{\frac{n!(k-1)!(k-1)k}{\left( n-k+1 \right) !\left( k-1 \right) !n^k}=}\sum_{k=1}^n{\frac{k\left( k-1 \right) n!}{\left( n-k+1 \right) !n^k}}
$$
Aku
two graphs G1 = (V(G1),E(G1)) and G2 = (V(G2),E(G2)) are isomorphic if there is an edge preserving bijection between their vertex sets, i.e., a map f : V(G1) --> V(G2) such that if (v1,v2) is in E(G1), then f(v1,v2) is in E(G2)
see if this helps
Isnt this true by definition of graphisomorphisms?
hey can someone help mm through this problem? i do not understand what the question is asking for and what does n(A U B U C) mean in this context. quick
By the definition in the problem, n(A ∪ B ∪ C) would mean the number of different subsets of A ∪ B ∪ C, or in other words 2^|A ∪ B ∪ C|.
ok thanks, but what is the question exactly asking for
how do i even start
all i know is 2^100 subsets of A and 2^100 subsets of B
Right. So if you call the union of all three sets D, the assumption is that 2^100 + 2^100 + 2^|C| = 2^|D|, in other words 2^101 + 2^|C| = 2^|D|.
There's only one way to make this true with integer values of |C| and |D|.
(The sum of two powers of 2 is a power of 2 if and only if ...?...)
if C is also of the same power it seems
Yes. So what are |C| and |D|?
C is 101 and D is 102? because of 2 * 2^101?
Yes.
wouldnt any other value of Cs power make it so that both D and C are integers? like 100?
If |C|=100, then 2^|D| would need to be 2^100 + 2^100 + 2^100 = 3·2^100, and that cannot be a power of 2 due to the uniqueness of prime factorizations (aka the "fundamental theorem of arithmetic").
(You can see that the sum of two different powers of n is never a power of n, either by a bit of algebra, or just by imagining the addition in base n).
i see, yes it does follow as such
ok so there are 2^102 subsets where elements of A and B and C are present, correct?
continue
Yes. What's relevant is that you know that A, B and C are all subsets of some set with 102 elements, and also |A|=|B|=100 and |C|=101.
You want to minimize 2^|A∩B∩C| which is essentially the same as minimizing |A∩B∩C|.
No, wait, it just asks you to minimize |A∩B∩C| directly. Sorry.
There's an element of {Ø} that is not an element of Ø -- namely Ø.
so accumulating all elements of the subsets of A B and C would give a total of 102 elements, in any circumstance irrespective of the subset i choose from A,B and C?
u there?
Thank you, I understand now
I'm not sure I understand what you're saying there.
By this time in the problem we're done counting subsets.
The only thing we needed to think about counting subsets for was to find the sizes of |C| and |A ∪ B ∪ C|.
lets make sure we are on the same track -> A has 100 elements, B has 100 elements, C has 101 elements, and the adding up all the elements from the subsets of these three sets give max 102 elements (A U B U C), correct?
Correct.
And the problem asks you to find out how few of those 102 elements can be in common between all three sets A, B, C.
how can there be a lower bound? if i select from all the elements of all 3 sets A B and C, then all of the selected elements of A U B U C would always be common with all three sets. no elements would be left out.
Hmm, if we say (for concreteness) that A ∪ B ∪ C is {1,2,3,4,....,102}, then how can you choose 100 elements for A, 100 elements for B, and 101 elements for C, such that there are fewer than, say, 25 elements in A∩B∩C?
Note well that what we're minimizing is A∩B∩C, not A∪B∪C.
oh so we are minimizing the elements that we select from A B and C such that they have as less common elements possible between their overlapping regions?
my bad its what the question wants
ok then continue
am i correct?
It's probably more useful to think of: instead of selecting from already-existing sets A, B, and C, we're trying to make sets to call A, B and C by selecting some of the elements of {1,2,3,....,102} to put into each of them ... but such that we have the smallest possible three-way overlap between them.
yes this seems more correct
its supposed to be solved using PIE
(one of the ways)
ok can you guide me through the answer?
Inclusion-exclusion is probably overkill. I'd advise you to just think about it freestyle for 10-15 minutes.
