#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 29 of 1
ooh, for negative numbers z_(n-1) would be 0 and z_n is 1 then? The other numbers don't change
make sure they're the same number
is 1010 the same as 10010 when I go up a digit count
Yes it is
what number should 1010 be
10
considering it starts with a 1, didn't you say it should also be negative
what's it negative of
ahhh
Those are equal to -2
To prove this, can I assume that the given number is representable with n digits?
it's representable with n-1 even
add 2 to 1010 though
I ment, generally
so do I
what
what if n=1, then how can I represent any number with 1 digit also with 0 digits?
the problem literally says n-1 going to n
oh mb, I thought it was n going to n+1
please check this though
uhm, 1111?
just negating the bits of 1010 gives us 0101
neither of those are zero though
yea
that looks like 5
that is weird for me
I don't know why this happens rn
because I think you're thinking about it wrong
1010 looks like -5 yes?
10010 looks like -13
I do not think your method is correct homie
I think I confused 2 number representations with each other and mixed them
I do not know where you did
because idk where you'd get 1010 as -2, much less adding 2 giving us 1111
What is 1010 in your opinion then?
I could allow 1010 to be "-2" and "10" regarding which number representation was used. But how did you get -5 or -6 for it?
how does addition work
by adding the digits
how could this possibly be -2?
1010 + 0010 should be 1100?
in sign-magnitude representation, where the first digit tells us the digit of the number
that's not zero right?
yes
so it's not -2
but 1010 + 0110 (6) = 0, so it's -6
oh ok
that's why it's two's complement
what is the reason for what?
Sciencenjoyer
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
in my textbook there is also this
that's not 2's complement though
the og question is two's complement, not whatever that bad sign bit one is
what kind of "number" is -0
Why does bitflipping change them to different numbers though?!
why wouldn't it?
because they are equal
they're equal in terms of being 6
but if you consider the front being a negative signifier
then no
I won't do this anymore. I have just read that this number representation is bad
but (001) is not equal to (11111001) anymore
okay
oh they are equal. I am sorry for overreacting, they just looked very different
Is that still the case for complement number representation?
okk
what is it you do?
Are we talking about the number before/ or after it was two's complemented?
let it be 10...z_o
Also if I want to N's complement any b-adic number, I have to convert the number to be N+1-adic. Is that correct?
in the representation
no
110 -> 1010 in that setup, but 110 is -010, 1010 is -0110, so something changed
-2 and -6, resp.
let it be 11...z_o then
now prove that works
Sciencenjoyer
There’s an extra hat in there but sure
Showing they represent the same numbers is also important
Idk C_2 is
oops
that's the two's complement
That's too hard
That’s the problem it’s asking though
C_2(C_2(x)) = x for any x though?
yes
-x = C(x) + 1
is there a way of properly testing if my fsa is correct other than just test cases and inspection
similar position to yesterday
my implementation works with the test cases
just isnt the same as what my given answer is
im not really sure how to properly check if all my fsa's are 100% correct when i dont have a standardised way of checking for sure considering theres muiltiple fsa's that can accept the same language
the only thing i can think of is just to create a bunch of test cases that i know should accept/reject and try them out in jflap but that could be time costly in an exam
(what's the given answer?)
You can think of your automaton as matching prefixes of 001; it’s similar to the construction of the automaton used for KMP. Yours is just non-deterministic (depending on whether you view omitting transitions as non-deterministic), whereas the sample answer is the standard string matching automaton
they should accept the same language though, so yours is equally as correct
...the given answer also omits a transition (0 from q2)
That is also true
the only difference between their answer and what was given is that in the given answer q0 and q3 do essentially the same thing, and their answer makes them the same state
It’s effectively the same
I have -x = C(x) + 1 - b^n for every b-adic number x with n digits
Can b^n be represented in that system
Also it’s not b-adic, it’s base b
x + C(x) = b^n - 1
But b^n has a 1 in the n+1th digit so….
It’s 0
@quiet eagle
Sorry, I misunderstood. That is the definition of the b-complement. My equation was based on C being the b-1-complement
huh
What is it?
Idk what you mean there but aight
It’s not being the wrong b
It’s the right complement I think
b^n is just zero
What even is the base of the given number in my task?
2?
It could be 3 too or anything else
You could apply the two's complement on a number with base 15 too
could you?
You would need to carry on to the subtraction to the next column
Is that a thing?
There is line in the book I am reading
An element of a set can not be subset of itself.
What does it mean actually?
Also does $A = { {1} }$ invalidate this?
ĐARK々MÁTTER
Because $x = {1}$, such that $x \in A$ and $x \subset x$
ĐARK々MÁTTER
they might have been trying to say that an element of a set can't be a proper subset of itself? since no set is a proper subset of itself
but yeah i'm not really sure what that means, the most obvious reading is about as false as it could be (every element of a set is a subset of itself, at least if you assume that elements of sets are sets)
I see
I got the answer here but struggling to understand, https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3241082/in-an-element-of-a-set-can-never-be-a-subset-of-itself-what-does-itself-sta
I looks difficult because of english 😅 would you help me here?
basically, author fucked up
can someone help me with this ?
anyone know how to show that an n-cube is non planar for n >= 4 using kuratowskis thrm? I can't seem to find K5 or K3,3 from the 4-cube..
Ah I understand, I am just painfully slow and dumb 😄
@ivory badge You know how can calculate e.g. binary numbers with a sum? For example: (011)_2 = 0x2^2 + 1x2^1 + 1*2^0 = 3
Yes
But how does this work with negative numbers like (101)_2 ?
I wanted to use this sum for that proof but idk
but every z_i itself is still positive. So where does that minus sign come from?
That can be proven right?
That’s a definition on one hand, but yes
Because it should be fairly apparent?
No
How is it fairly apparent?
Though using it to verify can help
If it has a 1 in front it’s negative
Work from what adds to what
To get 0
I still don't understand why my first proof was not correct
Because you just moved the front digit forward
Or do you mean the one where C(C(x))=x was included, but that’s not useful
yes that one. I used it to explain why the first digit of a negative number is 1
didactic purposes
It didn’t
I used that fact that C(z) being negative was given to show that z_n-1 = 0
I could have just said that z is positve so z_n-1 =0
Yes
That aside, my conclusion was that if I add an 1 to a negative binary number it doesn't change
that's what I ment ._.
Instead, just use -x = C(x)+1
gg that tells you putting a 1 in front is still the inverse
well you don't add one but put a 1 in the front
So how is this useful?
Put a zero in front of a positive one
Show that keeps the same value
-x = C(x) + 1, so you flip that new zero to 1
easily done by using the sum notation
Done
This is exactly the original -x but with an additional 1 in front
gg
oh C(x) is equal to -x
What stops us from substituting it in this equation?
