#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 48 of 1
Ann
!nogpt
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
but in this case, yes, it managed not to fuck up.
my bad, yeah I am aware of chatgpt being terrible at math
is
A = {(0,1), (0,3), (1,3)}?
@stray reef since it is squared therefore A X A, also the amount of element on the tuple depends on the amount of squared right?
in the earlier example it is A X A X A so it needs 3 element per tuple and all its combination?
A = {(0,1), (0,3), (1,3)}?
no
i don't have the energy to get through your bad english right now, sorry
could I get some help with double checking my answers for this hw? my grade can’t take a hit this late in the semester lol. Thanks!
hello people can anyone help in this problem? :does there exists an uncountable collection of countable sets with distinct cardinality?
if no can anyone show why its not possible?
what i tried in hopes of getting that its not possible that assume there is a collection possible then what i saw that cardinality being different implies atleast one has to be have greater cardinality than aleph null
1 is probably ok if your class considers adjacency matrices as storing the weight of each edge -- if not, i would change all the nonzero entries in yours to 1
2a: why do you claim that there's no eulerian path in the graph? do you have a proof?
2b: "the graph doesn't pass thru each vertex exactly once" makes no sense.
(skipping 3, so as not to accidentally screw up the execution myself and feed you lies...)
4: replace the => with =
5a: correct
5b: incorrect, why do you start with a?
5c: same as 5b
but from there no idea came to my mind
:does there exists an uncountable collection of countable sets with distinct cardinality?
let me clarify one thing
you want a collection of sets $(A_\alpha){\alpha \in J}$, where $J$ is an \textbf{uncountable} index set, satisfying the following:
\begin{itemize}
\item each $A\alpha$ is countable
\item for any $\alpha, \beta \in J$ with $\alpha \ne \beta$, we have $|A_\alpha| \ne |A_\beta|$.
\end{itemize}
did i understand you correctly?
Ann
And presumably they include finite sets in the "countable" category, since otherwise the answer is immediately no
and by "countable" i suppose you mean "countable or countably-infinite"
^
@void sage confirm or deny that i understood you correctly.
yes exactly
you are right
well
ok then let me ask you
how big is the set of possible cardinalities for the A's?
yes countable means both countably infinite as well as countably finite
yeah same thing
as 1,2,3,4 is a example of countable finite
I recommend referring to those just as "finite"
but why say "countably finite"?
"countable finite" isn't standard terminology and is liable to be confusing
like the word "countably" isn't doing anything there
anyway my question still stands.
Although I love the idea of uncountable finite sets; sadly those don't exist within our framework.
how big is the set of possible cardinalities for the A's?
There exist uncountable finite sets, bc I can only count to 6. What comes after six??????
Lots
This parody song is actually called "Numbers" like Drowning Pool's "Bodies" but no one calls it that. They just call it "I can only count to four" by Psychostick. I'm sure people called Bodies "Let the bodies hit the floor" all the time. JJJreact #psychostick #songparody
Listen to Psychostick:
Spotify: https://open.spotify.com/artist/2kfVqdz3lJ...
obligatory mention
If you need to go even further, it's "hordes" and then "zounds"
@void sage are you still here y/n
Writing this down......
yes wait a min
yes take it as finite only for convenience of yours
yeah sure okay
asking my question for a third time
how big is the set of possible cardinalities for the A's?
(this question is intended for you to come to an idea on your own)
i am thinking as the sets themselves must be countably infinite that means cardinality of those sets must be <= aleph null isnt ? otherwise it would be uncountable sets ?
now we want that indexing on those sets to be uncountable so that means the cardinality of those index is greater than aleph null ?
as in list of sets cardinality
you have something that looks like the right idea, but you are dodging my question.
i am very sry
Just a set of decimal fractions. alpha is a real number, and A_alpha is the corresponding digits in alpha's decimal fraction.
limited to aleph null only ?
this was what you are expecting Ann ?
oh sry now got it
i was expecting $\bN \cup {\aleph_0}$
Ann
or, if you consider $\bN$ to start at 1, $\bN \cup {0, \aleph_0}$
Ann
in either case, the set of all possible cardinalities for your A_α is itself countably infinite -- and there are by definition not enough of those to assign a different one to each of an uncountably-sized collection!
here you are assuming that suppose say cardinality is 5 also possible ?
as in finite ones also taken considered?
set
i am not assuming anything
oh
okay i think i understand this just few points : why 0 and aleph null only possible ?
why specifically N U {0,aleph null}?
???
why 0 and aleph null only possible ?
"Why are 0 and aleph_0 the only possible cardinalities?"
i did not say they were the only ones.
0 is the cardinality of the empty set, and aleph_0 is the cardinality of a countably-infinite set.
the cardinality of any finite set is a natural number.
okay you mean the upper and lower bound as {,}?
??????
no
ok so i think this is a language barrier problem
what is your native language?
i mean to say that {a,b} generally means a set containing a and b as elements right ?
english
{a,b} means the set whose elements are a and b and nothing else.
oh now i got it
i think
you mean possible cardinalties being any number betwwen 0 to aleph null
now its okay ?
50%
oh
you are right by coincidence, but my notation did not speak of any "betweenness".
the possible cardinalities of a countable set are precisely:
- 0
- the natural numbers
- aleph_0
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ..., aleph_0}
or {0, aleph_0} ∪ {1, 2, 3, 4, ...}
or {0, aleph_0} ∪ N
do you understand now?
yes this i understand now
just was looking at the last claim
which claims that this not possible
the set of possisble different cardinalities is countable infinte because we can label them even though last term is aleph null we can still label them and know what the next element can be ?
from a particular i th index
no, countability has nothing to do with any notion of "next"
okay leaving the next just labelling is fine ? we ca do that here ? hence countably infinite ?
"labelling" is bad
i think you don't know or don't remember the definition of a countable set
you should reread your notes or textbook to refresh it in your memory
one -one correspondence between natural number and that set ?
so that means if i start from 1 then in all i am just doing a labelling with the natural numebers isnt ?
to that set given to us
sry if i am saying something very poorly
you are saying many things very poorly, and i am struggling because of it.
i struggle both to understand you and to explain my points.
may you once tell your def of countable set ?
as in we required a mapping thats why i was thinking like this
we call a set countable if and only if there exists a bijection between that set and N.
okay yes thats what i also knew
i will stop using labelling then
just a mapping is needed will say then
i have to go, sorry
yeah i have understood your claim thanks
thanks for the extreme help
even if didnt manage to understand some parts but will try to understand better
Made changes based on the feedback you gave.
#1. We did it with 0’s (I included an example we had for reference).
#2. EDIT: 2a is now “no there is no Eulerian path” and 2b is “yes it is Hamiltonian.” The graph itself is a Hamiltonian path, but not sure if the whole thing is. Also, idk if (c) is right - probably not.
#3. Changed it to “=“
#4. Fixed (b) and (c).