Hint: ||Instead of minimizing the number of elements in the intersection, try getting as many of the numbers as possible to be outside the intersection.||
can a subset have the same element multiple times?
trying to reduce the area of overlap between A and B = smaller intrsection, A = 1 - 100, B = 3 - 102, im confused about C
No, a set either contains an element or it doesn't -- it has no concept of "how many times"..
Can you choose C such that it eliminates some of the numbers 3,4,5,...,100 that are in both A and B?
well A U B gives 102 elems by the approach i went , which is essentially A U B U C
yes but then wont it exceed the A U B U C set size threshold 102?
Why would it?
You can't eliminate all of 3,4,5,...,100 but you do have some freedom to select C.
(In fact there are exactly 102 different ways you could pick a C -- do you see why?)
ok lets say C has 1 - 102 elements (since it must intersect with the rest 2) i eliminate few elements that are in A int B, from C then remaining elements are also in intersection A B and C but the intersection pool is reduced, is that what u mean?
u there?
@coral parcel
Huh? We already know C must have exactly 101 elements. The only choice is which of 1,2,3,...,102 make up C.
Did you read my hint from before? How can you make as many of the numbers 1,2,...,102 as possible not be on the intersection of A, B, and C?
i read your hint, yes but ill get to it, answering this question -: Can you choose C such that it eliminates some of the numbers 3,4,5,...,100 that are in both A and B? , well if i replace the numbers hat are both common in A and B then i have to replace them with numbers that are mutually exlcusive to A or B
here they are 1,2 ... 102 -> assuming I removed 3,4,5,6 (could be any overlapping ones)
so possible intersection size is 101 (size of C) - 4 (numbers that are mutually exclusive to A or B 1, 2, 101, 102) = 97
am i correct? was this the gist behind what u said?
Yes, 97 is the answer I get too.
We choose 100 numbers to be in A, and the remaining 2 numbers to not be in A.
We choose 100 numbers to be in B, and the remaining 2 numbers to not be in B.
We choose 101 numbers to be in C, and the remaining 1 number to not be in C.
The intersection A cap B cap C consists of everything except elements that are missing form at least one of A, B, and C.
It is clear when counting in this way that there cannot be more than 2+2+1 = 5 numbers missing.
But it is also easy to choose A, B, and C such that 5 numbers will indeed be missed, just by making sure to exclude different elements from each set.
So the minimal size of the intersection is 102-5 = 97.
intersection?
Whoops yes, fixed. Thanks.
bruh your one seems more fluid and consistent. thank you for the help.
That comes with practice.
quotient of two irrationals can be rational
wdym, of course the quotient of these two is irrational but you didn't prove it
Suppose r = p/q, but instead of taking logarithms, just raise both sides of 2^r to the qth power.
Hi, I want to ask if Z_n defines the set {0,1,...,n-1} or the equivalence class of integers mod n?
That depends on which book you're reading. :-)
Texts that assume their readers will go on to study abstract algebra almost always define it as equivalence classes.
Some other books (mostly aimed at high schoolers or non-mathematicians) define it as {0,1,...,n-1}, such that they won't need to explain equivalence classes.
Fortunately, the two representations are equivalent -- every equivalence class contains exactly one of the numbers {0,1,...,n-1}, and each of those numbers is an equivalence class.
And this correspondence respects the definitions of arithmetic in Z_n used in the two cases, so you can go back and forth between these views without running into trouble.
This clears up a little bit more, I was actually confused why the Klein 4-group (denoted as Z_2 x Z_2) has some matrices with entries -1, may be that "-1" is just "1" then, isn't it?
Hmm, most likely what you're reading says that the group Z_2 × Z_2 is isomorphic to the group of diagonal 2×2 matrices (with ordinary real entries) that have ±1 on the diagonal, under matrix multiplication?
(This works because Z_2 -- no matter whether we consider it as {0,1} or {Evens, Odds} -- is isomorphic to the group with elements {-1, 1} and multiplication as the operation).
ty trop i think i got it
If we consider it as {Evens, Odd}, then the Klein4-group can also be denoted as Z/2Z x Z/2Z, right?
Sure.
Does this sequence prove this pattern? I can't induct for some reason i don't understand why. Nth element can be modeled by. a func. g(x).