No, it’s C(x) + 1
You add 1
Not in front, you add a one to the complement
C(x) + x = 2^n - 1
That must be the one's complement here
the 2’s complement 
fake information
well then you can simply take the L
lmao
Idk bro just look up two’s complement
ahh I mixed it up again
I do not understand what you can mix it up with ngl
wait no
one sec
Lemma 1.12 For any n-digit, b-adic number z, the following statements hold: \ \
- $z+C_{b-1}(z)=b^n-1=(b-1, \ldots, b-1)_b$, \
- $C_{b-1}\left(C_{b-1}(z)\right)=z$.\ \
If $z \neq 0$, we also have\ \ - $z+C_b(z)=b^n$,\
- $C_b\left(C_b(z)\right)=z$.
Sciencenjoyer
How do you define C_{b-1} and C_b on the same z?
Idk why you bother so much with the “b-adic” (just base b numbers) complement, I don’t think theres much warrant ngl
If it’s defined like that then just -z = C_1(z) + 1
I'm just using the same words my textbook does. I don't know the difference between "b-adic" and "base b". What do you mean by "why bother so much" if this decides with equation I can use?
-z is equal to C_2(z) right, correct, true?
According to 3, however it’s defined
what is?
C_2 is
I never said it wasn't
hi does anyone have any good intro to discrete math online courses im currently doing cs and am taking it next semester and wanting to get ahead
so i can be sweaty
ping me pls and ty
I know Codecademy has one, and there's an MIT course available for free, and there's the Aho/Ullman "Foundations of Computer Science" book online for free, which is an intro to discrete math for programmers.
I haven't gone through these yet for myself, but I've recently been looking for material as well.
If $A \times B$ is my universal set for defining a relation between domain and co-domain. And lets say set $R$ is relation set such that $R: A \to B$ and we know that $R \subset A \times B$ for sure, can $R = \phi$ (empty set)?
ĐARK々MÁTTER
Also if yes, then there would be no arrow from domain to co-domain. So can be say having no relation is also a relation?
LaTeX protip: \emptyset is the empty set symbol, not lowercase phi.
Indeed, the empty set is a relation. It is even a function, in certain circumstances.
I think yes, relations can be empty. It can't be a function if A is non-empty
These sound great, thanks very much for the recommendations
I'll check some out and report back if you need it
Like in computer science we say when function return type isvoid it returns nothing?
So a function must return something?
So a function is a special type of relation where for element of set has only one image in codomain. To have image, domain must have some elements and so does codomain. That means, both A and B cannot be null set.
void is nothing to do with the empty set
void is a set with one element
a function that returns void "returns nothing" because being given an element of a set with 1 element gives you no information, since there's exactly one way to do that
Mathmetically it would look like ${ \emptyset }$, right?
ĐARK々MÁTTER
the type that's actually the empty set isn't in most languages - it's the type of a function that can never return, meaning it always loops forever or crashes or throws an exception or something like that
yeah that's one possibility
it doesn't really matter what the single element is as long as there's only one of it
{5} would work equally well as a void type
I see, so if for any value we input to function, and it does not return any different input then we can say it is not giving any information hence the return type of function in computer science void which also means ~ no information.
i'd say it's more specifically to do with the codomain having one element
if the function always returns the same thing then you still get one piece of information which is which thing it always returns
f(x) = 2 and f(x) = 3 are two distinct functions from numbers to numbers
but for a set with one element there is always exactly one function to that set, if you ignore things like side effects and the possibility that the function never returns
so having the function really does give you no information at all
Btw void (programatically) means "the return type of a function that returns normally, but does not provide a result value to its caller". So technically void in context of relation and programming doesnt look same to me
no void in this context does also mean it returns normally
"not returning a value" is actually just returning a value with no information in it
side effects ? meaning
stuff like printing to stdout
doesn't happen in maths but it exists in programming (in most languages)
Yeah
also nondeterminism
not really a "side effect" but it's in the same class of things that functions in programming languages do and mathematical functions don't
it makes sense now. Like f(x) = 2, we can see of each value of x {(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 2) ... }, no such actual information is returned, just a literal value which is pre determined.
So if we ignore it as you said, then again repeating your line "function never returns so having the function really does give you no information at all"
uh...? that's not something i ever said
there is at least one input to f(x) = 2 for which it returns (take x = 1), so it doesn't never return
Ohk let me give you a python function
def f(x):
return 2
Doesn't it return 2?
What I meant was we can ignore this since it is not adding any usable information at all.
well that's nearly true, but like,
def g(x):
return 3``` this is a different function, right?
Yes it is
so there is some amount of information
if neither of these functions contained any information at all then they would be the same
I see
Actually I got your point, I also have problem with expressing myself in english 😅
btw these are constant functions, they are valid functions because as you said they have some information, which is line parallel to x axis crossing y axis at 3
...well a function doesn't need to contain any information to be "valid"
but yes they do contain information
No
I mean when A is the empty set
Yes, that's true if you are considering a function A to B where A is non-empty
In mathematics, a function from a set X to a set Y assigns to each element of X exactly one element of Y. The set X is called the domain of the function and the set Y is called the codomain of the function.Functions were originally the idealization of how a varying quantity depends on another quantity. For example, the position of a planet is a ...
Otherwise it's a so called "empty function"
interesting
not a butter
stuck
oof the start of group theory is really definition dense
Yeah but it's fine. You'll get familiar with them pretty quickly
thats how i felt when i learned chapter 2 of rudin pma
instead of introducing the definitions as needed, he introduces ALL of them at the SAME time!!!
i could not for the life of me follow along at all
Why is this sentence true?
"The number of such choices with min(Y)>max(X) is equal to: "
As mentionned in the line of solution one the number of choices is k+aCk * n+k+aCn you can use the factorial expression of both terms and simplify to reach n+k+aCn+k
i didn't understand
if min(Y) > max(X), then min(Y) is greater than all the elements of X.
so the goal is to count all ways to construct two sets X and Y with k and n elements respectively, so that all of the values in X are smaller than all the values in Y.
think of this as making one big set of n+k elements; whenever you choose a set with n+k elements, there is only one way to form the sets X and Y, and that way is by selecting the k smallest elements and allocating them to X, while the rest go to Y.
so the problem now becomes choosing an n+k element set, which is given by that formula
I don't think this is true. If P=NP, only P-complete problems will be NP-complete. Some P problems could be unable simulate all problems in P and NP.
if P=NP, then for any problem in P (or in fact any problem at all), you can reduce a problem in NP to it by just solving the problem (since it's in P), and then just find an instance of the problem which gives the answer that you know is correct
Any problem in P is P-complete
In response to this btw
since we're dealing with decision problems, there are only two possible answers, so we can just hardcode in the algorithm an answer for "yes" and an answer for "no"
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-complete#Problems_not_known_to_be_P-complete Wikipedia seems to disagree.
In computational complexity theory, a decision problem is P-complete (complete for the complexity class P) if it is in P and every problem in P can be reduced to it by an appropriate reduction.