#5. Were you able to check this one too? The Huffman tree on the last page
@stray reef
completely understood thanks Ann
Does there exists an infinitely countable collection of uncountable sets with distinct
cardinality?
does anyone here speak german?
hey guys, quick question
say I have a set A
and consider A \ {a}, where a is an arbitrary element of A
how do I write the complement of A \ {a}
A \ (A \ {a})?
what is this equal to
the empty set?
or just the singleton {a}
{a}.
alright thank you!
anyone pls help?
You can ask questions in non-English languages in the help channels.
Or you can try to ask in English and use some German terms if you don't know the English words
Are you familiar with the axiom of choice?
Since I'm here, I may as well ask about where I might be able to find extra practice for sequences. Easily my weakest unit so far. I've done the chapter exercises and I'm still not 100% comfortable with them
yes
i can take a element out of it using axion of choice from a uncountable set and still it be a a uncountable set but then still distinct cardinality is not there in this .plus its an uncountable list
Im not sure, but maybe check Khan academy? they have practices on a lot of math concepts so I would recommend checking there?
you were writing something ?
I think you can show there is a function $f: \mathbb{N}_{\le n} \to \mathbb{O}$, where $\mathbb{O}$ is the class of ordinal numbers such that $card(f(i)) < card(f(j))$ if $i < j$, from this you can use axiom of choice to construct an infinite set of sets with different cardinalities
that... technically works but is overcomplicated
Leu
does this list work ? power set of natural numbers and then power of power set and the series goes on? all are distinct and also that we have a countable indexing of the list ?
any simple way ?
well there's the way you just found
I agree :V, I don't know how to make it simpler though
this works
thanks
i honestly don't know how you get... sequences of cardinals of every finite length... without just constructing an infinite sequence of cardinals
also since the ordinals are well-ordered you don't need choice even if you're doing that
also like just use the $\aleph$s or something
bee [it/its]
I don't think you can conclude that without choice
for each n just take the lexicographically first function with that property from N_{<= n} to the ordinals, that avoids choice
but i meant in terms of like
what actual construction did you actually use that doesn't automatically get you infinitely many cardinals
From this you'd have a countable infinite collection of sets A_i, such that a_i < a_j if i < j and a_i \in A_i and a_j \in A_j
But then don't you need choice to contruct the actual set?
...i have no idea where you got that from, that is not what you'd end up with at all
but if you somehow did construct that, you can then just take minimums again
You mean the functions I said earlier?
If that is the case you could then show that from every n you can take A_n = {f_n(n}},
You could probably just to It directly using induction I'm not really sure
nope that doesn't work
i mean you can do that but it's entirely possible that they just all give you the same cardinal which wouldn't be helpful
good question
im a little out of the loop even having read the backlogs
the original question is whether there's a countable set of distinct uncountable cardinals
I'm trying to understand the flaw
obviously there is, but now we're on a tangent about a proposed solution that uses the axiom of choice unnecessarily and that i think is overcomplicated
I mean, it isn't for me, I'm trying to understand why there is, and I asserted since the beginning I wasn't completely sure about it
just start at any cardinal and repeatedly take power sets and you get infinitely many distinct cardinals
Yeah, got it now, each step you have a well defined set for esch n 😛
i've a question about the exercises 15,1 and 15,2 of Numerical Methods for Engineers by chapra and canale anyone know ?
I have the solution but the results are somewhat inconsistent since the 15.2 is a continuation of the 15.1
Let φ be the sentence "For all x, for all y, there exists a z such that if R(x, y) then R(y, z)", where R is a predicate symbol of two arguments.
Let A = {a, b, c, d}.
Define RM as the set {(b, c), (b, b), (b, a)}.
Question:
Do we have M ⊨ φ, where M is the structure with universe A and interpretation RM?
My Answer: I received a tip that whenever encountering an implication, I should always check if the condition p in p→q is false because then I can assert that it is true. So, in case (a), it states that for all x and for all y , R should hold. However, given x=a , it doesn't hold since there's no y for a . Therefore, I concluded that the model holds here. But I was wrong, and I don't understand what the answer sheet is telling me at all. Can someone please explain?
ok well it's not just the "if", there's also the quantifiers
"for all x, for all y, ..." is true if the rest of it is true for every choice of x and y
like for instance x=b, y=c
also i have no idea what you mean by "case (a)"
better version of the question
running with this example: if phi is true, then there is some z such that if R(b, c) then R(c, z)
so what is this z?
and if there isn't one, then that means phi is false
yes but given that the set is {a,b,c,d} don't we expect R = {(a,b), (b,c), (c,d), (d,a)}
because now for all x's there is a "y". a has b and vice verrsa, b has c and vice versa
etc...
well yes that's an example of an R that makes that statement true
but i thought the question was asking about R = {(b, c), (b, b), (b, a)}
yes and thus I conluded that the p in (p->q) is false
and thus False -> Anything = True?
ok well that's not the right place to start from
the question we're considering isn't "exists z, if R(a,a) then R(a,z)"
it's "for all x and y, exists z, if R(x,y) then R(y,z)"
that statement is true iff it's true for every choice of x and y
that's what "for all" means
so if that statement is true then "exists z, if R(b,c) then R(c,z)" is true
and "exists z, if R(c,b) then R(b,z)" is true
and "exists z, if R(a,d) then R(d,z)" is true
there are 16 instances like this, and the statement "for all x and y, exists z, if R(x,y) then R(y,z)" is true if all 16 instances are true
but R is a relationship tho so if we say for all x and y R(x,y) then it requires (a,b) (b,a) given a set of {a,b}
...we didn't say that
sorry I'm slow
look at where the brackets are in the statement as they originally wrote it
for all x, for all y, exists z, (if R(x,y) then R(y,z))
can you prove to me that this false using the set of alphabets?
I think I am getting there but Ima need an example
suppose it's true
let x = b, y = c, so we get exists z (if R(b,c) then R(c,z))
and for any z, this is false, because R(b,c) is true but R(c,z) is false for all z
which is a contradiction so it's false
alternative way to think about it: the negation of this statement is "exists x and y, for all z, R(x, y) and not R(y, z)"
so we take x = b, y = c, and then it is true that R(b, c) is true and R(c, z) is false
Another thing if we say for all x and y we don't mean actually all possible x's from the universal set?
we do mean all of them
Or is it that we found one case where the first holds but the second (q) in p->q doesn't hold?
And since we are asked for all then False
Thanks for the Help I really appreciate it!!
What should I do here?
think about it
It's
true
false
false
true
my problem now is probably either I have to make it with example or not
id check back over how you go to your answers. remember domain of all integers includes 0. This should help you with some of the questions when you plug things in.
additional question about the same thing. If R had been R(x,y) = {(a,a), (b,b), (c,c)} then I would be right ?
No?
So first you need to note what a tautology is
in language its when you repeat something often right?
No
You're presumably working out of a set of course notes, or a textbook. Undoubtedly they explicitly define what a tautology is. You should go back and find the definition.
👍
I beleive ||a tautology is a truth statement that always evaluates to true irregardless of inputs||
(definitely try to find it in the book first before reading)
tommorow i have midterm and idk what to do i need to learn so many things
which one would you recommend me?
I would recommend your course notes
Just read two books before tomorrow...
