#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 45 of 1
@brave rock I am first multiplying the binomial by 5, resulting in (15 - 10x). If I then apply the geometric series formula I get 15 to be the start term. There doesn't seem to be a common ratio in this case.
A question on basic combinatorics. Can I get a hint on how to find the cardinality of the set below? Namely,
[\left{(x_1,x_2,\dots,x_k) ,\middle\vert, \sum_{i=1}^{k} x_i=m\right},]
where (k), (m), and all (x_i) are positive integers.
grass
Imagine a sequence of m stars. Let's say 10:
★★★★★★★★★★
Now having a sequence x_1, ..., x_k is the same as choosing k-1 positions to split this at. For example, here's (3, 3, 4):
★★★|★★★|★★★★
Now think about this: how many ways are there of placing these bars? Hint: this is the same as 'choosing' positions for each of the bars.
(Why do I say stars & bars? This is the classic name for this problem)
I think there are 9C3=84 ways right? There are ten stars, there are 9 slots, of which we choose three to place bars in.
Yeah thanks!
But I realised that wasn't actually the combinatorics I needed to answer my own question 😆
Does anyone have an intuitive approach as to why the neutral element of a Group is always part of the kernel (phi) (phi being an homomorphism)? -> I get the proof, but I dont really understand the concept behind it
all homomorphisms send the neutral to the neutral
there is almost nothing to intuit here
if you know what the neutral element is and you know what the kernel of a homomorphism is, it's immediate
Suppose ( G ) is a graph such that all its vertices have degree greater than or equal to 3. Show that ( G ) has at least one even cycle.
renato
how do I start this?
Do I just need algebra to proceed?
I know what my goal is. It's to get n = n' right?
help
Look at a maximal path and say that v is an endpoint of the path, use the fact that v has degree >= 3 to suggest that v has at least three neighbours on the path (this is where the maximality of the path comes from). You can then apply PHP to show the result
Say that x, y, z are neighbours of v on the maximal path. Consider three (v, y) paths
you firstly have the edge v - y
you also have the path formed by the edge v - x and then the path from x to y
you thirdly have the path formed by the edge v - z and then the path from z to y
any pair of these paths only share vertices at their endpoints so the union of any pair of such paths form a cycle
you can then argue by PHP that at least two paths share the same parity in length
(aka the union forms a cycle of even length)
hi
just want to confirm something
this means x can be between 1 and 4, while y can be between 1 and 4 right
if by "between", you mean they can be any of 1, 2, 3, or 4, then yes
would some1 mind explaining where the -C(4,1) comes from in the solution?
How would I go about proving this? I'm trying to do it by lim(n->inf)(f(n) / g(n)) but it can't seem to simplify it even though I'm sure that's how it's done
They subtracted the case where x_1 > 4, x_2 > 5
You end up getting C(1 + 4 - 1, 4 - 1) = C(4, 3) = C(4, 4 - 3) = C(4, 1)
Hint: for n > 1, n > sqrt(n). So firstly, g(n) <= nlog(n + n) = nlog(2n) = nlogn + nlog2 < nlogn + nlogn (n > 2) = 2nlogn <= 2(n + sqrt(n))log(n)
you should be able to do something similar for the reverse direction
(n + sqrt(n))logn < 2nlogn < 2nlog(n + sqrt(n))
So what exactly does this prove?
It looks like the first statement g(n) is the lower bound for f(n), but it looks like in the reverse it looks like f(n) is the lower bound for g(n). Does this mean they are theta of each other?
Does the 2 affect anything at the end of the evaluation or can I just divide it out?
After finishing this work, what kind of text should I write to finish the proof?
Indeed. They are Theta of each other
The first half of the proof shows that g(n) = O(f(n)) while the second half of the proof shows that f(n) = O(g(n))
Thank you so much! you're a lifesaver
one last thing. Why is it that in this first half uses '<=' while the 2nd half uses '<' exclusively
Could u perhaps expand on how u got that?
Ehhh doesn’t make a difference; the first half could also be < as well if you wanted to
Set x_1 >= 5, x_2 >= 6 and solve it normally with this constraint
yeah that was my thougt process too but i could only think of x1 = 5 x2 = 7 and x1 = 6 x2 = 6 but thats only 2 instead of C(4,1) = 4
oh wait
i see what u mean
LOL
thanks 🙏
for dilworths theorem what does it mean by minimum number of partitions of a chain
we want to partition a partially ordered set into a collection of chains
Hi could someone explain how to determine if this is true? I have done all the truth tables for all four statements but idk how to validate it
I have been stuck for a day now🫠
make a truth table with columns for all the premises and for the conclusion
as in one big truth table
with cols for p, q, r, then q -> (p & ~r), ~p v q, etc.
I have done that. But what am I looking for? The conclusions to be all true in a single row?
<@&286206848099549185> 🙏🏼
There’s like only one row where the conclusions are true for all four statements and that’s when P=false and q=false.
Is that the validate part???????
sorry for the late reply on my part
@ruby valley you're looking to verify that in all rows where all the premises are true, the conclusion is true as well.
So I’m suppose to be looking for P,Q and R to be true and then the premises( the four columns) to be true?
I’m confused
It’s not a problem. I’m the one asking for help after all
So the top row??
It’s the only row where p,q and r is true
no
What do you mean by premises?
no. p, q and r are the variables.
a premise is something "assumed true" for the sake of the argument.
Ohhhh
So this statement is true when P&Q is false but r is true.
Am I right?
Do the variables being true or false matters?
you say you've made this table that i asked for
can you show it to me
There’s like only one row where the premises and conclusion is true
Is it that row that makes this validated?????
🫠
this table is incomplete
the last four columns are missing half of their symbols
make it tidier and make it full
Wait but aren’t the remaining spaces suppose to be empty?
Like all the cases are accounted for?
Like second premise column doesn’t require r to be true or false ?
no, they are not
"empty" is not a truth value in our system
ok but why did you only fill in the ones where r is true
why, when r is false, does ~p v q not deserve a truth value?