The notion of P-complete decision problems is useful in the analysis of:
which problems are difficult to parallelize effectively,
which problems are di...
that's about a kind of P-completeness that's irrelevant here
we're asking about problems in P that are complete under polynomial-time many-one reductions, because those are the kind of reduction that matters in the definition of NP-complete
in other words, problems in P that any other problem in P can be reduced to in polynomial time
since this turns out to be a rather boring complexity class, the wikipedia article about "P-complete" instead describes problems complete under reductions that probably don't include all of P, like NC or L
but NP-complete still means polynomial-time reductions even if P = NP
any problem in P is P-complete under polynomial time reductions
the wikipedia article even says that
Generically, reductions stronger than polynomial-time reductions are used, since all languages in P (except the empty language and the language of all strings) are P-complete under polynomial-time reductions.
how do you do proofs with 1-1 and onto functions?
can someone please explain it to me bc i really don't understand any of it
i've read through the chapter in the textbook that covers it and idon't understand it either
1-1 = injective means f(x)=f(y) -> x=y
Yeah I understand the concepts behind the proofs but I don’t know how to do the proofs themselves
I just can’t figure out how to logically structure the proofs
Well, that’s not something you can say “this is how you do it”
The good point of injective is you can bring equality outside f
And the good point of surjective is you know you hit everything
what do i need to do? i've proven that $(g\cdot f)^{-1}=f^{-1}\cdot g^{-1}$
is that really it?
nd
\circ btw
hey im new here so i just want some help from you guys. my professor gave us an assignment on topic 'mind blowing math' so i was wondering about the concepts i can use for the report, presentation. can i use theories like fibonacci for that topic? im still in 1st year so im quite new to reports. will be a great help if u can give few ideas
what is the group theoretic way of thinking about this question?
so the answer is that from each coloring one can achieve 24 distinct colorings by means of rotations (rotation of a cube is of order 24) and then 6!/24 = 30 distinct ways.
but what promises us that the symmetries will form a partition of all the colorings? Can I think of the symmetries as a normal subgroup of all the possible colorings somehow?
and how is this related to commutants? (this question showed up in a commutant sub-chapter)
I'd guess it's promised by burnside's lemma but I don't know the proof of that by heart
na that's way ahead of the material in the book
we're just defining what is a quotient group and showing some basic properties of the commutants
it will be helpful to think of the partitions of the 32 teams into the 4 groups that face each other before the semi-finals
mmm I can't tell for sure you might be double counting your probabilities. If you double check by counting how many ways you can organize the teams so you get the desired result and divide by the total amount you should get the same answer and then you know if it's true or not
The symmetries describe a partition of the colourings, via the group action on the colourings. The parts of this partition are called orbits.
If you haven't seen group actions, then this exercise is just here to make you appreciate how hard this kind of calculation is before they introduce the high-powered machinery of Burnside's lemma
Understood, so burnside will give the theory of the orbits?
Burnside will allow you to count the number of orbits in a relatively easy way
Hence one of its other names, "the orbit-counting lemma"
Btw some people even refer to it as "the lemma that is not Burnside's"
Hey I don't know how to prove the following :
On a G chart simple of order 2n,in which the degree of each edge is even,there is for each vertex another vertex connected to an even number of edges in common.
Thanks for help
did you translate this from french
syntax feels similar, but no one would write a CS property like this
I sure hope not
Many thanks
what is the subject called where u get questions about how many possiblites are there if and then they give a situation
combinatorics ?
can u also explain the difference between a simple event and a sample point are they the same?
uhh
if this is probability, I can tell you that this is nonsense
I think it's more statistics I guess
yeah, this is nonsense
ah okay so it's like irrelevant
throw away the book!
i have no idea who that is
this one
i also have no idea who those people are
which book do u use?
oh wait I do know now'
I thought this was a common one
it's that book the math sorcerer always talks about 😂
wait I know math sorcerer the youtuber right
is he good?
no
oh
which youtubers do u usually watch?
none
but u know the math sorcerer
i used to watch his videos
but do u recommend it?
don't watch anymore, I unsubcribed and the algorithm stopped pushing him to me as well
his videos are just entertainment, not sure what there is to recommend or not recommend
if you mean should you listen to his book recommendations, no you shouldn't
do u also watch video which are like good educational purposes but not for entertainment
i watch some talks if Im interested in them
i don't really recommend any stats book
how about good informative talks then?
for probability, grimmett and stirzaker, but it's quite dense
at the more advanced level, durrett is standard and also pretty good imo
what do u count as advanced? do u mean after knowing graph theory and doing proofs?
Simple events would be when doing probabilities rigorously
You define a probability space (Omega, F, P), where Omega is the set of simple events
ahhhh and omega itself also has several sample points
no
sample points don't exist
sample points are related to the law of large numbers
they're not your probability space
sample points aren't a part of rigorous probability theory until much later (I haven't seen it, but I've only seen the most basic stuff)
what does it mean by simple variable because like how is ¬s a sub formula
this is to do with tseytin transformation
i guess p, q, r, s, are the variables
¬s is a subformula because it's here (and it's a formula)
and it's not a variable because it has a ¬
so a^b V c, c wouldnt be considered the sub formula?
c would be a subformula of that
but it's also a variable, so it wouldn't appear in this list because this list is explicitly of things that aren't variables
ah k thanks
oh!
i meant measure theory i guess
i think what's confusing
is that simple event should just literally mean "outcome of the experiment"
i also have no idea what you mean by sample point
it depends what you are interested in...
if you just go on youtube and look up the topic you are interested in, you can probably find a talk
IAS, simons institute, etc
I watch stats talks
at the end of the day it is, usually. When you describe a real situation as a mathematical probability space, you turn each outcome into a simple event (like "the die rolled a 6" or "the number is 1064") with an associated probability. Then you can study random variables on this space, and look at things like its mean, variance.
Reality and the associated experimentation only comes in when considering the law of large numbers, saying that we simulate 100 dice throws (which I guess you could call sample points) as 100 independent, identically distributed variables, and look at stuff about them, such as their mean converging to a certain value, or what their variance is, etc. And that's where the intuitive part of probabilities as being frequentist comes in, not before that
"hen you describe a real situation as a mathematical probability space, you turn each outcome into a simple event (like "the die rolled a 6" or "the number is 1064") with an associated probability. Then you can study random variables on this space, and look at things like its mean, variance."
