#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 27 of 1
Kiameimon | Welt Rene (glomed)
so f is true
yes
but g is false because it's missing the equal sign
He probably means $\subseteq$
_daili
yes
honestly $\subseteq$ and $\subset$ notations are fucked up because some books mix them up 
Kiameimon | Welt Rene (glomed)
Kiameimon | Welt Rene (glomed)
Think of {empty set} as an empty box within a big box
The smaller box contains nothing but the large box contains a small box which is still considered something
think about how A and B are related so that each of these statements are true (or at least what sort of properties must occur for these statements to be true)
e.g. for (a), you already know that A is a subset of A U B, but if A U B = A, then what else must be true?
it may help to draw a picture of each statement
can you please tell me how
try to draw two circles representing sets A,B such that AUB=A
exercise 20 (a) is this correct?
For starters, the piecewise is the same for both cases, so it's a waste to do piecewise.
'onto' is focused on the codomain. So specify a codomain and make sure f doesn't map to all of it
Just to clarify what dackid is saying here: this function could equally have been written just as F(m) = m+1.
In your words @odd garden , what do you think 'onto,' commonly known as surjective, means?
well to be called an image you need to have a pre-image. so no, not quite
Yea, for every output, you can find an input that maps to it
It's really easy to make a map that is not onto, as you just make the whole space larger than the image (what f can map to)
yes but the questions get harder
Start with this one
so piecewise functions are easier i think
No, none of these require piecewise
And your function wasn't really a piecewise function, as it did the same thing in both cases.
So why did you?
Come up with your own function f : N → N that is not one to
one but is onto (Justify)
let's say this exercise
this is done using piecewise function
makes it safer to cover all possibilites
Well you're answer was one to one in that last one
I didn't see the N to N bit, and I can see how you can do this with a piecewise function
Got to be a bit more clever though. F(m)=m+1 ain't gonna cut it
in this one yes?
Yea
solution was using even/odd but you can make a piecewise function
You're piecewise did not work though
i'm not using my piecwise function ofc lol
Then why'd you ask if that was correct?
Here
for this it's correct
how is it not correct ?
It is, me missing the N to N bit was causing problems.
But
1: it's not piecewise, so don't write it that way, and
2: Justify why it works.
Okay thanks
I don't like math anymore
do i care?
Yeah.
Yes.
Yes -- if P=NP, then every language in P (other than the empty language and the language of all strings) is NP-complete.
Umm, yes, why wouldn't they?
If P=NP, then it simply isn't true.
Yes, for the third time.
That has nothing to do with the fact that if P=NP then there are plenty of finite NP-complete languages.
No, if P=NP, then every problem in P (except for the always-true and always-false ones) is NP-complete.
You definitely should say that you're adding an assumption that P!=NP, because unless that is true, the thing you're being asked to prove is false!
in the first line I can't understand where we got the 3
3(3an-2)
<@&286206848099549185>
its using the condition an=3an-1
bruh put an-1=3 an-2 in an=3 an-1
What are you confused about
Is this a good approach to seq probkems?
say you're given numbers a,b,c,d,e,___
and you're supposed to fill in the blank
- Consider the strict differences in the numbers
- Consider the strict factors from n to n+1
If neither the differences or factors follow any distinguishable subpattern
- Consider the some simple function f(x), such that f(n) = n+1
where f(x) is some first or second degree polynomial
(Ex: 2,4,6,10, ___ , f(x) = 2x-2
well step 1 will lead to any polynomial solution, so step 3 is redundant if you're trying polynomials again
hmm
rue
i just took a quant oa and i idiotically didnt have a paper out so it proved way too difficult to work it out in my head lol
the strict differences can make any sequence if you have the original sequence too btw, for instance powers of 2
cause these can arbitrarily make any sequence
so do you always start with strict differences?
well, the problem is these sequence questions are basically ambiguous
you can make a polynomial that goes through any n points you like to continue the sequence
Well that’s just saying it does halt on accepted inputs, and whether it halts on the others doesn’t matter
We have no idea if all A halt on some inputs (not all will)
But the ones in L definitely do and return 1 too
Well, it being RE is because there is an algorithm which will halt on acceptable ones
It’s still RE even if it halts with a negative outcome for all unacceptable ones
You just only need it for the acceptable ones
The 1 part is the important part
Since 2 is just saying it doesn’t matter what it does outside L
What might your algorithm be
Well, does this have an issue if A does not halt on an input?
Right, I do wonder if that might be an issue
That sounds hard to me idk
Considering turing machines aren't multithreaded, and definitely can't do infinitely many things at once, you need to be more specific about this.
Hint: the proof I have in mind is similar to the usual one that N^2 is countable.
I don't think the 2nd works (it needs to be a bijection)
Hello guys, does the Hackenbush game have a winning strategy?
Hint: let's consider a simpler problem. Fix an algorithm A. Can you show that the language of all inputs for which A outputs 1 is recursively enumerable?
Well, consider boytjie's smaller problem
Consider a single fixed A, how can you show that the inputs which return 1 through A are RE?
Can you find an algorithm which shows this set is RE?