Cos I’m not sure what to put🥲
Like how does r influence the truth or false of that statement?
it doesn't
Then isn’t it an empty space???
no it's not
What am I suppose to put? I’m confused
well
...but if r is true, then you apparently know exactly how r influences the truth value of ~p v q?
for pqr = TTT, the value of the second premise is T
the value of r doesn't affect the second premise
this means that for pqr = TT_, where the _ can stand for either T or F, the second premise will still be T
I just did the table for each individual statement and then combine them into the big table😩
do you agree or disagree with this
Might be because I combine the table🫠
Ohhhhh
I think I get what you are trying to say
Only look at P and q values?
So if P and Q are both true, regardless of what R is, the premise is still true?
That’s what you are saying?
that is exactly what i have been saying, yes.
so what should go in the TTF row for the 2nd premise?
True because p and q are true
And second premise only require q to be true for the premise to be true
Yes?
overthinking
🫠
the value of the second premise is the same for the TTT and TTF rows
and you have already established that in the TTT row it's T
therefore in the TTF row it is also T
as tidy as these
could do it in Excel or some similar tool
Ok ok
Ok! I got it!
The last two rows are all true
What’s the next step?
What makes an argument valid in this case??????
let me just doublecheck that you didnt mess up the table.
ok, you did indeed construct the table correctly.
you're looking to verify that in all rows where all the premises are true, the conclusion is true as well.
So that would be the last two rows right?
not just those, no.
What makes an arguement valid first?
You mean this?
yes
Ohhhh
your issue now is you have not located ALL the rows in which every premise is true at once.
this is not about math, this is about reading.
Huh?
Isn’t that just the last two rows?
Wait why row 2????
Isn’t the premises must be true then the conclusion is true is what I’m looking for?
aaarhuahah.
^this?
yes
so you look at the truth table
you mark the rows in which all premises are true
you mark all such rows, not omitting any
THEN you check, for each marked row, whether the conclusion is TRUE in that row.
i did mean it liteerally
how else could i have meant it
tll me
how tf else could i have meant it
you read something into my words THAT WASNT THERE
that is very frustrating
Like the last column is “TRUE”
Sorry
Is marking down the columns the solution to it?
h
the marking carries no sacred meaning whatsoever
it was ONLY my attempt to unfuck your misreading/misunderstanding of my words, nothing more
if you dont want to place any marks you dont need to
Ohhhhhhh ok ok
im gonna go
Ok thanks for your help!!!😅😅
Sorry but I’m new to this so I’m not sure how this works
But thank you!!!
is wolfram any good ?
what a strange question
Yes
is there some simpler way of solving non-homogenius recurence relations that doesn't involve a 30 step process
My reasoning to this was:
For any distribution of white balls, adding all black balls to the box with more white balls is optimal (maximizes probability of living). Removing a white ball from the box with less white balls and adding it to the box with more white balls increases the probability of living monotonically (assuming black balls are always optimally allocated). This proves that the optimal strategy is 1 white ball in one box, and 14 white balls + 15 black balls in the other box. The probability is roughly 74%.
Was curious if anyone knew of different approaches to this problem?
Hi, for this q i'm trying to compute N,p from the defs <k> = (N-1)p, sigma^2 = (N-1)p(1-p).
Then, 100 = (N-1)p(1-p) -> 100 = 40(1-p). But then p not in [0,1]
nvmd I got it
@ember marsh so to move us here you're asked to prove A - (B ∩ C) = (A - B) ∪ (A - C)
yes
two questions for you, so that i know how to approach explaining this:
- have you done any other set theory proofs before?
- is the use of venn diagrams ok?
no wrong answers to either of those
- i have the first proof of the first De Morgan's law
- yes
these questions are only for me to determine what angle to approach this from as far as explanations go
thats ok
ok right
well then
draw a bunch of 3-set venn diagram templates
on one, shade in A - (B ∩ C)
on another, shade in A - B
on a third, shade in A - C
all shall be laid bare
no
you're only supposed to use one color, for one.
also, im a little suspicious.
let's set aside the problem for a second.
get a blank venn diagram template and shade in A.
btw you can use the circle and bucket tools.
ok right that's correct for A
now subtract B ∩ C from it
i.e. over this picture, color B ∩ C back into white
here's a neater version btw
anyway
now get a fresh venn diagram, and on it, shade A - B
but should I also use the set C?
wdym by "use the set C"
drawing it
you should still draw it on the same 3-set template yes.
you can take mine and un-color it
this is not A - B.
as in "what did i draw?" or "how do i draw A - B correctly?"
what did i draw
you drew (A ∪ C) - B
where i did wrong?
well the bit at the bottom is outside A
a point that doesn't belong to A cannot belong to A-B
A - B is literally just this
do you undestand this? Y/N
but its A ∩ C ?
no, what i just drew is not A ∩ C.
why?
A ∩ C is the set of all points that belong to both A and C at once.
the big top-left region lies outside C.
bruh
that's not A ∩ C either, and it also is only PART of what i shaded.
the bit you just circled in red is A ∩ C - B.
just saying
if you're gonna talk about something OTHER than what i drew
then you have to make it clear what you're talking about
otherwise you WILL be misunderstood and it will not be good for me and also not be good for you.
ok, so coming back to this
this is A - B. do you agree or disagree?
yes
we are done
i mean the proof can be just one word
"Behold!"
the diagrams speak for themselves
you've got your A-B, you've got your A-C; their union produces the same picture as the one for A-(B ∩ C)
okay!
the first De Morgan's law was written like this
We proceed by demonstrating the double inclusion, namely proving:
[ A - (B \cup C) \subseteq (A - B) \cap (A - C) ]
[ (A - B) \cap (A - C) \subseteq A - (B \cup C) ]
Let's consider an element ( x ) in ( A - (B \cup C) ), then:
[ x \in A ] and ( x \notin B \cup C ) ( \Rightarrow ) ( x \in A ) and ( (x \notin B ) and ( x \notin C) ).
This implies that the element ( x \notin B ) and ( x \notin C ), thus it is an element both of the set difference ( A - B ) and ( A - C ), i.e., ( x \in (A - B) \cap (A - C) ).