Definitely Susanna
does anyone know if distributive properties apply to Zp if p is not prime?
p being a number in the natural numbers
Yes.
can somebody help me with number 2
a) all i cant think of is n choose 4 which is obviously wrong
Here are some visual hints in the order the images are posted
should just ask them (probably not all at once)
can someone explain why my thought process here is incorrect?
"In how many ways can four chessboard squares can be selected, if no two can be from the same column?"
i thought that for choosing the first squre we have 64 options, then for the second we cant choose that column so we have 64-8 ways, for the third 64-2*8 and forth 64-8*3
You forget that the order of choosing 4 squares doesn't matter.
oh i see, thanks
np
can someone help me with this i got stuck
i'm trying to find the number of ways to get the sum of 12 using 3 different 6-sided dice (each colored differently), so i set up the equation $x_1+x_2+x_3=12$ where $1 \leq x_{1,2,3} \leq 6$
which can be transformed into $x_1'+x_2'+x_3'=9$ where $0 \leq x'_{1,2,3} \leq 5$ and its at the next step i got stuck:
usually i would describe another variables $y_i$ such that they complement the former meaning $ 6 \leq y_i$ but in this problem it just doesn't work
horizon2.0
Can someone give a hint on how to prove that for an Abelian group any finite order |h| , if it exists, divides the maximal order |g|?
I thought about looking at |gh| since that has to divide lcm(|g|, |h|). But I'm not experienced with these number theory proofs...
Complementary method does work here
By stars and bars method, the whole number solutions to x_1' + x_2' + x_3' = 9 is (9 + 3 - 1)choose(3-1) = 11C2 or 55
Now subtract the whole number solutions when at least one of the x_i' ≥ 6
Or equivalently, finding the whole number solutions to:
y_1 + x_2' + x_3' = 3 (since only one of the x_i' can be ≥6 such that x_1' + x_2' + x_3' = 9)
And you can do the same with x_2 and x_3 as well, i.e., count them as well
break problem up into 2 steps where two dice add to k and the third adds to 12-k
prove for cyclic groups and then use fundamental thm
Book hasn't said anything about cyclic groups or fundamental theorem
that book is kinda shite then ay
No
but you cant use the stars and bars method when the variables are upper bounded, no?
This is the first paragraph on orders
Using the fundemental theorem is overkill anyway
It's a good idea at least once to do this manually
You can if you're using complementary method
oh yeah I suppose
yeah I see the proof now but it's weird that they don't discuss cyclic groups in the book
You're right to look at |gh|. The idea is that you will be able to find an element of higher order by combining g and h.
in the third line is it strictly greater? not greater or equal?
Higher order compared to h?
well g and h
Compared to g, hence giving us a contradiction.
But g has the highest order
Yes.
yes
Ok, i will try some more, thanks
nice
You, trees?
Yeah complement of x_i≤6 is x_i>6
Best of luck
but x'_i is less than or equal 5, on the forth line i wrote
Ah mb
but still x'_2 and x'_3 are bounded by 5 so we cant use the stars and bars, otherwise why wouldn't we use it when we had x'_1+x'_2+x'_3=9?
@hard citrus edited
No basically here's the gist:
We first find the total whole number solutions of:
x_1' + x_2' + x_3' = 9
Then we subtract those solutions if at least one of the x_i' ≥ 6
All of this is equivalent to finding the number of whole number solutions when 0 ≤ x_i ≤ 5
I gtg now
i see what you're saying but, the way I've learned it is that if any of those variables are upper bounded (assuming if it was lower bounded you took care of it such that it lower bound is 0) then we cant use the stars and bars method to find the number of solution to that equesion, we must first use diffrent variables that are lower bounded by the upper bound and then subtract that from the universe
oh i see, thanks anyway, i'll try and look around some more
can someone do it as well to compare answers? i got 55-30=25
The last part is exactly what I did. The "universe" here is total whole no. soln of x_1' + x_2' + x_3' = 9
Make the upper bound as the lower bound:
5<x_i => x_i≥6
And subtract these cases from the "universe"
The only thing you need to take care of here is only one of the x_i can be ≥6 here, and not more than one at a time
Yeah the same answer
thanks i think i got the gist of it
i need help with a question can anyone plz help
Which of the following results need not hold in a ring (R,+,.)?
a+b=b+a ∀ a,b ∈ R
a.0 = 0.a = 0,∀ a ∈ R
a.b = b.a,∀ a,b ∈ R
a.(b-c)= a.b-a.c,∀ a,b,c ∈ R
i think option 4 is correct can anyone plz help
do you have a counterexample for option 4?
and whats your definition of a ring
help with combinatorics problem , in a car park there are 30 cars in a row , 8 of them have broken down , how man ypossibilities are there fo parking 30 vehicles ( always in a row ) , if every pair of broken down vehicles is seperated by atleast two good vehicles
@tawny orchid progress?
my progress is $\binom{20}{4}$ if the order of broken doesnt matter and multiply 8! otherwise
Kapa
how did you get $\binom{20}{4}$ and what does this count represent?
Ann
when i said progress i did not really imagine "wild guess out of nowhere without reasoning to support it"
Kapa
what are these X_i?
also, just to confirm, there are 8 broken cars, yes?
yes
then why are there only 4 plus signs?
wouldn't you want $X_1 + X_2 + \dots + X_9 = 22$?
Ann
4 plus signs , because we can think of those broken down vehicles as pairs and their order doesnt matter
but broken vehicles can't go together
every two broken cars have at least 2 good cars between them
they are in pair
everytwo broken down vehicles have 2 cars that seperate
its like u have NEW,NEW,NEW BROKENBROKEN ,NEW,NEW BROKEnbroken
no
$\overbrace{NNBBNNNBBNNNNBBNNBB}^{\text{one case approx}}$
Kapa
no
yes what does that mean
"every two broken cars have ≥2 good cars between them" means your row contains, in this order:
- some number of good cars (maybe 0)
- broken car #1
- at least 2 good cars
- broken car #2
- at least 2 good cars
- broken car #3
- (and so on...)
- at least 2 good cars
- broken car #7
- at least 2 good cars
- broken car #8
- some number of good cars (maybe 0)
WanderingLethe
did you translate?
no its in my WS
if you translated, then from what language?
its in english
right...
Then what is the exact formulation?
i was going to suggest a purely combinatorial solution, by the way.
not quitee
you need to multiply by 22! as well to account for the order of the good cars
english
Yes, what is the exact formulation in your homework?
yea 22! and 8! for the order of broken down
ill write it
$Exercise 10 $ : In a car park , there are 30 cars in a row , 8 of them have broken down ,How many possibilities are there for parking 30 vehicles ( always in a row ) , if every pair of broken down vehicles is seperated by atleast two good vehicles? then generalize it
the bot was pointless here
yes
also you could have taken a screenshot or picture
anyway
do you want to hear my purely combinatorial solution Y/N
yes
clearly the sticking point is finding the number of possible selections of 8 spots among 30 for the broken cars (since the answer to the problem will be that times 8! * 22!), so let's consider how we could do that.
imagine that there are 2 phantom cars at the end the parking row, and that they are always good.
then the condition "every two broken cars are separated by at least two bad cars" can be rewritten as "every bad car is followed by at least 2 good cars." (if a bad car is in any of the spots from 1 to 28, it'll have to be real good cars, and if a bad car is in spots 29 or 30, it'll have to be one or both phantoms)
this means that we are essentially arranging good cars and B-G-G groups in a row. there are 8 B-G-G groups (one for each broken car) and 8 single good cars (to bring the total length up to 32 -- remember that there are 2 phantom cars at the end.)
which comes out to ||C(16, 8) choices for where the broken cars can go.||
oh yes thats actually the correct answer , thank you for your help
by the way , i got the exact same soltuion if i solve it with X_i
wanna see it?
