#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 37 of 1
2^3 = 8 so R7(2^3) = R7(2^0) = 1
hence by induction, R7(2^(3n)) = R7(2^(3n-3)) = 1
Hence R7(2^1000) = R7(2^999 * 2) = R7(2^(3*333)) * R7(2) = 1*2 = 2
,w 2^1000 mod 7
though in this case
the remainders modulo 7 of the powers of 2 are 1, 2, 4 (repeating as shown)
so 3 isn't a possible value
Ahh makes sense Tysm
and in this case, this is a simpler proof, since you asked for "the easiest way"
great so pretty much what i thought
How do I approach this, the main approach i saw is too check each number and pair it with another number in A, then make arrows between the pairs but is there a simplier/faster way? I'm going to do both but want to practice with something faster
so like -3,-3 is a pair since mod 3 would be = 0 so i draw an arrow between
$$\text{Given }f(x) = cos(x) \text{ defined for } \left{ \frac{k\pi}{6} , : , k \in \mathbb{Z} \right}$$
I have to find the equivalence classes given by the relation
$$x \sim y \Leftrightarrow f(x) = f(y)$$
and the canonical projection $$p: A \rightarrow A/\sim$$
I don't know the difference between the two. I know x and y are related if $$f(x) = f(y)$$ but I don't know how to continue from there.
Aguacate
Actually, even better, can someone explain to me the difference between these three things? A/∼ ; the relationship given by x ∼ y ⇐⇒ f(x) = f(y) ; and p: A → A/∼ ?
the first is the set of equivalence classes, the second is uhh the relationship between them (idk how to explain this in a different way), and the third is the function that associates an element with its equivalence class
e.g. the toy case of $\bN$ and $\sim$ given by equal remainder mod 2 i.e. $x\sim y$ if both are even or both are odd\\Then $\bN/{\sim}$ is ${O, E}$ where $O = {1,3,5,\dots}$ and $E = {0,2,4,6,\dots}$ (maybe without $0$ depending on convention)\\the relation is just the relation or $(O\times O)\cup (E\times E)$ as a set\\the canonical projection is the function with $$f(x)=\begin{cases}O&x\in O\E&x\in E\end{cases}$$
Edward II
so then $\bN{/}\sim$ is just $\bN ?
Aguacate
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no, because N/~ has two elements, and N has infinitely many
those two elements of N/~ are themselves sets
so its the same? its just a way of dividing the set N
it is a way of dividing N i.e. a parition
no it is not the same
in the same way N and {N} are not the same (I have a drawing for this separate question wait a sec)
if you think of the yellow box as the set N, and the things inside as the numbers, the left box is N
waaaiiit
the right box is {N}, the set containing the set of natural numbers, which when drawn like this is clearly something else
this is similar, except now we just have two boxes O and E i.e. odds and evens
It feels strange, even though I understand what you mean
Only thing is, if we can say say that N = { {1, 3, 5, . . . } , {2, 4, 6 . . . } } and N/~ = {O,E}
Then, O = {1, 3, 5, . . . } and E = {2, 4, 6, . . . }, can't we just say that N/~ = { {2, 4, 6, . . . } , {1, 3, 5, . . . } }, and thus N = N/~ ?
except we can't say that N = { {1, 3, 5, . . . } , {2, 4, 6 . . . } }
N = {1,3,5,...,2,4,6,...}
with only one set of curly brackets
Oh right it would be if anything N = { {1, 3, 5, . . . } U {2, 4, 6 . . . } } right?
which is not the same thing
still not quite because that's { {1,2,3,...} }
still two sets of curly brackets
N = {1, 3, 5, . . . } U {2, 4, 6 . . . } would be correct
In general, I don't think there's a faster way, but in this case you can exploit some symmetries to reduce the amount of computation. The set A has 7 elements, and thus 7*7 pairs, but I think you should be able to draw the graph by just checking 6 pairs of numbers
hey is anyone on, I needed some help with my question
i am getting that last answer wrong
i don't understand why
Cool, appreciate the help!
we were slightly wrong, 2 and 1 are in the same equivelence class i just realized by reviewing but i think its correct now
hi everyone
i need some help
using the Schroeder-Bernstein Theorem could you please guide me on how to potentially approach the question? I understand I need to find both an injective and surjective function between both sets, but I am unsure how I'd approach it. Thanks!
I hope a surjection is easy to find. Hint for an injection: prime factorisation
ohh
i see
but can you map to 1 ?
wait
I got it thank you
Good evening.
The set of strictly positive natural numbers is the union of two disjoint subsets:
$ {f(1), f(2), ..., f(n), ...} \ and \ { g(1), g(2), ..., g(n) , ...} $.
Checking the conditions:
\begin{enumerate}
\item The sequences f and g are increasing
\item g(n) = f(f(n)) + 1 for all n $\geq 1$
\end{enumerate}
Questions
\begin{enumerate}
\item Calculate f(1), f(2) and f(3)
\item Find an algorithm that calculates f(n)
\end{enumerate}
I calculated f(1)=1 and g(1)=2.
But since the functions are not strictly increasing, I manage to keep f(n)=1 without too much contradiction.
I don't see if I made an error in reasoning or how to find the images.
Martin
f(n) = 1 is clearly wrong because you're supposed to partition N
N is not just {1, 2}
What I meant is that we can have f(2)=1, f(3)=1, and f(4)!=1.
We can have f(n)=1 up until a certain number before change.
if you just try and construct it step by step, you'll get there without much trouble just by trying to fill N up
I just gave myself the assumption f(n) >= n to hope it would get me somewhere, and it did suffice
I see.
I think the exercise suggests that these two functions are unique.
So shouldn't there be a way to prove that inequality ?
And even with that, I am still blocked.
I found that f(1)=1, f(2)=3, g(1)=2 but I can't find the rest.
I think you can try to find a solution by assuming f(n) >= n.
Then g(n) > f(n).
Hence f(2) must be 3.
Then g(2) = f(3)+1 isn't any f(n)
||So we may say f(3) = 2 or f(3) = 3 for the smallest values possible
If f(3) = 2, g(2) = f(2) is contradictory, so we are reassured that f(n) >= n is probably still going to yield a solution||
||So let's say f(3) = 3 = f(2)
Then g(2) = 4, g(3) = 4 too.||
||Let's be bold and say we spot a pattern, let's claim f(4) = f(5) = 5
Then g(4) = f(5)+1 = 6 = g(5)||
||And in general, if f(2n) = f(2n+1) = 2n+1
g(2n) = 2n+2 = g(2n+1)||
||This does give a partition of N into odd/even and both f and g are increasing.
