#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 46 of 1
you want to count those functions f: A_6 -> A_6 such that f(2) is even and f(4) is even and f(6) is even
where r_i is the number of ways of placing i-non-attacking rooks on the the forbidden positions.
i dont get this process of counting r_i
I understand to write out all the possible i-tuple of rows but how are they counting the number of "ways"?
I understand the formula for the number of ways to place six non-attacking rooks I just don't understand how they are counting the r_i
i don't understand what it is solving, what's r1
r_i is the number of ways of placing i-non-attacking rooks on the the forbidden positions.
I think I got how it was counting now I was just counting the rows bottom up instead of top down
while this way of counting works some students counted 36 for r_2 from here performing 7+6+7+6+3+2+3+2 = 36 or 7+7+6+6+3+3+2+2=35 which im not sure what they did
since the method from here would result in
rows: 1,2 1,3 1,4 1,5 2,3 2,4 2,5 3,4 3,5 4,5
ways: 2 4 4 4 4 4 4 2 4 4
I am curious on how they counted it since I am meant to be grading them lmao
I made a help thread with my specific question: #1217306875880804453 message
is the path 1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 5, 1 a circuit or a cycle?
What's the difference between circuit and cycle?
Hi, I hope this is the right channel
I have a quick notation question:
if I have a set of numbers A = {3, 1, 14, 6}
how would I declare an increasing sequence with one term for each element of A that would look like this:
U1 = 1, U2 = 3, U3 = 6, U4 = 14
This seems fine for me. Each Ui is an element from A, as the i's increase the Ui's increase
Spamakin🎷
what i'm asking is more a general notation for any set A, make a sequence of its elements but ordered in increasing order
maybe someting like this?
(a | a element of A, an <= a(n-1))
Spamakin🎷
shouldn't it be round parentheses ? (because sets dont have on order)
Spamakin🎷
And words around saying that it's an increasing sequence, elements come from A etc
Words are useful
I mean as long as it's clear it doesn't matter that much
also this allows the serie to have duplicates of elements of A, dosen't it?
ok, thanks a lot
Can you guys help me check if this is right
confused by this problem. how can I write a proof for it?
Does $A \approx B$ mean that there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$? @nimble raptor
Leu
yes chef
so in class my prof said that the modulo function isn't onto but I wrote this proof - is it valid?
sure, but you could have also put a = c and b = (anything bigger than c), no?
so a tiny bit overcomplicated.
do you remember in what context that was said?
fair
I don't remember the exact context in which it was said but she gave an example where if you have something mod 4 you can't get anything over 3
which makes sense but I don't understand why we're restricting it to 4 when dealing with onto
so she's saying that for a fixed m, the function x ↦ x % m has range {0, 1, ..., m-1}
i mean... that tracks? but we'd need to all be on the same page regarding which function we're looking at the surjectivity of
that makes sense it just seems like an odd definition
but yeah I see what you're saying
Do ya'll know how I could approach question 14?
You can use simpler bijections, for example, the identity map $f: \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$ is a bijection and there is a bijection $g_1: \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{N}^2$ and a bijection $g_2: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{Z}$, therefore there is a bijection $g = g_1 \circ g_2: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}^2$. You can use those those construct a bijection from $\mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}^2 = \mathbb{Z}^3$
Leu
yeah this generally seems right
Question: In 4c, what's stopping me from saying either x or y is 0 to make the expression be false?
Context: based on my professor's answers 4c is true.
it's just saying there exists an x,y s.t it's true
"There exists an x and there exists a y such that [xy=1] where x,y in R"
I have a question regarding discrete math. I have to take it next semester and was wondering if you guys found it more/less difficult than cal 1 and/or cal 2?
discrete math deals with very different subject matter than the standard calculus sequence
it may be that you find it easier or harder depending on your background
^
calc is also primarily an algebra check
so
discrete math is very different
what's ur syllabus
nope
Ty
hi, can you tell me, what is discrete mathematics?
Discrete mathematics is a common title for a course where students first encounter important concepts such as sets, functions, and relations.
For my school, it's our proofs class.
is there a quick way to do this wsithout using havel-hakimi
why is havel-hakimi disallowed?
idk he just said
who's "he"?
so your professor EXPLICITLY forbade the use of havel-hakimi, punishable by zeroing the entire assignment. is that correct?
theres no mark for it
but its not allowed and for tests and wat not we would not be allowed to use it
i would try to construct the graph "by hand"
start with the highest degree node
see what neighbors it could have
perhaps arrive at a contradiction of some kind
mm ok
It looks an good question please look. I tried to put random numbers
Be clear about what you need help with
If you have an answer to the question but are not sure about it, post it here (preferably with workings if you have any)
Do not delete
Ahhh
Repost it and we can work on it
Yes. When relation holds for itself
Right, and so reflexivity in this case would mean that xRx holds for every integer x, i.e., x^2 and x^2 are always not coprime
Equivalently it means the same as gcd(x^2, x^2) ≠ 1 for all integers x
Can you simplify gcd(x^2, x^2)?
Yeah
So reflexivity of R says that x^2 is never equal to 1 when x is an integer
Is that true?
I didn't understand properly
X^2 never equal?
(0 and 1)
Can create contradiction
Hopefully you meant x = -1 and x = 1
Right
These two values of x indeed contradict the statement xRx
Means R is not reflexive
Gcd of (-1^2,1^2)=1
Let's check transitive?
do we dicuss graph theory stuff in discrete math too?
Sorry, I was away
What do you think about transitivity?
Nevermind i have got example
Finite graphs, sure
It fails at transitive
Yeah nice
I only got it by random example
So the answer is "none of the above"
4,36,9
It should be A and C
yes, graph theory is fine here
did you have a question?