Somebody wanna take a crack at this, I'm stuck
I have tried taking ratios, multiplying terms, taking sums and differences
Try convincing yourself that $\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} = \frac{1}{a}$
You can express 1/b and 1/c similarly as well
Convince yourself that 1/x - 1/z = 1/a - 1/c
Oh, i can see that 1/x + 1/y = (y + x) / xy
Ok, I've worked it out
i came up with x = (2abc) / (cb + ca - ab)
This means x is Rational, because it is a ratio of integers
Of course a, b, and c can''t be zero
Man, I knew it was something simple I was missing
shame on me
Without fail doing these problems always makes me feel so dumb
@haughty garden I thank you for the nudge in the right direction
well, can you think of a single TM which would halt and return a success on the inputs which A returns 1 on?
Also you didn't fix A, you did something like (A, x)
Well, I think we want to narrow it down to only the ones where A returns 1
yeah, true
well if you take 1 as the success, then congrats the set of inputs to A which returns 1 is RE
no?
you just need an algorithm which returns true for things which are in the set
anyone does turoting in this chat? I am having a HARD time wrapping my mind around basically everything except cipher. pseudocode is also a challenge.
*tutoring or a in person math group
We generally don't do tutoring in this server, but if you have a question, please ask
(Allowing paid tutor service advertisements tends to lead to scams)
hey guys. can you check my answer in a problem:
There are 100 points marked on the straight line. How many ways can 10
points be selected from them so that no two selected points are adjacent?
I ve got С(10,91)
can you explain how you got your answer?
other than the endpoints the other 98 points will have only 2 points adjacent to it
I mean at this point you wouldn't even need binomial coefficients to solve it
Oh nevermind I misread the question
Well for those 98 points, you would delete two points adjacent to it every time you select them, so your option for the next point reduces by 2
I tried to interpret this problem and decided to position some 'sticks' on 101 places. when I played with this construction I unnderstood that if I had positioned 10 sticks on 91 places I would have got the same result
the boundary case is annoying
yeah pretty well
so you wanna place 1 unit long sticks such that no two sticks share an endpoint?
don't you mean 5 sticks? Since each stick selects 2 points?
I might be misinterpreting you since that does select adjacent points
not exactly. i would rather say to place 20 stickson 101 place
to separate these 10 points
and this can be eventually simplified to placing 10 sticks on 91 place
if i am not mistaken
e.g. in this case i ve chosen 4 points from 10 and put 8 sticks on 11 places
how does this avoid picking adjacent points?
we can also simplify this picture and get 1010110 there 1 is two sticks construction and 0 - empty space
and when two '1' are adjacent that means that they separate two points separated by a single dot
this might work
and if we count these '1' we may get the right answer i hope
I would try drawing some counterexamples
ok thanks
You don’t have to do that, you just need to verify that it checks where at least one input spits out 1
Well, the set of inputs which A returns 1 on is RE
Yes, for any A, we have that {x input|A(x)=1} or wtv is RE
Well you can’t just blindly check every possible input
It’s gotta halt and return true for every A with such an input
The TM for each A = 1 input set is basically just, run A with x, then check if it is 1
Well this is just the TM for the {x | A(x)=1} set
We don’t know a TM for L
Are there any helpful properties of RE sets you might know
Well, do you know any nice properties of RE sets
Maybe checking your notes back for a handy property or two might help here?
You’ve had no prior exercises or lectures on RE?
This is clearly a question on homework (or worse)
it was graded alredy
Can literally see 0/5 top right
yes i got it wrong y im asking captain obvious
Well if you get a true/false wrong, that should be a pretty good hint as to the right answer 
and a great explanation from captain obvious again
Well, what exactly are you asking for then?
how about you read what i wrote this time and not just say something to say it
I’m saying if you already have a good idea what the answer should be, since it’s already graded
What exactly is the point of asking if it’s true or false
captain obvious obviously needs to go back to kindergarten to learn how to read
i was just asking why, ok, so if you cant explain it or do not want to then whats your problem?
So why do you think it is or is not ambiguous?
how to knoe if they are connected
well if a R b then a and b are in the same component
Hey @ivory badge , I don't know if you remember, but about a week ago I wanted to show that sin(n) is dense in (-1,1).
I wasn't in the right headspace at the time to understand it, but I am now. If you remember how you did it, do you think we could go over it again?
Oh yeah sure
Step one: We can turn sin from a function R->[-1, 1]=I into S^1 -> I
Because periodic
What is I here?
[-1, 1] = I
Ah, you're just naming it that.
Yeah because lazy
Lol, sure. I'm with you. And S^1 is of course the unit circle
Ye, specifically mapping based on the [0, 2pi)
I will note further, this is a homomorphism under addition
Hold on. what's the action happening in S^1?
Ah, so we're sending x to (cos(x),sin(x)). Got it.
Well, wouldn't a homomorphism under addition mean cos(x+y)=cos(x)+cos(y)?
Nope, because the homomorphism in on R->S1
Next, I showed we can get an integer k such that |k - 2npi| < epsilon for any epsilon, for some n
I know if you look at the unit disk in the complex plane instead, x in the reals map to e^{ix}, and that is indeed a homomorphism (under complex multiplication)
I'm having a hard time convincing myself of this
You used that dirichlet's approximation thing right?
