#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 33 of 1
any number mulltiplied by 2 is even?
but remember, that even number must be written as the sum of two primes
ohh
which number do u have here are u stating that it is the sum of two primes
yeah ur right
2(x+y)>2x is not necessary
ur on the right track, just need to make it a bit more clear
Hi, can I ask a question about something else not sure if I'm interrupting...
go ahead ill take a while writing this
u can ask
So I'm trying to solve the question here and I've been stuck for a few days.
Basically:
- I figured out the one case where it is not a connected graph, in that case it's the union of K4 and K4
- It can't be bipartite, since that would mean it needs to be the complete bipartite graph K4,4 since we know that a graph that's bipartite and also regular has |A| = |B|
- Current approach: trying to find all connected graphs that are 3-regular (cubic) with degree 3 with varying girths, is this the right approach or am I missing something here? I've drawn out graphs with girth=3, girth=4, girth=5 in the the picture, and will draw out grith=7 soon, are these the only cases?
Hint: ||think about 10=5+5...we have found primes x,y for which x+y=10. So 10=5+5 is certainly a sum of two primes.||
im about to finish
any graph theorists here who can help @deft vigil ?
graph theory was not a class I did well in so don't wanna send u down a rabbit hole lol
,rotate
nice! I'm glad u made use of the fact that those two primes in the sum need not be distinct
lemme post my proof. We should really have a graph theory channel tbh
u did the graph already?
no
ahh
the problem I assigned u lolll
ok
why are u using the injectivity?
also is P the set of positive reals?
or something
I have shown that given one of infinitely primes p, my function spits out distinct p+p which are even and greater than 2
I meant it as the set of Primes
they dont repeat
yes
like there is no such preimage
exactly
that has the same image
u see i did this years ago
i just need to get the rust out
not this exactly
we can assume there are infintely many primes p, but if my function forced infinitely many of those primes to give the same value f(p), then I wouldn't have shown there are infintely many even numbers greater than two that can be written as the sum of two primes
short and sweet
@deft vigil do they mean by 3 regulars that all vertices have 3 neighboors?
imma head to sleep @jagged grove awesome working with u on some problems
thx bro
<@&286206848099549185> @deft vigil needs some help^. Graph theory is not a subject I'm strong in so I don't wanna send him down a rabbit hole. Hoping someone can help him
Yes
what their asking is if u can biject the graphs
thats what they mean by isomorphism
basically see for which of those you can set a function that has an inverse
Hmm yeah I guess I know what the question is asking
Just wondering if the approach I used to solve this would be correct
Or wrong
a graph is composed of a triplet
the set of edges
the set of vertices
one sec
lets just use 2
there is one that uses 3 but it's fine
so u have a graph with vertices in a set V and edges in set E
and the edges are equal to a set containing the two vertices that make the edge
You need to take this construct your graphs
and take a counter example in the ones that are not bijective
(nope lol)
thats not how it goes?
nope, i cannot assist with graph theory
so...I have no idea how to get started on 22(a). I'm not getting the hint.
oh and the theorem and the exercise don't reveal much, they're just there for the sake of saying congurence is an equivalence relation
21a lets you conclude immediately after showing that the function f : N -> N/R that sends an x in N to [x²] is compatible with R.
R sure looks like mod 5
But yeah just show 21 and apply it to the particular thing
ah
oh boy math
wait but... what 21a showed is for function h: N/R -> N
Well... ig I just send an element in the equiv class to it's square and make it back into an equiv class 
Exercise 21 talks about two sets (A and B). For exercise 22 you let A = N and B = N/R.
I... don't even know how this is important or how it "works", but I managed to just bash its properties to get through the equivalence relations questions relating to it.
later on the exercises had us show that the intersection of preorder with its inverse is an equivalence relation and its compatible with said preorder
.... the naming doesn't seem to be a coincidence, especially when the exercises get me to show almost identical things, but I can't see any correlation between the two. Is there any at all? googling didn't get me far
. I tried subbing in some values with the fact that function are a special type of relation in mind but nothing really worked out.
What are the criterias for a well-defined function?
It's a bit of an abuse of terminology -- when we say "f is well-defined" what we really mean is "the definition that purported to define f actually manages to define something at all".
So if someone says "f is not well-defined" they're really saying "I don't even know what you mean when you say f".
The typical situation where this crops up is if we're talking about a function whose input must be a set and we try do define it as
f(X) = [something involving x] where x is some element of X
This only defines a function if you can argue that "[something involving x]" gives you the same result no matter which element of X you picked.
For example in modular arithmetic we often define addition of residue classes by
[residue class of x] + [residue class of y] = [residue class of x+y]
The problem here is that the residue class of x is also the residue class of many other numbers, and for the definition to make sense we need to be sure that "[residue class of x+y]" ends up being the same even if the choose a different one of them to add to y.
two other things that sometimes could go wrong is that f:A->B is not actually defined for all a in A or that for some a, f(a) is not actually in B. for example f:R->R, f(x)=1/x is not well-defined. (of course most of the time this is just a technicality and can be fixed by changing A and B appropriately)
hey can someone help me with a question from my recursion chapter?