In fact, this sequence follows the normal sequence with the + - for odd and even numbers odd : n(n+1)/2 eve: -n(n+1)/2 . But i don't understand how one can come to this conclusion through induction without knowing about this property in advance??
sum of first n positive integers is extremely well known
one of the CLASSIC first examples people go over when introducing induction
what, precisely, is your question?
how can I derive that this sequence has closed form of sum of arithmetic sequnce for even and odd. Without knowing that this sequnce has this property. Say I want to find the general formula for this sequnce. What are the steps I should take to come to such conclusion
you note that $S_n$ satisfies $S_{n} = S_{n-1} + (-1)^{n+1}n^2$ for $n>1$ with $S_1=1$. Then you can use telescoping series:
$$S_n - S_1 = \sum_{k=2}^{n}(S_k - S_{k-1}) = \sum_{k=2}^{n}(-1)^{k+1}k^2$$
so that $$S_n=1+\sum_{k=2}^n(-1)^{k+1}k^2=\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^{k+1}k^2$$
c squared
but terms do not cancel out? each successive term is bigger than the previous. Or the fact that it can be expressed that way is sufficient for proof?
try $n=5$. you have
$$(S_2 - S_1) + (S_3 - S_2) + (S_4 - S_3) + (S_5 - S_4) = S_5 - S_1$$
c squared
@agile glen
jeez
what about it is jeez? lol
Seems kinda easy but I don't get it
what dont u get?
the logic of this proof
shouldn't we do it like this?
$$ \text{Let} g(x) = x^2 \cdot (-1)^{x + 1} $$
$$ \text{Then } S_1 = g(1) = 1 \text{ which is the base case} $$
$$ \text{Assume } S_n = \sum_{k=1}^n g(k) \text{ has a closed form} $$
$$ S_n = \frac{n(n + 1)}{2} $$
$$
\text{Thus,} \
\frac{g(n) \left( g(n) + 1 \right)}{2} + g(n + 1) = g(n + 1) \left( g(n + 1) + 1 \right)
$$
you need a definition for the sequence S_n in order to carry out any sort of proof.
what is your definition of S_n?
src.main
S_n is not the sum of the first n natural numbers
why do you think that S_n = n(n+1)/2?
because we sum from the 1 until n'th element. and as we use 2 elments we need to div by 2
no, its
1^2 - 2^2 + 3^2 - 4^2 + ... + (-1)^{n+1}n^2
there is no division going on here
this matches the sequence in the picture you supplied here
so in order to prove that the sequence has that specific closed form, you first need a definition of the sequence.
via observation, it satisfies the recursive relation $S_1 = 1$ and $$S_{n} = S_{n-1} + (-1)^{n+1}n^2$$ for $n>1$
c squared
yes, there is no division. But n n + 1 / 2 is arithmetic progression's' closed form. And we have arithmetic progression of some sort through fn g(x)
its not an arithmetic progression due to the (-1)^{n+1} term
that's why I thought that this is the way and we just replace n with g(n)
besides, that would be the sum of the first n squares
you are using the wrong formula for two different reasons
if you want to do this by induction, you need to show that
$S_n = \sum_{k=1}^{n}(-1)^{k+1}k^2$ for all natural numbers $n$ using this base definition of $S_n$
c squared
because we have a sequence from 1 to n which is tranformed by this function g(n) hence this is arithmetic progression?
and that's why I tried this by induction and failed
because that was my first approach and i don't know how to do it otherwise lol)
and i see that it does not work
and I dont know why
so, g is just being used as a wrapper function, a concise name for the general term (-1)^{k+1}k^2
yes, exactly
okay fine, really no need for that since its a short formula, but your guess at what S_n is here is completely off
its not an arithmetic progression
it is? because it fits nicely with n(n +1)/n for odd and -n(n+1)/n for even numbers
the difference between consecutive terms is not constant
that is the definition of an arithmetic sequence
the difference between consecutive terms S_n and S_n-1 is (-1)^{n+1} n^2
which is why your attempts failed
try to understand this.