I would say this is not generally how people think of things. Everything is thought in terms of random variables, no one ever thinks of the sample space
How do you prove that the power set of the natural numbers is uncountable? I just got that problem on a test and I tried doing the diagonal thing but I wasn’t able to
I googled the solution and it said that we need to use Cantor’s theorem b it we haven’t learned that yet
well cantor's theorem is "the diagonal thing"
if you have a map from the natural numbers to the power set of the natural numbers, let's call it f, you can take the set of every natural number that isn't in the set f maps it to
so for example
if f(1) = {1, 2, 3}, then 1 would not be in this set
if f(2) = {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, ...}, then 2 would be in this set
now if f maps any number n to this set, we can ask: does the set contain n?
well, it contains n, if and only if f(n) doesn't
but f(n) is this set, so this set contains n if and only if it doesn't, which is nonsense
therefore, any map from the natural numbers to the power set of the natural numbers must miss at least one set
therefore, the power set of the natural numbers is strictly bigger than the set of natural numbers, so it's uncountable
cantor's theorem is essentially this argument, except replace "the natural numbers" with an arbitrary set because we didn't actually use the fact that this is the set of natural numbers; so the more general result is that any set is smaller than its power set
i dont understand how the last 2 transitions have been created
i get the first 3 (the ones ive drawn)
because its just merging them
but idk where the last 2 have come from
Bezier graduate
so here {q1, q2} by a leads to : q1 through q1, q2 through q1, nothing through q2, so {q1, q2}
and by b they just lead to q1
where S is a set of states, Delta the transition function, and sigma a letter
It's a hard question for sure
The idea is that you can biject the naturals with say the unit interval
since any subset of the naturals can be thought of as encoding a binary number
oh ok yeah think i got it
so if im getting this correctly, for the set on the right, you take everything that q1 with letter a transitions to, then add everything q2 with letter a also transitions to
to get the set on the right
in this case q2 doesnt actually go to anything so its just q1
yes
anyone know something about master theorem and proofs?
yes
Yes but I WONT tell you
@vital helm here
if A is infinite, then does |A| = |A| + |A|?
Yes, although this requires some work to prove
It doesn’t just instantly fall out, but yeah. Consider N+N, and kinda zig zag back back and forth across the two copies
so then probably also |A|=|A|^n for any natural number n?
That needs choice
I think there’s some choice going on with addition too but |A|=|A|^2 for every set A is kinda equivalent to choice iirc
For sets where at least one is infinite, |A x B| = max(|A|, |B|), iirc. What you see here is an example of this.
I need help with this
So a mini sudoku puzzle. Very cool
Yes, pretty much. A full sudoku is too difficult for me.
I would start by counting how many possibilities there are for the first row.
Then given a first row, how many possibilities for a second? Given a first and second row, how many possibilities for the third?
Does anyone know of any youtuber that is good at explaining ug level discrete math?
How to solve
x=0mod8
X=1 mod 125
The chinese remainder theorem.
proof 
Does this definition make any sense?
$A\subseteq B$ is not a set
The fictitious Sharp
@weary tiger
And |B| >= |A| is 100% unnecessary since it’s implied by the fact that everything in A is in B
(Which that’s how it should be defined, as a proposition)
Oh, right, it's just a statement. I believe intersections and unions are sets thought. Is that correct?
Yes
Thanks bro
as a trick, you can use the fact that 2 to a power 3 or larger is 0 mod 8, then use Euler's theorem to get that 2^phi(125) = 1 mod 125.
in general you can do this kind of thing to make a function that's 1 at a power a prime and 0 at other primes to make an explicit formula for the CRT too as a bit of fun
Ping me everyone
Will this make any difference while proving?
cool example of using groups / a special finite field to treat a game
Yes, the proofs will be different. Propositional Logic/Calculus (PC) is not the same as First-Order Logic (FOL). PC is contained in FOL. FOL has more structure. The PC proof of "(P->Q and Q->R) -> (P->R)" mostly use modus ponens, while the FOL proof will also use rules based on the universal quantifier, its introduction and elimination in particular. Does that make it clear? If you know Fichte's Natural Deduction proving method, I can show you the quick contrast directly. What system or book are you using?
(p(a), subset) (p(a) is powerset of a) this is a well known poset but if a = 0 then phi will be in the powerset it is said that only phi is a toset too but according to the defination of toset (A,R) for all a , b belongs to A(a is related to b XOR b is related a) but here phi relates to itself but there is not other element so how do we check for it? according to the deffination?
hey you know a lot more math then i thought you did
sorry i talked to you down a bit I misjudged your competence. I was babying a bit because I thought you were (mathematically) immature
btw i thought about what you asked and gave up a bit
i couldn't even show what the formula was true something kept on messing up with my algebra
i don't quite understand how the (sqrt((8n+1))) always ends up the same number giving the range n moves in
No worries! Yeah, the problem is actually not trivial.
I’ll let you know if I make any progress.
Hi , I need internship for my personal experience .
I cannot emphasise how much this is not the place to post this
Nobody here can give you an internship, and it is a super bad idea to post your personal info on random forums online
I strongly suggest you remove your CV @near socket
hi i had a doubt
( P ∨ Q ∨ ( ¬ P ∧ ¬ Q ∧ R)) ⇔ P ∨ Q ∨ R
prove that they are logically equivalent
What's your doubt? Do you recall what it means for two propositions to be logically equivalent? One (brute force) way to see it here is with truth-tables.
Without using truth tables is the question
If it wants you to manipulate algebraically, one way to do it is to simply starts by using the De Morgan rule here on (¬ P ∧ ¬ Q ∧ R). Starts from the left hand side, and use those logical equivalences you already know. Be sure to justify at each step. Let me know if that helps.
Further Hint : ||Use the law of double negation, and the idempotence of "∨".||
Do you know how to do A v (¬A ^ B) <=> A v B?
I have a question about Turán numbers
If we're considering the Turán number of a graph, like $K_3$, would the Turán number be 2?
sxbuto
Or am I understanding Turán numbers incorrectly
To solve this, I know how the Chinese remainder theorem works, but I suppose I need to have equalities of the form x (moduli)= a?
So is 2x (45)= 26 the same as x (45)= 13?
or how do i get started with this problem?
Hey y’all this was one of the previous quizzes
I wanna ask is the correct answer d?
Or is it a?
I cant seem to get the union and intersection right. If anyone can explain it to me ;-;-; that would be great
I know with the union it involves everything and with the intersection anything that’s below it. Is that right?