Well ofc it’s true but yeah
There’s infinitely many integers p, q such that |q pi - p| < 1/q right?
| 2 q pi - 2 p| < 2/q
I'm not sure why this is
This is basically the theorem
Let me read the wikipedia article for the approximation thing real quick
Multiply by 2
You can get p/q with q<=N such that |x - p/q| < 1/N
Make N big
Something like that
Okay, now that I believe since the rationals are dense
You get the original N statement by pigeonhole I think
We get this
p is an integer
And we can make it arbitrarily small, so now we get sequence(s) of naturals where [n] -> [0] in the circle
Because we don’t need the sequence to approximate the sequence 2n pi, we just need each term to get successively closer to a multiple
Next, we approximated rationals by naturals
Why do we need to do that?
Well idk if it’s strictly necessary, but since we can get n ~ 0, and if we approximate rationals
And R->S^1 is continuous, we should be able to sort of chain these approximations to get n approximating arbitrary reals
To approximate rationals, we need to get |p/q + 2npi - k| < e for some n, for all e
We can get some natural approximations for 2npi less than f, so call that m_f
|p/q + 2npi - k| = |p/q + 2npi - m_f + m_f - k| <= |p/q + m_f - k| + |2npi - m_f|
*+2npi being an equivalence class-y kind of “for some n” thing
We can get k=a/b rational, |bp/q + 2nbpi - a| < 1/b right?
what is f here? I don't think it was established yet
|bp + 2nbq pi - qa| < q/b
Ah right, another epsilon whoops
Mix this with our m_f, so we get |bp + m_f - qa| < q/b + bqf
And we can make f low for any b
so why does this approximate rationals?
I think? Been a while since I remember the convoluted argument I used
Because we want a sequence of naturals which get [n] -> [p/q] in the circle
And we know rationals are dense
I mean how does this achieve that?
Well, we can get arbitrarily close to [0]
And that lets us take very large equivalence classes of p/q
So we can take arbitrarily large rationals a/b approximating it
And then multiply by b which is still fine because it was < 1/b^2
We’d get some q factor but that’s fixed, and f (from our approximation of [0]) can be made arbitrarily small too?
Pretty sure this is close to the kinda silly argument I used
I think I’ve mixed up the order of the approximations
Not gonna lie, you kinda lost me here. But I understand what you are trying to do. We can always find n such that [n] is sufficiently close to any [p/q], and that is what gives us that e^in is dense over the unit circle
But point is, [x+y] = [x] + [y]
And if our distance between x, y is small enough, then the distance in the circle is pretty similar. It’s not getting any larger I think
I understand what's being accomplished here. I'm going to take some time tomorrow and see if I can iron out the details myself. This has been helpful. Thanks sharp 🙂
So our approximations are essentially like d( [p/q] , [k] ) < d( [bp], [qa]) + small or smth
Then afterwards Valley came in something about how h(x) = x - floor(x), then h(nx) is dense in [0, 1] or something
So it’s an R/N thing, and you pigeonhole it saying two multiples are gonna be the same in the 1/n size sub intervals like (k/n, (k+1)/n)
And since you can do that for any n, you get nx - floor(nx) < 1/k so that’s your approximation when x = 2pi
And similar from there, which also has some caveats like how the density of h(nx) is uniform across the interval, whereas sin isn’t so much
Which is much cleaner @iron marsh
Hmmm, I'll have to take some time to unpack that one.
Right but I mean it’s pretty similar it just uses a different coloring
Still approximating things and I think you still need a diagonal sort of approximation? I forget
The natural approximation of things is still a lil tricky to make hit everything?
h(x+2npi) is gonna be dense too in a similar fashion so gg
homomorphism momento
I understand the idea for the first one, and I'll need to spend a little time tomorrow digesting the 2nd.
Either way, I understand the general idea of what we did.
yee, either way it still relies on getting n ~ 2pi
When I say we, I mean you. I contributed nothing here xp
Valley pulled out the h(x) one (and a short lil paper on it and its density properties)
Which is way more slick than pulling out the wacky double sequence and getting a cofinal thing in it 
Definitely. Seems like a pretty clever approach
I think if you take the time to organize your ideas, I think your approach would work fine.
You're definitely more 'think and type' then 'think, then type.' Hence why there's so many "or somethings" in your argument :p
What exactly is the Power Set? I'm getting mixed results when looking it up
Right, but it was also like, right when you’re like
One video said that given 2 sets A = {1, 2, 5} and B = {3, 4} that the Power Set would be the set of all Natural Numbers
“Hey how do I do this” “oh obviously it’s just rational approximation just uhhhhhhh…”
It did not, or it was wrong
Very likely, you misheard or misinterpreted what exactly was said
But the power set of a set X is the set of all subsets of X
If x in A implies x in X, then A is in P(X)
A website said that given {a, b, c}, P = {{a}, {b}, {c}, {a, b}, {a, c}, {b, c}, {a, b, c}, {∅}}
yeah, that is very different from {0}
Lol, yeah.