all i did was define S_n and perform some algebraic manipulations
there isn't even any sort of logical argument going on
just symbolic manipulation
i went this route because of this
i thought let me find and prove the closed form for left side
and since the right side is arithmetic i went this route on the left as well
the sequence S_n itself is not arithmetic though
you can algebraically manipulate things to get it into the right hand side
the way you do that is to group terms in the sum together and use the difference of squares formula
for instance, 1^2 - 2^2 = -(2^2 - 1^2) = -(2 - 1)(2 + 1) = -3
Yo I have a question maybe someone could help: find all X such that X∈Z
16x^(2)+1=k^(3)
ty for helping
hey how does the right hand side equate to the left hand side here?
factor out the n! and then look at how the indices start from a different number
starting from k=0, the first term becomes n! an the rest remain same with just the signs flipped which is essentially what subtracting does. Got it thanks.
guys
I'm reading about hashing
can someone explain this to me as i'm 10
Nvm it's a typo
How do you compute the number of connected graphs without the restriction?
It seems to me that thinking of your original problem in terms of graphs might be overcomplicating it
Thanks
Hmm
damn this is related to graph theory it was a nt problem for math olympiads i did
ya but iirc the nt sol was just m^2+1=(m+i)(m-i) , and working in Z[i]
hmm interseting
its the like gaussian integers thing
How does that lead to a solution for this problem?
i forgot exactly but like it was something like product of m+i now observe (i+1)....(i+p-1) already has ig a nice expansion?
wait it was evan chens handout lemme see
Hmm ok
ah wait so like u have the plynomial P(x)=(x+1)....(x+p-1)
now u can prolly consider like
the powers of x
which are 0 mod 4
1 mod 4
2 mod 4 and 3 mod 4
so in 1 mod 4 and 3 mod 4 ig those sum to 0 through pairing
and so only 0 mod 4 and 2 mod 4
ahhhh waiit P(x)=(x+1)...(x+p-1)x is always 0 mod p
if x is integral
so by that i think we can show all the middle coeffiients is 0 mod p
like newtons method of differences
ya i think this is identical to x^p-x in F_p[X].
by that all middle coeffiients is 0 mod p
so (i+1)...(i+p-1)i mod p = (i^p-i)
and like ig u can cancel out the i
so i^(p-1)-1 basically
rest is easy
so ig the answer is (i^(p-1)-1)^2
and basically p=3(mod 4) is the hard case
in which ig it comes out to 4?
ohk nice!
ya
would it be allowed to assume FTSOC that the hypothesis is false and then find an example that proves my assumption of the hypothesis being false was incorrect. thereby proving the original statement is true
please ping if yall could
doing this doesn't prove that it holds for all sets, just that it holds for that specific set
No but saying that it contradicts my original statement means that it has to be the other possible truth value then indefinitely, no?
your hypothesis is "For all sets A,B,C bla bla bla". The opposite of this is "There exist sets A,B,C such that not bla bla bla"
the hypothesis holding for some A',B',C' does not mean "There does not exist A,B,C such that not bla bla bla"
it means "There exists A,B,C such that bla bla bla"
the contradiction of smth being false is it being true in all cases not just one, cause the arrow means implies (so it has to work for every case)
but with the other way around when you assume something is true, you only need to prove one case of it being false for a contradiction. so its not the same
Assuming twac that this is false means assuming
There exist sets A, B, C such that AxB = CxB but A=/C
is true. No single example will disprove this statement
Directly disproving this statement as it stands would be done via counterexample (tho i dont think its false if x here is just cartesian product)
so @clever sail @drifting sand @pale monolith you guys think the statement is true?
Pretty sure it's true
also woah fellow uw student hi
AH wait
counterexample, $B=\varnothing$
Sara
yeah
ok so if u dont know this lemme explain
consider the polynomial P(x)=x(x+1)....(x+p-1)
this is always =0(mod p)
and also consider G(x)=x^p-x
feramrt lil says this is always =0(mod p)
so P(x)-G(x)=0(mod p) always
for integers x
now observe deg P(x)-G(x) <=p-1
And there is a well known lemma that if a integer polynomial with degree atmost p-1 is always divisible by p
all of its coeffiicents are as well
by that we basically get to that
the polynomial part was only this
and gaussian integers u dont really need to know much except , i will just replace things so that u can understand gaussian
say i have two complex numbers a+bi and c+di
where a,b,c,d are integral
and say (a+bi)(c+di) is real
if i define a+bi=x+yi(mod p) iff a=x and b=y mod p
then observe i can say (a+bi)(c+di)=(a mod p+ b mod pi)(c mod p+dmod p i)(mod p)
This is essentially what i did over there i reduced the compelx numbers to mod p
yaa
like a+bi and c+di represented the other one
ya so its = x^p-x(mod p) over guassen as well
can someone check my working?
looks fine to me. you forgot a set of parentheses in step 2 but remembered to include them in the next step so its all good
Why does this hold?