So we have found our solution.||
I see.
Thank you very much.
Are there any good resources to learn modular arithmetic and congruence? Looking for any good books/videos
joke answer: A Course in Arithmetic by J P Serre
Serious answer: Elementary Number Theory by G A Jones and J M Jones
But for real don't use the Serre book, it's just a joke.
What do you mean? It's arithmetic, which means it must be trivial!
Hello, I'm trying to solve a recurrence relation... Im using the characteristics roots technique.
Textbook example:
(a_n) = (7a_n-1) - (10a_n-2 ) with a_0=2 and a_1=3
rewrite: x^2 - 7x +10 = 0
(x-2)(x-5)=0
Then it says the recurrence relation must be the form:
a_n = a2^n + b5^n
I dont understand how they know which root will be paired with a or b
it doesn't matter
a and b are just placeholders for constants you'll find just after (with the initial conditions)
I could have called a
, and b 
@weary tiger
but isnt it true that the constants will be paired with one of the roots in a way where the pairing matters?
Hi everyone!
Is there a generator tool where you can plug in a compound proposition and it'll generate the logical identities steps that show whether it is a tautology or not? Feel like it would be useful to know (for srust purpoes of course).
well you can't just exchange the constants afterwards sure
but since you haven't solved for them with the initial conditions yet, they're just arbitrary
any choice of a and b will give you a solution to the recurrence relation
ohhhhhhh i see
(just not the one with a_0 = 2 and a_1=5)
a and b are just the placeholder for the value at the specific position in the formula
basic ahh algebra
my b
thanks my friend
why does A + A'B = A + B
Determining just whether a given proposition is a tautology or not is essentially the SAT problem, which is NP-complete
There are SAT solvers out there which perform pretty well on many actually occurring problem instances (even though their running time is exponential in the worst case). They'll give you a counterexample if the formula is not a tautology, but I wouldn't expect them to produce human-friendly proofs if it isn't. (Perhaps I'm wrong about that, though).
for this, can I index shift for it to become
this?
or is it not allowed to do things in parenthesis only outside
is this answer for me
from my skim reading i saw too many big words for me to actually read it
yes
you can try using distributive laws
then simplify and see urself
Sorry no, it was for @livid hull, but somehow I lost the reply marking while typing.
A or not A AND A or B
A or (not)A is always True
so therefore T AND A OR B
is just A or B
aka A + B
yea
at least for this case you can see that these sums are equal
so its True AND B
which is just b
i dont see why its A or B
where u bringing that extra a from
Try working out a truth table?
fr I tried doing both ways when n = 2 I got 41 by fully distributing, and doing one by one. and I got 50 when using the 2nd method
I probably did it wrong
TRUE and A or B
(True) AND (A OR B)
anything true with and is just itself
also if you override k := k + 3 then the first sum will become the second sum
Ohhh I see
Okay thank you. I see that it is correct
okay so like algebra u it was A + (A '. B) u expanded the bracket to (A + A') + (A+B) then first bracket is always 1 so it becomes 1 . (a+b)
and 1 and'd with anything is always anything
exactly, I used distributive rule
oh you mean in general?
the arrow wasnt there
mb
now it is
wait
nvm
it was always and
why was it and
yeah
not or
because you distribute
yeah lol it takes some time getting used to
okay thank u for epxlaining
Which of these relations are equivalence relations? Explain which of the equivalence relation definition’s properties are possessed by the relation (if any) and which are not (again, if any).
(a) {(a,a),(a,d),(b,d),(c,c),(c,d),(d,a),(d,b),(d,c),(d,d)} on {a,b,c,d}
(b) {(e, f ) | e and f have the same color fur} on the domain of ‘puppies.’
for a i said its not an equivalence relation because its not reflexive or transitive
but i am confused by the wording for the set in part b
could anyone please help me, it would be greatly apreciatied!
you don't need a set like in a), you can just check if relation is reflexive, symmetric and transitive
for example, relation is reflexive because any puppy "e" has the same fur color as himself
Anybody?
i guess answer is 1, 2, 4 because any undirected planar graph has less than n*(n-1)/2 = 14196 edges. to conradict 3rd you can just take a polygon with 169 vertices and it's a planar graph
yes. the answer is 1. I didn't know about this formula
Is there specific name of it?
How you derived this formula? Or what topic exactly do I need to read?
it's C(2, n), or amount of different pairs of n, which is obviously maximum amount of edges
I did't get you. This part -> C(2, n),
it's binomial coefficient https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_coefficient
How is it relevant here? Why given 169 vertices of planar graph becomes 14196?
14196 is the maximum of edges in this graph, as in the question
You can think about it this way. You've got a simple connected graph on n vertices, which means that each vertex can have at most n-1 edges incident to it. Thus, we get an upper bound of sum_{k=1}^n (n-1) = n*(n-1) for the degrees. By the handshaking lemma, #{edges} = (sum of degrees)/2, so there are at most n*(n-1)/2 edges.
To see that this upper bound is achieved (that is, there is no better upper bound), consider the complete graph on n vertices.
But is there any stronger upper bound? I am just wondering how would one go about finding the actual strongest upper bound(kind of like the supremum of the set containing the possible number of edges in a planar graph having 169 vertices)?
I think we're forgetting that such a graph is planar with n >= 3
it turns out that there's a stronger bound on the number of edges
namely, |E| <= 3n - 6
Oh shoot planar
would the answer be yes, its equivalent since it meets the reflexive, symetric, and transitive requirement?
Yes.
When an implication is said to be true, do we typically mean the case where both antecedent and conclusion are true and thus the implication true? Or should we also consider the vacuous truth cases when the antecedent is false
okayyy
np!
always consider both
Are these functions from Z to R? If the answer is ‘No,’ explain why.
I am confused by these problems, could someone point me in the right direction, thank you!
can you plug every integer into these expressions? is the result always a real number?
(a , b) -> (2 ^ a * 2 * 3 ^ b)
hello
can someone explain what's the difference between mapping and relation?
briefly
A relation from a set X to a set Y is any subset of the Cartesian product of X and Y. A mapping(or function) from X to Y is a relation R from X to Y such that for every a ∈ X, there exists exactly one b ∈ Y such that (a,b) ∈ R.
s7a s7aa
so a function is a specefic type of relations ,
studying sets-functions then relations is a bit weird
Is there some way i can adapt this corollary for inequalities x_1 + x_2 + ... + x_n <= r with restrictions such as x_a >= b? I know i can use a summation when x has no restriction but i'm unsure how to do it with restrictions on x
define y_a = x_a - b >= 0
For sure! Introduce a new variable y_a=x_a-b, so that y_a>=0
will this catch all the solutions? even when there are different restrictions on each x_a?
yes. Let me give the following explanation.