Oh sorry yeah it's asking about the properties which are not satisfied
Symmetry is satisfied, yes
You already disproved transitivity
In the case of a = 2, b = 6 and c = 3, a counterexample to transitivity is produced, yes
this is from jeffEs algorithms
So transitivity is not satisfied
this is my attempt at it
i wanted to know if this works
No that's incorrect because 2,3,6 is not square of any
You need to square those integers
Yes. That is the same example i took
I don't get what's going on here
it seems like you're doing BFS / DFS? It's not clear what your graph structure is
Here's what you should do
construct a new graph based on the input graph G (so define vertices and edges)
construct this graph so that you can just answer the question using some very basic black box algorithms (BFS / DFS / Whatever-First-Search, some other shortest path algo, whatever you think is appropriate and fastest)
and then just argue why your graph construct + result from the black box algorithm answers the question
no need to write pseudocode, blackbox algorithms are standard
why reinvent the wheel, if that makes sense
(fun fact I took algos with Jeff E lol)
lemme know if what I said makes sense
Hello, I have seen months ago a YouTube video about some topics of research in combinatorics. The video mentioned the yet open problem of the game n in a row that has been solved for most values of n but not for (in my memory, might be wrong) 6-7. Did someone see this video?
is it guaranteed that the relation ~ is not empty? 
i mean, I can show it's a ZFC set
I'm just not sure how to show ~ != ø
If X is not empty we have the nonempty set ${(x,x):x\in X}\subset R$ for every equivalence relation R
Leu
And, of course, for every relation R, X×X is an equivalence relation on X that contains R
Actually If X is empty as well the empty set is an equivalence relation on X
gotcha, thanks!
guys, how do I show
$$
M \backslash \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_\lambda = \bigcup_{\lambda \in I} \left(M \backslash C_{\lambda} \right)
$$?
Like, I can show it if the index set $I$ is finite. But what do I do in case it isn't?
Sweet Tea 🧋
...i don't get how you do that for just a finite index set? unless you did like, induction
if it is finite, then take any
$$
x \in M \backslash \bigcap{\lambda \in I} C\lambda = M \backslash \left( C_1 \cap \ldots \cap C_n \right) \iff x \in M \text { and not } (x \in C_1 \text{ and } \ldots \text{ and } x \in C_n)
$$
and then apply de morgans law to prove it
Sweet Tea 🧋
ohh
oh yeah i guess that makes sense

well uh, you can do the same thing with infinite I too, basically
the idea is that $\forall$ looks like infinite conjunction and $\exists$ looks like infinite disjunction
bee [it/its]
so you have the analog of de morgan, $\neg\forall x \varphi$ and $\exists x\neg\varphi$ are the same
bee [it/its]
(and also $\forall x\neg \varphi$ is the same as $\neg\exists x\varphi$)
hmmmm
bee [it/its]
but what's phi here then?
the whole
$$
x \in M \backslash \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_\lambda
$$
?
$\neg\forall\lambda\in I x \in C_\lambda$ is the same as $\exists\lambda\in I\neg x \in C_\lambda$
(big i) x?
$\forall (\lambda \in I) (x \in C_\lambda)$ is what i meant
bee [it/its]
as in $\forall \lambda (\lambda \in I \to x \in C_\lambda)$
bee [it/its]
i mean....
ok, so, we rewrite
$$
x \in M \backslash \bigcap_{\lambda \in I} C_\lambda
$$
as
$$
x \in M \text{ and } \exists \lambda \in I \left[ x \not \in C_\lambda \right]
$$
and you suggest to rewrite the RHS as
$$
x \in M \text{ and } \forall \lambda \in I \left[ x \in C_\lambda \right]
$$
right?
Sweet Tea 🧋
tbh it does not pass my sanity check
...no
i, uh, you got a lot wrong there lol
we rewrite $x \in M \setminus \bigcap_{\lambda\in I}C_\lambda$ as $x \in M \land \neg \forall \lambda \in I [x \in C_\lambda]$
bee [it/its]
then turn that into $x \in M \land \exists \lambda \in I [x \not\in C_\lambda]$
bee [it/its]
yeah, I wrote
$$
\exists \lambda \in I [x \not \in C_\lambda]
$$
straight away, since it's equivalent
Sweet Tea 🧋
oh
ok well that equivalence is what i was suggesting
and it's equivalent because of de morgan's law
but I still don't see how it solves the problem 
well what we're looking for is $\exists \lambda \in I [x \in M \land x \not\in C_\lambda]$, right?
bee [it/its]
yeah
and what we have is $x \in M \land \exists \lambda \in I [x \not\in C_\lambda]$
bee [it/its]
which is exactly what you wrote here
yeyeye
thank you! 
so the main idea was to hide the infinity into the sets and don't work with it directly ig
yeah pretty much
consider the following function: $f(t) = tst$ for a fixed $s$. After n iterations of the function, how many $t$s and $s$ will the formula have?
for example:
1 iteration: $tst$
2 iterations: $tst\ s\ tst$
3 iterations: $tststst\ s\ tststst$
kolmotchima
I know that it will have 2^n t's, but how many s?
because they alternate, if there are 2^n t's, there must be 2^n - 1 s's
thx
I don't know how to do a) and is there smthg else then typing on the calculator for b), like a math calculation or math proof? thx
how would you apply chinese remainder to this
$a\equiv 0 \pmod{10} \iff \begin{cases} a\equiv 0 \pmod{2}\ a\equiv 0 \pmod{5}\end{cases}$
Ann
with a = (x-1)(x-2)
and then note that with a prime modulus you can actually apply the zero product law
either (x-1) = 0 or (x-2) = 0
what is this prime modulus property zero product property?
congruent to 0 mod 5, more specifically
sorry.
p | ab <=> (p|a or p|b)
(in this p is prime while a and b are just integers)
This name for that is weird. I would call that Euclid's Lemma/definition of prime elements (for rings - if you don't know what that is don't worry about it, unless you want to). I would then say that because of that, the integers mod p has no zero divisors, which means that ab=0 implies a=0 or b=0.
yup i essentially wrote a dfs with a slight change, im adding new vertices to the graph as i go
also the part about having 374 with jeff e is very very cool
Just make a new graph instead of adding vertices as you go
Cleaner + doesn't change the runtime
yeah I meant adding the vertices to the new graph 💀
Oh ya
And then you have to argue why dfs on the graph you made (in particular, DFS from which node in the new graph) answers the original question
i understand the proof except for the notational part? anyone know why its max(epsilon) and not min? is writing for n greater or equal to 2 as well instead?