The integers are also countable but have non-well founded subsets for example the set of all negative integers
Yeah, I'm not sure what they're going for.
You can define an ordering of the integers in which every subset will have a smallest element (although it won't be the ordering we're used to), but you can also define such an ordering on every set (assuming we're accepting the axiom of choice)
So (un-)countability doesn't affect whether it's possible
Yea true
Basically the same pattern I would construct my bijection in
Yeah,pretty much. Given a countable set, you can "transfer" the ordering from the naturals using the bijection, getting a well-founded ordering.
For an uncontable set you can't do that, but that doesn't mean a well-ordering doesn't exist at all
This would be a good ordering to Argument geometrically abt the countability of rationals. What I am wondering about is, what about elements like (2,2), (3,3)? Would the function describing this pattern not also map those to 1 in N which means that f: N x N -> N wouldn’t be injective anymore?
...ok wait, is your question about the countability of N x N, or the countability of Q
Oh yeah sorry
if you want N x N then you can just enumerate (1,1) (1,2) (2,1) (1,3) (2,2) (3,1) (1,4) (2,3) (3,2) (4,1) etc. and stuff like (2,2) isn't a problem because that's a different pair to (1,1)
I meant f: N -> Q
well it's actually fine that it's not injective, we just need it to be surjective
if you can list the rational numbers with repeats, you can then just delete all the repeats (keep only the first time that any given number appears) and you get a bijection
which in fact is exactly what the order in that image is doing
2/2 was just skipped
Ah I see
But what about the constraint of a function being totally defined? For every input there must be an output right
I actually meant f:Q -> N
well yes but we can just like, shift the rest of the sequence over
you do actually have to check that you don't then run out of rational numbers, because a surjection f : N -> X doesn't imply that X is infinite
but there are clearly infinitely many rational numbers so
Yes
My most illegal proof for Sum of Cubes series
1^3 = (1*1)*(1)
1^3 + 2^3 = (1*1 + 2*2)*(1 + 2)
1^3 + 2^3 + 3^3 = (1*1 + 2*2 + 3*3)*(1 + 2 + 3)
...
You know the rest
That looks like just an assertion rather than a proof. And what it asserts is false ...
im seriously confused with this question, i do not understand how combinatorics is involved in this question. can someone help? since we are only considering about post lunch, the way they are signed pre lunch wont matter right?
"Counting ways that something can happen" is what combinatorics is, no matter how bizarre and ad-hoc the circumstances.
well if she signed a racket before lunch then she isn't going to sign it again after lunch, so it matters which rackets she signed
but you're right that the order that she signed rackets before lunch isn't important
k but how is this related to adding components like this:
it isn't
writing down formulas like that just for the sake of it isn't combinatorics
the reason you think it is is that often formulas like that are counting some kind of object, which is what combinatorics is
oh did you mean that that formula is supposed to be the answer to the question
hm
it looks like the assumption is that she might not sign all of the rackets?
wait no that doesn't make sense
oh i get it
...no i don't
that might just be wrong actually??
but ok i can explain some of what they were going for
the reason "8 choose k" is showing up is that we're picking which rackets weren't already signed before lunch
any subset of rackets 1-8 is possible, for instance if we assume that for each racket we want to exclude she signed it as soon as it arrived
then we have an extra factor to account for when the 10th racket arrives
oh wait i get it now, they're right
the 10th racket might have already been signed before lunch
or it could appear in any of the k+1 "spaces" around the k other rackets that are being signed
the reason the order of the k rackets isn't relevant is that the rackets will be signed in descending order of number, because they arrived in ascending order and she always signs the one that arrived most recently
so the only order uncertainty is the 10th racket
bro how did u assume thhat they arrived in ascending order, this is another confusion of mine
and is the possibility k + 1 transformed to k + 2 because of the possibility that the 10th racket hasnt arrived at all? but how would u draw out this assumption from the question?