I'm having trouble with part b
i don't know how to get from part a to part b
this is what i have for part a
this is the question
Troposphere already answered this but it means that for any a,b in the domain, a=b implies f(a)=f(b). Well defined is synonymous with function a lot of times. It means each element in the domain gets assigned to a unique element in the codomain.
the first thing would mean constant function
I forgot to add something lol^
Hello. I have no clue how to get r.
Im so close to completing my homework and its a section the teacher didn't go over
any book recommendations or anything for graph theory ??
try different books
@silk void lets go to book recommendations
ill give u a few titles
XOR(Exclusive OR) it basically means that if both truth values are different than it's true if they are the same it's false
Oh I see, thank you
Something more visual
Ok so if they are the same, no matter what it will always be false, but if they are different values then it is true?
Unlike normal or
I see
Thank you for the help and the clear example too
yeah
Hi friends, I really wanted to get a sanity check on this problem.
Since every student is doing at least one problem, this is the same as distributing the 6 problems again.
We have 4 students, so we have 4^6 different ways we can distribute the problems.
How many of the 9000 four-digit integers 1000, 1001, 1002,...,9998, 9999 have four distinct digits that are either non-decreasing (as in 1347, 1226, and 7778) or non-increasing (as in 6421, 6622, and 9888)?
the final answer from the book is [2 (12C4) - 9]+[12C3-1]=1200
i dont understand
The question you've typed seems to be a mixture of 15a and 15b. You write that you want four distinct digits, but several of your examples don't have distinct digits.
In order to get [2 (12C4) - 9]+[12C3-1] to make sense, I think you have to be answering 15b, where the digits are not required to be distinct.
oh sorry, yes 15b solution is [2 (12C4) - 9]+[12C3-1] = 1200, but i dont understand how to get it
i got the answer for 15 a already, and i tried 15b, but when i check the solution, i am wrong
I think there must be a stars-and-bars argument somewhere, with bells and whistles to correct for (a) strings that are counted twice (e.g. 5555 would naively be counted as both the increasing and decreasing version of "four 5s" (b) the fact that the strings cannot start with 0.
But I'm not awake enough to map that general idea precisely to the expression you have.
out of curiousity, what did u get for 15a
I'm getting 336 for 15a
For 15b, I got 1200 and did this:
the ascending cases that are non decreasing and don't include constant things like 1111, 5555, ..., 9999, is
$-9+\sum_{i=3}^{11}\binom{i}{3}$
logician
For the non increasing cases that DO include constant things like 1111,2222,3333,...,9999 I got
$-1+\sum_{i=3}^{12}\binom{i}{3}$ since we can have 1000 but we can't have 0000 (that's where the -1 is coming from)
logician
@oak night
For 15a, I did:
for the ascending cases I got
$\sum_{i=3}^8\binom{i}{3}$
logician
I fixed the leftmost digit starting at 1, and going all the way up to 6
For the descending cases I got:
$\sum_{i=1}^9\binom{i}{3}$
logician
by left most digit starting at 9 and going down to 3 since 3210 is the last possible descending case we could have...can't go any lower
anyway, this makes the total for 15a:
,w (Sum[Binomial[i,3],{i,3,8}])+(Sum[Binomial[i,3],{i,3,9}])
ping me if this still doesn't make sense or if you're answer differed from mine on 15a
this is false right
my counterexample: divide the 10 vertices into three sets of 3,3,4 vertices. Join each vertex from one set with every vertex from the other two sets
that gives 33 edges
and no squares
in fact, I think that is the actual upper bound (of the number of edges of a square-free graph on 10 vertices)
T_(n,r) is partitioning the n vertices into r sets of [n/r] vertices and joining vertices in different sets
why is that probability 1/(n-d(v))
like is it obvious
I remember in the youtube lecture it was just stated lol
so fix the vertex v, then the arrangement should be of the form (neigbors of v) v (whatever). Say there are k neighbors in before v, so we choose (d(v) C k), then order them, and order the remaining n-k-1 vertices, so that gives a total of
[
\sum_{k=0}^{d(v)} \binom{d(v)}{k}k!(n-k-1)!
]
possible configurations?
Croqueta
what book is this?
Yufei Zhao's lecture notes
"graph theory and additive combinatorics"
eh
i mean
this sorta thing wouldnt be covered in a standard
at least not with that notation
the whole e(G) < e(T_n,r)
like i havent seen that theorem or maybe im missing the notation
cause i have read a bunch of discrete math books
you dont have to be mr Einstein to figure out the notation
no subgraph is K_(r+1)
ahh u mena to say the number of vertices isnt greater than the parent
or something along those lines?
no
so you say a graph G is triangle free if it contains no triangles, for example
and given a graph H, you say G is H free if it doesn't contain H as a subgraph
ahh
for example, every bipartite graph is triangle free
its a way of saying that u dont have the subgraph withouth having to specify X\A where X is the vertices of graph H and G are the vertices of graph G
and u know
its correspondent edges
?