Maximum value between 2 and$\frac{1}{\epsilon}$
Leu
It's not $\epsilon$ it's $\frac{1}{\epsilon}$
Leu
it's because their work for replacing fractions was for n>=2. Look at their inequality 2n^3-n^2-1>n^3 for n>=2.
the other inequality n^2-2<n^2 held for all n>0.
so in order for both inequalities to be satisfied, we must have n>=2
and therefore n^* must be >=2
this also doesn't look like discrete math. Your question is best suited for real-complex-analysis channel
thanks both of you for helping, i couldnt find the correct channel, because i thought i was doing real analysis and not complex, @compact yacht helped me understand by spelling it out in words.
S doesn't have a definition. So I'm not sure how to show its a subset of S intersection S.
this is just definition pushing: if $s\in S\cap S,$ then $s\in S$ and $s\in S;$ that is to say $s\in S,$ so $S\cap S\subseteq S;$ meanwhile if $s\in S,$ then $s\in S$ and $s\in S$ obviously, so $S\subseteq S\cap S,$ and $S=S\cap S$
elrichardo1337
very similar approach for the union
In a set of five distinct integers ranging from 1 to 8, there will always be a pair whose sum equals 9.
I have to prove this using the pigeonhole principle. While it's pretty obvious, how can I effectively write down why?
well, why do you deem it obvious?
1+8, 2+7, 3+6 and 4+5 are all sums that result in 9
ok, and how do you guarantee that one of these sums will be possible to construct from your set of five?
Picking 5 numbers from the set lands in one of these
this is literally an application of php in all but name lmao
Maybe just stating it is enough to show I know what I'm doing
But I'm never sure about this stuff when it seems too obvious lol
Good textbooks to learn graph theory from an introductory level?
I like Wilson
hello can someone help me please
at the question 2
basic the subject is in French I translated it into English
que signifie l'écriture d'une matrice "sous forme de tableaux" ?
quelle est la différence entre cela et la manière usuelle d'écrire des matrices ?
d'où viennent les e élevés aux nombres naturels ?
j'ai utuliser la definition donné
non tu n'as pas
$\omega_n^{(i-1)(j-1)}$, pas $e^{(i-1)(j-1)}$.
Ann
non tu as fait une grande faute
est-ce que tu vois la différence entre $e^{-\frac{2\pi}{3} \cdot 9}$ et $e^9$ ?
Ann
il y en a une énorme
oui il y a une différence
pk pas sur un papier ?
ok
je vous envoi ma version papier il y a pas de soucis
alors "forme de tableau" ne signifie rien de spécial
oui
c'est quoi j ?
est-ce que cette notation s'utilise toujours dans ce sens précis dans vos lectures ?
oui
c'est bon non ?
$\Omega_3$ sera $\bmqty{1&1&1 \ 1 & j^2 & j \ 1 & j & j^2}$
Ann
vu que $\omega_3 = j^2 = \overline{j}$ pas $j$
Ann
c'est tout inversé
ou il y a mon j barre en a wn^1
les autres éléments sont mauvais
est la def que en a c'est wn=e^-2ipi/n
je vois pas pourquoi c'est faux
j de base =e^2ipi/3
en ici la déf wn=e^-2ipi/3
et a cet endroit en a un puissance a 1
quand en met au carré le moint s'enlève non ?
$(\Omega_3)_{23} = \omega_3^2 = (j^2)^2 = j^4 = j$
Ann
pas j^2.
je peux me répéter
oui biensur
$\Omega_3$ sera $\bmqty{1&1&1 \ 1 & j^2 & j \ 1 & j & j^2}$
Ann
c'est -1 et i
le -i doit être -1 et le -1 doit être -i.
oui
est ce que vous pouvez m'aider sur la question 2
montre pout tout n que omega*omega barre=nI
moi je fait avec un cas n=2
que si i=j en a 1
Et si i!=j en a 0
Il faudrait que je utulise la somme des coefficient
il n'y avait pas besoin d'examiner un cas particulier
Ann
et je doit arrive a n*In
il faut arriver à la valeur n si i=j et 0 sinon
le premier des deux doit être évident
le second est un peu moins
comment je peut faire pour avoir i=j si je peut juste bouger k
bouger k ?
un changement de variable ?
je veut dire par sortir le terme
oui
pour le premier cas
si $i=j$, à quoi est égal le terme général de notre somme, dit $\omega_n^{(k-1)(i-j)}$ ?
Ann
0
non
Ann
n
merveilleux
on examine maintenant le deuxième cas
il y a un lemme qui nous aidera
soit $n \in \bN \setminus {1}$, soit $\omega_n$ une $n$-ième racine de 1 et soit $a \in \bZ$ un nombre entier qui \textbf{n'est pas} un multiple de $n$. alors $$\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \omega_n^{ka} = 0.$$
Ann
oui fais en un si tu veux
désolé si je demande plus de précision c'est juste comme sa je comprend mieux
je vais pas t'accompagner avec les manipulations algébriques
parce qu'au moment je n'ai ni le temps ni la patience
je suis désolé de vous dérange mille merci de pouvoir m'aider
c'est pas de ta faute je suis juste fatiguée
Oui , c'est vrai a cette heure si en est plutôt fatigué
quand vous avez fait le changement de variable vous avez posez l= a quoi
jors l=k-1
puis avec en a l=0
Please double check my work. I'm not quite sure if I'm doing this right.
looks good. id probably use a \cancelto or add a few words justifying dropping the -7/x^2 term if this is for an intro class @raw kindle
Okay, thank you!
I honestly have no
I’m trying to solve this recurrence relation is this the correct thinking?
une explication s'il vous plait ?
c'est la somme des premiers termes d'une suite géométrique
Is my graph theory proof correct? I feel like something is missing.
Question: Find a formula for the number of edges of a wheel graph, based on the number of vertices.
Formula: e=2(v-1) wherein v is the number of vertices and e the number of edges.
Proof.
Base case: Suppose v=4, the number of vertices of the smallest wheel graph. Therefore, 2(4-1)=3(2)=6, which is the number of vertices of W_4
Induction Step: Suppose 2(v'-1) is the number of edges of a graph with v' vertices.
We add a new vertex v_n to the graph. To ensure that the new graph is also a wheel graph, we add two new edges connecting v_n to two existing non-central adjacent vertices of the graph v_1 and v_2, plus another edge connecting it to the central vertex, minus the extra edge connecting v_1 and v_2, totalling 2(v'-1)+3-1=2(v'-1)+2=2(v'-1+1)=2(v'+1-1). Since the number of edges is equal to 2(v'+1-1), the induction step is now proved.