$X_1+X_2+...+X_9= 22 \implies$ we can think of $X_i$ as a box where u can put good cars and $+$ signs as broken down vehicles
Kapa
you could say that yeah
how ever we know starting from X2 -> X8 they are all gonna be >= 2
so we can do change for variable
or you could be more direct and say that X_i is the number of good cars in the interval between bad cars i-1 and i,
with X_1 and X_9 being the counts of good cars from the leftmost and rightmost ends resp.
but the logic afterward is all the same
$Y_1 + Y_2 ... + Y_9 = 22 - (8-2+1)(2)$
Kapa
$Y_1 + Y_2 + ... + Y_9 = 8$ now number of solutions to this equation is $\binom{16}{8}$
Kapa
yes
thank your for your help ann
I got the feeling I am only getting further away from the answer...
what answer
That if a finite order exists it divides the maximal order of an Abelian group
... ? this wording sounds strangee
do you mean like
"let G be a finite abelian group and let x ∈ G, then ord(x) divides |G|"
this?
or you could also just (re)post your original problem in full cause im not at all certain we are on the same page here.
No, Let G be an Abelian group and let g be an element of maximal finite order. Prove that for any element h with finite order, |h| divides |g|.
so let G be an abelian group with the additional property that the set of all finite orders of its elements is bounded,
And this is an exercise after the first paragraph about orders, so not many theorems in the toolbag
yes
i have a feeling that you could just consider the subgroup of G formed by all finite-order elements
oh but wait, we don't know that that would itself be finite.

I do have a theorem that if g and h commute that |gh| divides lcm(|g|, |h|)
right, and since we're in an abelian group, then we get commutation for free.
Also that if gcd(|g|, |h|) = 1 then |gh| = |g| . |h|
well, suppose gcd(|g|, |h|) = d < |h|
g is a max-finite-order element and h is an arbitrary finite-order element and our goal's to show |h| divides |g|, so we assume towards a contradiction that their orders' gcd is not |h|
what can you say about the element h^d?
That its order is lcm(d, |h|)/d
i mean you're technically right but
oh 😛
you understand that lcm(d, |h|) is equal to |h|
right
cause d is a divisor of |h| by construction
oh right
let me check some gcd laws
oh just 1?
indeed
So |gh^d| = |g||h|/d
yeah, do you see the contradiction here
d >= |h| while we said d < |h|
Thank you Ann, now for me to come up with this myself...
So, how did you think about this? Just because we have a d, try if we can do something with it?
my idea was to come up with an element with order coprime to |g|
a and b are coprime if gcd(a,b) = 1, right?
And because |g| is maximal, the other element has to have order 1
I have never done any number theory, so this is pretty new. But the book assumes the reader knows some...
yes
i dont understand this
i have k3,3 drawn on my paper but idk what homeomorphoism fully is
Isn't a homeo a continuous bijection?
i have no clue what that means
It's a bijection that preserves the topological properties, so i guess in graphs that means that you cannot break or create edges
But I don't know any topology or graph theory
Two graphs are homeomorphic if you can make each one from the other by (repeateadly) adding/removing vertices of degree 2 along some edges.
I.e. replacing an edge with a vertex connected to both of the original endpoints
Or replacing a vergex of degree 2 with an edge between its two neighbors
So a triangle and a square are homeomorphic graphs
But neither of them is homeomorphic to a Y - shaped graph
In graph theory, two graphs G{\displaystyle G} and G′{\displaystyle G'} are homeomorphic if there is a graph isomorphism from some subdivision of G{\displaystyle G} to some subdivision of G′{\displaystyle G'}. If the edges of a graph are thought of as lines drawn from one vertex to another (as they are usually depicted in illustrations), then t...
Hm, I've only just looked at the screenshot and that description sounds like it's describing contractibility rather than homeomorphism, so no wonder you're struggling
I don't think the Petersen graph has a subgraph that's contractible to K(3,3), although it is contractible to K5
It does have a subgraph that's homeomorphic to K(3,3)
im tryign to map k3,3 onto the peterson graph then collpasing all the remaining points
but yeah its not working
You need to remove a few edges from the Petersen graph
Note that you just need to find a subgraph that's homeomorphic to K(3,3)
Yeah, that's the homeomorphism thing
ok so right now im trying to "smooth out" a subgraph of the peterson graph so its has 6 vertices that each have a degree of 3
So compared to topology, in which a homeo is a continuous bijection and thus the preimage of every open set in the codomain has to be an open set in the domain. Is this equivalent in graph theory in the way that a bijections needs to preserve every path(?) in the graph?
i mean you can tie it directly to the topological sense of homeomorphism
if you imagine a graph as a geometric entity where the nodes are points and the edges are curves (aka the edges are homeomorphic to a segment)
then homeomorphism in the graph theoretic sense coincides with the topological sense
ok
Well not precisely right, for example the graph •-• is homeomorphic to the graph •-•-•, if you'll excuse my lazy ascii rendering
I think this works under certain subtle conditions on the graph
i mean those two are homeo in both senses are they not
topologically they are both just a line
No, they are not isomorphic graphs
But they are homeomorphic topogical spaces
Oh wait I see, I misunderstood what was going on. My mistake.
So how would you translate that to a topological space? Is that possible with a finite set of vertices? Because you can't have a bijection if you don't have the same amount of vertices right?
if you imagine a graph as a geometric entity where the nodes are points and the edges are curves (aka the edges are homeomorphic to a segment)
that's the translation
are you familiar with the concept of gluing stuff together topologically
I know about pushouts in HoTT... In which you glue points together
i am decidedly not a HoTT person
you take a single point for each vertex, you take a copy of a segment for each edge, and you glue them all together in accordance with their incidence in the graph
the resulting topo space is the... i guess topological version of your graph
and my claim was that for two graphs, those things are homeo iff the original graphs were graph-theoretically homeo
ok
I only know about the assembly language of topology a set M with a topology O \subseteq P(M), such that...
because HoTT is easier to do in a programming language
But I am now reading a book about abstract algebra to get some more basic fundamental knowledge. Topology is on the list as well
imagine ignoring vertices and edges and thinking about a graph as lines on a surface of some genus
there's the space of the surface minus the graph and that's of interest to knot theorists I believe
I need some help solving this problem, I know the equation for repeated permutations is
$\frac{n!}{n{1}!n{2}!...n_{k}!}$
BadChef
And so I derived a general case without the condition that each perm starts from an obj of an odd-numbered type
$\frac{(n(n{1}+n{2}))!}{(n{1}!)^{n}(n{2}!)^{n}}$
BadChef
But I am unsure how to derive the case which satisfies the condition
what do you need help with?