I'm not sure why this is confusing for you, there is nothing tricky here
given a graph G, consider the set of all its subgraphs. Then we say G is H free if no subgraph of G is isomorphic to H
yeah i got that part
i was just trying to rephrase it
and by isomorphic u mean that the graph H has no function which is bijective to any subgraph in G
to refresh standard graph theory terminology I always go to Diestel's book
ctrl+F "isomorph" and it should pop the definition
i use schaum's but mine is in spanish
where are you from
costa rica
ah, I'm from Spain 🙂
:p
weird it only requires one to one
but it sorta makes sense since a edge can have more than one pre image
no, "correspondencia uno a uno" ="one to one correspondence" implies both injectivity and surjectivity
no
and its completely different meaning
they also say "one to one correspondence" all the time, and so do I
when i say injectivity some people ask me wdym
but maybe thats where the confusion arise
tbf this was from a conv i was having with a CS guy that only does software
so
one to one correspondence means bijective then
got it
im gonna have a look at the book and see
did u use induction?
cause thats what i would have used
yes, but only after I moved some things around
show me
because then it is not clear on what to induct
i inducted proving the cardinality of a set of functions equals a given constant
i think i can manage
if not i have an idea of who to ask
well first of all, the equality is equivalent to $\sum_{k=0}^m \frac{m!(n-k-1)!}{n!(m-k)!}=\frac{1}{n-m}$
Croqueta
or just $\sum_{k=0}^m \frac{(n-k)!}{(m-k)!}= \frac{(n+1)!}{m!(n+1-m)}$
Croqueta
but the left is the same as $\sum_{k=0}^m \frac{(n-m+k)!}{k!}$, and now you make the substitution $n-m=r$
Croqueta
so that you just have to show $\sum_{k=0}^m \frac{(r+k)!}{k!}=\frac{(r+m+1)!}{m!(r+1)}$
Croqueta
i would start by making the simplifications more explicit
for this in particular
is this supposed to be the binomial coefficient notation?
yes
ohh ok i was about to post
lol
i get the problem
give me like an hour so i can go through it in paper
and eat
k?
ok lets give this a try
so how do u go from this
Need help w these 4
I got the first 2 right on number 20 but confused for the others
10*
just changed n by n+1
there is really no need to, but I preffered to not have a -1
and then multiply by (n+1)!/m! on both sides
nope i dont see how u can get to that expression
also ur supposed to change to n+1 when u have proven that this holds for n = 1
Is it standard to use an arrow with a line through it to convey "Does not necessarily imply"? If it is not standard, does it have any precedence? Or should one simply state their proposition in a more elegant way
By this I mean specifically the case that, A could imply B, but not in all cases. Such as ∃x1,x2(x1 > 0 ^ x2 > 0 ^ (x1-x2 <= 0 V x2-x1 <= 0))
@snow sleet its here no way
i think e is correct
thats the only one
idk
i need some more explanation and help on this
@faint sphinx could you help?
Can anyone tell me the proof for this theorem, the product of any two consecutive integers is even, but just the case where the first integer is odd
e is correct
is that the only one?
There's another one
so a tautology is when its always true
Famously named after someone.
There are a few that it obviously cannot be. For example, f) is never true. So you should be able to rule out most of the rest
is d correct
yes
yeah that one was tricky
yeah
Also please don't ping specific people just because they helped with previous questions
oh ok sorry
Also, these are De Morgan's laws, which is what I was referencing
which one
here
start from there
a tautology is always true
too many factorialz for me
I don't like numbers
yeah, and a satisfiable proposition is true for at least 1 row on the truth table right?
but is my reasoning correct?
yes
so cant you say that a tautology is also satisfiable?
so i can say all this no?
its true
yeah
well i wanna checkmark all of them
cause i think that would be right
wait is f wrong?
ok hope you feel better
isnt this all true ?
idk ab the 1st one actually
that might be false
Isn't a correct
since if and only if p then q, it just if not q then not p which is the same as if q then p
thats the only one that makes sense
It looks something like this:
Given an integer $k$, set $n=2k+1$. Then $n(n-1)=(2k+1)(2k)=2(2k^2+k)$ and $n(n+1)=(2k+1)(2k+2)=2\left((k+1)(2k+1)\right)$, implying $2|n(n-1)$ and $2|n(n+1)$. Thus $n(n-1)$ and $n(n+1)$ are even.
a is correct
logician
figured this out, I think it T T F
cause first two, you can do truth table and for hte third logical equivalence must give the sme result for both propositions
Someone already sorta stated this, and I don't mean to sound rude, but unless I was helping you on some problem and asked u to ping me when u got back online to chat about that same problem or if you needed any further assistance with that problem, please don't ping me. There are other ppl here who would be more than happy to help...again, don't ping them directly right when u post a new problem lol
yeah thats on me, sorry about that again
all good u didn't know
when you have a p implies q negation
i get the first one
but not really the 2nd option
i was stuck on that and i searched it up
would like to know the reasoning if i could
one way to check is to simply look at the truth tables. It's only 4 rows in that truth table so very easy to check that way
ok let me do that
'and' and 'but' are synonymous here as well
d is just a more informal way of saying b
so would that be correct as well?
yup should be
ok then im done
i realized i made an error on my previous attempt when doing a logical equivalences question but fixed it so its all good
i feel like i am getting better at understanding the concepts
but still bad at applying it
prob just need more practice
we're bad at applying concepts until we aren't anymore, right? just takes practice
true
well i somehow got a lower mark than my last attempt
thats dumb
i thought i fixed everything
happens ig
Three sisters, Anne, Charlotte, and Emily, are experts in logical deduction. Their brother, Patrick, tapes a piece of paper to each sister's forehead on which is written a positive integer. Patrick informs them that of the three numbers on the sisters' foreheads, one is the sum of the other two. Anne says, "I don't know what number is on my forehead." Charlotte (correctly) says, "The number on my forehead is 21." What are the numbers on Anne and Emily's foreheads? Explain.