Definitely not a complaint btw. Like I said, you've been very helpful and I appreciate you taking the time to delve into this with me again.
0 = {} is common though
So is the website right
NOT a complaint. Shit... 😅
I mean a lot of it is just finding the right sequence(s) to show rational approximation is exactly what’s happening
“Yeah bro it’s one of these keys” and it’s an overpacked key ring
The Power Set being all unique combinations of the elements in all relevant sets
But the general idea is obvious
Haha I feel you there 😅
The power set is the set of all subsets
When it’s an infinite set, like N, then it’s a lil tricker than calling it combinations imo, since that feels like suggestive language
Those are the same
Exactly
That's what I was getting at
Idk if Combinations has a different definition in Set Theory, I just started learning about it
It is not just containing all the elements, combinations of 2 elements, of 3 elements, of 4…
Because that contains only finite subsets
And the union of them all is countable, which is a big problem with being a powerset 
Would't the power set of a continuous set be infinite
Btw dackid, consider P(X) countable and if there’s any issues @iron marsh 
The powerset of any infinite set is infinite
I think I get it, thanks for the help
Wait, what I'd do to get involved in this? 😛
because it’s a silly lil question
Especially consider when with choice
is injectivity enough for a function to have an inverse?
You require surjectivity as well
i see, i'm guessing we specifically want to say that, if f^-1 is an inverse, the codomain becomes the domain?
basically yeah
noted, thanks a lot!
It is enough however to get a function g such that g(f(x)) = x, but not the identity on the other direction
oh ok, ty!
I mean, should be fairly apparent how it could be done since injective guarantees uniqueness in the image
Surjective having a g such that f(g(x)) = x uses choice tho
You should immediately see why it implies surjective at least 
And injective => left-invertible requires excluded middle! (And is in fact equivalent to LEM if the set theory has full comprehension)
Good ol im f u (B-im f)
That it implies LEM (with comprehension) is incredibly funny to me
Yeah, though all those proofs involving "(some set theory stuff) implies LEM" are always odd to me since I'm not used to thinking about sets that look like {x | P} (with x not occuring in P), since they're not particularly interesting classically
The “we don’t really care about it classically” sets
I’m almost certain there’s a way to make this joke precise and correct
There’s probably some relevance to like wacky type-y stuff and related structures
Maybe that stuff looks less odd in a topos theoretic setting (I believe Diaconescu's original proof of AC => LEM was a topos theoretic one, instead of the purely set theoretic one that's on Wikipedia for example)
Right probably
In the same vein as the surjection related one being the category flavored choice
Topos would be like, intuistionistic logic at least, so checks out
Set theory without LEM sounds weird tho
It sure does
Type stuff seems less odd without it imo since there’s not like
Basing the whole thing around \in 
Going back to the injective => left-invertible stuff, I believe this works:
Writing {0 | P} for {x | x = 0 ∧ P}, we set X = {0 | P} ∪ {1} ⊆ {0, 1} and the inclusion i : X → {0, 1} is an injection.
Now suppose there was a g : {0, 1} → X such that g ∘ i = id_X.
If g(0) is in {0 | P} then P holds. If it's in {1} then g(0) = 1 and we claim ¬P holds, since if we assume P then 0 ∈ X and so g(i(0)) = 0, hence g(0) = 0, contradicting g(0) = 1
The whole P … contradiction therefore -P one
I’m not about to pull up something on constructive set theory to make sure this follows all the adequate conventions, looks close enough to me

They say that 3 does not divide it, and that 9 does not
well, is 5/3 an integer?
Or rather, is there an integer n where 5 = 3n
That’s what the bar means, and they cross it to say that they don’t divide
It is not
yes it a decimal
how did they know ut doesnt divide
how do i know that without guessing
because it is obvious to those who are more familiar with it
Also, if you can’t tell
a | b iff b/a is in N right?
If b=na, then b/a = n
i see but for this one how is it not the samw
what is s crocidle with aline under it mean
That is subset
If you do not know what that means, perhaps you should go back and review earlier sections?
ok but what the fuck is this problem
oh subset is related
$S \subseteq T$ is literally defined by $(x\in S)\to (x\in T)$ so why the fuck would they make you dance around this with ``indirect proof'' like what is this exercise in pointlessness
Ann
oh wait no
Contradiction
Yes?
It is 9
Not g
It is in T iff 9 does not divide it
So if it is not in T, then 9 does divide it
Might wanna go back to earlier sections and review a
...what's a "continuous set"?
something that does not belong in #discrete-math
Write the pseudocode for an algorithm that takes as input a list of n distinct integers and finds the location of the largest even integer or returns 0 if there are no even integers. procedure locate-largest-even ( a1, a2, …, an: integers ). Help me understand this please.
Please don't rely on chatGPT to solve math problems...