The problem says "given that the order of rackets' arrival is fixed", so we can decide to use the number of arrival to identify each racket.
k+1 of the cases are for when the 10th has not arrived yet -- it can arrive at different time during the afternoon, relative to the k signings of rackets that arrived in the morning.
The last 1 is for the case where the 10th arrived and was already signed before lunch.
yea but the arrival order isnt stated, could be like 4 3 5 6 1 7 8 9 right? in any order
ahhh i see so the 10th was signed and removed off early before signing # 9 , thats why it wasnt included, understood the rest ty
No because we're using "1" to mean "the racket that arrived 1st", and 2 means "the racket that arrived 2nd" and so forth.
All the nodes in a clique need to have different colors.
oh ok i get it, but by any chance is there any possibility of overcounting any sequence, by this method?
Not as far as I can see -- but you really ought to think it through enough to convince yourself that every possible order of afternoon signings will be counted exactly once.
since combinations are being employed instead of permutations, each set would be counted once only, it seems it would negate the chances for sequences being overcounted.
could we have done it without assessing the 10th racket individually and combining it altogether like 9CK instead of 8CK?
That would not account for afternoon-signing sequences such as 8 6 4 3 10 2 1.
How many subsets $A \subset B \subset {1,2,3,...,n}$?
is there a closed form of $\sum_{i=0}^{n}2^i {n \choose i}$?
tomer_k
each element of {1,..,n} is either in A, in B\A or in {1,..,n}\B
Thats clever, thank you
Hey guys, I am working on this problem and I am stuck. I am proving something that is obviously not true using propositional logic. I know logically that if A is a subset of B, then A and B is A. But, in my proof, I somehow proved that A and B = B. Can someone point where I am going wrong here?
I suspect it is to do with me switching from instantiatoin but, I can't quite put my finger on it. Because I am using the rules of inference for propositional logic for the problem.
that is a correct result given your premises
$\forall x ((x \in A) \land (x \in B))$
bee [it/its]
this implies that both A and B contain literally everything
and your conclusion, that B contains literally everything, is a valid deduction from that
none of this has much to do with what $A \cap B$ is in the case that $A$ and $B$ \textit{don't} contain everything
bee [it/its]
how to be good at Combinatorics ? like i study a lot but still bad at it
$A \cap B = B$ isn't the statement you proved, it would be the statement $$\forall x (((x \in A) \land (x \in B)) \iff x \in B)$$
bee [it/its]
Hm... Gotcha. I think I see the problem.
Thanks for the help bee. I don't quite see the way to solve the problem yet. But, I am pretty sure I can get there!
hmm problem is that lets say we start with 9C9, 10 can appear anywhere, and using combinatorics in this way doesn't account for the different positions for 10, so ultimately assessing it individually gives us more flexibility to integrate the possibilities where 10 may arrive at different positions, and even if we go with k + 2 possibilities for placing 10 anywhere between the gap, then including 10 in the combination renders useless, am i correct?
hidingandseeking
basically it's saying that all of the edges in G, between vertices that are in H, are also in H
so for instance if you have the graph with two vertices and an edge between them
you can have the subgraph of that where you just get rid of the edge, but still have both vertices
but that isn't an induced subgraph, because in G those two vertices have an edge between them, and in H they don't
so any subset of the vertices uniquely determines an induced subgraph: you only delete the edges that would be going to vertices that don't exist anymore
there isn't really much reason to write that as an equivalence because the forward direction is already part of what a subgraph is
so the important part is the backwards direction
That sounds broadly right, yes.
Anyone that can help me with math?
post question
!da2a
No need to ask “Can I ask…?” or “Does anyone know about…?”—it’s faster for everyone if you just ask your question! See https://dontasktoask.com/
math discord users ask a good specific question challenge (impossible)
I was thinking about what would happen if there were two successor functions instead of one, what do you guys think?