Looks ok. Do you know about Euler's formula V-E+F = 2?
i have heard about it don't really know what it is
Ehhhhh I have a few issues with this
1: you aren't doing induction properly. Your inductive step is completely backwards. You never "build up" for induction. Rather, you should take a Wheel graph W_n, and if you want to somehow do induction, break it down into a wheel graph W_n-1 and apply your inductive hypothesis to W_n-1.
2: There is a 10x clearer way to do this directly by counting
Here's my first hint for the 10x clearer way, how many edges in the cycle graph C_n?
- I don’t understand why
- the number of edges is the same as the number of vertices
the whole idea of induction is that you want to prove a statement about the nth object using the fact that the statement for the n-1th object is true
since you are proving a statement about the nth object
you should start with the nth object
induction is about taking a larger object, breaking it down into components, applying the IH to the components, and then using that to derive the statement for the initial larger object
Anyways, back to the cleaner proof
ok can you find a copy of a cycle graph in W_n? What edges occur in that cycle? How many edges are left over?
Yes, all vertices of a cycle subgraph are connected to one vertex in a wheel graph. The edges of the cycle graph plus the edges that are adjacent to that one vertex constitute the number of edges of the wheel graph.
i can now begin to see why this works
I'll continue this later; i need to go
For my discrete math class, had to solve a series of congruence but I got stuck, any tips on where I might've gone wrong?
do you have access to the fact that if gcd(a,m) = 1 then ab ≡ ac (mod m) => b ≡ c (mod m)?
your arithmetic seems to check out unless i also missed something
bunch of numbers could have been made smaller
i think i can create a proof sketch:
A wheel graph W_v with v vertices contains a cyclic graph with v-1 vertices, and v-1 edges too. Notice that the vertices of the cyclic graph are adjacent to a single vertex m in W_v, and the number of such edges are equal to the number of edges of the cyclic graph. Therefore, adding the sum of the number of edges of the cyclic graph and the edges incident to m is equal to the number of edges of W_v, or (v-1)+(v-1)=2(v-1).
well ordering does not imply partial ordering, correct?
Well ordering is a type of partial ordering
but why are we guaranteed an equivalence relation on our set. i could just have less than couldent i?
Why do you want an equivalence relation?
are you sure those words mean what you think they mean 
Well, the notion of equality induces an equivalence relation, but if you're doing ordering, then you're presumably working in a framework where the notion of equality isn't a problematic concept.
Just to clarify:
- when we say "partial ordering", we mean a relation that's transitive ($x\leq y$ and $y\leq z$ implies $x \leq z$, reflexive (for all $x$ we have $x\leq x$) and weakly antisymmetric (if $x\leq y$ and $y\leq x$, then $y=x$).
- a "well ordering" is a partial ordering that's in fact total (for every $x$ and $y$, we have $x\leq y$ or $y\leq x$, i.e. every pair of elements can be compared), and has the additional property that for every set $A$ there exists a least element, i.e. some $x\in A$ such that for every $y\in A$ we have $x\leq y$.
Outsider
Note in particular that orderings are always defined as what we'd traditionally call "weak" inequalities rather than strict.
So $x\leq x$ is always true when we're talking about orderings.
Outsider
does a well ordering have to have less than or equal or can it have strict inequality only?
< and <= are inter-definable, it doesn't matter which one you take as the basic one.
The standard definition of ordering (including well-ordering) defines it as a "less than or equal" type of relation, but once you have that, you can easily define "strict inequality" based on that.
But the definitions, theorems, and proofs that you see, will probably be based on the "less than or equal" definition.
on any partial ordered set, if any of <, >, <=, >= is given a meaning, the other three are automatic
how are they concluding that xz belongs to L_pali ?
Help
nvm its just from the pumping lemma condition
post the question(s) you need help with
don't just scream "HELP!!!" and expect everyone to drop everything
Yup looks good to me
thanks
There are some problems in combinatorics that consists about counting the number of subsets of a given set (let be a set A), such that a subset of A, (namely X), satisfy some property P(X), and we can do this by counting all the subsets of A and subtract all Y such that Y dont satisfy the property P.
But the powerset cardinality is defined in such a way that it counts the $\varnothing$ and then I thought, If the $\varnothing$ satisfy every property P(X) then we are counting a vacously truth in combinatorics.
It´s that so ? or we have to subtract that too?
Ring_Homomorphism
here is the reference for that property of the empty set
In mathematics, the empty set is the unique set having no elements; its size or cardinality (count of elements in a set) is zero. Some axiomatic set theories ensure that the empty set exists by including an axiom of empty set, while in other theories, its existence can be deduced. Many possible properties of sets are vacuously true for the empty...
and sorry if this is not the place , I didn't know whether to put this in combinatorics or logic section , so discrete mathematics seems a good place
you're confusing $(\forall x\in\rien) P(x)$ with $P(\rien)$
Ann
good yt videos?
ohhhh right , yes, but in the case the problem is about the x belonging to the subsets?
your problem statement is general/vaguee af
P(Y) unambiguously establishes P as a set-level property
one for which P(∅) may or may not be true, but is not so automatically
yeah I see ,I was confused , thanks
consider all the subsets X of ${1 , 2 ,3 ..., N}$ such that for $x \in {1 , 2 ,3 ..., N}$ x is even
¿How many of those sets are for a given N?
in this case the empty set is a subset of ${1 , 2 ,3 ..., N}$ , and also for some some $x \in \varnothing$ , x is even. Should I count that or not (because is vacuosly true) or this is a dilemma like 0 is a natural number or not , etc.
Ring_Homomorphism
this is not a dilemma
the empty set DOES satisfy the property "all of my elements are even"
it's even in the name: vacuous truth
If it's vacuously true, it's still true.
That's why so many theorems/definitions have to explicitly exclude the empty set
This is why I hate the term vacuously true
Why does it need a special term
so like true but without any meaning, besides the facility of including that
It's the difference between "correct" and "technically correct"
not wanting to bother any "pure mathematician" but consider the case I need to apply combinatorics in a computer program , etc (or any pratical apllication). so I need to get the possibilities and I will be counting a possibility I cant use
...what kind of program would break on the empty object but still have it meet the natural expression of the criteria??
that just sounds like you optimised it wrong
it is just a example
ok well that's just an example of my response
I mean, I am a pure mathematician, and I also frequently hate the fact that the emptyset satisfies a lot of definitions due to peculiarities of logic, and isn't actually an useful exhibit of those definitions otherwise.