I’ve been wrestling with this for a while
Cannot get it at all
Hello
I am learning discrete mathematics and things about relations rn
Could someone give me some example in question a?
I don't know what he really wants here and this book has no solutions page 😭
What I thought of was,
It has the relation of reflexive as every number is divisible by himself
The "b" one would have a relation of simmetry?
"x has a relation R of being relatively prime with y,"
this would also work with "y has a relation R of being relatively prime with x"
For (a), we say that a positive integer a divides b (writen as a|b) if there is a positive integer k such that b = ak. So, as you said, every integer divides itself, since we can take k = 1. But is this relation symmetric? If I know that a|b, does that mean b|a? How about transitive or antisymmetric?
I agree that (b) has symmetry.
Would it not be a = bk?
Nope.
That shows it should not be a = bk.
Based on the way you substituted them.
By the formula b = ak, can we say it has a relation of inclusion?
As a number x being divided by y implies x be a multiple of y?
Is it right?
What does inclusion mean here?
A relation R is said to be included in the Relation S, if whenever R holds a relation between two objects it implies S to hold a relation between them likewise
In symbols
xRy implies xSy
Right, that's a property, not of the relation itself, but between two relations. (In fact, here the statement y divides x is the same as x is a multiple of y)
They mean properties of just this relation.
So it would be wrong answer it with this?
By the way, it has not a relation of simmetry because a|b is not the same as a|b considering both a and b ≠ 1
So it is assymetric
Transitive? Do you mean,
From: a|b and b|c, it follows that: a|c?
I think it is true?
Is it true?
It is true, yes.
I am just doing a and b questions because I know nothing about geometry so I am skipping them
By the way, while division is not symmetric, that does not mean it is "asymmetric". A relation is asymmetric if, whenever we know xRy, we know that y (not R) x. That is, at most one of xRy and yRx can hold (but two elements might not be related at all).
Division is, however, antisymmetric (unfortunate that they are similar sounding, but you get used to it). That means whenever a | b and b | a, then in fact a = b.
(This is not true for if we consider the relation on all integers! Just on the positive ones)
I see
In the case of b, of relative primes
It is not reflexive?
I mean, considering x = y, then
there is atleast one x and atleast one y which the relation: x is relative prime with y if their greatest common divisor is one, is true
I think, there is at most one?
But it won't holds for any number if x ≠ y??
It holds a relation of transitivity?
if x is relative prime with y and y is relative prime with z, then x is relatively prime with z
Is it true for any number?
I think it is
Is it?
it's obvious we can assume the students are distinct...the question is whether or not the problems are.
@snow sleet how many forms of induction do you know?
there are two: weak (also called regular) and then strong. The Well-Ordering Principle is equivalent to the Principle of Mathematical Induction so that is technically "another" (not really) form
try proving induction using the Well-Ordering Principle
and then try proving the Well-Ordering Principle using induction
both can be done
I can't read that
i dont think so
idk
so take a look at the second
its basically
case 1
and then they go n+1 proof for n
which i found interesting
but i also found one for "infinitely many"
so sometimes people have a hard time fitting induction to particular cases
i thought this might be useful
if it was in english, I might be able to read it lol.
induction typically takes some slick thinking when proving the k+1'th case using the k'th case or all cases before k+1
harder problems require more clever thinking
it's a bit like the Pigeonhole Principle (it's a simple concept) in the fact that given a problem it may be hard for people to figure out what things they want to be their pigeons and what things they want to be their pigeonholes
yeah
sort of what we were doing the other day with the cardinality of a set of functions
sort of non intuitive really
the only part that required any thinking was figuring out which sets cardinality we'd induct on. A combinatorial proof would have been way shorter by the way
using the binomial coefficient and such?
no need for that
i sorta should get onto doing combinatorics tbh
have you taken discrete math?
yes
counting should've been covered
and i have many books on the topic
at least the basics
well calculating permutations
and combinations
was extensively covered
but just that
not proof based
good to hear! combinatorics problems are like fun puzzles
so you've never done a combinatorial proof then?
i remember something like C(n-r,r) = C(n,r)
or something
where c denotes binomial coefficient
they do it by induction
ahahaha no need for induction lmaooo
you can do that proof in one line with just the algebra lollll
this should be C(n,n-r)=C(n,r), right?
have you tried proving that combinatorially?
i dont know what u mean by combinatorially?
using counting arguments
to show both sides count the same set
and therefore are equal
using the cardinality or something like that?
in other words, come up with a counting problem, and find the anwer to that using the LHS of the equation. Then find the answer using the RHS. If both sides count the same thing, they are equal. You are essentially establishing a bijection between the sets
and by counting u mean something like (given n apples how can you fill x boxes that fit 2)
?