(n is basically like 0 or an empty string)
you could even define tetration for this if you wanted too
(ab)^^(aba) = (ab)^((ab)^^(ba)) = (ab)^((ba)^(ab)) = (ab)^((ba)*(ab)) = (ab)^(baab) = (ba)*(ab)*(ab)*(ba) = (baab)*(ab)*(ba) = (baababba)*(ba) = abbabaabbaababba
i need help with (b) I do not understand the mechanics behind solving it via 1 to 1 correspondence, and is the way i solved it correct? -> min sum could be 101, and max would be 606, constructing a probability distribution graph, which would presumably be a rectangle, i took the rounded up value of the midpoint which is 354.
the graph is definitely not a rectangle
a sum of 101 requires all of the dice to roll 1, which is a 1 in 3,919,911,741,000,425,436,580,141,602,948,346,923,222,862,262,837,729,229,258,431,798,216,982,848,864,256 chance
how? each sum has an equal probability
whereas something more in the middle like 350 is significantly more likely because there are so many more ways it could happen
yes but averages are taken in such instances if i am not wrong
...?
well like, if it was a rectangle, the chance of a sum of 101 should be 1/500ish, right?
and it's nowhere even close
i ran this 100,000 times and the most extreme results i got were 278 and 429, which each occurred once, and 354 occurred 2370 times
area under the probability distribution graph gives the probability of an event, and as to my knowledge it seems as though it would be a rectangle, so 1/2 of the area lies at 353.5, and since s is an integer any shift to the right would make the probability greater than 1/2.
because all of the sums are equally probable
no they aren't
from 101 to 606
think about what it would actually mean to get a sum of 101
i think the my statement only holds true for max and min values, but the intermediaries may have more paths to them , like rolling 2 dice, only 1 way to get 2 or 12, but 3 ways get 6 -> 4,2 5,1, 3,3, and so on so the probabilities are skewed for some integers.
Also this is a discrete distribution so it doesn't have a pdf
is this what u were trying to say?
yes
there are way more ways to get 350 then there are to get 101, so 350 is more likely
i mean i don't really get what you mean by "using 1 to 1 correspondence" but i think i do know what the solution is
it says : there is a 1 to 1 correspondence with -> {the rolls with sum greater than 353} to {the rolls with sum less than 354}
man im confused
ah ok yes that makes sense
well if you have like, the one way you can roll dice to get 101
if you just invert all the dice (swap 1 and 6, swap 2 and 5, swap 3 and 4)
you get the one way you can roll dice to get 606
all of the 101 ways you can get a sum of 102 (all 1s except a single 2), correspond to the 101 ways you can roll dice to get 605 (all 6s except a single 5)
this "flipping" operation on the dice sends x to 7 - x, so the effect on the overall sum is that you get 707 - s
so you keep going until you reach 353, where flipping it makes the sum 707 - 353 = 354
and the point is that this transformation preserves the probability
the chance of a sum of 105 is the same as the chance of a sum of 707 - 105 = 602
adding it all up, the chance of a sum <= 353 is the same as the chance of a sum >= 354
because "a sum >= 354" is the same as "a sum <= 353, and then we invert all the dice", so it's the same probability
looking at it in terms of a graph - the insight here is that, even though the graph isn't a rectangle, it's still symmetrical
so we can just cut it down the middle and get half on each side
why do we even need to bother with the flipping operation? what is the speciality or purpose behind its implementation in this case?
well it's the reason that it's symmetrical like this
and if you look at a case where it's obviously not symmetrical, like "the dice are biased and have a 50% chance of rolling 6 and 10% chance of anything else"
if you try to run the same "flip" it now changes the probabilities, the chance of 606 and the chance of 101 aren't the same because if you flip something with 6 in it it becomes less likely, and that's "why" it isn't symmetrical
similarly if we just remove 5 from the dice, rolling 605 is actually impossible now, but 102 is still possible, so again it's asymmetric
yes, it seems flipping any sum formed, adding it with its flipped version always results to 707 no matter what, the flipping operation matches the summation of numbers that are equidistant from the midpoint
but how did u figure out the reflective symmetry which would end up giving 1/2, is it just by dividing by 2, why so?
well the reason you get 1/2 is that you end up dividing it into two equal pieces, "sum <= 353" and "sum >= 354"
with 353.5 being the midpoint, i see ... thank you
hi what do i do when i got this i know how to do the truth table but not when i got this
any idea @fossil mural
?