Also side note: if anyone is willing to be a study buddy that would be great help ;-;
hello; i have a list of elements [0 ,1 ,2 ,3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] is it possible to create a factoradic (or rather to permute) the list starting with the first elements first?
ie
[0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [1, 0, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [0, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [2, 0, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [1, 2, 0, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [2, 1, 0, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9]
[0, 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [1, 0, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [0, 3, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [3, 0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [1, 3, 0, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [3, 1, 0, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [0, 2, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [2, 0, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [0, 3, 2, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [3, 0, 2, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [2, 3, 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [3, 2, 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [1, 2, 3, 0, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [2, 1, 3, 0, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [1, 3, 2, 0, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [3, 1, 2, 0, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [2, 3, 1, 0, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] [3, 2, 1, 0, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9]
Can anyone solve this please
if you need to further your understanding of propositional logic you should read “how to prove it” by daniel j velleman
an excellent explanation of everything you need to know on negating, proving, creating statements etc
Sounds interesting thanks I will look into it
2 inverse mod 45 is not 1/2, so no. Multiply both sides by 23 instead (2*23=1mod45)
Otherwise I think you’re on the right track
Wait I’m an idiot 23*26 is 13 mod 45
You’re all correct
Not sure if crt will work though
Given modulos aren’t coprime
Or nvm that still is solvable
so I have this problem...
and when I translated it to math it didn't look any easier, well, prob cuz I was doing that without using brains
let $x$ be the total number of sticks of length 2, $y$ and $z$ be those of 3 and 4 respectively. Then I need to solve\
$2x_1 + 2y_1 = 10 n_1$\
$2y_2 + z_1 = 10n_2$\
$x_2 + 2z_2 = 10n_3$\
$3x_3 + z_3 = 10n_4$\
$5x_4 = 10n_5$\
Where $x_1 + ... + x_4 = x$, $y_1 + y_2 = y$, and $z_1 + z_2 + z_3 = z$. Maximize $n_1 +... n_5 = n$.
how I "derived" this was to consider all possible combinations of sticks to get a stick of length 10
we have
2 sticks of length 2 + 2 sticks of length 3
2 sticks of length 3 + 1 stick of length 4
1 stick of length 2 + 2 sticks of length 4
3 sticks of length 2 + 1 stick of length 4
5 sticks of length 2
but clearly, solving this is um, quite undesirable. I considered CRT But I'm unsure of how to implement it.
Kiameimon | Welt Rene
at 1st I considered prioritising one or two of these combinations and using the remainder to form whatever sticks I can. For example I'd try to have as many sticks in the form of 2 sticks of length 3 + 1 of length 4, and 2 of length 4 with 1 of length 2, before you finally use the remaining sticks to form whatever pairs u can, but I couldn't prove that this is always going to be the optimal combination.
wait... I just realised that this is wrong. my brain's so... crammed 
||using an x+y that you already have instead of bonding together an x and a y is always at least as good: if you later want an x+y instead of an x and a y, you can just bond the x and y then
also, sticks of length 3 are only useful when you have two of them (because they're the only odd-length sticks involved and we want to make even lengths), so we can bond them together in pairs first and act like we were given sticks of length 6||
mhm. sticks of length 3 must form pairs...
Oh... could that be what we use to decide how we pair the 2s and 4s?
oh wait, that could just work
lemme dig further into it
HELLO I need help in discrete maths
isis any one doing discrete maths from rosen?
Iwanttolearndiscretetoimprovemylogicbuildingfordsa
can anyone help me out

depends on what u mean by "for mathematics"
it's a decent discrete math textbook
but discrete math isn't really that important for higher math
I didn't get u
what part specifically did u not get? And you're asking if rosen is a good book?
Yess
Would it be good for improving logics
I am solving dsa questions
So could u tell?
I couldn't find a solution online, so I want to ask for help here.
First, how do I show that for every x there is such y?
Hint: Bézout.
okk, I'm not familiar with his Lemma, but I'll look into this. ty
The textbook I used hasn't even mentioned the euclidean algorithm at this point let alone Bézout's Lemma. Is there a way without using much theorems?
what is example 2.3.4?
what book is this? is this paul zeitz?
yes, it is
But wait, I think I have skipped that example and its given solution before. I'll try again after having understood example 2.3.4. I'll reach out to you again
No.
At the very least, since this statement is equivalent to it, you will end up proving it in any case.
I sadly can't apply the proof from example 2.3.4 to this
Oh I see, well it should be possible to do this proof without knowing Bézout's Lemma, I hope
I doubt.
You should at least learn Bézout. It is a keystone of elementary number theory
I can't believe such a popular book has such a bad design
Can I form the composite function f(g(x)) if g(x)'s codomain does not equal to f(x)'s domain?
No
If the codomain of g is a subset of the domain of f, then the composition can still make sense, however (i.e., you apply g, then include it's image into the domain of f, then apply f)
for example, if A and B are sets, and g: A --> N, f: Z --> B are functions (where N is the natural numbers and Z are integers), then the composite f \circ g still makes sense, as above
If you ever have some output of g which isn’t in the domain of f, that’s problematic
Makes sense, so I suppose that f(g(x)) is undefined if g codomain is neither a subset nor equal to f domain?
Well, if the image is a subset of the domain of f, you can do something
Think sqrt(x) as a function R+ -> R+ on the positive reals
x^2 can be seen as R->R
Composing them still makes sense even if this x^2 function has bigger codomain
(Though you’d want to instead look at g: X -> im g, but uh)
But it need restriction right?
Essentially, the distinction is between the image of a function, and it's codomain. In the example that I gave, we can extend the codomain from N to Z, since N is a subset of Z. In Sharp's example, you can restrict the codomain to just be the image, and it can stil make sense. So really, it matters that the image of the function g is in the domain of f
Basically, it just needs to not spit out anything problematic 
How does one do proofs in Discrete Math? I still really don’t understand.
My prof keeps taking off lots of points on my homework and tests for “incorrect justification” but I don’t understand what I’m doing wrong. My grade is in the mid-70’s but the average grade in the class is 95. For the last test I studied by doing 20 practice problems from the textbook that covered the same topics that were on the test, but I got a 73 on the test itself. The test before that I got a 66.
I’m practicing a lot of problems and I’m taking a lot of notes so there must be a systematic error that I’m making.
What kinda of justifications do you make
Wdym
If he keeps counting off on your justifications I’d assume that’s a reasonable place to start
I do the problems on the tests and homeworks, the prof takes points off because something I said was incorrect
Give an example problem
And your own solution
Without looking at a given one, ideally
“Prove that if R is an equivalence relation on a set A, the equivalence classes of R form a partition of A.”
This was my solution, and the professor gave me 3 points out of 10 possible.
You pointed off to a prior problem which may be not ideal
Assuming 3 was good i probably wouldn’t count off much here though
Maybe make a note that you have at least one equivalence class [a] for each a?
This doesn’t seem like a 3/10 to me though
The prof has a reputation as a very easy grader so I might put in a regrade request for that specific problem tbh
Got a 7/10 on this problem
Prof’s only comment was “bad justification, can’t award full credit”
I think I should have just been more clear and not tried to be concise.
this is bad and too concise
My logic is sound, the way I’m writing the proofs isn’t.
You only checked that the domains matched on this question. There could be many functions C-->A that are not f^{-1} g^{-1}. Instead, think about what it means to be an inverse, and how you could show that through composition of f^{-1} g^{-1} and gf
is this right…? im self studying so maybe this is dumb
this is a practice exam, ill delete it if thats against the rules
This is not right
Recall $\neg\forall x \in S, P(x)$ is equivalent to $\exists x \in S, \neg P(x)$ for any predicate $P$.
Borty
Thats helpful, thanks
So i just change the universal quantifiers to existential quantifiers
Still no, but I want you to think about it.