To check for even, this should be helpful:
Note that $n$ is even if an only if $\floor{\frac{n}{2}}-\frac{n}{2}=0$. You can use this as a condition to check to see if an integer is even.
dackid
In other words, dividing by two gives an integer
any useful language should have n % 2
Oh yeah, also mod arithmetic works 🤦♂️
are there any tips for these question, if the question is wether it's ture or not
how do I check quickly if it's true
because otherwise I am using half my time proving it while it was false
I know btw first is true second is false but how do isee it fast
What is P(A | A)
u mean P(A | AUB)
But familiarity is helpful
No I mean P(A | A)
oh a question to me?
Yes
1>
Right, it’s 1
but that is an easy one
uhm
well I can apply the definiitonb
but that won't help me I think
Try it holmes
holmes?
it's 1?
Well, try and work it out here
u mean it's correct?
P(A n (A u B)) / P(A u B) here, right?
Can you simplify this
ye ofc
Simplify A n (A u B)
P(A) / P(A u B)
P((A u A) n (A u B))
A n B is a subset of A
So A u (A n B) = A
Yep, that’s P(A | A u B)
ye, or equal
and also for second one
I know second one is false
but if I am gonna prove it
it wastes time
Because it’s clear if you think about how the P(|) is defined
A makes up a bigger portion of A u B than the whole set, heuristically
1 - P(A^c)
what is this
wait isn't A u B bigger
P(A)
Right
so how do I see it?
What’s P(A n B | A)
yes
but u divide by p(A)
so then it's not that easy to see
P(A n B) >= P(A)^2 is also still hard to see right
But it’s not immediately clear it’d be bigger, so you can try and show it false
oh so if u can't see a good way to prove it
u should check if it's false?
Well, if you don’t think it should be true
Then showing it false makes sense
How would you show this one false
well that is easy
but what is the usual way to choose
because I can just try some numbers
and adjust the number the way it will help my proof
is that good way?
If you think it shouldn’t be true then try showing it false
but that is hard to see as u just saw with second example idk if it's false/true
Well, do you think it should be true?
well I alr know the answer
ye I guess that makes sense
There’s no easy way to tell in general
Whether something is true or not
Just gotta think if it should be or not and proceed to try that direction
why is x or z colum like that
i dont get why its like that. i thought its x or z first x and z is both true. so why is it true
Is there a specific row you are confused by? When I go thru the columns for x and z and compare them to the column for x v z everything looks fine.
To be clear, x v z is true if either or both of x and z are true. So, rows in the columns of x and z that have a T under x, or a T under z or a T under both x and z will have T in the x v z column.
xor stands for exclusive or. A xor B means A is true or B is true but not both.
Here's some truth tables. The or table has 1 when A=B=1. The xor table has 0 when A=B=1.
Pretty sure you did it right, unless I'm miscounting somewhere.
You can just read through your adjacency matrix, for an undirected graph entry i,j of A has a 1 in it if there is an edge between whatever node corresponds to i and whatever node corresponds to j.
how did they know that it was the naswer
You can make an adjacency matrix in this case
But those sets in P are the sets where a, b are in X iff (a, b) is in R
You can also compute these out by hand. 1 only relates to itself so one of your classes is just 1. 2 relates to 3 and no other things relate to 2 or 3 besides themselves so another class is the set with 2,3 and so on.
For a bigger relation you might have lots of tuples to check though which can become unwieldy.
Because you might have some goofy thing like 1 relates to 2 relates to ... 1000000.
wait so i can make matrix out of this and see which ones connect?
You can also draw out the graph of the relation I think. Each equivalence class will contain all the nodes of a connected component of your graph.
See what I mean?
how to i read this so the answer is b
You mean option d?
yeah
Look at the bits that are all connected together
is the answer just a simplified version of it
List off the set of nodes in each one. Each of those sets is one equivalence class.
So for example one of the graphs has just the node 1, so one of your equivalence classes is the set {1}
Another one of the graphs contains the nodes 2 and 3, so one of your equivalence classes is {2,3}
The last graph contains the nodes 4 and 5, so your last equivalence class is the set {4,5}.
You see how I constructed these graphs from the given relation right?
yes that makes sense
Kk
Yeah, I may not be able to answer it though lol.
the answer only is theroy and i dont understand how he got them
What is your question about this?
Maybe I'm dumb but I don't see how A is correct lol
It isn’t
However ||g is surjective||
My hint for understanding this problem is try to work out A,B,D and E first. The rest is just definitions.
f can't be surjective by the reason just mentioned.
(Can you find a concrete example of this?)
i only know these definitoons with truth tables
f can't be injective because the floor isn't injective
surjective when the last column is all true right?
What?
but how to put in truth table
No, a function is surjective when every element of the codomain gets mapped to.
No???
As it says on the image, when the range = codomain
The image is wrong though
f is not surjective
For example consider floor(1) vs floor(1.5)
And to show it is not surjective, what value of x satisfies f(x)=1
So, is g injective?
Why or why not
i dont undersatnd
Do you know what injective means?
injective when truth table is all false
No
A function is injective when no two distinct elements of the domain map to the same thing.
Probably you need to review definitions first before you can make progress on this problem.