?
do you understand the exists and for all symbol meanings?
not really
ngl just speeding through homework so i can sit down and study the content later
well its probably a good idea to do it the other way
look at the definitions for both and it should be easy
Can someone help me understand how do I prove this?
$$2n+1= \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k \binom{2n-k}{k} 2^{2n-2k}$$
horizon2.0
are you sure the left hand side is 2n+1
aight nvm theres no typo there by the looks of it
i'd try to look at the function $f(x) = \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{2n-k}{k} x^k$, or something similar
Ann
the RHS of your identity can be expressed in terms of that function.
I just checked this again. Is that even true? I get that it has to be less than d, but it can be some other divisor less than d not equal to 1, right?
so then |h^d| is not coprime to |g|, and my proof fails...
bézout's lemma
it states that the gcd of any two integers x and y is expressible as some integer linear combination of x and y
more precisely given x, y ∈ Z and d = gcd(x,y), there exist a, b ∈ Z s.t. d = ax + by
a corollary of this lemma is that if it's possible to express the number 1 this way from x and y, it means x and y are coprime.
ah wait, hold on.
that didn't quite work the way i imagined it, hang on.
Ok, didn't know the Bézout Identity
ah so I want to find some x |g| + y |\phi(h)| = 1?
,ask How many 9-card hands contain four cards of the same value?
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,ask How many 9 card hands contain four cards of the same value?
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brother someone plz help 🙏
In a standard deck of playing cards, there are 52 different cards. Each card is one of 13 different values, and one of 4 different suits (of which there are 2 red suits and 2 black suits). How many 9-card hands contain four cards of the same value?
the bot won't do your questions for you
@fading steppe @signal plank are you two classmates or something?
lmao, kinda
yea an attempt
ok, can i see it?
so for 5 hands we had 13 x 48c1
you mean for 5-card hands?
5 card hands yeah
yea
right
ill post working in a sec
yeah, that tracks so far.
for 9-card hand
ok, awaiting that.
13 * 48 * 47C4 is what i'm seeing from you
yep
i mean
"pick a card, then pick 4 not of the same value" is a bit troublesome
first, because you would probably wish to pick from 44 cards and not 48 -- and second, because those four last cards could form a 2nd four-of-a-kind among themselves.
which is that bad kind of overcounting that's hard to account for
mhm
48c5?
so here's my suggestion:
- first, count the hands with at least one four-of-a-kind in a similar fashion as you did for hand size 5 -- as 13 * 48C5, in this case
- then, observe that this will double-count precisely those hands which contain two four-of-a-kinds (i.e. stuff like AAAAKKKKQ)
so from that, subtract the number of hands with 2 four-of-a-kinds
oh i see
so we do 13 * 48C5 minus the number of 2 four-of-a-kinds which we have to find
got it
yes
and the hands with 2 four-of-a-kinds can be counted in a similar manner as well
and of course you don't need to worry about a 3rd four-of-a-kind bc there are not enough cards to make that :P
would two 4 of a kind just be 42c1 ?
oh wowww it worked appreciate it
the way to find 9-card hands with 2 four-of-a-kinds is 13C2 * 4C4 * 44C1
and it all worked out from there
ah just since we have 4 cards of the same value
so i selected 4 cards from 4
it just made sense in my head
it might be a bit redundant but the general idea is there
i mean there's only one way to do that
so it's unnecessary
This is a discrete math problem, and I have no idea where to even begin
What area of discrete math would this be so I could research more into it
- Suppose that $n$ cats and $n$ dogs are seated around a table$^1$ . Prove that, no matter how they are arranged, it is possible to find a starting point so that if one travels around the table clockwise, the number of cats one has passed is never less than the number of dogs one has passed.
nogo
ping me if someone replies to this please
Have you tried this with small values of n?
Say n = 3 or 4?
Try some example seatings
seeing that both are n, it means whatever amount of cats there are must be the same amount of dogs
however i'm not sure if that assumption is correct, nor do I see how that assumption could show how cats passed never less than dogs
because if n = 3 for example, and if its random arrangement, you can get
(must start with cat)
cat dog cat dog dog cat
bold indicates a moment where # of cats passed is less than # of dogs passed
unless the question is asking the grand total at the end? im interpreting it as what is passed over in realtime
_ _
can anyone help with a fibonnaci sequence question instead?
got stuck at the end, not sure what to do from there
In your sequence of you start at the last cat
(remember they're sitting in a circle you can start anywhere)
It works
The first line in the base case, should be gcd(f_1, f_0) on the rhs
I think for this k has to be at least 1, not 0
0 doesn't work as you can see
oups yeah, just wanted to show that k=0 doesn't work
Sure but it's not relevant for the proof
true i'll just remove it
And I'd argue including it makes the proof more confusing
If you want to say that, put that after the proof as a side note
but then you got cat > dog > dog and by then you would have seen 2 dogs before another cat no?
Right so try some more examples
See if you can see that if the claim doesn't hold, you get some contradiction
alright i see now what you mean, and the statement is true
but still not sure how i can use something like a contracdiction to prove the statement is true for all n
since i assume i can't just show an example like n = 3, prove that is true
unless i can
no you can't
actually wait does it count as a proof to show that if n = 3, suppose you can't get more cats than dogs if you choose the order
and then proving you can acutally nvm that doesn't make sense yeah im pretty lost
maybe a proof by induction?
but then again no cause there's barely numbers to work with just words
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4794841/induction-proof-that-for-all-n-girls-and-n-boys-there-is-never-less-girls-th i found a stackexhange with basically the same question so i'll use this to guide me, thanks for the help on it though
they seemed to do induction not contradiction
you meant this, right?
d = x |g| + y |h|
1 = x |g|/d + y |h|/d
If i then calculate |h^d g^d| = |h^d| |g^d| = |h| |g| / d^2 and thus |h| <= d^2
But that doesn't (directly) lead to a contradiction
@stray reef and @brave rock I took a look at the hint by the exercise. It indeed say to assume that |h| does not divide |g| and then that follows that |h| has a prime factor with higher multiplicity than |g|. And it wants you to use that factor to construct an order
Then it is pretty easy. I should have looked at the hint, didn't wrote it down on paper and totally forgot about it... 😛
<@&268886789983436800> ^ spam
Hey guys, apart from using induction. Would it be reasonable to prove this equation by expanding the LHS and simplify?
yeah
Thanks man, I just kinda need some source or someone that shows me how that is performed.
Just expand it with the definition?
In combinatorial mathematics, the hockey-stick identity, Christmas stocking identity, boomerang identity, Fermat's identity or Chu's Theorem, states that if n≥r≥0{\displaystyle n\geq r\geq 0} are integers, then
(rr)+(r+1r)+(r+2r)+⋯+(nr)=(n+1r+1).{\displaystyle {\binom {r}{r}}+{\binom {r+1}{r}}+{\binom {r+2}{r}}+\cdots +{\binom {n}{r}}={\binom {...