The corollary is counting the number of ways to distribute r indentical balls into n distinct boxes. (boxes can be empty hence the corollary is about nonnegative integer solutions (x_1,x_2,...,x_n)). So let's talk about your idea. Suppose for each i in {1,2,3,...,n}, we require x_i be at least a_i. Then x_i-a_i is an integer at least 0 (assuming a_i is an integer for each i in {1,2,3,...,n}). Now to put this into physical terms we can count such distributions with this restriction on boxes by filling up each of the boxes to their required minimum ball count. That is distribute a_1+a_2+...+a_n balls from the r total balls such that each box has reached it's minimum count requirement. Then you just have r-(a_1+a_2+...+a_n) balls to distribute into boxes that now can be viewed as integers that can be 0 or positive. So invoking the corollary, we find the number of such distributions is given by C[(n-1)+r-(a_1+a_2+...+a_n) , r-(a_1+a_2+...+a_n)]. Make sense?
as you can see, if a_1+a_2+...+a_n>r then at least one a_i is an unrealistic minimum requirement for the corresponding x_i.
feel free to tag me if it doesn't make sense
yeah thank you i understand
In "if p, then q" I know that when p is false, q can be anything and will render to true. That is "F -> T = T" or "F -> F = T". This is also called vacuously true. My question is why only true, why not false?
p->q is defined to be false exactly when p^~q occurs. To put it into perspective. Suppose the conditional statement is "If I live in New York, then I live in the U.S." Suppose now that I don't live in New York. Is the statement in quotes now redered false? No. It's a hypothetical "if".
the statement says if I live in New York, then I am guarateed to live in the U.S. So if I don't live in New York this statement doesn't apply to me but it's still true nonetheless
does that make sense @fringe turret ?
Suppose now that I don't live in New York. Is the statement in quotes now redered false? No. It's a hypothetical "if".
No, it will render true because you do live somewhere which is not in NY
if it said "I live in New York....", then me not living in New york would make be false. It's all about the "if". If I take out that "if", then I'm left with "I live in New York..."
Also lets say you dont live in Texas, then it is still in USA therefore it will render the statement true.
The definition makes sense in light of this example. However, I didn't understand the politicians example from the book which is equivalent to, "If I win the elections, then I will cut tax percentage."
If the politician doesn't win the elections, then based on the content of p in p->q, the politician will not cut tax percentage as they will not have the power to do so. So really it's "I cut the tax percentage if and only if I win the election.". But because we are concerned with the structure of p->q and not actually the content (in the realm of mathematics), ~p doesn't imply ~q unless it is also given to us that q-> p.
~p doesn't imply ~q unless it is also given to us that q-> p.
That will happen if they are biconditionals, right? That is p <--> q
Also, do you think true/false in this context becomes convoluted. Specially for the one coming from boolean algebra background or comp sci? Wouldnt it be more intuitive to "it doesn't disprove the statement" instead of "true"?
yes if we are given both p->q and q-> p, then we have p<->q
it not disproving means it is true, right? in the context of boolean algebra. If not 0, then 1.
or if not F, then T
whichever u use T,F or 1,0
Hi everyone
How should I prove this rigorously ?
Im thinking I can write like this
State that the subcycles (or whatever they are called) are pairwise disjoint so i we prove this property for some subcycle we can generalize for the whole formula
Then prove (i1 … ik) ^-1 = (ik … i1)
So that means prove that (i1 … ik) * (ik … ik) = epsilion
The "caution" property holds if the inverses commute, since in general (xy)^-1 = y^-1 x^-1
Then yes just prove that the inverse of a cycle is the cycle in reverse order
Doesn't sound like a standard name.
what is it then?
Ask the person who used the term what they meant by it.
which rule should it be?
I suppose you’re referring to Dijkstra with Fibonacci heaps
… so here i just need to prove that the inverse is the reverse order?
Depends on what you can take for granted and what you can just say.
But either way you need to argue for the general formula one way or another
If anyone can help me with this id really appreciate it
We count the number of committees of k >= 1 people with a chairperson in two ways.
LHS: Firstly, choose any subset of k people to be in the committee. Then out of these people, we choose one person to be the chairperson. This is done in k * C(n, k). The sum tells us that the size of the committee can be made arbitrarily.
RHS: Alternatively, we can first pick the chairperson and then out of the remaining (n - 1) people, we choose any subset of people to form the rest of the committee. This counts exactly what the LHS counts because choosing the subset of people gives us an arbitrarily sized committee
Thank you! I was able to make sense of this problem
I do have another question @haughty garden . What is the approach of this?
I understand this to be a stars and bars problem
You basically want to find the number of nonnegative solutions of x_1 + x_2 + ... + x_r = n such that x_i >= m_i for each i = 1, 2, ..., r
Set y_i = x_i - m_i >= 0 such that
n = x_1 + x_2 + ... + x_r = (y_1 + m_1) + (y_2 + m_2) + ... + (y_r + m_r)
=> y_1 + y_2 + ... + y_r = n - (m_1 + ... + m_r)
i'm thinking it's 10*9^3*[something]/5 but not sure what that last "something" would be
For a cycle graph on 5 vertices, it is not possible to have a proper colouring with 1 or 2 colours; 1 is obvious, 2 can be shown with the pigeonhole principle. For three to five colours, think of it as "arrangement in a circle such that no two people (vertices) in the same group (colours) are adjacent"
i know the definitions and everything, i'm just getting a bit hung up on how to color the last vertex
or are you suggesting to do casework on the chromatic number?
you can take cases based on the number of colours
e.g. if there is a colouring with three colours, how many such colourings can you have?
yea that seems like the easier approach
less of a headache to characterize such a coloring
you can also just focus on the colourings themselves since you can say "well, there are C(10, 3) ways to choose the three colours; now describe the number of ways to colour the graph with these colours"
yea pretty much
yea
should hopefully be an easier task now
yea thanks
Let me refer you to this convo. (see next thing I reply too).
here^
Another person asked about pretty much the same thing
Anybody? I understood how 1 and 4 are correct options but not how option 2 is incorrect while 3 is correct.
@astral forge in option 2, you have to go 1→3 not 1→2
the options say what rule to use
Yeah right In DFS we have to explore one vertex to the core then move to the other vertex. Understood
Why option 3 is correct?