I would also like to point out that my proof not only proves the case for odd n but also ensures we don't need the n= even case.
here^
yes that's a counting problem
I'll give you an example using this problem
so do i have to construct my own counting problem?
yes you need to construct the set you are going to count
I'll prove this one so u have an idea
\begin{proof}Given an integer $r\geq0$ and an integer $n\geq r$, suppose we have $n+1$ people in front of us in a line. We wish to construct a team of $r$ people from those $n+1$ individuals. Clearly, we can do this in $\binom{n+1}{r}$ ways. Alternatively, assume Bob is part of the $n+1$ individuals. We could count the teams that do not have Bob and then add that number to the teams that do. So let us set Bob aside. Now from the $n$ remaining people we choose $r$ of them in $\binom{n}{r}$ ways. Let us now assume Bob is on the team already. We fill the remaining spots using the remaining $n$ people. We can do so in $\binom{n}{r-1}$ ways. Thus the number of ways we can construct teams of size $r$ is precisely $\binom{n}{r}+\binom{n}{r-1}=\binom{n+1}{r}$, as required.\end{proof}
logician
@jagged grove there we go^
i get it but you would have to invoke the sum principle and the product principle
right?
like to make it more explicitly evident
I implicitly invoked the sum principle when I coun ted the cases where Bob was on the team and where he wasn't and added those cases. I don't need to "explicitly" invoke it. I'm assuming the reader has a proficient understanding of counting.
well yes
i guess coding on c++ kinda wired my brain to explicit statements
not just because I'm proving a combinatorial identity, but because I proved it using counting arguments
I hate programming.
Alright dandida now u try to prove this theorem I made. Prove it combinatorially
lolll
tomorrow
ps
i promise
im tired
I'll post it here anyway
Given an integer $n\geq2$, $n+\binom{n}{2}=\binom{n+1}{2}$.
logician
suppose we have n pigs in front of us and we want to add 2 pigs from a group of another n pigs we can do this by n+C(n,2)
alternatively from a set of n+1 pigs we want to chose 2 we can do this by C(n+1,2)
like im expressing the two statements
but im not wording it in a way in which there is a relationship
between LHS and RHS
how do we know these n+1 pigs relate to the two groups of n pigs u already defined
assume piglet is part of the n pigs, taking out piglet to the n+1 pigs and choosing 2 we get C(n+1,2) and if we add n pigs we get C(n,2)+n which is what we wanted to show
I'm still not convinced on the RHS
the LHS is good
Ur almost on the right track....
Try considering only n+1 pigs (one of them who's name is piglet). Construct teams of 2 in C(n+1,2) ways. Then count such teams by splitting into cases (piglet is on the team or not). If he is on the team, fill the remaining spot on the team by choosing 1 from the remaining n pigs in C(n,1)=n ways. If he isn't on the team, choose 2 from the remaining n pigs in C(n,2) ways. Thus n+C(n,2)=C(n+1,2).
isn't this just a special case of pascal's triangle
yes, in my problem n is your n-1
it'd be a good exercise to more generally prove pascal's triangle combinatorially since it's not too bad of a generalisation to the k = 2 case
fyi @jagged grove the way I proved this statement and the way I even I even came up with this theorem in the first place was I was counting how many dominoes I construct using numbers from the set {0,1,2,...,n-1} on either side of the line dividing the face of the domino. A standard dominoes uses numbers {0,1,2,...,6} on either side of the line dividing the face in half.
I'm introducing dandida to combinatorial proofs, so we're warming up with simple problems. Sounds like he's excited to take on that statement you brought up.
there's a book that I really like with some really interesting identities that can be proven combinatorially
Proofs That Really Count: The Art of Combinatorial Proof
^it's also designed to be targeted at the undergraduate level
so while there are some really complicated identities, the book steps through how to think about the identities combinatorially
there's a really beautiful proof for the sum of the first n positive integers
combinatorial proof*
the sum of the first n odd integers is actually quite pretty
I'll assign myself that problem. Don't tell me how it's done.
well, the proof i'm thinking of is not really a combinatorial proof but a geometric reinterpretation of the result
Gotcha, that's the first thing I thought of.
How would you prove that f is a lattice isomorphism if and only if it is an order-isomorphism?
the last paragraph makes little to no sense: how is it "easy" to immediately reach the inductive conclusion
(the problem)
so basically the proof is saying that being divisible by 2 means its even/ having a factor of 2 is even?
No the proof is saying: You give me any odd integer u like, and I can guaranteee the product formed with that integer and the one just below it is even. I can also guarantee that the product formed with that integer and the one just above it is even. I showed both of these products are even by showing they're both multiples of 2, yes
I'm not proving that "being divisible by 2 means an integer is even"...I'm assuming that because it's the very definition of what an even integer is right!?
A shorter proof would be to say: Suppose x is an integer. Then 2|x or 2|x+1. In either case 2|x(x+1), implying x(x+1) is even.
note here^ I do not need to consider the case x(x-1)
I’m assuming the property here that if a and b are integers and n divides a, then n divides ab
Please
is K a equivalence class?
It is just an arbitrary class
classes are not within discrete math topics as far as i know
Classes here is the same as sets, and theory of sets and relations are discrete mathematics subjects
Yes this book describe sets as classes
is it an old book?
So so
give me the title so i can look it up
It is from 1994
is it just likeR^-1
is it knuth?