I have just started to study Discrete Mathematics, and I have no idea how to solve this : A fighter fights in 10 consecutive days, at least one battle a day and the total battles are not over 15. Prove that there are consecutive days the fighter has fight exactly 4 battles.
I think it's Pigeonhole
I don't get the problem... suppose he fought 10 battles in total, one per day. I don't see any "exactly 4 battles" day
i am confused too
it's a string of consecutive days
so if it's 1 per day, then any string of four days contained exactly 4 battles
well say that you had: 2, 2, 1, 2, 1, 1, 2, 1, 1, 1
then the first two days are two consecutive days, and have exactly 4 battles in total (2 + 2)
if it's 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, then [1, 1, 1, 1] is four in total
something like 1, 5, 1, 5, 1, 5, 1, 5, 1, 5 does not work, because "[1, 1, 1, 1]" is not four consecutive days (you'd be skipping over the days with 5 battles in between), but in that case the total number of battles is way more than 15
hmnnnnnnnn
can it contain 3 ?
m only = 1,2 ,4 ???
hmnn i am figuring how to solve it mathematically
having 3 isn't a problem
like if you had 1, 3, 1, 2, 1, 2, 1, 1, 2, 1, then [3, 1] works because that's 4 in total
or [2, 1, 1], that's also 4 in total
cool
probably start with n = 10 which bee already showed has a string of days with exactly 4 battles
then from there prove that it holds for n =11
and so on, building up to 15
okay
can I do something like this
suppose ai is the number of battles on ith day
sum of ai <= 15
i go from 1 to 10
suppose bi is the total battles up until the ith
bi is greater than 1 and less or equal to 15
suppose we have B = {b_1,b_2,b_3,b_4,...,b_10,b_1 +4,b_2 +4} this set has 20 elements from {1,..,19}
suppose bi = bj +4 then bi-bj = 4 means that total battles from i+1th day to jthday is 4
I believe so yes
so I was thinking about the multiset formula. If you have a set of n elements, there are n + k -1 choose k sets with k elements, where each element may be repeated. it's explained pretty well here:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multiset#Counting_multisets
but I would like to know if there's another way to go about it.
specifically, I would like to set up a bijection between k-multisets of a set with n elements (call that family A )and the k-element subsets of a set with n + k - 1 elements (family B), such that the sets of A with no repetitions are exactly mapped to the sets of B that only contain the first n elements. and the remaining sets of A, that is those that have repetitions, are somehow exactly mapped to the sets of B that contain at least one of the remaining k -1 elements. Can you think of a way to make this mapping happen?
yes
I have no idea how to get started for this one
induction multiple choice...
what's an axiom of choice ?
The axiom of choice is a particular assumption mathematicians make about the way sets work. It is used without worry in everyday mathematics and has subtle and interesting connections in the study of logic and formal set theory.
The wikipedia page is an excellent introduction if you want to know more.
What are those interesting connections with formal logic and set theory?
Also doesn't it break higher inductive structures?
What are those interesting connections? C is independent of ZF, amongst other things.
I have no idea what you mean by 'higher inductive structures'
so how do I start it?
For example higher inductive types in HoTT, aren't those all contractible with the AoC?
all contractible? no, it's consistent with AC that a type with two distinct elements exists, and there are various higher inductive definitions that produce that type
it's certainly true that if you formulate AC in a way that's kind of just... wrong... then that ends up being inconsistent with univalence
Well the higher structures contractible
i don't know if AC actually implies UIP and not just "not univalence"
Ok
but yeah that formulation of choice is kind of just stupid?
if you assert the axiom of choice for sets then you don't get any problems
Oh right, since identities on sets are already contractible (I think)
Well what is the induction principle?
Univalence, AoC all little too far above my head...
u gotta assume smth and then use it ltr but I dont get where I am supposed to begin
Not just something, what does your book say about the induction principle?
uhh.. you have to prove something for k'th element and make it work for k+1 element
no. you assume it's true for k-th element, then use that assumption to prove that it's also true for (k + 1)-th element
oh yea that seems more familiar now
Do you have a book? I would really advice to read about this and understand it fundamentally
I was js doin it from memory. I dont have my notes with me rn
bro
i dont like discrete math
but its part of my major
and its in flipped learning format
I didn't get any responses yesterday, and would like to ask this q again today. can somebody please help me find such a bijection? (or convince me it's pointless to look for one)
..I actually think I figured it out, if anyone's interested I'll explain what the hell I was thinkin about 😄
Could anyone confirm if this inequality is correct? It seems wrong to me
Why does it seem wrong to you? It's a strong inequality – much stronger than it needs to be – since a sharp upper bound is n+1.
This follows from $\lfloor x \rfloor \leq x$ -- this is just part of the definition of the floor, if you like.
Boytjie
Here is the graph of 2+2floor((n-1)/2) in red, and n+1 in blue.
Hey man, so we could change the last lower bound from < to <=?
Your image is correct
The text of your message is not, but I think you just meant to say "from <= to <" instead.
No, thats actually what I meant 'cause the last bound of the previous image is different
.
In Boolean product of zero one matrices are actually multiplying ? In this Kimberly brahm playlist for discrete math, she does it using meet and join symbols.
In the other hand I did just by actually multiplying and got the same result
@calm sapphire at no point you do end up computing 1+1 anywhere in this example
that's why there's no difference to be seen
can i assume, that my way of doing it will work for all matrices that satisfy mxk kxm (the dimensions of the matrices) so long that the matrices comprise of zeros and ones ?
what do you mean by will work ?
what I'm getting at is that the example in the video is not very well chosen
it doesn't highlight the difference between their "boolean product" and matrix multiplication with elements in F_2
the difference arises when you end up computing 1+1
@calm sapphire
Gotcha thanks man !
Any chance you can give me a decent example?
make the zero in 2nd row 1st column of A a one
if you're doing the product in F_2, you'll get a 0 at position (2, 2) of the result
for the "boolean product", you'll get a 1 instead (cause it's using a regular OR for "addition", not an XOR)
@calm sapphire
Goated thanks for helping satisfy an itch
Is there a fast way of doing this in ti84?
prolly not
I'm pretty sure you can't specify to do shit in F2 by default on an ti84
let alone with their boolean product
bro im such a noob with this calc that i have never used the F2 button lol
no worries i wrote it code
save it for reference
someone had it on stackoverflow
I'm not talking about the F2 button, talking about this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/GF(2)
GF(2) (also denoted F2{\displaystyle \mathbb {F} _{2}}, Z/2Z or Z/2Z{\displaystyle \mathbb {Z} /2\mathbb {Z} }) is the finite field with two elements (GF is the initialism of Galois field, another name for finite fields). Notations Z2 and Z2{\displaystyle \mathbb {Z} _{2}} may be encountered although they can be confused with the notation of 2-a...
maybe you were just joking about the ti84 and the joke got over my head, just making sure we're talking about the same thing
ohh ok, well I also didnt even know about Galios Field let alone F2
this was an interesting convo lol
better reread the whole convo now
why do u think i missed something ?
gotcha, does F2 show up in more advanced math classes, cuz in my discrete class they havent mentioned it at all
F2 seems like an interesting abstract world
well if you're talking about binary data, F_2 shows up
havent gotten to that in school yet
it's the mathy way of talking about binary
if you're taking linear algebra you might see it
also in cryptography and coding theory on the more CS side of things
anyway i gtg
how do i write $\dfrac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$ in terms of choosing formula $\binom{n}{k}$?