But it is what it is.
my general response is "why would that happen, what kind of practical application specifically doesn't work on the empty set for some reason"
I mean , consider a extreme example where for a budget i would need to count something, this will make me buy more
you're assuming that the empty set would have a nonzero price and that you would not actually need to buy it
but anyways it is more like a curiosity
because , since it is like convention for set theory, and would be rare to create a new set theory just for avoiding this
i really just don't see why vacuous truths would be any more likely than any other mathematical object to be the point where the real world doesn't match the abstractions
but this is equally dependent of construction
cause vacuosly truths in logic are a part of the construction it self of logic
what if your program spits out that actually you're going to need to spend $\aleph_1$ dollars, would you assume that the problem is it counted some vacuous object
bee [it/its]
since presumably that's not a correct result, if you're planning to accomplish some finite task
thats funny
it is like , what is my college debt is?
when n->∞
Any reasonable algorithm working with combinatorial objects should be comfortable with empty/null cases
The empty tree is a tree, the empty set is a set, etc
Empty graph is a graph
null cases
that's it , has passed sometime since the last time I coded , so I had forgotten that, thanks for the example, before I have and intuitive idea of the type null , but now it makes a lot of sense
can anyone help?
thanks for reminding me of this but I'm not sure how this would help solve the question
find a smaller number congruent to 203 modulo 11
sorry but how would you go about doing that
what is the remainder of 203 mod 11?
5
Oh so I could get 57L ≡ 5 (mod 11)
which could get me 2L ≡ 5 (mod 11) where im stuck again since I'm not sure how to get rid of the 2
5 is also congruent to 16 mod 11.
5 ≡ 16 (mod 11)?
A different hint: 6 x 2 = 12 = ? (mod 11)
oo ok I got L ≡ 6 (mod 11)
If this is correct then I understand now thanks
You have made a bad mistake
Try your calculations again
show how you went from 2L ≡ 5 (mod 11) to L ≡ 6 (mod 11)?
It could just be a trivial arithmetic error
ok nevermind I made a bad mistake, I redid it and got L ≡ 8 (mod 11)
can someone please explain this to me! like a kid because I have a learning disability:
While walking through a fictional forest, you encounter three trolls guarding a bridge. Each is either a knight, who always tells the truth, or a knave, who always lies. The trolls will not let you pass until you correctly identify each as either a knight or a knave. Each troll makes a single statement:
Troll 1: If I am a knave, then there are exactly two knights here.
Troll 2: Troll 1 is lying.
Troll 3: Either we are all knaves or at least one of us is a knight.
Which troll is which?
...do you mean you want an explanation of the solution, or are you confused about what the question is?
@stray reef @brave rock I got the right answer and understand it now thank you for the help 🙂
the explanation of solution
what's the statement?
are you talking about hadwiger-nelson
No, unit problem states the following: you have to construct a graph with maximal unit distances with given number of vertices say n
It is unsolved but what is the essence, i think the answers contradict the definition of a unit distance graph and makes you think the answer in K(n) complete graph when it's not
why would you think the answer would be k_n? that only works for n = 3 and in n>=4 for k_n the distance isnt 1 for all
Give an example
an example of a unit distance graph for n = 4?
Ok
no im asking if that's what you want
sure
Pretty sure troll 1 and 2 are knaves and the third troll is a knight
so if you look here
Yes I found that out I need an explanation
this graph isn't complete because clearly V1 is not connected to V4
you can also note here that all the distances are unit
bc this is just the classic rhombus
And why isn't it?
Connected?
When in this cas ethe number of edges would be larger?
if it was then the length of that edge would be 2
and not 1
or, wait, sqrt(5)/2, i think
not 2
that also seems wrong
maybe just sqrt5
Whatever nevermind
Assume troll one is telling the truth and that he is a knave. If so, then proceed with the next statement: troll one is lying. Well, ideally that is true since Troll One has stated that he is a knave, however, if he is a knave then there aren't exactly two knights making both Troll One and Troll 2 knaves. The final statement just says we’re either all trolls or at least one is a knight and thus by default, you can assume troll 3 to be a knight
Thank you u saved me
How can u assume by default troll 3 is a knave ?
If they were all knaves then technically that makes Troll 3 a knight because of the contradiction being present OR at least one of them is a knight
that doesn't make any sense
2 is saying that 1 is a knave, they can't be the same thing
1 and 3 are knights
3 is true and 1 ≠ 2, so there's 2 cases
case one is Knave Knight Knight
that's a contradiction, because then 1 is true
so Knight Knave Knight
Can someone help me solve this? The "hint" says write n choose r in terms of !, and then prompt them in a certain way so we can compare
ok idk what "prompt them" means but have you expressed 2n choose n and 2n choose k in terms of factorials?
Spamakin🎷
@umbral glen do you still need help with this?
should this first condition exclude the sink and source?
clearly since a is a source, there does not exist an arc (a, a)
For sure they should be excluded. It could be made clearer what domain v comes from in that condition.
(unless you include "the empty path" as a directed walk)
well since i've defined a directed walk as
A directed walk in a digraph is a sequence ${v_i}{i=0}^n$ of vertices such that $(v_i, v{i+1})\in A$ for $i = 0, 1, ..., n-1$. If all the $v_i$'s are distinct except perhaps $v_0$ and $v_n$, then it is a directed path
Frosst
then i guess no
They don't really say anything about n, so I guess we can have n = 0? That would mean a walk can consist of a single vertex.
I should ask for a clarification here
Yeah, even if it's uninteresting corner cases, it's nice to agree on the terms.
Can anyone help me to understand recurrence relations
I understand the idea but like not how to prove them
I have to show that in a group of 20 random people at least 2 have the same number of friends.
I'm learning the pigeonhole principle but I'm not seeing how to apply it here
You can first consider how many friends a person can have within that group. Since there are 20 people, any person can have between 0 and 19 friends (both included).
But that’s still 20 numbers {0, 1, …, 19} for the number of possible friends a person can have, so we need to do more.