Is this the definition they gave you or just some diagrams to show you examples?
definition from notes
This doesn't seem very good for a definition 
Okay, well usually people define a function $f:A\to B$ as injective if and only for all $x,y\in A$, $f(x)=f(y)\implies x=y$. This is equivalent to saying for all $x,y \in A$, $x\neq y\implies f(x)\neq f(y)$.
dootdooter
The latter implication says informally that if x and y are different elements of the domain of f, then they map to different things when you plug them into f.
Mmm, do you know the bold arrow notation I am using?
It means implies.
A function $f:A\to B$ is defined to be surjective if for any $y\in B$, there exists an $x\in A$ such that $f(x)=y$.
dootdooter
All this means informally is that if I give you any y in the codomain (which is B) of the function f, then you can find me an x, where plugging x into f makes f spit out y (i.e. it makes f(x)=y true).
This one $\implies$ means implies.
dootdooter
and implies means : if this then that?
This notation $f:A\to B$ means f is a function with domain $A$ and codomain $B$
dootdooter
In other words f maps the set A to the set B.
So, $\to$ and $\implies$ are different arrows with different meanings.
dootdooter
Yes that is correct
:0
Ok English doesn’t seem like a first language here, but I’m curious what truth table you’re referring to tbh
i usually make a truth table but im not sure how to in this question
Yeah, for this kind of problem you won't always be able to build a truth table to solve things. Because you may have infinitely many elements in your domain, and you care about whether or not the propositions in the definitions for things like injectivity and surjectivity hold for all of them.
For example $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ defined by $f(x)=3x$ is injective, but to show it is injective you need to show this holds.
dootdooter
The problem with truth tables here is that you can't make a truth table with one row for every choice of x, there are too many real numbers for that.
i see so to see if its injective would i plus in the same number for both equations?
No
These aren't good examples for showing something is injective because neither f nor g is injective here.
You would say f(a) = f(b) and try to derive that a = b (which is false here, try a=1, b=1.1)
what is a and what is b
Are you familiar with proving "for all" statements?
not by the name
Mmm, okay well if I want to prove this
I need to prove this holds for my f(x)=3x
I can try particular cases like f(x)=f(y) implies x=y where x=1 and y=2 and junk, but that doesn't tell me enough information
Because the actual definitions for injectivity starts with "for all x,y" not for x=1 and y=2.
So you have to deal with x and y as general elements of R to show my f(x)=3x function is injective.
They’re arbitrary variables. If it works for any choice of a, b then it works for all of them at once
You assume x,y are real numbers, then you assume f(x)=f(y).
By definition of f this tells you 3x=3y, by algebra this tells you x=y.
So, then f(x)=f(y) must imply x=y.
ok so i do plus in a random number and if ther equal they are injective ?
Since this implication holds for any choice of x,y we know my f(x)=3x function is injective.
No that won't work.
The trick is to do with not actually specifying a particular value of x and y
Like, imagine I want to prove to you that all your friends like to read comics. And I do it by picking some friend of yours named jim who likes reading comics, but I ignore all your other friends.
Have I shown every single one of your friends likes reading comics?
no
Yep, what if you have a friend named sally who hates comics?
So, we have to pick elements of the domain of f in general here.
Then you use known properties of f and of the elements of the domain of f to prove f(x)=f(y).
are you trying to sleep?
I probably will get off here in a sec.
I understand iwill review what you posted and review the notes/fundemntals
thank you for the help
Try these: prove f from the reals to the reals defined by f(x)=3x+1 is injective. Prove f from the reals to the reals defined by f(x)=x^2 is not.
Can you show whether or not g in your exercise is injective, too!
The first one will be similar to my f(x)=3x proof. The second one you will need to find a counterexample to the definition of injectivity.
This is also a good example to try.
what about if L' isn't in P or in NP-complete?
also was this proof generated by chatgpt
we assumed that at least one intermediate language is finite (namely L), which is not the same as all of them being finite
if we assumed that all intermediate languages are finite and derived a contradiction, the result of that would just be that at least one intermediate language is infinite, not necessarily that all of them are
chatgpt doesn't know what maths is so when it generates text that looks like a proof it's generally nonsense that just resembles a proof, instead of an actual proof
yes
if you assume that an intermediate finite language exists, and get a contradiction, then that means no intermediate finite language can exist
yes
...the problem is that the reasoning it used to get a contradiction isn't actually correct
i also just noticed another problem, which is that for an arbitrary language L in NP, L' might not be in NP
it's definitely in co-NP, ...but it's actually unknown whether that's equal to NP
ok well yes, if L is finite then L' is definitely in NP
but that's because all finite languages are in P, and the complement of a language in P is in P
what does the 6 represent
{2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} has 6 elements
what does the 9 represnt
and chatgpt's reasoning in case 2 is definitely wrong
Case 2: L' is in NP-complete
This would also imply that L is in NP-complete because we can simply negate the output of the verifier for L'. This contradicts our initial assumption that L is not in NP-complete.
"we can simply negate the output of the verifier for L'" nope, if you could do that that would mean NP = co-NP
there are 9 places that you could put something in a string of length 9
L is finite so it is poly searchable
this is the correct proof of that statement btw
how did he know to do 7!