I have an injective but non-surjective function f: A -> B. Then, is the inverse function of f f^-1: B->A or f^-1: rng(f) -> A?
strictly speaking f is not invertible. you need to restrict such an f to its range to get an invertible function
and then the inverse would be a function from range(f) to A
that's if you want to be incredibly precise. this is usually done implicitly
Got it, thanks.
Hey i want a book that covers math from grade 1 to college
I am in bca degree program
I had mathematics in school but
I was not good i would like to study everything from basic to advance
Lang's "Basic Mathematics" might help you out
problem: Let G be a connected graph. Let $x, y \in G$ such that $xy \in E(G)$ and $G' = G - xy$.\ (a) Show that if G'
is connected, then G has a cycle C containing xy.\
(b) Show that if G'
is disconnected, then G'
contains exactly 2 distinct
connected components, C1 and C2, such that $x \in C_1~and~y \in C_2 $\par
solution: \par(a) G' is connected that mean there exists an xy-path, suppose that $v_i\in V(G)$. then there is a path $P={xv_1,v_1v_2,...,v_{n-1}v_n,v_ny}$, $G' = G - xy\implies G = G'+xy$ this mean that we can have the cycle ${xv_1,v_1v_2,...,v_{n-1}v_n,v_ny,yx}$.\
(b) let $C_1~and~C_2$ be connected components such as $x\in C_1~and~y\in C_2$ such as $V(C_1)\cup V(C_2)=V(G)=V(G')\land\ V(C_1)\cap V(C_2)=\emptyset\land E(C_1)\cup E(C_2)\cup {xy}=E(G)$ we have that $G = C_1 + C_2 + xy \implies G'= G - xy = C_1+C_2$ so G'
contains exactly 2 distinct
connected components
john.
can someone tell me of it is correct ?
(a) is alright, I don't really follow your argument in (b) though
To me, it seems like, since you are starting off with V(C_1) \cup V(C_2) = V(G), you are already assuming that there are only two connected components
oke i'll think about it more
Clearly, there are at least 2 connected components, and clearly x and y are in distinct components, yeah. But why can't there be more than 2? I would try to approach this along the line of "Suppose G-xy had more than 2 connected components. Then there exists a z \in G with no path x --> z and no path x --> z in G-xy..." then try to get a contradiction
thank you @faint sphinx
Hi, Im solving for 11x + 7y = 6 using extended eucledian algorithm, Im getting that x = 2 and y= -3. But in the solutions it shows that x =-2 and y=4, anyone know who can help me understand how that happens?
The extended Euclidean algorithm finds the gcd of the two integers x and y, as a linear combination combination g(x,y) = ax + by . Here, gcd(11,7) = 1, and you can check that 11x + 7y = 1 = gcd(11,7)
Try multiplying x and y by 6.
Although I guess that won't get you x = -2 and y = 4 huh
I tried that too, but no I didnt get those results :/
What do these symbols mean
Is it a normal 3 choose 3
Wait i found the answer
Its a multi choose
Anyone got any tips for converting geometric representations of matroids to matrices?
Okay now I think I got asked to do a representation that's unpossible
wait what's a multichoose 
idk i used wikipedia
im not sure what that is
maybe binomial coefficient?
so like
(a)
(b)
but say a and b are in the same parenthesis
then,
(a)
(b)
= a!/b!(a-b)!
so like
(5)
(3)
= 5!/3!(5-3)!
= 5!/3!(2)!
= 120/6(2)
= 120/12
= 10
i think that's what you're referring to
but im not sure
wait no
you can describe it on text with
C(5, 3) = 5!/3!(5-3)!
= 5!/3!(2)!
= 120/6(2)
= 120/12
= 10
i think
im not sure since
i just started these kinds of things
so mb if it's wrong
,w multichoose
💀
Is there somewhere i can grab discrete math practice problems from or practice exams
john.
crapppp
?
dw I didn't understand either.
Maybe aops
Does an inverse relation just take each element in the relation and switch the two
Ie, if i have R = { (Rock, Scissors), (Scissors, Paper), (Paper, Rock) },
R^-1 would be { (Scissors, Rock), (Paper, Scissors), (Rock, Paper) }
Yes, the inverse relation just swaps the order of each pair in the original relation
Thanks!
For this, since B is reflexive and A is a subset of B, don't I just include (1,1) and (4,4) and then use combs? So like |A| = 11, |SxS| = 25 and then since B is reflexive, |set of potential pairs| = 25-11-2 =12? Then it'd be 2*(12C0+12C1+...+12C5) + 12C6
or am I missing something
So you're taking B = A, (1, 1) and (4, 4). That's the minimum they need to satisfy A subset B and B reflexive
For every other value in S x S \ B, taking any subset of that and tacking it onto B gives you a valid B
it's just the powerset then hey
but actually I compared my answer and they're the same value mine just overcomplicates it lol and it marks it wrong
well the powerset of the rest of it
Yeah that's wat i meant my bad
if $z:B\to A$ and $k:C\to D$, what exactly proves that for all $f:A\to C$, the function $k\circ f\circ z$ is unique?
MyFavoriteAccount
is it that composition is a function?
composition between two well defined functions is always well defined
(k o f o z)(x) = k(f(z(x))) is clearly unique
I got this exercise in the topic "Invariance Principle". I wanted to do this proof on my own, but I can't find the invariances ;(((. Can you help me find the invariance(s), so I can work with that? The obvious invariance is the number of integers. I suppose, that is useless though.
"
Start with the positive integers 1,..., 4n − 1. In one move you may replace any two integers by their difference. Prove that an even integer will be left after 4n − 2 steps."
Even + even = even, what about other combinations
hi quick question
for a question where we have to prove inequalities
what is the best way to approach it
or is there some sort of pattern of methods that i should exhaust
im reviewing for my exams and this question in particular is triping me up
yeah
y 😢
intro one but yeah
it was covered in the start and i was pretty good at it back then but now its kinda forgotten
i was thinking of using AGM
or AMGM as some people call it
yup x,y >0 so no concern in this scenario
im trying to manipulate it to arrive at some sort of basic fact then build my proof form there
but so far its been running in circles
gotcha
How would I go about proving that a homogenous linear recurrence relation that has a characteristic equation with irrational roots will yield a closed form solution that generates integer values?
A and B are not necessarily integers
yeah that's wat i wrote but im guessing i need to write more than that?
or would that be enough lmao
Well, they’re claiming that A and B are integers which leads to their confusion of a_n being irrational, which I suppose is the “incorrect” conclusion
Probably something like that anyways lol
I think when A=B they end up cancelling out if you expand it by the binomial theorem
at least, it's a common scenario to end up in, idk if it applies to this case
Yeah I figured as much I didn't do the working though because it seems kinda annoying for a 2 mark question
I guess just pointing that out would be enough
especially since they say briefly justify
Someone asked this very same question to me a few days ago as well 
That was at least the conclusion that we were happy with kekw
Wait exact same question? If so then probably cos we have an exam and these r from like the question bank that could possibly be used
There's like 17 Qs and they throw 1 or 2 in
Yea you probably go to my uni
smth like that

if A=-B I think you end up having an integer multiple of sqrt(...) or 1/sqrt(...) to work too
that's how the fibonacci numbers play out I think
yessir
far out small world
Yea basically boils down to the constants not necessarily being integers I think
a la Fibonacci sequence
"Start with the positive integers 1,..., 4n − 1. In one move you may replace any two integers by their difference. Prove that an even integer will be left after 4n − 2 steps."