I'm very new to this, but I'm reading in some lecture notes about the connection between permutations and the determinant. Consider the set ${1,2,3}$ and the permutation ${2,1,3}$. Then they use the notation $\sigma=213$ and write $\sigma_1=2, \sigma_2=1$ and $\sigma_3=3$. Then later on, they talk about transpositions, but without introducing any notation for a transposition. Specifically, in proving that a permutation cannot be expressed as both an even number of transpositions and an odd number of transpositions, they write $\sigma=\tau_1 \cdots\tau_n=\rho_1\cdots\rho_m$, where $\tau_i,\rho_i$ are transpositions, but what does $\tau_i$ mean for example?
Philip
The phrase "$\tau_i,\rho_i$ are transpositions" is shorthand for "for every $i\in{1,2,\ldots,n}$, $\tau_i$ is a transposition, and also for every $i\in{1,2,\ldots,m}$, $\rho_i$ is a transposition"
Outsider
I'm not sure there's notation for transposition, since it's just a permutation that fixes all but two elements.
And in this particular argument it doesn't matter what each of the transpositions does specifically
ok, I agree, this is a bit weird, but I think I understand. I wrote above \sigma_1=2, \sigma_2=1 and \sigma_3=3 for the permutation {2,1,3} of {1,2,3}, so the first two are in fact a transposition, or?
maybe that doesn't make sense either
It looks odd to me, since the permutation here I would say consists of a single transposition, not two.
Ah yes, there's confusion in notation, because the $\sigma_1,\sigma_2,\sigma_3$ aren't 3 separate permutations, it's how they denote what this particular one permutation ($\sigma$) does. And then each of the $\tau_i$ is a separate permutation (transposition)
Outsider
I now see what your question was actually about, sorry..
So yeah, unfortunate and ambiguous notation.
And yes, the permutation that moves 1 to 2, 2 to 1, and leaves 3 in place, is a transposition.
So basically the lower indices in the first part and in the second part have different meaning here (first they denote the elements of your set, to indicate the values of sigma at those elements; and in the second part the lower indices are used to enumerate the transpositions into which you decompose sigma)
Outsider
Or possibly \sigma(2) = 1, I can never remember in which direction those notations go
But either way it's about the values of sigma at individual elements of the permuted set
right, thanks 👍 I understand now I think. \tau_i denotes some function (a transposition), not an evaluation as in \sigma_1=2
Yeah
What is the meaning of the small circles?
Most likely composition
can i have an example of a surjective but not injective function
such that |A| = |B| like if it's from N it also goes to N
N -> N
Consider f: N -> N given by f(0) = 0 and f(x) = x-1 for x > 0
I am assuming by N you meant nonnegative integers
@twilit pendant
natural numbers
do u have another example
😅
because this is what our teacher gave us
What's wrong with that example? So that I know which one you would like more
N was an example we can also be in R->R or anything
You could also consider f: R -> R given by f(x) = tan(x) when tan(x) is defined and f(x) = 0 for other x
oh well that sounds cool thanks
An even simpler example would be f(x) = x³-x as a function R->R.
anyone familiar w this?
which part are you confused on?
i need to solve a gentzer system and idk how to say that this is a alpha formula or b formula
this exercie dont look at the words on the side
$\neg$ means not, $\wedge$ means and, $\vee$ means or
chipotle
so do u get what this table is saying
i dont understand this
what is b1 and b2
@clever sail u there?
pls tell me
ill try to figure the formulas after
well the table is basically just giving logical equivalences
so like not not A is the same value as A
A1 and A2 means both A1 and A2 are true independently
etc
are u familiar with that stuff?
yes
ye then i dont rlly know how to help further perhaps someone else does
or maybe try #proofs-and-logic
ill try im rly desperate cant find much on internet
youll prob find someone in this server who can help
jst ask around
there are help channels and also #discussion #math-discussion #serious-discussion
joe
would it be true to say that the completion of the lexographic order on Q x Q would just be Q x R but with the ordering of irrationals squeezed in between the {q} x R's?
can anyone help me out with this
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
1 and 2
If you have some work, you could show it