L is finite, therefore it's in P, therefore it can't be intermediate
because after placing 2 characters of a 9-character string there are 7 others, and we want to know how many ways those 7 characters can be arranged
are those two characters a and e?
...yeah that's the thing
it knows enough about what proofs "look like" to generate things that look like proofs, but not enough to generate actually correct proofs
yes
how do we know a is the first letter it can accept and e the last letter
"the first occurrence of letters (i.e. the leftmost letter) must be A, and the last occurrence of letters (i.e. the rightmost letter) must be E"
how did they get those ones
the 25 and 36 you already explained the rest i know
15
$\binom{6}{4}$ is the number of ways to choose $4$ things from the set ${2,3,4,5,6,7}$ which has $6$ things
bee [it/its]
to get that that's equal to 15 you would use the formula for n choose k, or just a calculator
,w 6 choose 4
@vapid drift شوف الخاص
where did the 2 come from
bee [it/its]
ah and 6-4 is 2
yep
thank you i will do the question by myself now i thanking you
Any set B and its power set B' have no element in common right?
consider B = {empty set}
okay but for every nonempty set B that is true, correct?
B is not empty
it contains a set that's empty, but it's not empty
by "{empty set}" i mean the set containing the empty set
haha
if B is the empty set then that's not actually a counterexample because the empty set doesn't have elements in common with anything (because it doesn't have elements)
are you saying that sets that contain sets aren't "normal"...?
don't cancel me for that pls
So, there is a set B, which has no element in common with its powerset
...yes, there is at least one set with that property
I went back by a lot
...by the way are you actually sure that 1, 2, 4 and e definitely aren't sets?
Why would you ask that? Is {1} equal to {{1}}??
no, because then 1 would be a set that contains itself and that can't happen (assuming that this is ZFC)
but 1 might be equal to {2}
or, probably more likely, it might be a set containing some other object that isn't a real number, like maybe 1 is the set containing the empty set
ah phew
although if this is ZFC then real numbers are definitely sets because everything is a set
Is that so!?
If you take an intro to set theory, you'll see it's the standard way of defining them
You have the empty set and everything is built from it
that sounds elegant. I'm hyped for set theory.
I've got the real numbers defined by using sequences and Cauchy-Stuff I think
alright so if 1 is some sequence... is a sequence a set? how did you define sequences? :)
I forgor, it's been some time :(
the reason that the real numbers don't "feel" like sets is that generally we don't care what the elements of 1 are
but they could still exist
"they could exist"? What could exist?
elements of 1
although in general if you have to worry about whether real numbers are actually sets you're generally doing something wrong (unless you're constructing the real numbers but in that case you know what the elements of a real number are)
"are B and the power set of B disjoint" is just a weird question to ask if B is a set of real numbers, the answer would not be meaningful or useful
I see
I am in fact a bit puzzled by an exercise
Let $A$, $B$ be sets and $f : A \rightarrow B$ be a mapping. The power sets of $A$ and $B$ are $\mathcal{A}$ and $\mathcal{B}$, respectively. We consider the mapping $g : \mathcal{B} \rightarrow \mathcal{A}$, $B' \mapsto f^{-1}(B')$. Show: \
(a) $f$ is injective if and only if $g$ is surjective.
Sciencenjoyer
...alright
what specifically are you confused about?
So I suppose B' is element of power set B?
i think f^-1 here is supposed to be preimage, not inverse
Heh I've already been through that. Was told not to assume an inverse exists in this server
$f^{-1}(B')$ is the set of all $a \in A$ such that $f(a) \in B'$
bee [it/its]
And we have clarified there exists at least one set B, which is disjoint with its power set
that's true but not relevant
No way
it doesn't matter whether B' is in B or not because f^-1(B') would still mean preimage and not inverse, that's just what that notation means in this case
ye
It may be the case that B and B' have no element in common. So if b is element of B and b' element of B' and f(a) = b, then f(a) !=b' for every a
B and B' definitely do have elements in common unless B' is empty
B' is a subset of B
But every element of B' is a set
...oh wait hang on the notation here is confusing
here we're using B' to represent an element of the power set of B
and the power set of B is $\mathcal{B}$
bee [it/its]
ok so yeah it might be true that elements of the power set of B are also not elements of B, ...but also it wouldn't be relevant
In that case g would map nothing though
because no f(a) would be equal to B'
that doesn't matter
because f^-1(B') doesn't mean inverse, it means preimage
we're asking whether f(a) is an element of B'
B' is an element already
...i don't even know what that means
everything is an element of something, why would that matter
lol I ment B' is an element of the fancy B (power set of B)
why would the power set of B be relevant here
we have f, which is a function from A to B, and B', which is a subset of B
here
and we write f^-1(B') to mean the set of a in A such that f(a) is in B'
why would it matter whether f(a) is equal to B'?
brr I am steaming
So I was looking at the definition of g
In order for its codomain to be nonempty there should be at least one f(a) = B', correct?
no
I dont mean the codomain but the value set
i'm assuming you mean "the set of values that can be outputs of g", and if you do then yes that's the range
yeees, thanks. Good to know
How could there be a preimage f-1(B') if no f(a) =B' exists?
because a preimage isn't an inverse
f^-1(B') means the set of a such that f(a) is AN ELEMENT OF B'
being an element of B' and being equal to B' are not the same at all
lol
As I already mentioned I am steaming a bit. Let me think a little ._.