In option 1 and 3, by using BFS suppose we reach at vertex 5
so we can mark vertices 6 and 7 as visited in any order?
yes
the only way to do BFS wrong here is if you go to 3 too fast
you don;t prioritize smaller numbers, they said random order
@vestal bronze
Right. Because in question random order is mentioned, we do not prioritise 6 over 7 or 7 over 6?
yes
Hiya,
Can I use
f ∶ R→R where f(x)=x^2+1
Let a, b ∈R show a ≠ b when f(a) = f(b)
as a formula for a proof for a 'not injective' function ?
Then use an example such as
a = -5, b =5, f(-5) = f(5) = 26
you mean finding distance of any vertices from source even in graphs which has negative weights on their edges?
Can someone explain whats happening in the parts in red box. i really dont understand this stuff
Hi folks, new guy here. Can anyone explain for a not-at-all-a-math-guy the logic behind modding negative numbers? I understand that 15 mod 10 = 5 - 10 goes into 15 once, with 5 left over. But for example "-33 mod 10" = 7, and I don't quite get where that comes from. I'm taking a discrete class and it's in the textbook, and unfortunately my professor responded to my question with a section from a different textbook... I've historically been bad at math so doubling up on texts isn't really working.
You're thinking of modular arithmetic in a less useful way
Do not think of "mod" as an operation that gives you the remainder of a number when divided by another. Think of mod as a relationship between numbers. So we would write -33 = -23 mod 10, for example.
N.b. I am not saying -33 = (-23 mod 10). Some people write this in a way that changes the equality sign rather than writing something on the end, so they might write:
$-33 \equiv_{10} -23$
jan Pojeki
Now as for remainders, which is what you're actually talking about, we have an important result:
(thank you)
Let $m$ be a positive integer. Then for any integer $n$, there exists a unique pair of integers: the quotient $q$ and a remainder $r$ such that $n = qm + r$ and, crucually, $0 \leq r < m$.
jan Pojeki
When you're talking about "-33 mod 10" you are really asking "what is the remainder of -33 upon division by 10"
Now the way we do this is by noting that q=4 works. -33 = -4*10 + 7.
So r = 7 is the remainder.
aha! That last bit works for me
Almost.. So -22 mod 9 = 5, in that -9*2= 18, and then it's a difference of 5 to get to -22?
My head wants it to be -5, eg (-9*2)-5 = -22
Well that's wrong. Reread what I wrote here.
Right, the second part is wrong (with the -5) but am I right ont he first part?
"-22 mod 9 = 5, in that -9*2= 18, and then it's a difference of 5 to get to -22?"
or is that wrong too? (appreciate the patience, haha)
Now it is true that -22 = -4 mod 9 but remember again that mod is a relationship between numbers, not an operation.
Typo.
I have already described in precise terms here ^ what property the remainder satisfies. If you are looking for the remainder of -22 on division by 9 you know what to look for.
And it's certainly not -5.
Aha! So it would be -9*3, and the remainder is +5
In fact you made an arithmetic error previously: I will update my messages to reflect that
But yes the remainder is 5
All good, I think I am at least on the right track. If I have to solve "why does -22 mod 9 = 5" on a test I think I will at least (somewhat) get it. I appreciate the help!
*Thank you!
Hello guys
I have a question if i have a partial order relation lets say if a divides b , a is in relation with b , and my set A is ( 2 , 3 , 4 , 7 ,8, 12 , 24, 35 ) , how can i determine the height and the width and why the concept of chains and antichains are related to this ?
i did something like this
(forgot to put an arrow from 12 to 24
Basically you'll have to draw a (Hasse) diagram for the relation and find the them visually.
"Height" and "width" are defined in terms of chains and antichains, of course, but those concepts have nothing in particular to do with the divides relation.
It's just a compact way for the exercise author to specify a finite partial order when he doesn't care about what exactly the elements of the finite set are. That way one doesn't need to list all the pairs in the relation explicitly, and every finite partial order is isomorphic to the restriction of "divides" to some set of naturals.
So the exercise is not really about divisibility just a "check you've understood the definitions of height and width, etc".
Thank you for your response, but i may not have explained myself well. In this particular exercice i was asked to determine the height and width of this Hasse diagram, and I would like to know how to do that. I understand that informally, it's possible to estimate these values by visual inspection for example, in this particular case the height i think is 3. However, I believe the formal way to justify these results is through partitions of chains and antichains, something like that and I am not confortable with those concepts, because i dont understand them well, so i was wondering if you could explain to me how to determine the height and width with the chains and antichains
I think i did that in class but at the time i didnt understand the resoltuion , maybe i am just saying a bunch of nonse things
I'm assuming that "height" is defined to mean the length of the longest chain and "width" is defined to be size of the largest antichain. (But I'll admit that is mostly guesswork from my side ... it sounds like definitions those words would be more or less natural for).
There's not really any formal systematic method you're supposed to discover, when it's just a "check you've understood the definitions" question.
As long as everything is finite, in principle you could write down all of the subsets one by one and ask "is this a chain? If so, is it larger than the longest chain I've seen so far? Is it an antichain? If so, is it larger than the largest antichain I've seen so far?" But it would be silly to actually do that, when it's easy to see it by eye instead.
(There are much faster algorithms one might program at least for longest chains -- not quite sure about widest antichains -- but having the best algorithm is not the point of an exercise like this).
Ok ty so much!!!
Let's say we have $(\mathbb{Z}_4,+)$ and $(\mathbb{Z}6,+)$. If we calculate the direct product of those, would it result in a group isomorphic with $(\mathbb{Z}{24},+)$?
The direct product would be a group of 24 elements right? So i'd say yes, but I don't know if this is right.
Could anyone elaborate?
cedric_
No, it wouldn't be Z/24, because 4 and 6 are not coprime.
See: chinese remainder theorem
Ah, so if the moduli were coprime then it would've been an isomorphism?
Yes
Also, two groups are isomorphic if there's a bijection between the groups, right?
So why in this case it's not an isomophis?
No, what you say is wrong.
Two groups are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism between the groups, not merely a bijection
If what you said were true then there would only be one group isomorphism class per cardinality.
alright, gotcha
The multiple choice parts are just a matter of understanding the long prose description.
Actually solving the last one depends on which methods for linear programming you've learned. You can either just wing it by drawing the constraints into an x/y coordinate system and finding the corner with the largest profit visually, or you may be expected to follow some more systematic arrangement you've been taught.
How do you do e?
Hmm, if I had (n choose r) x^r and wanted to get (n choose r) r^2, I'd try something like differentiating with respect to x, then multiplying by x, then those two operations once more, and finally setting x to 1.
$n(1+x)^{n-1}=\sum_{r=0}^n\binom{n}{r}xr^{x-1}$
CoshamGames
This was my first line
Huh. I don't see how you get an x to end up in the exponent.