Derivative
u really cant to match the degrees the only choice is C(n,2) which doesnt satisfy
$\binom{n(n+1)(2n+1)/6}{1}$
Ann
@weary tiger
Is this not just 271? One 10*10 square, one 9*10 square since it shares a side with the first, and one 9*9 square since it shares 2 sides with the first 2
was 271 rejected?
well you are right
Thank you
does anyone have some good resource for how to solve recurrence relations with generating functions?
There are many. Example:
- https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/6-042j-mathematics-for-computer-science-fall-2010/resources/mit6_042jf10_chap12/
- https://math.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/Combinatorics_and_Discrete_Mathematics/Applied_Discrete_Structures_(Doerr_and_Levasseur)/08%3A_Recursion_and_Recurrence_Relations/8.05%3A_Generating_Functions
- https://www2.math.upenn.edu/~wilf/gfology2.pdf
gfology
I just finished a problem proving that if G is a planar graph with at least 4 edges and no triangles, then m <= 2n-4, where m is the size and n is the order of G.
The next problem is to prove that if G is a toroidal graph with at least three edges, then m <= 3n, but I can't use n-m+r=0 for toroidal graphs, and I'm struggling to find an approach
r is the number of faces in the embedding
With the pigeonhole principle, can I have a variable number of slots, for example can I say three slots to add up to at least 21 if I have 37 slots with 6 items and 2 slots with 7 items, and I try to put 261 items in, since 37 * 6 + 2 * 7 < 261
Depends on the problem you're trying to solve
With given results can u generate functions
And how you want to model it
As in what does a variable number of spots represent in your given problem?
What is here about?
Discrete math
Each spot represents a department and I'm trying to say that if 37 of the departments can have 6 professors in them while 2 can have 7 professors then any more of then the max number of professor slots would result in at least one combination of departments with 21 or greater professors.
It makes sense intuitively I'm just not sure if its a proper use
For the following problem:
How many permutations can be formed from 2n types of objects with n1 objects of each
odd-numbered type and n2 objects of each even-numbered type and each permutation
starts from an object of an odd-numbered type?
Would I say there are n1 possibilities for the 1st element of every permutation or n * n1?
Having mild brain fart, anyone got any suggestions for how to transform (\bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}, n \geq k}E_n) into something only using finite union,intersection,difference or the full (\bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}}E_n)?
StarvinPig
I mean $$\bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}, n \geq k} E_n$$ seems clean enough to me. Can you be more specific about what else you want?
Spamakin🎷
I needed to go show this was measurable so I wanted to see if I could represent it in a form of stuff we've shown is measurable in class. But I just did a workaround by making (F_{k,n} = \begin{cases}
X & n < k\
E_n & n \geq k \
\end{cases})
StarvinPig
let $E_1 = \varnothing$ and then the $\bigcap_n E_n$ becomes useless, so it's impossible
bee [it/its]
couldn't you just do the indexing differently...?
$F_n = E_{n+k}$
bee [it/its]
Same difference basically
What do I_x and I_y mean in this context?
identity functions on X and Y respectively
What exactly does that mean?
$I_X: X \to X$ is the function which sends each point of $X$ to itself
Ann
$I_X(x) = x$
Ann
okay that makes sense. Thank you
Would really appreciate if someone helped me with this. Would the first element in a permutation with these conditions have n * n1 or n1 possibilities ?
can someone help wiht this?
using handshake lemma I get
2E = 29 + x
29 is the degrees from the question
x is the vertices of degree one (the leaves)
Can anybody help me get started on this problem? I'm totally stuck
Whats the rule for multiplying a scalar to a congruence class? like what is 2 x [a] or 2[a] ?
I was wondering why it has to divide the factorial of 11 by the duplicate letter in the word.
So I am guessing that 11! is the combination of every possible arrangement, but it can contain duplicates, so by adding the factorial of duplicates in the denominator, we can do something like an equation thingy that can easily remove all duplicates.
So in the second photo, it is basically subtracting all of the denominators until 1 is the only one left.
I hope you guys catch my drift.
guys im watching this video (current timestamp) https://youtu.be/uGxPGT6boYQ?list=PLl-gb0E4MII28GykmtuBXNUNoej-vY5Rz&t=529 , I don't understand why relation R_3 works
Exploring the properties of relations including reflexive, symmetric, anti-symmetric and transitive properties.
Video Chapters:
Introduction 0:00
Reflexive Relations 0:07
Symmetric Relations 1:56
Anti-Symmetric Relations 4:11
Transitive Relations 9:27
Relation Properties Practice 14:55
Up Next 21:35
Textbook: Rosen, Discrete Mathematics and It...
If by "works" you mean "is antisymmetric," this is vacuous truth. Falsehood implies anything.
There are no pairs (a,b) where a R_3 b and b R_3 a, so vacuously, any such pair must satisfy a = b.
You know this from the early days of truth tables where you learned False → True and False → False both hold.
homie i think I got it, but its so counterintuitive for me
did she make a mistake on R_4
No.
anti-symmetric means a to b is true but you cant reverse it
so if a=3 and b=2 then a>b
but if you flip it to b>a then its false
yall gotta stop explaining stuff as if we already know discrete maths lmao
Say it louder for the ones in the back
Got it, is this a vacuous truth ?
i forgot what that means ngl but a>b and b>a is false no matter what
cause if a>b then b>a is impossible
Hello everyone, I am currently self studying basic propositions and am wondering if these word question type of problems will ever come up? I am pursuing a minor in math and major in CS (question 7)
This would not be our of place in an intro to discrete math type course
Which CS and math majors both have to take some version of
can someone help, I'm having trouble with the non-homogenius part. when I substitute it into the relation, it equals zero and I'm sort of lost on what I should change
a priori you don't know which way you need to permute your input elements in order to sort them correctly.
therefore your algorithm needs to be able to permute them every which way.
Ooooooh man. I misread it and thought that the tree must have at least n! comparisons
Whereas they just mean the leafs
thanks
anyone know why this isnt 36?
the solution says 40
because apparently u dont use inclusion exclusion princple
but I dont see how doing:
5 * 4 + 5 * 4 isnt double counting
dont u have to subtrack the intersection?