Let's consider an element ( x \in (A - B) \cap (A - C) ), then ( x ) is an element of set ( A ) which is simultaneously not present in sets ( B ) and ( C ). Thus ( x ) is an element of set ( A ) such that ( x \notin B \cup C ), i.e., ( x \in A - (B \cup C) ).
alee
well, you're the one who said using venn diagrams was ok.
so i walked you through a proof via venn diagrams.
you could also do element chasing instead.
yes
it's kind of routine and not too enlightening.
Can some explain this better, this explanation in the book is a bit confusing. What is meant by "reduce modulo m after each multiplication? " Is there a rule that allows you to find b mod m, b^2 mod m, ... b^(2k-1) mod m first and then multiply the results together to get b^n mod m, instead of doing b*b^2 *b^4 ... b^(2k-1) first and then mod m?
reduce modulo m = take the remainder modulo m
also the last one you find is not b^(2k-1) but b^(2^(k-1))
would you like it explained on the 3^644 mod 645 example? Y/N @weary tiger
Yes please, I dont know how all the variables relate to the theory given above
yeah
ok
so if we knew the values of 3^512, 3^128 and 3^4 modulo 645,
we could multiply those together and take the remainder mod 645
and that would be our answer
does this make sense to you?
So find 3^512 mod 645, 3^128 mod 645, and 3^4 mod 645. These all represent remainders. Multipy these remainders together and then mod 645 again to get the answer ?
that's the idea, yes.
for more efficiency (and less working with big numbers), you'd reduce mod 645 after each of those multiplications. but that specifically is a minor detail.
ok, so do you follow thus far
yeah... hold on so it is basically applying the above in that step ?
the natural question that should arise is: how do we get THOSE values?
Yeah because they are still very large
and to that, the answer is simple -- consider this sequence:
3^1 mod 645
3^2 mod 645
3^4 mod 645
3^8 mod 645
3^16 mod 645
and so on.
the neat thing about it is that it can be calculated recursively!
each of its terms equals the square of the previous, modulo 645.
and the starting term is obviously just 3.
do you understand this?
@weary tiger
When you say this you are saying 3^2 mod 645 = (3^1 mod 645) ^2?
[(3^1 mod 645)^2] mod 645 more formally
So to get 3^512 modm you do this process recursively starting from 3^1 ?
yes
the point is: after you have calculated as far into this sequence as you need, you take just the terms that you want, and multiply THOSE together.
ok i see, thank you much
i understadnt he range when the sets of numbers are the same
such as Z to Z or R to R
but when they are different I cant wrap my mind around whats happening
the way i understand it is that "pick any x, x ∈ R, that gives a Z"
That's not exactly it. It is implicitly given that for any x in R, f(x) will actually be a number in Z
How do I do 10b
Specifically evaluating X to show that it is not (or is) equal to the set {1.2, -2.5}
By the definition of a proper subset.
show that every element in {1.2, -2.5} is also in X, but not every element of X is in {1.2, -2.5}
right...I got that concept down, but not sure how to implement it. Do I have to just show all the solutions of the function given in X?
Is p V T a tautology or not?
I believe it should, because no matter what is the value of p the output of truth table is T and this is the bare minimum requirement of tautology
Q: how would you show that an element from one set is in another?
for instance, how would you show that 1.2 is in X?
in this case, you plug the element in as x
well I did that work to prove that {1.2, -2.5} is a subset of X
an element is in a set if it satisfies the condition needed to be in the set
okay, so it's the other way around that's the issue?
okay good
It is, yes
And my reasoning is also correct, right?
do I have to show that the values I got from plugging in the X are in the other set?
like for instance, the 0.288 and 24.375 that I found?
Yes
no, you dont
to show that {1.2, -2.5} is a proper subset of X, you have to show that all elements in {1.2, -2.5} are in X, but there exists at least one element in X which is not in {1.2, -2.5}
does that make sense?
yes, but I don't know how to do that ;-;
your goal now becomes "find just one element in X which isnt in {1.2, -2.5}"
i.e. one element k which satisfies k^3 - 6k^2 - 19k + 30 > 0
but is not 1.2 or -2.5
mhm
thank you sm
Hi folks 🙂 Let $f(n) = n + n * (n-1) + n * (n-1) * (n-2) + \dots + n!$. Why is it true that $f(n) = \lfloor e * n! \rfloor$ for $n > 1$? (https://oeis.org/A000522, one of the Pari formulas)
flebron
(I'd be happy with an argument for why it's < 3 n!)
Oh of course, $e = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k!}$ , so $e n! = e \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{n!}{k!}$ which is of course greater than just truncating when k gets to n.
flebron
Ok so...
I'm doing #13
I provided examples but that's not a proof, right? How do I actually prove it
i thought it would be that but that deosnt make sense. if x=1.1 then f(x) wont be in Z.
or does the statement R->Z force you to choose an x that would make f(x) belongs to Z
if x=1.1, then f(x) = 1
Are you familiar with the floor function?
Indeed this is not a proof. Are you familiar with proofs involving showing that two statements are equivalent?
I am still so lost on how to find An^(p) in a non-homogeneous recurrence relation, can anyone help me out?
never heard of it. Google says basically just round f(x) down to the nearest integer?
x, not f(x).
but yes, rounding down to the nearest integer is exactly what the floor function does.
for example, $\floor{\pi} = 3$
Ann
ohhh
so if i map it, all the A values get rouded down first before going through f(x)?
or does it go through f(x) then get rounded down
what is an "A value"?
i think you're monumentally confused. or maybe i am instead.
please repost the original problem.
(also what's f?)
when we were taught mapping
the left side is "A" and the right side is "B"
and the arrow is the function
"the arrow is the function" is certainly one way to look at it...
but ok
so f is the floor function.
domain and codomain respectively.
yeah
so if i map it, all the A values get rouded down first before going through f(x)?
or does it go through f(x) then get rounded down
this just makes no sense
rounding down is what f does.
no, you have it backwards.
f(1.4) = 1, if that's what you mean
f(1.4) = 1
ohhhh
But also f(1) = 1, if that's what you mean
okok thank you
I was wondering... is it guaranteed that an infinite union of ZFC sets (suppose there are countably many of those) ${\mathcal{F}i}{i=1}^{\infty}$ will be a ZFC set? \
Like, in ZFC, with the help of Axiom of Pairing and Axiom of Union, we can always construct unions for any finite number of sets. But what about infinite?