You can notice that if there exists a person with 19 friends in that group, then she’s friends with everyone. Hence there cannot be a person with 0 friends, and the number of possible friends for any person is thus in the set {1, 2, …, 19}. Since you have 20 people, and 19 possibilities for the number of friends, two people must have the same number of friends - by the pigeonhole principle.
See if you can do the remaining case - that there does not exist a person with 19 friends.
Ohh this is pretty nice
lets say i give the natural numbers without a defined less than function. how can we define < in such a way it is possible to prove that say 1 < 2 starting from no intuitive notion of less than? i know its a binary relation, but when can we know x < y is true? is there some logical biimplication we can use?
what is your defn of < ?
or are you asking for one
if the latter, do your naturals start with 0 or with 1? it will affect the definition slightly (not too much, but i don't want to be caught on a technicality!)
im asking for one. and lets say with 0
$x < y \overset{\text{def}}{\iff} x \neq y \land (\exists z)(x+z=y)$
Ann
you need to have a definition of + on hand as well but this i believe you might already
then you need to prove that 1 ≠ 2 and that the equation 1+z=2 has a natural-number solution.
z also not 0 right? and z a natural?
all letters are quantified over naturals
also z can't be 0 in light of the condition x ≠ y that i put down
ie whenever such a z exists, it will not be 0
it cannot
so how do we do it there?
the reals have to come with an order relation whose behavior is given axiomatically -- not only that of an order relation, but also that of compatibility with arithmetic in R
multiple ways
you could for example start by declaring that R has a subset called P which satisfies the following properties:
- 0 ∉ P
- ∀x, y ∈ P: x + y ∈ P
- ∀x, y ∈ P: xy ∈ P
- ∀x ∈ R exactly one of "x ∈ P", "x = 0", "-x ∈ P" is true
and then define a < b to mean b - a ∈ P
what are you doing that requires definition fuckery at this level?
thinking. its not homework but i want to learn and am curious. also couldent find this when searching.
is this the normal sense of less than? im not sure. if it isnt thats totally fine just wanna make sure im following. Im just not entirely sure.
wym by "normal sense"?
intuitive
...i don't really think anybody thinks about real number ordering this way tbh
like, the real numbers and their ordering are kind of a package deal
i mean if this definition results in the intuitive one. if they agree.
however referring to the defn you may notice that P is intuited as the set of all positive numbers
if they did not agree why would i give this one to you lol
do you have any idea where i can go looking for lots of these kinds of constructions and definitions? just math starting from zfc or? and thank you!
generally it's not really worth your time to try to learn everything from literal first principles
if there are pathological cases which require you to be rigorous then by all means be rigorous
well even this definition i havent seen in analysis.
but otherwise it's not always worthwhile
well it depends on what you mean "start from zfc". do you mean starting set theory from the complete beginning? in my analysis course we did basically construct R starting from peano+naive set theory. that doesnt sound unreasonable for an analysis course
well maybe im just fuming about what counts as analysis. have you constructed numbers from the bottom?. and have you been shown a definition like i asked for less than?
I think so? I cant quite remember. at some point you have to skip some details obviously. you dont have that much time
nobody's that much of a bourbakist anymore idt
maybe if you had more time
There are plenty of equivalent ways to do so. Some examples include:
- The least relation such that 0 < succ n and if m < n then succ m < succ n,
- The least relation such that n < succ n and if m < n then m < succ n,
- The transitive closure of the relation m ≺ n iff succ m = n,
- The unique relation for which m ≮ 0, 0 < succ n and succ m < succ n iff m < n.
This is far from exhaustive but you get the idea
i'm trying to figure out what the recursion should be here
i've seen a similar problem (where there are the same number of 0s as 1s in the entire string) which i know is related to catalan numbers, but not sure how to proceed when that constraint is removed
experimentally it seems that it's $\binom{n}{\lfloor n/2\rfloor}$ but not sure how to prove that recursively
elrichardo1337
Can anyone help me with this
so you want to design a recursive formula/algorithm to do this?
so the first step of any such problem is identify what decision
so the current digit could be a 0 or a 1
and then given that choice and perhaps some other information you need to track
errrr
say we've decided what the first i - 1 digits are
reading from left to right
yeah
and now we want to decide what digit i is
it could be a 0 or a 1
what information do you need to make that decision?
hmm maybe we separate the cases where
the (i-1) digit string has equal 0s and 1s and
the (i-1) digit string has more 1s than 0s
is that enough that you know it has more 1s?
or do you need to track how many more 1s
try to come up with a recursive definition
hmm aight
i'm trying some small cases and listing the "ones minus zeros" values
this is not a recursive definition...
if we've placed the first i - 1 digits (reading from left to right) and are trying to decide what the i'th digit should be
what pieces of information do we need to track?
lets start there
one is the current digit, i
the number of zeros preceding it + the number of ones preceding it? 😭
yea that would work
but we could do better, we just care about the difference right?
yeah
how many more 1's than 0's we have seen
that number has to be nonnegative
Ok so let Prefix(i, j) be the number of strings of length i such that there are j more 1s than 0s
does this make sense?
yeah
Now try to write a recursive definition of this function
p(1,1)=1, p(1,0)=0
gonna try to figure out the actual recurrence now lmao
prefix(i+1,j-1)=prefix(i,j)
prefix(i+1,j+1)=prefix(i,j)
hmm
so if the ith digit is a 0, what do we know about the prefix of the first i - 1 characters?
it has strictly more 1s than 0s, j-1>0?
I gtg but you are along the right tracks
if I have time later tonight I'll come back to this
aight thanks lol
choosing randomly 3 points on a regular dodecahedron, whats the probability for it to be a right, but not isosceles, triangle?
sketching it out, i can see that to satisfy such, the 3 points must not be adjacent
but from there im stumped
How did you sketch it out that good...
also quick question are you sure this isn't zero
no
there is at least 40
out of 1140
but im wondering if i missed out cases
also quick note, this is actually a misinterpretation of the original problem, it was asking of an icosagon, not dodecahedron
but i decided to continue anyway since with icosagon its easy
how can I find the modular of super large numbers quickly without a calculator? for example 293829831mod7 or 3^929348mod4?
ohhh you mean vertices of a dodecahedron
not any three points on it's surface
something like this is prolly usually done w either a computer, fermat's lil thm, or to an extent euler's thm
there's probably other ways i cant think of off the top of my head
not using a computer
do you know whatever that number is base 10
finding n mod 5 is easy enough: look at the last digit and take it mod 5
idk anything abt mods in other bases or wtv
so how would you go about solving this question?