I was trying to show that
$$
\max{(f(x), g(x))} \in \Omega(f(x)+g(x))
$$
Does the following argument work?
$$
\underbrace{\frac{1}{2}}_{C} \cdot (f(x)+g(x)) \le \max{(f(x), g(x))} \quad \forall x
$$
since if we rearrange it just becomes
$$
f(x)+g(x) \le \max{(f(x), g(x))} + \max{(f(x), g(x))} \quad \forall x
$$
nvm, got a reply in another channel – looks good
you could also use max{a,b} = [(a + b) + |a - b|]/2
something is wrong with my solution
pls helps
Guys, I'm struggling a bit to show that if
$$ n! \ge 2^{h(n)}$$ then $$h(n) \in \Omega(n \ln n)$$
I'm certain I have to use Stirling's formula for that, and here's what I have got so far
Sweet Tea 🧋
but idk how to rigorously conclude that h(n) in Omega(n log n)
soz its not really readable
but i explain properly
see
i solve homogenous part and got the root
then i have basically two exponentials, one is (1)^n and the other is 2^n
so since 1 is also a root, the solution is of a different form...
and let's just skip the trivia because the particular solution I found is correct according to the solution given.
I completed step 1 properly but i messed up somewhere in the start of step 2
i need help
this is the qustion
And I can't even use this result, since the -n term is not non-negative
I meant this -n ofc
omg, I'm dumb. We can group the n ln(n) - n as n(ln (n) - 1) and consider the case when n >= e
Ok, this approach looks much easier
But how do I get rid of the -ln(2)/2 constant?
finally solved it 
u can visualise A product B drawing x and y axis
draw ur first set A on x axis as a segment, draw C there intersecting it. set A should be a strip in R2 plane. C should be strip as well. Also visualise B and D - on y axis. Then draw it for the right set
u will see that left one lies in the right one
fix any x from the left set - a union of two pairs and show that it lies in the right one
not correct, the left set are just pairs
all pairs (a;b) such that a from A, b from B united with all pairs (c;d)
of course every such pair would be in the right set as well
because in the right we have all of them and a lot of other pairs - (a;d) for example
idk what they want
likeee a formulaa for the sequence
an = ceil(n/2)
idk what ceil iss
can u help with this pleaseeeeeee
@merry storm sorry for the pingg but i really need helpppp
do you know how to use induction
no
whats this for?
do yk how it works? the answer wont make sense
but dw its not tough to understand
i dont, we learned it in school but i didnt study that
alr quick example
say we had dominos lined up
and then we make them fall
why does the 4th one fall? or the 9999th one? (suppose we have a large number of them or something)
we can say that a domino falls if the one before it falls on it right
then if the first one falls, the second one will fall because the one before it fell
the third one will fall, because the one before it fell
the fourth one will fall, because the one before it fell, and so on
we induct over the natural numbers with the same logic
suppouse we have a proposition P and we want to know if P is true for all x in N
if we know that P is true for k+1 whenever its true for k
and that its true for 0, our dominos will start to fall
so If P(0) and P(k+1) if P(k), then its true for all N
to prove that this is true for all n in N
we show that 1. its true for 0 and 2. its true for a number when its true for the number before it
$0 \cdot 2^0 = 0$
aÿb
$(0-1)2^{0+1}+2 = 0$
aÿb
aÿb
now we suppose the proposition is true for k
and we show that if its true for k its true for k+1
$\underline{2 + ... + k2^{k}}+ (k+1)2^{k+1}$
aÿb
aÿb
aÿb
aÿb
aÿb
so the formula is true for k+1 if we suppose its true for k
thank you so much!
To prove it without induction you can use calculus
Let $f(x)=\sum_{j=1}^n j x^j=x\sum_{j=1}^n jx^{j-1}=x\sum_{j=1}^n \frac{d}{dx}(x^j)$
Then you can swap the sum and the derivative. The resulting sum will be a geometric series.
$=x\frac{d}{dx}\left(\sum_{j=1}^n x^j\right)=x\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{x(x^n-1)}{x-1}\right)$
Then differentiate and replace $x=2$
Max
Can someone please double check my induction step here, I have my midterm today and need to be sure I did this right. Thanks
,rccw
your answer is correct so you made an even number of mistakes
and that number is 2
the second bracket should have been expanded as -30*3^(k-1) + 18*2^(k-1)
then later the -15 and +9 coefficients on the 2^k would have combined into -6 as they are supposed to
Ty!
I also have a question about these if anyone is willing to answer, what do I need to do to make the non homogenous part not equal zero?
Can someone please help me with this...
When someone says
a ≅ b mod c
They mean that when 'a' is divided by 'c', it leaves the remainder 'b'.
So 'c' is the remainder here.
But also people say that
a mod b means the remainder of the division of 'a' by 'b'
For example, when proving the associative law,
(a + b) mod n = ((a mod n) + (b mod n)) mod n,
People prove it by considering the remainder of division of a by n, b by n, and a+b by n, so I'm really confused what is what now
a ≅ b mod c
They mean that when 'a' is divided by 'c', it leaves the remainder 'b'.
not quite
also usually the symbol is ≡
a ≡ b (mod c) means that a and b have THE SAME remainder upon division by c.
For example, when proving the associative law,
(a + b) mod n = ((a mod n) + (b mod n)) mod n,
wouldnt call this the associative law, and also this is usually not how mathematicians use the wordmod
that usage is more like the % operator in languages like C/C++ or others influenced by it
one other way to think about it is
modular arithmetic divides all numbers into buckets (numbers with the same remainder)
a = b mod c just means a and b are in the same bucket (and that the bucket is called a)
ex. 24 mod 13 = 50 mod 13 = 11 mod 13 = 11
in general the buckets are labeled by the smallest positive number
@cyan loom you're using the symbols % and mod in almost the opposite way to me, and this is bound to cause confusion...
ph sorry i probably shouldnt use % like that
mod exclusively refers to the equivalence classes
Hey guys, has anyone ever heard of clarkes proof of the cayley formula and knows where I can find a copy of that? Only one I have is in our script but its quite confusing and not very elaborate and apparently its nowhere on the internet
Hello guys, I need help about relationships in discrete mathematics, I need your help, I am going to do the exercises but I need you to advise me, help me:
You should ask a specific question about what you need help with. If you just ask for help it's too vague to do so.
I take the conditional statement "if every integer n is even, then 3n-11 is odd", and I get its contrapositive:
If 3n-11 is even, then some integer n is odd
But for whatever reason, I cannot use any method that I had which shows that n is odd
I can't factor it, and with what I have right now, it shows the complete opposite of what I'm trying to prove (n is odd)
...i'm not sure what you mean by "can't factor it", but also the definition of "3n+11 is even" is definitely not "n = 2b for some integer n"
here's an example that I'm trying to work off of
I'm trying to simplify 6b-11 to become 2a+1 (the definition of odd numbers) to prove that n is odd
ok well that's a reasonable example (apart from the part where you numbered the steps 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 6), but you do have to keep track of what it is you're actually trying to prove
this would not prove that n is odd
this would prove that 6b-11 is odd
and 6b-11 is not n
i'd say don't try too hard to follow an example you already have? just look at what the definition actually says
if 3n-11 is even, then that means 3n-11 = 2b for some b
it doesn't make a difference that "3n-11" is a more complicated expression instead of a variable, it's still just some number