Sweet Tea 🧋
in other words,
$$
A_1, A_2, \ldots - \text{ sets } \stackrel{?}{\implies} \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty} A_i - \text{ set }
$$
Sweet Tea 🧋
For $(A_i){i\in I}$ an $I$-indexed family of sets, we have $$\bigcup{i\in I}A_i=\bigcup{A_i\mid i\in I}.$$
Now if $I$ is a set, then so is ${A_i\mid i\in I}$ (by replacement). And so would be $\bigcup{A_i\mid i\in I}$ (by union).
Neverbloom
And of course this still holds if I happens to be infinite.
gotcha, thanks!
what would be the loop invariant here? would it be "if x is in a, then the search space in each iteration will always contain a"?
Yeah, if x is in a, then it is between L and r inclusive
aight aight
im having trouble with this problem
the internet says the answer is 15
but
at the bottom i have 15 numbers and none of them can add up to 110
I would need a 16th number in my case to make this true.
is the internet wrong or is tehre something flawed with what im saying
34, 37, 41, 44 all aren't in the set
the correct list is 3 7 11 15 19 23 27 31 35 39 43 47 51 55 and that's only 14 numbers
is there a general formula for the substitution you need to make for the non homogeneous part of a recurrence relation?
Anyone knows a book or resourse on first order logic that uses a notation similar to this?
I'm struggling a lot to understand this with from the given materials..
There are so plenty of appropriate books and essentially any introductory logic textbook should do the trick. One concrete example would be Ebbinghaus & Flum whose notation looks quite similar to the notation in your screenshot.
Thanks for the suggestion. Any tips on working through this? I can get most of the stuff intuitively but the formalism is pretty heavy
Just like with any other subject, I'm afraid the only thing that helps in that situation is to push through the struggle and practice
How is A_2 a countable set??å
I can let f(x) = 1/2 for all x, thus no inverse exists so it cannot be a bijection
1/2 is not in {0,1}
oh
...also what do you mean by "thus no inverse exists"?
it's true that f doesn't have an inverse, but the question isn't "is every element of A_2 a bijection", it's "is there a bijection between A_2 and N"
yes
yes yes ok i understand
are we supposed to take the condition inside the defn as holding for all n
sorry i did not understand thi
should the definition of $A_2$ be written like this? $$A_2 = { f : \bN \to {0,1} \mid f(n)\leq f(n+1) \text{ for all }n}$$
doesn't say but i think so
Ann
I would imagine that’s the intended quantifier, yes.
ok if anyone is curious i did this:
since f(n)<=f(n+1), then all functions are one of these:
f_k(n) = {1 if n<=k, 0 else}
and because there is a bijection from N to k we are done.
Given 17 points inside a 2 ft x 2 ft square, there must be a pair of points within x feet away from each other, what would the smallest distance be?
the given answers are 1 ft, root 2 ft and 2 ft, am i tripping or are all of these wrong
having trouble translating the first premise in terms of p and q. If p is a good car and q is cheap would it be p implies not q? Or is it not q implies p?
Just my two cents this argument is a contra positive making it a valid argument. P=good car is cheap and Q= Simbaru is cheap
~Q->~P
1.) Why are they allowed to subtract b from both sides?
why wouldn't they be
it's a property of modular congruences
x = x' (mod m) => x + y = x' + y (mod m), for any x, x', y ∈ Z
@weary tiger
ok, then the part that says because gcd(a, 26) = 1, then there is an inverse a'. Im sorry if this is trivial but whats the reason
And everything after that i dont understand
ok first off do you know what a modular inverse is
ok right
then let's forget about modulo rn
do you know what the multiplicative inverse of a real number is
what you multiply a real number by to get 1?
yes
the same idea goes here: given an integer x, its inverse modulo m is the integer y s.t. xy = 1 (mod m)
this should probably appear somewhere in your book as a definition
probably in the first chapter where it talks about modular arithmetic
There is something at the end of the first section that says... multiplicative inverses do not always exists modulo m. Thats it
that's it? so it says THAT but it does NOT even tell you what a multiplicative inverse is?
can you maybe send me a copy of the book
The very last sentence says we'll return to the question of when an integer has a muliplicative inverse later in the chapter. Im sorry, Ill just look and see if I can find it
I dont actually have the book on my computer. Its on a school site. But its from the rosen discrete math book
ok fine whatever
now the stmt you were asking about is: a has an inverse mod m iff gcd(a,m) = 1, and specifically the <= direction of that equivalence
do you know Bézout's lemma?
feels like a shot for the moon at this point but i gotta ask
There is Bézout's Theorem... If a and b are positive integers, then there exists integers s & t such that gcd(a,b) = sa + tb
oh nvm there is a lemma that follows... If a, b, c are positive integers such that gcd(a,b) = 1 and a | bc, then a|c
this one is what we want
gcd(a,m) = 1 => exist s and t such that as + mt = 1 => as == 1 (mod m)
for you m=26 but the number twenty-six holds no sacred meaning
is there sombody that could help me out
gonna need a translation here
also looks more like #probability-statistics but whatever
Oh yea sorry I will translate it
"We concider a probabiliy measure P and events A,B,C for which we know that: P(C^c) =1/2 (C^c = complement of C)
P(A∩C|B)= 1/10
P(B∩C^c) = 1/6
and P(A∩B∩C^c) = 1/10
further we know that the events are pairwise independent
Wich of the following statements is true?
the second statement = " None of these statements is true"
yea, i have put the conditions to other forms by using some rules
but i don't really get what they mean by A,B and C are pairwise independent
are they not just al 3 independent of eachother?
so that we can say this P(A∩B∩C)=P(A)⋅P(B)⋅P(C)
no
pairwise independence doesn't imply three-way independence
i can give you an example of a trio of events that aren't independent all together, but pairwise they all are
it means P(A&B) = P(A)P(B), P(A&C) = P(A)P(C) and P(B&C) = P(B)P(C)
i found that P(C)=P(C^c)=1/2 and P(B)= 1/3 and P(B^c)= 2/3
but i don't see how to find A
i have triend multiple things but i always find what was given
hm
im on the move rn so cant really reproduce my idea
but if you haven't already i would try to make a Venn diagram
good idea i will try it
Is there a naming for periodic functions in which all fibers are empty or singleton(/propositional) for some subset in the domain?