i would convert it into base ten and look at the last digit
assuming i knew how to convert it to base ten
naively yes but still not really
okay how so then?
if the number was large (~10-12 digits) i'd just divide by seven and the first decimal digit will tell me what the mod is
if the number im modding by is large
like say
if im trying to get
498372498274927347928947382979 mod 31892372198
or something inane
at that point i'll just use a computer bc life is short
well yea but the idea is that it would be on a test without a calculator
if something like that is on a test without a calculator then there's a trick and i would try to find it
what about numbers to very high exponents, such as 2^(192318923) mod 4
is there a trick?
in this specific case note that 2^(192318923) is (2^2) * 2^(192318921)
and then what?
okay, say mod 5?
i'd bash using flt for a few minutes and if nothing quick came up i'd move on to the next problem
FLT is best
2^(192318923) mod 5 = 2^(192318923 % 4) mod 5
big number % 4 = (its last two digits) % 4 since 100 is divisible by 4
ain't really that difficult imo
@muted bear do you still need help with that nonary mod 5 problem of yours
also you don't really need to explicitly convert to base 10 here
how so? and how would you go about problems like these?
you can just view it as a linear combination of powers of nine
you know what 9 is congruent to -1 mod 5
so 9^n is congruent to (-1)^n
which makes adding up the remainders of 9^n mod 5, scaled by the nonary digits, easy
also wait.
you fucked up.
the last digit has place value 1 not 9
tbh i think what happened is you did something essentially random and hit the 20% chance of getting it right anyway
given that there are only 5 possible answers
yep looks like it
there are multiple mistakes in the way you expanded out the number, and then "only looking at the last digit" isn't correct either because 9 is not 0 mod 5
so essentially your method amounts to "9 * the last digit" and in this case that happened to be correct
the expression you wrote is 38707000410 which is not the same as 38007000041
i have a legit solution typed up
also i think one must understand exactly why the last-digit shortcut works in base 10 but NOT in base 9
@muted bear do you think you understand that point? or would you like to have it explained
yes, i understand, but the idea was that the number was converted to base 10
it wasn't though
that number in base 10 is 13563437239 which looks nothing like what you wrote and would also be really annoying to compute by hand because you have to work out a load of powers of 9
ok wait i think this is important to go over
explain in your own words: why does the base-10 last digit tell us the remainder of a number mod 5, but the base-9 last digit doesn't?
because any number ending in 5 or 0 in base 10 would be in the same congruence class mod 5
why is that? why is it that if two numbers end in 5 and 0 in decimal, then they're congruent mod 5?
why does 5 divide any number ending in 5 or 0 in decimal?
"in decimal" is extremely important here.
i guess since 5 is exaclty half of the base?
im not exactly sure how to put it in words i just know it instinctually
you don't know it instinctively, you memorized it without proof.
this is close-ish.
it's because 5 divides the base.
and so all powers of 10 are congruent to 0 mod 5.
thus, if you write out the number as a sum of powers of 10 according to its decimal expansion,
all of the terms from digits other than the last will vanish
so 4 would divide any number ending in 0 base 8
yes
augh, shitty internet.
@muted bear anyway the idea is that the 9^n terms wouldn't vanish as the decimal ones would.
however 9^n is congruent to (-1)^n mod 5.
so you can still simplify the sum by a lot.
do you see what im talking about?
fyi i am more than ok to write it out more explicitly if you want/need me to, so don't hesitate to ask
have you seen big O notation before at all?
yeah
i just dont understand the "give a fully mathmatically precise definition"
O(n) means that the time scales linearly with the input
but that wouldnt get full credit
have you seen the formal defn of big O?
yes it is
basically look it up on wikipedia lol
still need some help on this: it's not entirely clear how i should even set up the recursion
i've tried examining the last digit and then trying to do stuff with the n-1-digit string that precedes it
but am having trouble translating that into a recurrence
if last digit 0: n-1 digits before have strictly more 1s than 0s
if last digit 1: n-1 digits before have no fewer 1s than 0s
still haven't made any progress 😭 any help? (i am very bad at code)
So I think I got it, I assume there are just these 2 cases?
Cool. Yeah, there's only these 2 cases: Either there exists a person with 19 friends, or there does not exist a person with 19 friends.
When generating the binary string, and when you are at some bit, my idea is to have a parameter k that denotes the difference between the number of 1's and the number of 0's before this bit. We must always have k>=0.
If you let F(n,k) denote the number of binary strings of the required form of remaining length n, and where there has been k = (number of 1's) - (number of 0's) before it, then you are looking for F(n,0).
As you say, the first digit must be a 1, so you already have F(n,0) = F(n-1,1).
If k > 0, then the next digit can be either a 0 or a 1, so F(n,k) = F(n-1,k-1) + F(n-1,k+1).
in words, I think it was that (abs value of) f must be eventually not greater than the linear function n |-> n times some constant
or think magnitude of f instead of |•|
metamath https://us.metamath.org/mpegif/mmset.html does this and is also computer-formalised
so it's a somewhat ridiculous level of detail but the advantage is that it's never going to be insufficiently detailed, given that if they use literally anything that they didn't define the computer would complain
i am having some trouble here with inclusion exlcusion principle
i am using it to find number of primes less than or equal to 100
so as the standard algorithm says, I only need to check for primes smaller than sqrt n
hence I made 4 sets, each divisible by 2,3,5,7
then using the principle, i found the cardinality of the intersections required
but I am getting that there are 22 primes in 1 to 100, not 25?
show your calculations?
i think i might know why you are off by three, but im gonna need to see your work anyway to be sure.
@ionic lodge
oh
i already resolved it in one of the help channels
and yes your hunch is right on the mark
it was because of unity and counting 2,3,5,7 as non-primes
ok right yeah
that's what i thought would be the case
include 2, 3, 5 and 7 themselves (+4) and exclude 1 (-1)
idk about beginner
it's just a simple miscount
it's not the kind of mistake that makes you redo all your work
it's one that can be recovered from
yeah that's true ig
thanks anyhow
Another pigeonhole problem breaking my head.