But logic is a discrete math subject also
but ill try to help u
I would be really pleased if you do so
I just need help with a) so I can abstract it and do the rest by my own
is the negation of the relationship just that if it has (a,b) then R negative would have (b,a)?
No
Think that way, if R is the relation of x be a multiple of y, then R' means x is not multiple of y
i just got the book give me a sec to check some definitions
By means of logic and definition, I think it is true and its converse is likewise
But I am not sure
i think the same
but i need to see how he proves things
cause llike
if a is not related to a in R
it shouldnt be in R negative
cause (a,a) is not even a element in R
for all a in A
s.t ARA
mmm i think this is how it goes
Why?
I searched "discrete mathematic subjects" in google and there it was
Source?
let A be a nonempty subset and let R be a relation such that R is contained in AxA then for any (a,a) is R is irreflexive (a,a) is not contained in R more particularly is (a,a) is not in R it will not be in its inverse relation.
Wikipedia
What popped for me also included probability
Ah lemme check
I mean
That listsm also includes functions
@ivory badge can u check this proof really quick
Yes
more like a kind of relationship
This is wrong taken literally
Because many of these fit into what would be called "continuous mathematics" or something like that
so in discrete math there is no sense of continuity
There is no reason to separate the two
like when u see the world class
it would mean that the sets that are classes
are not quantifiable
so not discrete math
This book uses the word Classes in place of sets
yes and im telling u
thats wrong
in math that word has a different semantical meaning
unless its talking about equivalence classes
Btw, they say "subjects in discrete mathematics", as in, the intersection logic cap discrete math is nonempy. I think
which is as far as i know the only class which is talk about in discrete math
In older texts, class and set are used interchangeably
@regal gate did u manage to justify the terms of that induction from yesterday?
Justify what? My proof was complete from the first time I wrote it

All sets are classes in some sense, but not all classes are sets. Anyways, in ZFC, classes are not objects anyways, so we should be talking about sets more properly.
The term "equivalence class", despite the fact that it only makes sense with sets, is a consequence of that.
were u doing induction for n+1 then it holds for n or something?
what
I didn't fully read it yesterday but it looked fine to me at a glance.
here
and this
What proof
my problem is i dont see how u can go from the first step
to the second steep
one sec
sharp
a R b iff b R^-1 a
this is in the context of showing that if a relationship R is irreflexive then its inverse is irreflexive
Substitute b = a
gg
yes
Then it would be false if the proof is right?
Because every element is reflexive to itself, isnt it?
it would be false that R is reflexive yes
I mean it's immediate from the definition. What you sent seems confusing/unnecessary details.
to refresh, I am needing to answer question a
This is a different thing for R’ then
(a R b) iff -(a R’ b)
and its the negation here taken the same as the complement of the set
Or R' = XxX - R
Ye
ahhh
so yeah
if u take any element from R and R is reflexive
that element will not be in R'
Yes
in particular (a,a) not in R' for any a in A, therefore R' is irreflexive
that induction from yesterday has been bugging me
If R is reflexive
stated it here
Ah yes
i edited
can u help me understand the induction im refering to
like
can u just substitute n for n+1 without doing the base case n = 1 in the fp?
What induction
here
Right, and how this proof the truth or falsity of the statement?
Someone explain this to me or i am going insane
truth
please? ;dddd
ill give u a hint
And the converse of the statement?
what do u mean by converse?
Given a sentence "if p then q" its converse is "if q then p"
is it in this case something like if R' is reflexive then R is irreflexive?
It would be "if R' is irreflexive then R is reflexive"
If a element is not in R', does it implies it be in R?
yes
by definition
of complement of a set in this case u should do if and only if
for the proof i gave u
I am confused
yes a=>b and b=>a implies that a<=>b
I don't think dandida was asking the question lol
Is there any book/website to read the proof of commutative and associative law in composite function of permutation?
I've read some books but couldn't find it, my professor gave me an assignment to prove them
Prolly any discrete math book would touch on that...
To prove that a given set $S$ is associative under the operation $\star$, you must show that given $a,b,c\in S$, $a\star(b\star c)=(a\star b)\star c$.
logician
@marsh oyster
You show commutativity by showing for all $a,b\in S$, $a\star b=b\star a$.
logician
can someone please tag me and explain this?
shouldn't the contrapositive statement be, if a is greater than or equal to ∛n & b... & c... then n≠abc
I don't think the solution reflects the usage of the contrapositive
so I'm confused
can anyone help explain
it's not even a true statement anyways. and btw abc>=n doesn't prove n is not equal to abc.
Suppose n=1(1)(1). Then 1,1,1 are positive integers. But 1 isn't less than the cube root of 1
so the statement is false
even if the statement was true (which it isn't as I've stated before) it's not correct use of the contraposition. The assumption is fine, the conclusion part isn't correct as you pointed out
If we got a problem like this where we have 3 particles to arrange in 5 states such that their energies always sum up to 5E,
How would we go about computing all the possible combinations?