Oh yeah that would be the case if B' was a set. Which it is
okay fine
Would the scalar number 2 be a subset of {{1};{2};{1,2}}? @fossil mural
well it would be if 2 = {{1}}, otherwise no
..."is 2 a subset of [...]" is a pretty weird question though
haha I realized it
I have an appointment now. I'll come back with a fresh mind sometime later
Thanks for now
Hello,
I am a newbie to the field of inferring preconditions and am trying to wrap my head around it. Currently, I am trying to do the questions given over here - https://www.cs.williams.edu/~freund/cs326/ReasoningPart1.html
In the following question -
x = x - 2;
z = x + 1;
{ z != 0 }
Why is this happening -
{ x != -1 } =====> Shouldn't this be x!=1
x = x - 2;
{ x != -1 }
z = x + 1;
{ z != 0 }
What is initial x
It can be anything ... imo
Can someone please help me come up with pre conditions for these equations -
x = 7*k+5
b = 2*a-6
y = 3*b+2
{(x + y) > mu}
z = x + y
{z > mu}
alright guys. i've asked a number of mathematicians what I thought was a basic proposition, but it turns out there's significant difficulty in my question. Is this the proper place to ask questions about projective geometry/algebra?
how did he know to add 21 and 4
tbh just ask the question
if this turns out to not be the right channel then we can tell you where to put it once we know what the question is actually about because we've seen it
I mean alot of numbers add of to 21
He wants 21 because the goal is multiples of 21, the 4 is what’s left
i see thabk you
how is this true
i understadn that when i plus in 1 for the firsdt one but the second one?
It is the inductive hypothesis isn’t it
yes
What don’t you get

does this mean if both x and y are true or one of them is true the answer is true
If either of X or Y is true, then X v Y is true
When both are true, that satisfied it
then whats the differece is it to this
That is an entirely different thing
That’s always true when Y is false
It’s only false when Y is true and Z is false
would the correct wording would be
like this
how would you say it like that
If Y implies Z?
Does it prove the final statement?
how would i know
Here is my question.
The projective harmonic conjugate uses this rule. I wrote a script to produce all of the whole/natural number possibilities on a number line. That is to say, if you make A=0, and solve for all whole number possibilities (I used python), the next picture is the coordinate locations on a number line that are valid for the remaining points. There are two valid solutions for every final value, because it works forward and backward.
I have found that every valid harmonic conjugate produces a length exactly half that of a pythagorean triple's perimeter. The first values, 0-2-3 produce 6 for the final value, which is 1/2(3+4+5) the first pythagorean primitive.
This process creates a value that is exactly half the perimeter of all of the pythagorean triples, and only creates these values.
--- Why??---
here's the python script if you care to follow up
This seems like a hint at a serious truth about numbers to me
anybody willing to say i'm at least not insane to wonder this?
Well do you have any notion of what it means to be a valid argument
Then go back and review
Do you understand why
If not, go back and review so you can see why the rows where they’re all 3 true are the important ones
oh that photo was from the notes
i still cant fin dthe patterm
can i see the original question
The pattern is all three are true, and those are the only rows where it happens
And it compares it to the truth of r, which is what they’re trying to derive
for this table?
never delt with matrix before
best bet might be posting it in #1021175428326633542
butt this is discrete math]
What does the degree sequence mean
i dont know
What do you think the critical rows are for it
Well try and think what they should be, checking your examples
What’s significant about the columns highlighted for the critical rows
they all are true
No
The columns
That’s is correct that the critical rows have all these three columns true
But that’s not what I’m asking, why is it those 3 in particular
That’s not why they’re important volume
They’re important because those are your P1, P2, P3 and r is you C for an argument
And you show that having all of them true means that C is true
wait how is their r my c
becuase they are comparing to r
What’s the connection there
The order of things on the table doesn’t matter
You want P1, P2, P3 all true to imply C true right?
Do review old notes some, though
sorry i know im dumb
Why did you just copy down the table
i circled the ones that are true
There are only two rows where P1, P2, P3 are all true though
yeah i circled them
So is C true on those rows
only one of them
for this one do i find the sum of all degrees and divide by 2
and if its odd it doesnt exist?
Well the sum of all degrees divided by 2 isn’t odd here, it’s 11/2?
is it supossed to be odd or integer the rule
Idk, check your notes
I meant check your notes on this part in particular
i figrued it out
But good
i couldnt find anything im just hoping it wont appear in 10 hours
Should’ve kept better notes fr
what makes something isomorphic?
I believe K and L have a different number of connected components, and that G_{1} has no vertex of degree 4
If I can map each point on the left to a unique point on the right, and send edges to unique edges between them
Essentially, if you can move the points around into the same shape, including the edges
Trying not to just give him answers and all, so as to help figure out why they’re the answers
why cant the answer be 8 and 7 why is it 5 and 7
There can be multiple pairs of elements
i dont know why i just asked that