The way I wanted to show this by going back from S(4n-2): There is always one more uneven number in these 4n-1 numbers than even numbers, because 4n is not included.
So S(4n-2) = even = even + even = even + uneven + uneven. Now we always have exactly one uneven number more than the even numbers because uneven = even + uneven that doesn't change.
On the other hand if the remaing number would be uneven:
S(4n-2) = uneven = uneven + even
there would be no possibility to get exactly one additional uneven number... wait that's not true..
Is this the wrong way?
I think it's the wrong way
since you have +1 = -1 mod 2, you can just pretend you added them. And since addition is associative and commutative, you now are just adding the numbers from 1 to 4n-1, so that's (4n-1)(4n)/2 = 2n(4n-1) = 0 mod 2
That is very nice. Thank you
Yeah you're welcome
It's union so yh
but it should be or
it isn't "A union B" though, it's not A union B
x isn't in the union of A and B
which means x isn't "in A or in B", which is the same as it not being in A and not being in B
what if it was cross section
how would you write that?
So wouldn't it be better to write x $\notin $ A,B?
if x isn't in the intersection of A and B, then that means it isn't "in A and in B", so either it's not in A or it's not in B
I think that the bot is not working
ok thanks
$\nepsilon$
bee [it/its]
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
looks to me like it's working
i think you wanted $\nin$
nope that doesn't exist either
$\notin$
bee [it/its]
there it is
Ok
Was confused because of this
here is clearly an and
yep
x is in the intersection of (complement A) and (complement B), therefore x is in complement A and x is in complement B
which is different from x being in the complement of (the intersection of A and B), or equivalently, x not being in the intersection of A and B
thats why I thought that here should be or
if it was "x is in the union of (complement A) and (complement B)" then that would be the same as "x isn't in A or x isn't in B"
but if you have "x isn't in the union of A and B", that means "x isn't (in A or in B)"
can you write that?
$x \in \overline A \cup \overline B \iff x \notin A \lor x \notin B$
bee [it/its]
i think maybe what's confusing you here is that there are two different things happening
there's the correspondence between set operators and logical operators: complement is not, union is or, intersection is and
and then there's the fact that "not (A and B)" is equivalent to "(not A) or (not B)", and "not (A or B)" is equivalent to "(not A) and (not B)"
or phrased in terms of sets, $\overline{A\cup B} = \overline A\cap\overline B$ and $\overline{A\cap B} = \overline A\cup\overline B$
bee [it/its]
ooh so it changes from or to and because there is negation
^ (Reposted in #help-15 message)
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So partial orders need to be no reflexive and transitive
But because each integer in the set divides itself, doesnt that mean each element is in a relation with itself, meaning its reflexive and not a partial order
Later on though they say you can assume | is a partial order on D, where the same issue would reside
Hold up im just wrong
Nvm
Ok so i confused the definition for strict posets and a normal one
Posets need to be transitive, reflexive, and antisymmetric
I can show its not a partial order because it isnt antisymmetric - -1 and 1 divide each other, but they arent the same element
Yes
“Strict poset” is just a <= b and a =/= b, they’re the same otherwise
Tofu
For this would I just sub $x = 91 + 1459t$ in for $x^2$ so then it's
\begin{align*}
(91+1459t)^2 &\equiv -473 \mod{1459^2}\
182\times 1459t + 1459^2t^2 &\equiv -8754 \mod{1459^2}\
182t + 1459t^2 &\equiv -6 \mod{1459}
\end{align*}
Cone
but then Idk where to go from here
I thought maybe I'd complete the square but then I'm gonna end up with horrible numbers lol
or is this just completely wrong
yeah you can do this
at least if I understand your findal step correctly, I haven't worked through it
Yeah I skipped a bit of the working lol
yeah looks like it checks out since 1459 factors out
you can use the quadratic formula directly, and hope the square root is easy to calculate
there's anothe direct way to get it by something called Hensel's lemma, basically it's just Newton's method from calculus
you have f(x)=x^2+473 then f'(x)=2x and you make g(x)=x-f(x)/f'(x) and your answer is g(91) mod 1459^2
although you'll end up having to find the inverse of whatever is in the denominator, so that might be annoying to do too, although you could do it with the euclidean algorithm by hand I suppose if you wanted
I just slipped it into the quadratic formula and it's pretty ugly assuming I've done everything right rip
hmmm I'll look into this I don't think we've learnt it (or at least I haven't lmao)
will have to double check the lecture notes
it's not really any different in principle from what you're doing actually
if you have some a such that f(a)=0 mod p and f'(a) != 0 mod p then you can grind through a bit, which is explicitly what you did with a=91 there, since you want f(a+tp)=0 mod p^2, and you can expand it out generically as: f(a+tp)=f(a)+tpf'(a) mod p^2 then you have 0 = p (f(a)/p + tf'(a)) mod p^2 and divide out the p like you did, 0 = f(a)/p + tf'(a) mod p and solve for t as t=-f(a)/pf'(a) mod p
actually come to think of it
your t^2 term should be multiplying something that's 0 mod p
@vague scarab check your work and make sure
it should be linear lol
1459=0 mod 1459 throw it out 🤣
I can't believe I didn't catch that, I'm so tired
oh yeah LMAO wtf
wat am i doing
so then it's just [182,-6]
man i rly overcomplicated that for no reason
ty for the help tho (:
yw lol
no channel for graph theory?
Graph theory can go here
so expect K2 graph we cannot have a complete bipartite graph for any number of verticies?
Sure you can, draw K3,3
but it will be odd number cycled graph
what
oh sorry it can be a cyclic
It’s hard to have complete graphs that are acyclic yes
Complete in the sense of typical graphs, no that's the only one (unless you count K1 maybe?)
You can draw an edge from a single node to an arbitrarily large second set of nodes though
Which is bipartite
But there is a notion of a complete bipartite graph which Sharp is referring to
Which ya know, you do mention bipartite in your message
hey k2 there is a complete graph btw
so i meant to say every complete graph except k2 will not be bipartite
Correct
sorry for the confusion i got a lil confused
i added complete before bipartite cus i was studying it
it made the difference ig
Yeah you just accidently said something that has an actual meaning lol, it happens
💀
oh i get it now every complete bipartite graph is a bipartite graph so the statement will have meaning regardless
here i just wanted to clarify if the cycle is of odd length for example c3 , c5 it will not form a bipartite graph because there will always remain one element which related to the element in the set sorry if it sounds vague i have yet to learn proof of these things
and if we try to make a complete graph like k3,k4 it will always have odd length cycle which will make any complete graph expect k2 invalid of bipartite
i think of this in a way like every polygon can be broken into traingles and every traingle has odd number of vertices
and because they are complete graph they will have all the edges to every vertices
Well, if you show that bipartite graphs don’t have odd length cycles then drawing a triangle would do it I think yeah?