Uh wait, I guess that is an injection. Some "periodic injective" function...?
i just found that P(A) = 1/3 could that be right?
Can someone help me understand how to use inclusion exclusion to solve this problem from my combinatorics class?
What is the number of permutations of the numbers from 1 to n in which no even number is a fixed point? (The odd numbers can be anywhere)
why do we need linear order here?
like, we didn't use it (yet)
or so it seems
nvm. probably cause in the definition we say that the arrangement is of type $(k_1, \ldots, k_m)$ – to avoid ambiguity
Sweet Tea 🧋
why can't I solve this with
$$
\binom{15}{1} + \binom{15}{2} + \ldots + \binom{15}{15}=2^{15}-1
$$
?
Author provided a solution with "each basket is determined by the amount of apples and oranges we put into it". Hence we can just take the cartesian product (and substract the case when the basket is empty later) \
And it does make sense! \
I just can't see where my solution is wrong... (obv they can't be both right)
Sweet Tea 🧋
well your solution treats (for example) "the fourth and fifth apples" and "the first and seventh apples" as different baskets
their solution says that both of those are "two apples", the only thing that matters is the number of each type of fruit
so you are both right, you're just counting different things
ohhh, I see. thanks!
||maybe the first and seventh are more juicy than fourth and fifth xDD||
if,
$\sum_{n=2}^\infty a(n) \phi(s,n) = \sum_{n=2}^\infty b(n) \phi(s,n) =$
for all s in some region, can I conclude that a(n) = b(n) for all n>=2
also to mention both these summations are absoutely convergent
Akhil Rao
we can't count the problem highlighted in red with the same method as outlined above, right?
I'd then argue that to each permutation of non-unique digits
$$
{ (a_1, a_2, a_3, a_4, a_5) , | , \text{"three 1's and two 3's"} }
$$
we assign precisely $3! \cdot 2!$ configurations of the same digits but being unique (by multiplication rule and the number of permutations of $n$-set) \
therefore
\begin{align*}
|\text{Non-Unique}| &=3! \cdot 2! |\text{Unique}| \
5! &= 3! \cdot 2! |\text{Unique}| \
\frac{5!}{3! \cdot 2!} &= |\text{Unique}|
\end{align*}
Sweet Tea 🧋
can u please give me a small hint? (I know this is an example and I can just flip the page and see the solution – but I'd like to try to come up with it myself)
try first counting how many ways there are to pick 5 non adjacent spots for the vowels to go in
they can be adjacent as well
choose 5 spots for these letters
but do not arrange them
as we need to maintain the order
there's a trick for non-adjacent selections that i don't remember fully bc i don't wanna be off by 1 accidentally
hmmmm. well, the total number of those spots seems to be
$$_b _c\ldots_z_$$
the number of letters plus one. i.e. 22\
so probably
$$
\binom{22}{5}
$$
Sweet Tea 🧋
oh yeah that would do it
for for any such combination of adj spots we can pick precisely $5!$ different arrangements of those letters
Sweet Tea 🧋
hence
$$
\binom{22}{5} \cdot 5!
$$
?
Sweet Tea 🧋
those letters – i meant vowels in this texit snippet
oh yeah, forgot abt that. thanks!
what did I do wrong here? :((
Here I've massively overcounted. The book says it should be only |S|=151'200
oh, I'm also blind lol. I under counted it
We first arrange the 5 digits
which 5 digits though?
ohhhhhhhh. it should've been 7•6•5•4•3
thanks!
lemme recount
now it's 236'880 >>> 151'200
well that's weird given that i calculated it and got 161280
which is also wrong but it's also different
,w 7!+8! * 2 + 7! * 6 * 5
it's 7!/2! and eiher way at the end we multiply by 2, so it just becomes 7!
ok but then why 6 * 5
yeah, exactly
that should be 6 choose 2
Btw guys can anyone give me a good way to solve it? I believe It can't be inclusion exclusion and My initial take was wrong as well
Like just the way/train of thought and I'll try to get it
...oh i see
if you view it as 8!
you might just end up with 7 digits that all aren't 5 or 6
so yeah 7*7! does work
you can equivalently view it as
pick one digit, out of the digits that aren't 5 or 6, that you're going to exclude
7 choices
then order the 7 digits you're keeping
7! choices
goootcha. thanks!
but even with that it still overcounts lol
,w 7!+7*7! * 2 + 7! * 6 * 5
OHHYEAH
finally
thank you! 
here's an alternative solution to that exercise, and I don't understand why $S^c$ must contain 5 and 6's consecutively. shouldn't it be «if $5$ and $6$ are both in some number $n \in S^c$, then it must be the case that they are placed consecutively» \
i.e. this complement $S^c$ may not contain 5's and 6's in ALL of its numbers
Sweet Tea 🧋
nvm. not possible. for example 1234789 (no 5 and 6) does belong to $S$, hence it won't belong to $S^c$
Sweet Tea 🧋
same for the case if we have only one 5 or only one 6
Hi, Im having some trouble finding the complexity of this code with Big-O notation:
if (array == null || array.length == 0)
throw new RuntimeException("Empty array");
int candidate = array[0];
for (int rec = 1; rec < array.length ; rec++)
if ( candidate < array[rec] )
candidate = array[rec];
return candidate;```
I thing I have two comparissons at if, then the if inside the for loop that is executed N+1 times (with array.length = N), so 2 * O(1) + O(1) * (N+1) < O(N)
but Ive seen my prof. powerpoints that basically says I have 3 operations at the first if, then 1 comp + 1 sum + 1 comparisson, and that is done N-1 times
so T(the algorithm)=3+3*(N-1)=3*N
what are you lost on?
you seem to have O(N) figured out
Are you looking for big O or an exact number of operations?