I thought we changed the 2 to x
I honestly am struggling a lot with this topic since I've not been shown any worked examples in class
Perhaps try to start over. If you start with the binomial theorem $$ (1+x)^n = \sum_{r=0}^n \binom{n}{r} x^r $$ and then first differentiate each side with respect to $x$ and then multiply each side with $x$, what do you get?
Troposphere
Okay so I believe it'd be $n(1+x)^{n-1}=\sum_{r=0}^n\binom{n}{r}x^{r-1}$
CoshamGames
oops
hold on sorry let me go back
$n(1+x)^{n-1}=\sum_{r=0}^n\binom{n}{r}rx^{r-1}$
CoshamGames
Then multiply by x so
$xn(1+x)^{n-1}=\sum_{r=0}^n\binom{n}{r}rx^{r}$
CoshamGames
Yes. So the net effect of this little dance was to give you a factor of r in each term on the RHS.
But you want to have r² there, so the natural next thing to do is ...?
Diff again ?
Yes!
$xn(1+x)^{n-2}(n-1)+n(1+x)^{n-1}=\sum_{r=0}^n\binom{n}{r}r^{2}x^{r-1}$
CoshamGames
I think?
Something thereabouts, but I haven't checked the LHS very closely. And now you'll have what you want on the RHS if you set x=1.
$n(2)^{n-2}(n-1)+n(2)^{n-1}=\sum_{r=0}^n\binom{n}{r}r^{2}1^{r-1}$
CoshamGames
Wait what? r^2 is not the same as 2r.
i just diffed for no reason ignore that XD
$n(2)^{n-2}(n-1)+n(2)^{n-1}=\sum_{r=0}^n\binom{n}{r}r^2$
CoshamGames
I believe that is now correct
Looks good. You can simplify the LHS a bit by pulling 2^(n-2) outside a parenthesis, but that's just polishing.
How would that look?
Note that n·2^(n-1) is 2n·2^(n-2), so there's a common factor of n·2^(n-2).
Well, for that particular value of "final", I can't say no.
XD Thank you 🙂
May I ask you a quick question with my workings of a previous Q same stature...
Qb on this
I was told earlier in a help channel it was correct but it feels too simple
Yeah, that's all there is to that.
Oh cool 😄
Thank you so much! You're a huge help 🙂 I doubt you remember it but you helped me last year with some questions I was really struggling on when I was revising for my end of year exams so that's the second time you've helped me through something I've needed help with ahaha
Well last year I mean like April/May time
Glad to be of help.
Sorry to call back I’ve just realised under the summation r=1 not 0 does that effect the final answer ?
No, because r^2 is 0 for r=0, so it doesn't matter whether you include that term in the summation or not.
my gut tells me i need to show this graph is tripartite but not too sure on the specific details?
i know that by pigeonhole any given student must know students from both other schools
or maybe it'll be like
"show it has too many edges to not have a cycle"? i'll try that first
Of course it is tripartite, but that's just by definition of the graph.
A priori some of the students could know roughly equally many students from each of the neighboring schools. Others may have more lopsided sets of acquaintances.
Consider a student with a maximally lopsided distribution of acquantiances. Argue that such a student must be part of a triangle.
yea that's the approach i'm taking rn
so the extreme case would be like
student from school #1 knows n students from school #2 and 1 student from school #3
the student from school #3 must know someone from school #2 by pigeonhole, and the result follows?
Yes, if we can find someone with an n/1 social split.
Not exactly, I'd say, but I suppose it can be phrased that way.
What I had in mind was:
Suppose the most lopsided student is Bob, at school B. He knows k students from school A and n+1-k from school C, where (without loss of generality) k <= n+1-k.
Because Bob is most lopsided, everybody in town knows at least k students from each of the two other schools (because otherwise they would be more lopsided than Bob).
that might be where the tripartite stuff comes back in? show that if there wasn't such a split there would be too many edges coming out of one of the parts?
I don't think "tripartite" in and of itself is particularly helpful here (but it's possible that you can construct an argument where the word occurs ...)
ye
Alice is one of the k students at A that Bob knows. How many C students does she know?
n+1-[students knowing both]?
Yeah. But there are only n students at C in total.
so there must be at least one student knowing both?
Indeed.
We don't need to -- we've found a triangle already.
The other way to phrase essentially the same argument would be "infinite descent":
Start by picking a completely random student, Charles at C. He knows j students at A and n+1-j students at B. One of those A students is Adam. Either Charles and Adam have a common acquaintance at B (in which case we're done), or Adam knows fewer than j students at B. In the latter case we've found some one who has fewer acquaintances at the next school clockwise than Charles has, and we can then continue the same argument starting with Adam instead of Charles.
If we keep following the links C -> A -> B -> C -> A -> ..., we'll either find a triangle eventually, or find an unending sequence of students with ever fewer clockwise aquaintances. But the latter is obviously impossible, so there must be a triangle for the process to end with.
reading back, this doesn't require k=1?
I don't think it does.
Bob doesn't need to be the most lopsided person who could possibly exist, just the most lopsided person who is actually present.
oh aight
and the gist of this is that eventually we must find an overlap?
i think the overall proof makes sense to me now, thanks
Can someone help me understand how to convert a logical formula in disjunctive normal form to conjunctive normal form?
I was told to use the distributiviity law $A\lor (B\land C) \equiv (A\lor B)\land (A\lor C)$
Parallax Error
While I undertand how to apply this when dealing with 2 terms connected with a conjunction, I'm unsure how to do it when dealing with three terms. Can someone help with this one DNF example by converting it to CNF?
$(\lnot a\land b\land\lnot c)\lor(a\land b\land c)$
Parallax Error
Nevermind figured it out by taking b common
I got this comment on stackexchange. Without explaining with example, this seems somewhat satisfying reasoning for the truth table 😅
imagine if we defined it that way. Then p → q is equivalent to p ∧ q, and so would be a redundant symbol
Lol. It make sense because if we say p->q is true only when both p and q are true. Then that is precisely what p^ q is. But this would mean p and q commute and so p-> q would be the same as q-> p. Obviously true that if ur in New York then ur in the US. However the commutativity would imply if ur in the US, then ur in New York…which isn’t true in all cases…u could live in Texas for example
does this actually check out
like is factoring a out leave 1 in its position
and can u even factor out a in that expression
a + ab'
?