A guy drinks 42 coffees in January, at least 1 a day. I have to show there must be a set of consecutive days when he drinks exactly 17 coffees
imagine him making a table with 31 columns (one for each day) and two rows
one for "coffees i have drunk thus far, today included"
the other for "the above + 17"
Thanks I'll try that
Did it. First row is redundant since it is just the day, not seeing what I can infer from the second one unfortunately
wrong on both counts
the guy drinks at least one a day, not exactly one a dday.
anyway, think about what it means if the same number appears twice in the table (excl. dates)
How would one go about proving a certain set, does not result in russell paradox? or is really a set? or isnt an element of itself? lets say i construct a "set", made from all sets of a certain type. how can i prove whether that is a genuine set or not? i cant find anything on google, so i would appreciate even just a source.
generally in zfc we have regularity and pairing which together can show that no set can contain itself
sure, but that doesnt stop me from trying to make one mistakenly? so how can i check myself?
ohh i see
well
you'd prove the theorem "For all sets $A,$ we have $A \not \in A$" and then if you had a set $B$ s.t $B \in B$, you would say "$B$ cannot exist because it contradicts the above theorem"
valley
sure so how can i actually determine if it contradicts that theorem? like how do i even begin? like lets say im not sure whather b is in b or not. but i want to prove it isnt.
im confused
you already know b isnt in b
becuase of the theorem
how could you be not sure if b is in b or not?
because im trying to make a set, but that doesnt mean its really a set
prove the set of all sets that contain 1 as an element is an actual set, and not contradictory. might be a more specific example. If im not thinking about it wrong.
then you have to decide if you're working in zfc, where everything is a set, or not, in which case 1 might be an object of a different type
and in the former case you have to also decide whether or not 1 itself (which is then a set) belongs to your set
if it does then you might be in trouble
but then would imply $1\in 1$ so maybe not
Ann
if you can construct that set from the axioms of set theory, then it's a set, is how i would do it
basically you need to be very explicit about the axioms you are starting with
cause what is and isn't allowed is dictated entirely by them
so trying to say anything without a clear list of axioms is moot
sure, so say we work in zfc, and i define the set as following, the set S of all sets B is in S if and only if 1 is in B. where we define 1, as just the intuitive number i think will do.
just define 1 as ${\emptyset}$
yeah, and the intuitive number can vbe formalized
valley
well how are you formalizing it
is the question
sure go ahead with what valley said.
That is certainly a very good definition of 1, but I'd quibble with calling it "intuitive"
If my original definition is unclear i can go write it out more logically if needed
he said 1 is intuitive not the definition
"the set S of all sets B is in S if and only if 1 is in B" this is a false statement
how is it possibly false? its a definition of a set S?
also i would like to say this doesn't fall prey to russell's bc for it to contain itself, it would need to contain ${\emptyset}$, and as we have ${\emptyset} \not \in {\emptyset}$, we're good
i think
valley
Also if you're following ZFC, you literally can't define a set that would be its own element since that's impossible in ZFC
sure its intuitive why this is alright atleast to me, but how do i actually prove it so i can deal with constructions where i cant tell?
You could make a mistake, but asking how to avoid it is akin to asking how to avoid division by zero. Just need to make sure you're not making a false argument, which is a sweeping statement but what can you do.
like i said earlier if you can construct a set with the axioms of set theory, it's a set
It doesn't define S that's an statement
so just show that this set is constructible like that and you're good
i still do think that this might actually be a class but im not fully sure
it can be atomic i think
the definition of a set must distinguish for every set if it is or not in S
in this case you are just stating that a particular set is in S
can I ask a question specifically about discrete math here as well or does it need to be through the math-help? 
you can ask any discrete math questions here. That is precisely what this channel is for.
Confusion about how this Cartesian Plane represents the relation.
Context: Define a relation C from R to R as follows: For any (x, y) ∈ R × R,
(x, y) ∈ C means that x^2 + y^2 = 1.
c. Draw a graph for C by plotting the points of C in the Cartesian plane.
In the exam we had to prove a vertex coloring with max 4 colors concerning a (1,1,1,2,3) Graph but when I put it into the term I got 3,37 which is smaller than 4 and therefore false. Surprise, surprise, it was wrong so im wondering if I have misunderstood the concept? If anyone could maybe give their insight that would be great
that circle in the xy-plane illustrates the relation C because it is a plot of every ordered pair (x,y) that satisfies the equation x^2+y^2=1.
i know..but is there a reason thats its circular?? like couldnt it be any other shape
think back to calculus. x^2+y^2=1 is precisely the graph of the unit circle.
centered at the origin and has a radius of 1
You can write complement as an intersection
Hold on. Need to make that make sense.
You mean like S\T = S intersection T^c?
Yup
Yee
I'm going to use that
But I think I screwed up writting the definition out for S^c \ T^c
What you got?
Just so you have context
For when I write U
I first wrote the lhs as this (x ε U Λ x ~~ε ~~ S ) Λ (x ε U Λ x ε T)
^
wait
I think I see it
that doesn't follow my ven diagram
x has to be an element of T
right?
Cause the venn diagram I drew is just shading in T (excluding the intersection part of T.
Yes
okay
for the rhs
x wouldn't be an element of U right?
that makes sense to me right now.
It would be, U is the universe set
Are you sure? Because to me this is the venn diagram
Like I know U is the universe set.
Well I guess if x isn't in the universe set, then it couldn't be in T
T is in U then once x is in T it is in U as well
agreed
dulg_n
Maybe it meant sequence?
dulg_n
The first one is not convergent
no, in a generating function, you are actually solving for the function s.t. the coefficient appears in the power series
Aaaah I see
Its like, instead of solving an equation by reducing to its power series, and then gathering data about the coefficients of the power series, you are actlly going backwards
That's not supposed to be here btw
Probably calculus or real analysis
Actually, the point is, these are meromorphic functions, ie they need only be convergent somewhere
Damn, this is from my combinatorics course
Combinatorial structures then I think
I think this is too basic for combinatorial structures
I don't know if I understood it
ALL that's finite
Yes, i think that literally is the answer
Nvm then :V
well, for example, if our sequence is a constant sequence $(r)_{n=1}^{\infty}$
dulg_n
Then the generating function is $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} rx^n$
dulg_n
But this is merely the geometric series, so $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} rx^n = \frac{r}{1-x}$ defined for each $x$ such that $|x| < 1$
dulg_n