You say big O but then your calculations seem to imply you want an exact bound of some sort
nope, just want big O
like, big O is also calculated with the number of operations
but Im kinda lost with the calculation of the code
nvm it was just some weird thing we were asked
thxx
i dont get how this is true: $A\cup B \subseteq X \text{ if and only if } A \subseteq X \text { and } B \subseteq X$
$A\cup B \subseteq X \text{ if and only if } A \subseteq X \text { and } B \subseteq X$
looksing
its been a while since ive looked at discrete and checking my notes my proof wasnt a proof at all
so im wondering how thats true since couldnt
$A\cup B = {1,2,a,b} \text { and } X = {1}$
for if i think we can say that there does not exist elements in A which are not in X and there doesnt exist elements in B which are not in X so when we take the union of both we won't get an element not in X hence A U B is a subset of X
idk how rigoruous this is but it can be a starting
$A\cup B = {1,2,a,b} \text{ and } X = {1} \text{ then } A\cup B \subset X \text { but } B \nsubseteq X$
looksing
right?
uh i dont really understand
waitttt im dumbbbb
i forgot the symbol meant A u B are subsets of X not the other way around lmao
thank you i already figured it out tho
my notes were right i just forgot the symbol worked like that
ah ok
$A \cup (B \cap C) = (A \cup B) \cup C$
you sure you didnt mistype anything there
yeah
looksing
chatgpt bruh
!nogpt
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
looksing
no i was wrong
How to find the coefficient of any term in a polynomial of the form (a1+a2+...+an)^k
I know how to do with 2 terms but never heard of a way with more than 2
This might be a better channel to put this in. I’ve been asking in the help channels but no one has responded, so maybe someone here could help?
Let $f$ be a function from a finite set $A$ to itself. Prove that $f$ is injective if and only if $f$ is surjective. $\$
I understand why this must be true. in the direction injectivity implies surjectivity: $\$
Assume the function is not surjective. This means $|f(A)| < |A|$. $//$
The codomain and domain are the same set, so $| \text{codom} f | = |A|$. Since injectivity implies that $|f(A)| \ge |A |$ and $f(A) \subseteq A$, we know $|f(A)| \le |A|$. Consequently, $|f(A)| = |A|$. This contradicts with $|f(A)| < |A|$, and thus $f$ must be surjective. $\$
I qualitativly understand the reverse, but am even less sure how to write it out. $\$
Is my reasoning ocrrect, and how can I turn it into a proof? Thanks!!
Nameless
Your proof for the forward implication seems fine enough (assuming you have proved those inequalities with the definition of cardinality and PHP), for the reverse try thinking about the same reasoning on the size of the inverse image
Is anyone here familiar with Hierholzer's algorithm(euler circle)
i have an elementary question. I tried to apply multiplication principle to reason about the number of circle permutations (where 123 and 231 and 312 are the same thing, for example)\
so, to each circle 3-permutation we correspond exactly 3 different linear 3-permutations. hence it should be (by multiplication principle)
$$
\left|\text{CirclePerm}\right|=3\cdot\left|\text{LinePerm}\right|
$$
but it can't be true. intuitively, $$\left|\text{CirclePerm}\right| << \left|\text{LinePerm}\right|$$ So what's wrong in my reasoning / application of multiplication principle?
Sweet Tea 🧋
if to every element of set $S$ we can correspond $n$ elements from a set $T$, then \
ohhh. yeah. lol. nvm
Sweet Tea 🧋
how could this be right? (highligted in red)
like, if we fix A (in the line I presume), doesn't this completely determine the positions of other letters?
if
_ _ _ A _ _
then the only way to fill in the blanks is as follows
D E F A B C
no?
(I'm 100% this is wrong; I just can't figure out why)
The position of A is fixed, you have to fill and permute the other 5 gaps in this, so 5!
Since A is out of the game beforehand, no need to include it and it's equivalent to just linearly permuting B, C, D, E, F, so yes you are correct in this one.
Another way you can think of this is as follows:
Consider four people: A, B, C, D (for simplicity), sitting around a table.
How can you straighten out ABCD, who are sitting on the table, in a line?
Well, we can start with A:
ABCD
Or from B:
BCDA
Or from C:
CDAB
Or finally, from D:
DABC
And we still haven't changed the initial arrangement of ABCD sitting around the table.
And linearly permuting any one of them yields 4! ways
So if you want the distinguishable circular permutations (since ABCD, BCDA, CDAB and DABC counts the same; equivalently being invariant under rotation), it is 4!/4 = 3! = (4-1)!
and you can generalise this argument in a similar fashion to n people.
Note that this logic fails completely when we are counting with respect to objects in the room (not rotationally invariant), or counting the circular permutations of beads on a bracelet for example (not invariant under flipping).
gotcha, thank u!
what went wrong? 
it clearly isn't «n!»
oh yeah, forgot «n_i!» in each denominator. now it works
denominator*
does anyone know why the number of surjective maps from A to B is
S(kard(A),kard(B)) * kard(B)! ?
what is S()?
are you sure you did not mistype anything...
yes i am sure
$S(n,k) = k S(n-1,k-1) s(n, k-1)$
Ann
correct?
no don't think so
$S(n,k) = k S(n-1,k-1) s(n, k-1)$ differs a lot from the definition of stirling numbers (of both kinds) that i know about. also what's $s$?
Ann
WHY DID YOU SAY YOU WERE SURE
because i thought u meant the other one 😭
your math SE post contains a lemma with proof
did you read it? Y/N
@chilly hemlock
well i guess more like "yes i read it / no i didn't read it / reading it right now"
@stray reef i just found it when i was writing it in the server
im reading it after i
ve eaten
sorry wasnt online when u wrote
Hi, does anyone have an idea of how to prove that given a finite, non empty set called A and S=$\bigcup_{m\in \mathbb{N}_{>0}}A^m$, then $#S=\aleph _ 0$
Neo
I thought about the definition of finite sets so there must be a function $f_m: A^m\rightarrow I_{#A^m}$ bijective function with $I_n={1,2,...,n}$
Neo
do you not have the result of "countable union of countable sets is countable"?