Yeah, a = a * 1 and then you use distributivity
Alternatively you could of course say a + ab' = a(a + b') because a is also equal to a * a
But the former is clearly better
how did he factor out a from a + ab' tho
if u factored out a would it be a( a + b')
wait
nvm
yeah that makes sense lol
I tried alot but not able to read loops. somebody help like how to easily understand a given loop.
do you understand the difference between into and onto
i'm not native
whats written above in that paragraph i understood it
but the orange one no
In an Onto function, no elements in the range are left unmapped. Each element in the range is associated with at least one element in the domain. In an Into function, at least one element in the range is left unmapped.
This conversation is happening in #proofs-and-logic btw, you might not want to miss that.
what else should it be?
all numbers in [-1; 1] are mapped to some number in [0; 1] under f
Hello
What’s the difference between the Cartesian Product and power sets? I’m struggling to understand it
The elements of a cartesian product are ordered pairs.
The elements of a power set are subsets.
A = {1,2}
B = {3,4}
A X B = {(1,3),(1,4),(2,3),(2,4)}
P(A) = {{}, {1},{2},{1,2}}
Thank you so much for the super simple explanation
A boolean function of n arguments f(x_1,...,x_n) is given. Two players (A and B) are playing. The players take turns making moves. The auxiliary value m is used for the move, initially equal to 0, in addition, initially all values of variables are not defined. The move is as follows. The player either increases m by 2 or decreases it by 1. After this action, the value of m must satisfy the inequality 1≤m≤n. Then, if the value of x_m is not defined, then the player assigns a value to the variable x_m at his discretion. If the value of x_m is defined, then it changes to the opposite. The game ends when all the values are determined. If the value of the function f on the resulting set of variables is 1, then A wins, otherwise B wins. Analyze the game for n from the segment [2, 9] if f(x_1, ..., x_n) = x_1 xor x_2 xor ... xor x_n. I don't really understand what "analyze the game" means, what should i do?
Figure out which player has a winning strategy and what it is.
A winning strategy is a strategy that allows a player to win regardless of the actions of the second? Or did you mean something else
Yes, that's what a winning strategy is.
For this game it also seems possible that the game never ends, which presumably counts as a draw.
Why? Can you please explain this? 
The players could make choices such that m takes the values 2, 1, 3, 2, 1, 3, 2, 1 ... and x_4 never gets defined, so the stopping condition is neve reached.
So, for n >= 4 there is no winning strategy for both of them?
I'm not saying that -- just that they can collaborate on making the game last forever.
if anyone wants to take the time to help me understanding what this question is trying to say and give me some hints would be appreciated
I was confused on where that n^2+1+2 is coming from in the middle of the inequality
I think I see now
a
Given an undirected graph with unique edge weights
- the MST is unique, and
- the MST must contain the cheapest edge
Both are true?
Yes
- certainly is true and you can prove this by contradiction
- is true by virtue of 1) and applying any MST algorithm
You can also prove it directly
how many edges would that graph have?
I wanted to ask that in proving the conditional statement that "if G prime is k+1 colourable then G is a k-colourable graph for all values of k"
Can we take a step that "Let G be a G prime without a vertex"
Since the graph is no isolated, removing a vertex removes at least one edge, removing one colourable vertex
Therefore making it k-colourable
is this a valid proof?
Kindly ping when you have gone through my proof
Idfk dude
Wtf is k-colourable
I think we can answer with the property that if graph G is a tree, then V = E + 1, here 6 = E +1 so we expect 5 edges otherwise if we have more we'll have a cycle and if we have less it won't be connected. we also know that the sum of the degrees of each vertex is 2E because each edge is counted twice, which in this case means 1 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 4 = 2E which means 16 = 2E which means E = 8. that's too many edges so it can't be a tree.
Hi. When doing relations with sets, can the letter in between be any letter?
Yes
Ok thank you.
Suppose that n is an even integer greater than 0. How many bitstrings of length n have more 1’s than 0’s? Your answer need not be in closed form.
i got 2^(n-1) - binom{n}{n/2}?
right?
Its not a tree
graph colouring
what am i doing wrong to not get an answer of 2?
what happens to the 2nd negative x!yz
thank u ^^
wait i just realized 2^4 = 16 and 16 mod 7 = 2
is that right?
by plugging in q=1/3 lol
so f(x) = 1/3
im a little sped not gonna lie
oooooooooooo
i think i got it
This was the work I did, clearly wrong, the answer was -1/9, what did I do wrong?
nvm i think i get it
Once I get to here, what do I do
that is what they proved
can someone explain to me why i got this wrong im confused
looks like you got it wrong because you didn't answer it
its hard to tell but i chose the second option
yeah it's vaguely lighter color haha
my custom canvas fricked it up but yeah
looks right to me
i think whats throwing me off is that the function is mapping integers to integers, i emailed my professor about it and apparently its incorrect
probably they meant to change it to be R->R instead of Z->Z
I say that cause why ceiling the answer of an integer?
yeah it makes no sense to me because the ceiling on an integer is just the integer
of*
yep
my professor responded to my email saying this "Mathew think about the fact that function is mapping from integer set to integer set.." im not sure how thats supposed to help me
your prof is confused
(x^3-y^3)/(x-y) = x^2+xy+y^2 = 0 has no solutions because z^2+z+1 is irreducible over R
so it's injective
it's clearly not surjective because there are integers that aren't perfect cubes
Anybody?
It's also injective because it's strictly increasing.
All you need to record is (a) who won at the end, (b) which three of the five games did they win.
Okays. Let me try
is anyone here good with modular multiplicative inverse? i get most of it but i'm not getting one specific part
No need to ask “Can I ask…?” or “Does anyone know about…?”—it’s faster for everyone if you just ask your question! See https://dontasktoask.com/
just to confirm
B doesn't contain a hamiltonian circuit right?
cause of the vertex N with only one degree
theres 15 spanning trees that can be made from a cycle with 15 nodes, but only 1 thats isomorphic to all the others, right?
Having trouble showing P(1) is true
I get 10 on the right
oh for the left is it 1^2 + (2(1) + 1)^2?
oh 1^2 is from 0
I thought it was just from 1, I get it now
Each of the 15 spanning trees is isomorphic to the others.
What you can say is that there's only one isomorphism class of spanning trees.
aight thanks
could i also say the set of non isomorphic spanningn trees has cardinality of 1
could someone give me an idea on how to start approaching this
Im not sure if you're aware of this theorem that states that if and a & b are both not zero and if d = (a,b), then d is the least element in the set of all positive integers of the form ax+by.
So we can prove your proposiiton via contradiction and using the above fact
Alternatively you could write down the definition of gcd and look for what about it is implied from ua + vb = 1
Im trying to find a formula for this sequence defined recursively as such $R_n = R_{n - 1} + n$ with $n \geq 1$ hence $R_n - R_{n-1} = n$ I want to know if I can set substitute $n$ for $n+1$ an hence get $R_{n+1}- R_n = n+1$ instead, is this valid, moreover is this the excpeted thing to do?
jayz
Isn't it clearly the sum of first n integers though or something like that
$R_0 = 1$ BTW
jayz
Yes you are allowed to do that.