If the possible energies are consecutive numbers, you can try to show the equivalence with the number of solutions of the equation
$x_1 + \ldots + x_n = E$
where $x_i \in \mathbb{Z}_{+}$. It might require some additional tweaking depending on the assumptions. This equation, in turn, can be solved in a combinatorics-like way by representing E as 1 + 1 + ... + 1, and by dividing this sequence into n compact blocks
Thingoln
I'm on my way to work, but I hope this helps
I got it! This helped
It's this
i have a question for those who are familiar with the graph theory out there
i dont know the solution, but i think this is a question of discrete maths
I don't think I understand the problem to be honest 💀
i thought i would get this
so for each and every one of the teams the last condition should be met
and its trying to tell that when a teams opponent's opponents are listed all teams should be included in this list
for example lets assign letters for teams like A B C...
lets say that A makes matches with B C D E F G H I (exactly 8 teams)
and when we list all of the opponents of the B C D E F G H I all teams should be included in this list
Okay, I think I get it now. So we take a vertex, take a look at all vertices that are neighbours of its neighbours. We repeat this for every Vertex. When we sum up those vertices, we get all of the vertices in the graph
And each vertex has degree 8
yes perfect
Is this correct?
that is a better way to put it
as i said i havent taken any discrete maths class so thats why i may struggle with the terms
wait i dont think you got the sum up part
there is no summing up of the lists
So each vertex's opponents' opponents are the set of all vertices?
correct
no summing up
I see. I'm at work now and it sounds like something that needs to draw something, but if no one answers within like 7 hours, feel free to ping me
of course, thank you for your help!
Opponent’s opponents? If the question wasn’t so weirdly worded I could have tried for sure
What book about discrete math do you guys have read
Rosen
I am reading the one from susann now
Yes, in fact you can substitute R for any infinite set and this will still hold.
This is because if at least one of A and B are infinite then |A x B| = max(|A|, |B|).
Oh, and of course if neither set is empty :)
how would you describe it then? i dont understand the aggression
The question written in a sane way would be: how many vertices can an 8-regular graph whose diameter is at most 2 have?
Hey I am still a bit confused with how to do an induction proof on this
I found out the general formula for a_n already
It is a_n = 3^(n-1) + 1
when I do the hypothesis with that and did the base case I get stuck
at the point of the step
I did say: a_k+1 = 3^((k+1)-1) + 1
how do I proceed now?
how can I use anything from my hypothesis and insert it into my step at this point?
Use the recurrence and your inductive hypothesis
a_{k + 1} = 3a_k - 2 and by your inductive hypothesis, you have that a_k = 3^(k - 1) + 1
thanks a lot got it :D
(∼ (p∨ ∼ q) ∧ (∼ p∧ ∼ q)) ∨ (p ∧ (p∨ ∼ q)) if i wanna use argument froms to simplify to p can i say elim (∼ (p∨ ∼ q) ∧ (∼ p∧ ∼ q)) so (p ∧ (p∨ ∼ q))
no
simplify the term at the left of the main or in the center
first
thats my advice
wait
ur right
but u have to justify it
what is it that your using to get to say that (∼ (p∨ ∼ q) ∧ (∼ p∧ ∼ q)) can be eliminated
?
think about the definition of $\subseteq$ and $\in$
and what exactly the elements of S are
I never learned that in class we didnt lecture it but the webwork for sets includes it
.
nope
that's not quite right
yes, 1 and 2 are elements of S
but 3 and 4 are NOT elements of S
What are 3 and 4 elements of then?
you tell me
im not sure cuz its in its on {}
right
well do you think sets can be elements of other sets
yes
why does it have to be assigned a letter
1,2 and the set {3,4}
man just help my jit out hes been on this shit for the last 2 hours, he accidently fell asleep in class just give him the answers
hes got a date in 30 minutes
help a brother out
uh we don't give answers here
ok Ill try it w that logic of 3 elements
🤓
np
how does one prove (Ǝk. x= 2k+1) ^ (Ǝk. y=2k+1) -> (Ǝk. x+y = 2k)
Desperately need help for part 2 🙏
F & G
You Inclose the element of a set in curly braces to denote it as a subset
and you do not wrap and object with any braces to denote it as it element and use belongs to symbol
x and y are nonbounded variables
thats generally false.
37x +15y = 12 how do I solve this using diophantic method?
GCD is 1
1 | 12 which means that the equation is solvable
But then what? I need to find one solution to x and one solution to y and after that conclude a general solution
hello, I'd like some help with this question. Its been few days that I am thinking about it and it seems to me that I am stuck.
They should specify what things they are quantifying over, but it's not generally false. Quantifiers apply over sets of objects called a domain of discourse or a universe of discourse. In this case they probably just mean they are quantifying over integers.
huh
the statement is generally false
for all x, y right?
well if we dont say what x and y are, then we dont know if its true or false
Yes I agree that we don't really know since they didn't tell us what they are quantifying over. But I think they mean to quantify over the integers.
This is what I'm talking about.
With domain/universe garbage.
When you specify a semantics for a logic in your metalogic you typically have to give a set of objects that tell you what sets of things your quantifiers deal with.
In math it's usually implicit that you're quantifying over sets tho fwiw. So, in most math it really isn't true.
How it disappeared with the p in (p v q)
(p v ~q ) ^ (p v q)
p v ((p ^ ~q) v (q ^ ~q))
Yes
Distributivity allows them to "factor" out p.
How
Av(B&C) is equivalent to (AvB)&(AvC)
You should have an equivalence along those lines.
How this is applied in the statements there
They have the right formula here with p=A, B=~q and c=q at line 2.