Let me check the theorical part I was given
nope
Just that A, B countable set, then AuB is countable, but I know I can do something with that, and prove that countable union of countable sets is countable
is that the only path?
anything else is just unnecessarily painful imo.
i mean like ok
you could describe it informally
wait
here we have a cardinal
I need to prove that the union's cardinal is aleph zero
but union of countable sets doesnt mean the union cardinal will be aleph zero
it's a union of countably many at-most-countable sets.
but if I have a set A={1} and B={3,4}, both are countable sets, but the unions cardinal is 3, not aleph
ok let me be more precise then
it is obvious that the cardinality of your union is at least aleph-null.
if it is not obvious, say so now, because otherwise i'll assume that it is.
each A^m has cardinality at least 1
yes
and they are all disjoint and there is countably many of them being unioned
anyway ok like
there's an explicit-ish bijection that can be constructed
which i will NOT be writing down an "explicit formula" for
np, any hint is ok
so first im gonna take A as {1, 2, ..., n} bc by assumption it is in bijection with such a set (being finite and nonempty)
then you can make a list that looks like this:
1
2
...
n
(1,1)
(1,2)
...
(1,n)
(2,1)
(2,2)
...
(2,n)
... ...
(n,n)
(1,1,1)
(1,1,2)
...
(1,1,n)
..........
do you get the idea
yup
yeah thats how you do it
ok I think I got it
its kinda a function that mixes the idea of that latex?
... i guess
kk Ill try to put it formally, tyyy
Do you guys know how to approach the proof of (iii) here? I was able to prove (ii) using limit ratios for subsequent values: $\lim_{n\to\infty}a^{n+1}/a^n=a > \lim_{n\to\infty}(n+1)^C/n^C=1$ since we know $a>1$. Any thoughts on how to do (iii)?
SteveArwen
l'hopital's rule should work
Is it necessary to assume $\alpha>C$? So you could reason that you would apply L'Hôpital's many times until you get something of the form $1/n^{\alpha-C}$. I feel like it should also work for $\alpha\leq{C}$ but it's still confusing me...
SteveArwen
I think the reasoning here has to do with transitivity of congruences, but the explanation is still somewhat unclear. Whats the reason why you can say "if x is a solution, then x ≡ -8 ≡ 6 mod 7?"
,iam dying
Removed the studying! role from you.
How exactly can you use Schr¨oder-Bernstein Theorem for this?
The solution I got for (a) is attached
from $3x \equiv 4 \pmod{7}$ you get $-6x \equiv -8 \pmod{7}$, and then you replace $-6$ with $1$, and $-8$ with $6$, to end up with $1x = 6 \pmod{7}$.
Ann
Ty, I’ve got another question…if x ≡ 4 mod 5. What makes it x ≡ 4 mod 15, ≡ 9 mod 15, and ≡ 14 mod 15 and only these for this problem? @stray reef
or, not and.
write out all the possible remainders of x modulo 15, see which ones of those give 4 when divided by 5.
Best guess is to construct two injective functions in each direction. One direction follows by inclusion. For the other direction, think piecewise.
Does anyone know how to use Wolfram to generate truth tables for prediacte logic such as (∀x∃y∃zS(x,y,z))→(∀x∀y∃zS(x,y,z))
thanks
or symbolab?
If I have a set of points on a circle. How many triangles can I draw such that the vertices of the triangle must be elements of the set
Think about what you need to choose from a set to define a triangle.
A triangle need three points
So each point need to choose 3 points
so it's either nP3 or nC3
I feel like it's nP3 because arrangment is necessary
But when I tried it with 4 points it resulted in 4 different triangles not 6
Idk why
why? does it matter if we pick our three points in the order A, B, C or the same three points in the order C, B, A?
does this give us two different triangles?
Suppose that SmartphoneA has 256 MB RAM and 32 GB ROM, and the resolution of its camera is 8 MP; Smartphone B has 288 MB RAM and 64 GB ROM, and the resolution of its camera is 4 MP; and Smartphone C has 128 MB RAM and 32 GB ROM, and the resolution of its camera is 5 MP. Determine the truth value of "If Smartphone B has more RAM and more ROM than Smartphone C, then it also has a higher resolution camera."
A naive question, what will be the output of "Smartphone B has more RAM and more ROM than Smartphone C". I believe it will be False, because no doubt the RAM of the Smartphone B is the highest, but the ROM of both of them are same, and we are talking about more than, which indicates inequality and because of AND connective the whole proposition is False.
Am I right?
do you mind organizing the data of the smartphones into a table
cause it's kind of hard to read in prose
@ember marsh so as far as i understand, here is our setup:
we have the sets A = [0,1], S = R, T = R
we have the function g: A -> T given by g(x) = 47 for all x ∈ A
i have additionally defined two functions f_1, f_2 : S -> T as follows:
$f_1(x) = \begin{cases} 47 & x \in A \ 420 & x \notin A \end{cases}, f_2(x) = \begin{cases} 47 & x \in A \ 69 & x \notin A \end{cases}$
Ann
as i understand it, your question is: why are f_1 and f_2 extensions of g?
did i understand your question correctly?
If $g : A \to T$ is a map of $A$ in $T$, every map $f : S \to T$ such that
$$f(x) = g(x) \quad \forall x \in A$$
it is called a prolongation of $g$ on $S$
alee
i didnt understand this very well
47
is "prolongation" a translation from a different language?
yes
from what language?
ok, i don't speak that unfortunately
is = prolongation
but yes extension is the usual word for this in english
exactly.
so f_1(x) = g(x) for all x ∈ A, yes?
yes
so then do you agree that f_1 is an extension of g?
actually I'm kind of doubtful, why $f_1x = 47, \quad \forall x \in A$, how can you tell it's $47$?
alee
i declared it so.