The sequence you are referring to is the sequence of triangular numbers
Ok gotcha thanks
Then this gives a sequence of triangular numbers shifted by 1
The sequence of triangular numbers starts with 0 if we define R_0 = 0
Oh ok, Im trying to find the closed form of the sequence by finding its generating function e.t.c will I run in into any problems if i attempt to do this, when I shifted the sequence by 1??
looks like you can say (2k + 1)^2 is just 4k^2 + 4k + 1 and you can find the sum for each term, if you know the formula for sum of squares and sum of n natural numbers
then you can also expand the other side if you want, and compare the coefficients after getting the denominator on borh sides to be the same
Well the generating function will not be the same like you have for triangular numbers if you go by R_0 = 1. If f(x) is a generating function of some sequence A and g(x) is a generating function of sequence B, then f(x) + g(x) is the generating function for the sequence A+B. This will apply here
I have a power series of the form 1 + x + 2x^2+3x^3+........ I want to write as a quotient instead how would i do that
Well what is the resulting series when you differentiate the geometric series 1 + x + x² + ...?
1/(1-x)^2 right?
but I do know that these specific series is 1/(1-x)^2
Take derivative of each term wrt x
oh then we would have 1 + 2x + 3x^2 +....
x + 2x^2 + 3x^3 +...
Add 1
So your generating function for this sequence will be $1 + x\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{1}{1-x}\right)$
𝓘 .
wait isnt 1 + x + x^2 +..... = 1/(1-x)^2?
1/(1-x)
right thanks
Anyone know how to incorporate graph theory into OOP?
Object orientated programming?
Gm guys i need a lil help in this question .. prove that
If x is smaller then y then √x is smaller then √y
assume otherwise
least open ended question
what do you mean by "graph theory"
"The set of non isomorphic spanning trees" does not make sense. Being isomorphic or not is not something a graph is in itself; it's a relation two graphs may have to each other.
shucks, alright
- Let f be a function from X to Y . For A ⊆ X, let also f(A) denote the
set f(A) = {f(a) | a ∈ A}. Prove that f is one-to-one if and only if
f(A ∩ B) = f(A) ∩ f(B)
for any subsets A, B ⊆ X. -----------I'm a bit confused on how to approach this, i'd appreciate a small hint to help get me started please 🙂
guys
\
is this basically saying that since n^2 is proven to be less than 2^n
we would need to know if 2n+1 is less than 2^n since n^2 is being added with 2n+1 and if both are less, then that means the addition of 2^n + 2^n would be greater?
no no i got it now...
im not sure i understand what you mean?
well the base case is n^2 < 2^n and it's proven that for 5 2^n is less
but if we do (n+1)^2 that would simplify to n^2 + 2n+1
and we already know n^2 is less than 2^n through the base case
yup
for n >= 5
but since we are also adding one to 2^n+1
it becomes 2^n * 2^n does that mean we have to compare one of the 2^n's with n^2 (which we already did) and the other with 2^n again to make sure that they add up to less than 2^n+1?
sorry it's kinda hard for me to grasp so this is the best I could say
alright thank you
sorry reading it all like this is a bit much lul
lol all good
ok so our predicate\claim is that n^2 < 2^n for all n >= 5
base case is the smallest n so when n = 5
yes
small computation so it holds
now our IH is basically the predicate written again
usually its written with a dummy variable k but i guess they used n again here
IH means inductive hypothesis?
yup
oh okay
so we have that
ah they do that so students don't make mistakes
or get confused
n^2 < 2^n for some n >= 5
we have that for n
for induction we want to show that n+1 follows
like dominoes
so
they simply replace n with n + 1
also quick question, how can we know n+2 would hold, or n+ 3 etc
just from n+1
I always wondered this
great question
from n we go to n + 1
to get n+2 we need to get to n+1 then n+2
in more advance proofs youll learn about recursion, structural induiction, even strong induction
but thats not important for now (if u want to see how it works think of fib sequence)
ok so
(n+1)^2 = n^2 + 2n + 1
oh okay so you're basically saying that, I can just think if n+1 satisfies condition, it works for all n +...?
in simple terms I guess
sorry haha
yes
okay thanks
oh okay
cause n could be n+1, then we can prove n+1 with n+1 +1, and n+ 2 with n+ 2 + 1 etc since it would hold until infinity
maybe i'm overcomplicating it though
notice the inequalties on the left
i basically added them
and notice what happens when we simplify
we get exactly the case of n+1
i took our induction hypothesis
and if it holds that 2n+1 < 2n well then i can combine my IH to get (n^2) + 2n + 1 < (2^n) + 2^n
and next we can see that the person does exactly that, they prove that 2n+1 < 2^n
they really coulda formatted their proof better
so they use induction again to prove 2n+ 1 < 2^n
I know this goes without saying but, if they prove 2n+1 < 2^n AND n^2 < 2^n for each base case of n = 5, would that mean 2n+1 + n^2 < 2^n + 2^n?
but wouldn't it be for all naturals if they just proved n+1 case
since you can get to any natural just by adding 1
do u meant less than in the last line? u said =
sorry i meant less than yes
but if its so straight forward the surely you can prove it?
the beauty of discrete math my friend :))
oof
cause heres the thing with induction
lets say we had a room full of people
and i said to you
okay
wukong, prove to me that each person has brown hair
then u grab the first person and say this person has brown hair
i agree
then we remove that person from the room
ok great thats a base case
but what if the room was infitely large?
how can i know that u are right?
and you have better things to do in your life then to show me each person has brown hair
then we take another person and say he has brown hair, but then everyone else could have black hair
yeah
is not enough to say for all natural numbers
even if it's the base case + 1
yes exactly, we would be there for ever doing the + 1 case
yeah the case of n+1
that would prove it
but in this case if ur saying 5 is true
so suerly 6 is true
that dosent work
ohh I see
this only works for 5
sorry i think i misunderstood this as "i proved the base case so it must hold for everything after"
show me the whole line real quick
after that its, suppose n >= 5
at the top
for induction its usually for all n >= <SOME NATURAL>
I think cause that is the smallest, but over here out n is also part of the incrementation
and yes in the theorem u aim to prove for naturals >= 5
so we are adding + 1 not only to n^2 and 2^n
but also to the value as well
so it holds for all
since we are proving n^2 and 2^n WITH adding n
for 1 case
no no not + 1 to n^2
I guess we would be testing 6
rather (n+1)^2
the whole idea with induction is
predocate (theorem in ur case)
base case for the smallest value possible (5 in ur case)
induction hypothesis (assuming for all n>= <UR DOMAIN> in ur case its >= 5)
then induction step i.e case of (n+1)
usually everything before induction step is straight forward
induction step is where you need to get clever
and show that the case of n+1 holds
how do u know what the case of n+1 is?