So, they can conclude the left hand formula is equivalent with those same choices for A,B,C.
can someone help me please?
their asking for criteria of functions
actually this is kinda fucked up
would have to get pen and paper
but im sorta in the middle of something
by bijective do u mean to proof there is only one such functions that satisfies the equality @icy flame ?
ur proof of bijectivity is wrong btw
g(g(n))=f(f(1))
I think mike is right that g(g(n)) = n because g(g(n)) = g(-f(f(1) - n)) = -f(f(1)) - (-f(f(1)) - n) = -f(f(1)) + f(f(1)) + n = n
also check the parenthesis on ur expressions their not closed
What pigeon said is correct (just missing one ")" somewhere there)
yeah, should be fixed now
wait composition is in n
sec
yeah
ur right
still wouldnt what he provided only count as a proof of 1 to 1?
i dont see onto
Since gg(n) = n, g is its own inverse.
well yes but he would have to invoke that if f(g(g(n))) is reversible
then its bijective
also
hes affirming f(f(f()))
if you want it in terms of f, 6 compositions of f is the identity function, so for any integer n, f composed 5 times of n is the preimage of n
gg = fff
wdym?
in this case hes assuming m = 0
sec
f(m+f(f(n))) is what hes given
he needs to establish this
for any m
but i guess you could do induction like this?
@faint sphinx ?
took me ages to find the book in which they say u can do induction by 0
lol
This is sometimes calles "strong" induction since you assume P(j) for all lesser j, not just the one immediately before.
But ofc you can start induction at 0
thx @faint sphinx, @unborn vapor
SL_2(Z) or whatever 
why SL_2(Z)?
its been a while since I havent done a fe 
what are you suggesting proving by induction? I think the conclusion that f is bijective is already proven (in general, not just for a special case) because what we showed was that any f that satisfies f(f(f(n))) = -f(f(1)) - n for all n must be bijective, and we know that our function does satisfy that condition since the initial condition in the problem must hold for all n, m which includes m = 0
basically I think that all of mike's conclusions are true, but I don't really have ideas of how to conclude more things (which is why I initially didn't respond to the question because I don't have anything to add)
It reminds me of SL_2(Z), that’s it
what an annoying fe honestly
because a lot of negative signs
there are so many relations its not clear what to do xdd
f is bijective, so there has n0 in Z, s.t. f(f(n0))=1
Substitute n=n0 in f(m+f(f(n)) = -f(f(m+1))-n
One can prove that there is a unique f
||with this you are done, because you have f^2(x)=a-f(x) for some constant a, then rewriting the original equation we have
f(m-1+a-f(n))=f(m)-a-n,
let m=f(n), then the left is constant and in the right we get f(f(n))-a-n=-f(n)-n, so f(n)=-n+b for some constant b, and I assume you can just check what works||
I think?
||f(n)=-1-n||
Similar concept. I am beginning from f^3(x) = -f(f(1))-x
||f(x)+f^2(x)=-n0||
||f^3(x)+f^2(x)=-n0||
||=>f(x)=f^3(x)=-f(f(1))-x||
||f(n-1+f(f(n))) = -f(f(1))-n+1-f(f(n)) = -f(f(n))-n||
lets say P implies Q and i want to do an indirect proof, the rule is you must assume right hand side is False and prove that P is True not false right?
And for equivalencies, I am able to assume from either side whether its true or false but must prove the opposite side as the same correct?
and regarding proofs and equivalencies, lets say there is multiple cases that prove the implication or equivalencies, do I need to prove all those cases or as long as I provide proof for 1 case that is fine?
https://gyazo.com/0688a2f1042b039bae1be54c9469b14c can someone very this? I know there is another case that makes it equivalent if p, q, and r is all true
Hello, can you help me?
If α:A->B and β:B->A
Is αβ(b)=a possible?
Is this not rather α(β(b))=α(a)=b?
thanks for the help yesterday, sorry I went offline in the middle of the it but i had to due to personal reasons.
Could someone help me substitute the statements for variables
Is there a symbol for composing n functions together similar to sigma for summations
grothendieckfan1 (Ryx)
thanks
So this is the problem and solution, I'm trying to understand that first sentence in the solution where it says "expressed in lowest terms". If it says that, and I wanted to visualise it, p could be "2/3" since it's lowest terms right?
expressed in lowest terms means gcd(p,q)=1 (i.e., p and q are relatively prime). In other words, they share no common positive factors aside from 1.
so p/q is irreducible
So an example would be 5/12 since they have no common factors right? Something that is reducable would be 2/4 since can be reduced to 1/2?
yes
no
so if we read this, it says "there are no elements in A that are not in B" = E
Which is false because n=3, or n=9 is counter example. So {3,9...etc} = E
E says n is an odd multiple of 6 so would this be false since there is no odd multiple of 6?
Counter example would be 3
Hi can anyone explain how to do this problem
what have you tried
Let $A={1,2,3,6,9,18}$
\
Define $R$ on $A$ as $x \mid y$. Show that $R$ is a partial order relation and draw a Hasse diagram.
dgh
That's just a "check that you have understood the definition of 'partial order' and what a Hasse diagram means" exercise.
There's nothing to do except follow your nose and verify the parts of the definition one by one.