$f_1(x) = \begin{cases} 47 & x \in A \ 420 & x \notin A \end{cases}, f_2(x) = \begin{cases} 47 & x \in A \ 69 & x \notin A \end{cases}$
Ann
yes
yes
yes
yes, becauseo the two functions take on different values when x does not belong to A?
exactly
????
that doesn't make any sense
at no point did we ever use the letter x to denote a set of any kind,
so your question is purely nonsensical
If $g : A \to T$ is a map of $A$ in $T$, every map $f : S \to T$ such that
$$f(x) = g(x) \quad \forall x \in A$$
it is called an extension of $g$ on $S$
alee
didnt we just walk through an example of this definition in action?
so like
ok let me try to explain this informally then
without example pls
we have a function g: A -> T defined on a "small" set A
we have a different function f: S -> T defined on a "bigger" set S (which contains A as a proper subset)
when we say "f is an extension of g" we mean that f agrees with g at all points where that's possible to talk about
(i.e. all points of A)
?
what's unclear?
this part
what part of this sentence:
when we say "f is an extension of g" we mean that f agrees with g at all points where that's possible to talk about
is unclear to you?
that f agrees with g at all points where that's possible to talk about
to agree means to have the same output.
for functions, specifically.
i dont know how else to explain it lmao
im thinking
that is, if I calculate f in the domain of g (f is different from the function g), do I find that the values of f are equal to those of g (the output values)?
yes that is what it means
ah ok
So going back to the two examples, those were extensions of g , because in the range of g (f_1 and f_2 calculated in the domain of g) did they have the same output value?
so f_1=f_2=g=47 for all x in A
yes
that's a repeat of what i walked you through
we can repeat it another nineteen thousand times if you want
Sure,
Given question
Let p and q be the propositions
p : It is below freezing.
q : It is snowing.
Write these propositions using p and q and logical connectives (including negations).
- It is either snowing or below freezing (or both).
- Either it is below freezing or it is snowing, but it is not snowing if it is below freezing.
In the first proposition $p \wedge q$ makes sense because it is mentioned to include "both true" case.
ĐARK々MÁTTER
In the second one, there is no such condition, why the answer use $(p \vee q) \wedge (p \to \neg q)$, instead of $(p \oplus q) \wedge (p \to \neg q)$
ĐARK々MÁTTER
I found something on this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2130327/does-either-make-an-exclusive-or But the link to English SE says otherwise.
Does this article means https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/40950/is-either-only-used-with-two-options what the accepted answer in the maths SE mean?
This is a very "soft" question, but regarding language in logic and proofs, should
"Either A or B"
Be interpreted as "A or B, but not both"?
I have always avoided saying "either" when my intent ...
don't post the same problem in multiple channels.
alee
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Hey, I'm not sure if I am getting this question or even the right answer the question is:
You are an elementary teacher who has a class of 9 students. Every day when it is time
for recess your class lines up to go outside. There are two problem students in your class,
Smith and John, who each will cry if they are not in the first 3 or last 3 spots in line.
How many ways can the students line up to go outside such that both Smith and John
will not cry?
The way how I am thinking of this is there is in total 9! permutations but im not sure where to go after that, im not sure if we can use the division rule here as my understanding of it is you can use it when you have multiple preimages for 1 image and you divide it by how many images each preimage has. Assistance is greatly appreciated.
proceed constructively
how many ways are there to place smith and john
assuming nobody else has been placed at that point yet
sorry im not sure if I understand but if I understand correctly John and Smith can only be placed in either the first 3 or the last 3 so you can have JXS,SXJ,XSJ,XJS,SJX and JSX which is 6 for both first 3 and last 3?
JXS,SXJ,XSJ,XJS,SJX and JSX
this is strange
there are 6 spots that the problem kids can go into but it isn't because of this
_ _ _ x x x _ _ _
j and s can go into any of the spots marked with _ and ONLY in those spots.
how does one not hate modular arithmetic 
Why would one hate modular arithmetic
i hate all math except graph theory

maybe i just like drawing stuff

i find math i can draw more fun
Why would one hate all math except graph theory then; That didn't really answer my question
cause i feel like ur just writing paragraphs of symbols

no fun
time consuming
u learn smth then u suddenly forget it

- very lonely subject

also rip the TA reading my shit 
You are writing a paragraph of symbols right now too
is it fun
If so, then there's a detail you missed here
yea but the difference between writing symbols here is that it does not take 6 hours to come up with shit
or even longer

I mean, you can write without math symbols (ie in plain English) if that is more comfortable for you
instead of
$$
\forall \varepsilon > 0 , \exists N \in \mathbb{N} \text{ s.t. } d(a_n, L) < \varepsilon \text { if } n \ge N
$$
u can just say the sequence will be eventually eps-close
Sweet Tea 🧋
The problem rather seems to be the number of hours and them being unawarding
im comfortable with latex, in fact i take lecture notes with them, it's more about the amount of time required to come up with solutions to certain problems, or understand concepts, and the lack of visuals 
graph theory, and sometimes combinatorics things are fun
since u can draw stuff
like slots
dots
circles

visually more intuitive
u got that right

I'd really appreciate any help with this problem. I tried splitting it up into two conditional statements, then I proved each one, by basically arguing that there aren't common elements in each. I feel like this isn't enough though.
I tried splitting it up into two conditional statements, then I proved each one, by basically arguing that there aren't common elements in each. I feel like this isn't enough though.
show us your proof in its entirety
this line is icky
i guess your idea's kind of there, but it's buried under some layers of bad wording.
what you're using isn't the definition of cardinality -- at least, not directly -- but rather the inclusion-exclusion formula for 2 sets:
|A ∪ B| = |A| + |B| - |A ∩ B|
The inclusion exclusion principle?
yes
and once you namedrop that one, it becomes clear that |A ∪ B| = |A| + |B| <=> |A|+|B|-|A∩B| = |A|+|B| <=> |A ∩ B| = 0
Could the inclusion exclusion principle be proven too?
No, it's false.
Yea that's what I thought too, thank you, I'll try use a counter-example.
Consider a relation $R \subseteq A \times B$, then:
$$R = G(f) \Leftrightarrow \forall x \in A, \exists !y \in B : xRy$$
with $f : A \to B$ application and $G(f)$ graph of $f$. \ $$PROOF$$
$\Rightarrow$) The application $f : A \to B$, by definition, associates with each element $x \in A$ and only one element $y \in B : f(x) = y$. Then it follows that:
$$(x,y) \in G(f) \Rightarrow (x,y) \in R \Rightarrow xRy.$$
$\Leftarrow$) We define a map $f : A \to B$ which makes every $x \in A$ correspond to the unique element $y \in B$ such that $xRy$. Therefore $y = f(x)$ is equivalent to $xRy$ and therefore $R = G(f).$
alee
I dont understand the proof 😦
@stray reef Do you mind helping me understand what part 2 is asking in this question? Or anyone else too.
!noping
Please do not ping individual helpers unprompted.