wherever u see n
plug in n+1
and that should give u a idea of where to END
these are my notes though:
for induction we make n the lowest number it applies to
we try to do n+1 to prove the next statements are true (for all n values)
We try to make it into a base case form or a form that alligns with the base case (like if we are trying to prove if something is a multiple of 21 we would want to make something like 21 * (equation)
So in this case we are not only proving when n = 5, but also 6, 7, etc
yes
ahh okay
let me find u something
i think i thought u ment by just adding one to n and showing that hold
like 5 holds now add one do computation now 6 holds
and keep doing that
ohh no worries haha
thats what i ment by the hair example
I applied the hair example to proving n+ 1 and somehow that worked as well lol
but I guess that's wrong way of thinking on my part
here is something my prof wrote for us when we did induction
here is a better example to see how it works
ohh Isee
rmbr proofs are a piece of writing, make them neat and nice to read
no offence to this person
but if it was a book
i would not read their book
this book is much nicer
no offense at all this class is structured horribly
the rating for this class is 40% out of 100%
it carries the reader very nicely the entire time, no ambiguity
fr
yup same
but i enjoy it now
way more than calc
I will make sure to read it but after this one quicker question
which is what i always post in the help channels
for this one n isn't changing the actual value here
just the equation itself
cause 21 always stays 21
doesn't increase
but in the other one, n = 5, was increasing with the functiion itself?
also I never thought i'd hear these words 😱
I felt like calc was soo simple compared to this
i think uve helped me with calc in the help channels lmao
loool maybe
nah idk calc seems like memorization to me
I love that, all the rules etc
proofs is more logical more interesting
ah I see
maybe it's just new to me
yes cause u want to show that
4^n+1 + 5^2n-1
is always divisible by 21
so 21 remains
true
cause we dont need to show 2*21 divides something
thats the same as 21 divides something
what we want to show is that ur 4^n mess is always divisible by 21 no matter how big n gets
ahh I see
true
and we prove that "no matter how big n gets" with n + 1
right
yes
cause just that would suffice
u want to show n holds
gotchaa this is making sense now
so does n + 1
im glad to hear
quick question though sorry for all the questions 😅 you are very kind
these two images tho
reviiew these before you go forward
this prof was amazing and id die by his notes 😂
yeah go ahead
In the other problem n is not increasing with the function right, it could be n^2 <= 2^n with n = 6 or actually when we add n+1 does n^2 increase with n = 5? I think I am confusing myself now actually....
lets be careful here
sorry i edited it to make more sense
in proofs the most important things is definitions
we want to take a question and unfold it into its most basic english
I guess my question is is n^2 the same as the n in n = 5
yes
youll notice in the notes i sent u
my prof usses k
usually in the inductive step people use a dummy var k
and say since k imples k + 1
oh so as n increases so does n^2 n = 6 would become (n+1)^2
then n imples n + 1
I will make sure to read them
yeah i think so if i understood this right
n = 7 would be (n+2)^2?
good luck, it takes a bit to wrap your head around but just go slowly and youll get it
just to make sure
yes, but you dont need to show that
all you need to show is n+1
my question is
how come my prof didn't use n = 6 in the definition for n+1
when proving n+1
because then how do i know ur n holds for n = 6 ?
u showed me n = 5
now ur saying assuming it holds for n = 6
but I thought n was increasing with n+1
it is but we start at something we know
then jump to the next case
we know 5
we jump to n+1
exactly
I seee
think of it as a number line
i can cross off 5
u showed me 5 in ur base case
now in ur induction step
u say imagine n is equal to 5
or its greater then 5
insert logical steps
so n+1 holds
and like that you covered all natural numbers
and now i belive u
true because we have to break down the n+1 into fragments of the base case, using the base number n = 5
and prove using those
we can't just say n+1 for n= 6 cause that would be back at square 1 we need to prove n+2 now but it wouldn't even work cause we have to use the smallest number anyways
true so the base case is like the foundation
is what I got from that
the foundation of the ladder
ladder is the induction
yes
base case is the most simple
basic math
you show that its true and you can go to the next step
both have to exist
you cant have on with out the other
most importantly this
show that k >= n_0
so in ur case n_0 = 5
so show that 5 -> 6 -> 7 -> 8 ....
true
other wise we woulda had 5, 6-> 7 -> 8 ...
which dosent work since i dont know if 5 implies 6
in regards to you asing why we had n >= 5 and not n = 6 ^^
ah okay
all the notation, I've studied, for all, and there exists, element of, etc but still not too comfortable with it haha
for all is upside dow a
there exists backwards E
takes a while but itll become basic english
i actually strictly write in that notation now
Yeah still confused on certain cases though, because if you want to say "every german owns a car" forall x( if they are german (G(X) -> C(X))
then they own a car )
but you can't use AND
isntead of ->
because that would indicate that every german owns a car
or wait lol
this would be AND
man i miss discrete math
woudl this be G(X) ^ C(X)?
I thought it would be
much rather do it over calc 2 
honestly its to late for me to understand
what that unit called
ahh all good
maybe i can dig thru my profs notes
the ^ is AND operator
oh
but it's all good I know it's late
and needs everything to b true
yeah
so that would mean every human owns a car
which is false
if the domain of discourse is all humans
so we need G(X) -> C(X)
uhh
thats implication
best way to think of it is
if you pass your discrete math class ill give u 15 bucks
u fail -> i dont give u 15 bucks (f -> f = true)
u fail -> i give u 15 bucks (f->t = true)
u pass -> i give u 15 bucks (t->t = true)
u pass -> i dont give u 15 bucks (t->f = false)
but I think
for these problems we have to assume
the conclusion is true
and
idk it's weird I learned it a month ago
but I know for regular predicate implication T-> T = T F with anything is true
T -> F = false
but for these problems
it's like
we assume conclusion is true somehow?
nvm that's for comparing implications of universal statements
two universal
yeah logic is funny
but anyways bro thank u for the guidance with proofs 🙏
haha lol, r u cs?
yeah tough luck budy it dosent go away XD
i got to uoft and to get into cs we need to get atleast a 73 in discrete math
yeah i have that next sem to
oof we will suffer together haha