Correct
yeah but that would also be a point for all complete graph except k2
? Yes
so here stay with me for a min let go for maximum number of edges in a bipartite graph lets say the number of vertices is n so the most edges will be represented only if we split it in n/2 n/2 but here we dont consider the fact that if it is even possible to draw a graph like that or not? am i missing something here?
I don’t know what you’re getting at here
you got it until the point of spliting the set in n/2 vertices?
or not?
You may just be interested in learning about complete bipartite graph directly, that sounds like what you're trying to get at
yes , exactly if we have n vertices maximum n.o of edges for bipartite graph
that will be complete bipartite graph and for that we have to split the distinct set in n/2 , n/2
but what i want to ask here if it is even possible to make a complete bipartite graph for maximimum edges is there a proof for that which i you guys can point me to?
its just the lack of imagination on my end
If you split the number of vertices into two groups of either n/2 and n/2 for even n, or (n-1)/2 and (n+1)/2 for odd n, then that should maximize it, yeah. Idk of a place that has a proof written out for that explicitly tho, you may just find it in a section on bipartite graphs in a textbook
Yah I'm gonna read Rosen now
If we are given that a graph is k connected i.e. deleting any set of k - 1 vertices will not disconnect the graph , how can I go about formally proving that this also means that deleting any set of k - 2 or k - 3 ... Vertices will not disconnect the graph.
Trying to figure 1b) out here. The advice i've been given is to look for a bijection from the a_i to a different set of variables b_i which in some way forces a_j-a_i>=2j-i or makes more clear when it holds while maintaining b_1<=b_2<=b_3<=b_4 or something similar, but I haven't been able to do that so far. Does anyone have any inspiration on that front? Just looking for a starting point really
The question is basically how do you find 3 consecutive numbers divisible by a square number
x works because 2^2 | x, 3^3 | x+1
Adapt this to the case of 3 numbers
it was here
yeah i found it what i wanted
can i ask graph theory here?
yes
oh tnx, nvm i kinda get it already
Given a positive integer n, what's the number of nodes in the smallest directed graph such that there are 2 nodes A and B, and there are n paths exactly from A to B
(Acyclic) else infinite number of paths
What have you tried?
idk whether this will get me into oxford but i finished my boolean satisfiability solver which implements cdcl and converts boolean expressions into cnf form using de morgans law and tseytin transformations i've got some improvements that i can add but its going well so far
in c++
Probably not into Oxford on its own, no
ik not on its own but i think it maybe good enough for my personal statement
If you spin it right, i.e. how it's motivated you to learn more or how it's shaped your interests, then sure that can help
I have only constructions.
Construction 1: Fibonacci numbers
each one connected to last 2
it's known that each number can be represented as sum of distinct fibonacci numbers (zeckendorf for example)
so connect 7 to whichever ones you want to add
Construction 2: binary: each node connected to all greater nodes
there are 2^(n-1) paths from node 0 to node n
then connect node 7 to all previous nodes which have 1s in the binary representation
this seems to be the most space efficient, needing 1+ceil(log2(n)) nodes in total but I struggle to prove it
In a restaurant, four women and four men sit at one round table, on eight chairs
a circle on the same side of the table. Everyone has a random place
assigned. We speak of a match if there are two people of different sex next to it
sitting together.
(a) Determine the maximum number of possible matches and the corresponding probability of them
outcome. Note: This means no one of the same sex next to
sitting together.
(b) Also determine the minimum number of possible matches and the corresponding probability.
I think a is 2 * 4! * 4! / 8!
but if I do this I won't take into consideration it is a round table right?
@blissful path
@pale epoch ayo we got some ping spam it seems (in multiple channels)
surely it will improve if you ping me
Idk chief ur the mod
Least stubborn mathematician (part 2)
fr wait sharp actually has a life outside of #proofs-and-logic ?
Not much
please DM @graceful condor if u wanna advertise your server
I'm sure @ Moderators makes it get to them even faster
I mean by now pretty sure a mod would have checked this channel so
arguably yes
just keeping the joke going because I'm bored
i.e. launching modded minecraft
<@&268886789983436800>
not true
me oof
anyone free I need some help asap
bruh what is your bio (offensive)
questionable
pings mods then
i cant make head or tail out of it
idk, seems homophobic to me
Hieroglyphs
can anyone here take a look at this negation problem? #1142924371317489747 message
Don’t advertise it
Can we do this without Pigeonhole?
Why do you want to without pigeon
Because my book is supposed to cover it in a later chapter 💀
probably try induction then ig?
What have you tried
No idea yet
Also yeah finite means induct oftentimes 
How do i do it?
Well if he told you how that would basically solve the problem
Ye you're right
Ig I have to prove that it is true for all cardinality n?
Well, I suppose that would work
you could also use the image of f as a subset of B to show a contradiction.
how is the exercise true
take an edge x-y and sps x and y are not connected to anything else. Put x in some V_(i-1) and y in some V_i
what am I not understanding
Try to build such a partition. You'll notice that it basically forces itself to be a certain way:
If v is in Vi, then all its predecessors must be in V(i-1) and all its successors in V(i+1). It being connected means this process (which is akin to a graph traversal) naturally creates a partition (since we're assuming existence, everything works well). Then the first partition is indexed as V0 and that is it.
And from that it should be quite clear that it is indeed unique (most convincingly because it doesn't depend on the starting vertex)
ah wait the graph must be connected (?)
that is true if the graph were connected, but all it's stating is that the graph mustn't have an isolated point, so Croqueta's construction does follow that definition
It's unique for every connected component
But you could offset them between one another
You'd need to impose that for every connected component, V0 mustn't be empty
so then the exercise is false
or what definition of uniqueness are they using? because its not clear to me then. A partition is something that deals with sets
A layered partition is unique if for all layered partitions you could make, they'd be the same
i.e. have the same height, and same V0, V1, etc
above I show an example where V0 changes for two layered partitions
and I don't know what height means, if you could explain it, I'd appreciate it
the exercise is probably false, for uniqueness to exist one may assume that for each connected component, the very first outgoing edge must be between V0 and V1, so this solves the uniqueness problem, for examplein your sketch that would be the second option
h is the height. Doesn't make sense, but h <=> height to me
i.e. this
oh, btw must the graph be directed?
yeah alright, ty
yeah, the graphs are directed in the discussion
but it doesnt make any difference right? it is obvious that if it is directed then "goes" also implies a direction
if it were undirected it would be just in V0 hahahaahha not true nvm