#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 10 of 1
oh is it {2, 3, 4, 5, 7}
Yes that works
yea i got confused with my conjoined green line. that makes alot of sense
Yes not a good way to draw it
It's pretty standard to draw these diagrams multiple times
Once to get the connections and then again until it looks good
why is it choose 6 gaps, shouldnt it be choose 5 gaps?
like take this example which is the same as above but smaller scale, if i choose two seperators i get 3 different aged kids,i dont choose 3 seperators
It says the sum of all 6 ages is less than 32, which is where the x comes in. So you're dividing 32 into 7 parts
In other words, choosing 6 out of the 31 gaps
ah isee, the x is just the remainder. thanks
So I’m a little lost in this class on evaluating a polynomial. They give us a polynomial function and some coefficients and tell us to evaluate it I’m so lost though
Also confused on how to connect polynomials to there summation form
this orbit stuff makes no sense to me..
how come it needs to be divisible by 3?
and i got no clue how they got those numbers
This relies on a fact called the orbit-stabilizer formula
Have you seen what stabilizers are ?
my only real understanding is its something you can do which keeps it the same as its identity
yes
A group action at its heart is just taking a set and defining a left-multiplication where you multiply by a group
So for some g in a group and x in a set, you define gx
And it satisfies the reasonable properties that if e is the identity, then ex = x
and ghx = (gh)x = g(hx), i.e you don't have to worry about brackets
Examples of "reasonable" group actions would be the set of all symmetries of a cube, acting on the set of vertices
Or the group of all permutations of [1..n] acting, well, on [1..n]
Anyhow, given x∈X, its stabilizer is the set of elements in G that keep it fixed, i.e gx=x
You can actually show this is a subgroup of G
But how is this linked to orbits? Well, the orbit of a point x is {gx, g∈G}. But it's likely that all of these g's don't give distinct elements of the orbit, there could be overlap.
To be more precise, what does it mean when gx = g'x ? Well, if you multiply by g⁻¹, you get that g⁻¹g'x = (g⁻¹g)x = ex = x. By definition, this means g⁻¹g' is in the stabilizer of x.
Writing this another way, $g'$ is in the set $g\cdot\text{Stabilizer}(x)$
Syst3ms
The formalism isn't all that important, the point is that for any element in the orbit, you can find many other ways of writing it. How many? As many elements as there are in the stabilizer.
lol i dont know if i should stop you because the conclusion might make sense but alot of that is just going over my head ngl
It's a lot to take in, but this explanation isn't a limited-time offer, either
If the orbit of $x$ looks like ${x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_n}$, what i'm saying is that there are exactly $|\text{Stab}(x)|$ ways of writing each and every one of these $n$ elements.
Syst3ms
And through all of these possible ways of writing, you come across every single element of G exactly once.
What you've done is divvied up the elements of G into n distinct packets, each one with the same number of elements. But that's literally the definition of |G| being divisible by n. You've just shown that the cardinal of the orbit divides the cardinal of G.
I'd prefer if we tried an example, just to cement the intuition
Let S_3 be the group of permutations of {1,2,3}, and let it act on two element subsets of {1,2,3}
So for example (1,2,3)×{1,2} = {2,3}, id×{1,3} = {1,3}, (1,2)×{1,3} = {2,3}, etc
you apply the permutation to each element of the set and consider the result
Let's take some element, say {1,2}. If you choose your pemutations well, it's not hard to see that you can get any other element, so its orbit is {{1,2},{1,3},{2,3}}
Now, what's the stabilizer of {1,2} ? Well, you obviously have the identity, that's a given. But you also have the transposition (1,2) that switches 1 and 2. It turns {1,2} into {2,1}, which doesn't do anything because sets aren't ordered. That's two elements in the stabilizer
Any other permutation sends something to 3 so it wouldn't work.
And now here's what I mean when I say the stabilizer gives us all possible ways of writing elements in the orbit
{1,3} = (2,3){1,2}, easy enough. But since we know the stabilizer, we know that (2,3)(1,2){1,2} = {1,2} as well
Likewise, {2,3} = (1,3){1,2} = (1,3)(1,2){1,2}
So we've divided S_3 into three groups of equal size, based on where they send {1,2}. Three is the size of our orbit !
That was a little application of the general thing i presented
The long and short of it is that the size of any orbit divides the size of the group, and that's what they used in the answer. I'm aware I talked a lot, so don't feel bad at all if you don't get it all at once.
okay, so even after you know that the size of the orbit divides the size of the group and to use the divisors, how do they get those answers?
Sure, let's try to construct an orbit of size 3 without knowing what it could look like.
Let's say it's the orbit of some set A, and for the sake of simplicity suppose that 0 ∈ A.
Adding 1 (mod 15) to element is the simplest (nontrivial) operation, and in fact you only need to look at this one
Adding 2 is just adding 1, twice
Adding 3 is just adding 1, thrice, etc
If we add 1 to every element of A, we get some new set B. Since 0 ∈ A, 1 ∈ B. Nothing scary here.
Since we want our orbit to be of size 3, we really don't want A = B, so A ≠ B.
Now let's do the same thing to B and get some new set C that contains 2. If we want an orbit of size 3, we have to have C distinct from A and B.
A contains 0, B contains 1, C contains 2. If we add 1 to C, it makes sense that we should end up in A to get a neat cycle, so A contains 3.
B contains 4, C contains 5, A contains 6, B contains 7 ... and so on
So A contains every multiple of 3, B every number that's 1 mod 3, and C every number that's 2 mod 3
So A = {0,3,6,9,12}, B = {1,4,7,10,13}, C = {2,5,8,11,14} and there you have it
So what you want to have is that to go from one member of the orbit to the next (in a cycle) you just add one
Quick question, please:
i see
For something of length 5, you'd cycle every 5 increments, so the first set would contain all multiples of 5
etc
And this gives you a very rigid structure on the orbits that aren't of length 15 actually
So something like {0,2} ? 2 isn't a divisor of 15, so that orbit has length 15.
can someone explain this to me?
i mean A is element of the power set of all natural numbers right, and n is element N.
What I dont rly get is the Gauss sum, like I have a specific n and I have a element A until a = n it sums up right
but how do i even sum up elements out of a power set?
cause im going to have elements like {1,2,3,...} right?
as theyre a subset of N
the powerset is the set of subsets, what you're summing are the elements of those subsets
not the subsets themselves
ok so
if i have n = 4
do i have the sum out of 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 3,4 4 and 1,2,3 1,2 1 and 2,3 and so on?
like theres no way thats less than 2n or what am i missing
no, what you're wondering is "for a subset A, if you sum all elements less than n, is it ≤ 2n ?"
For {2,3,4,6,7} this isn't the case because 2+3+4 = 9 > 8
But for {1,2,51665214} it is because 1+2 = 3 ≤ 8
ohh i see ty
and since A is element of the power set its also a subset of N right?
do you have an idea?
I've been told that it's "preimage map".
it is
though the usual notation for that would be $f^{-1}({y})$
Syst3ms
This is a countable set right?
As i could just do a bijection between every i in the set of N and 2^i?
Like mapping 1 with 2^1 and 2 with 2^2 and so on
Yes
Yes
How can I use this
To prove the upper set being countable or not?
Like I thought of somehow trying to use a bijection of a known countable set but I’m not sure how
Maybe I can use this lemma?
note that every A in S has to be finite
so S is a subset of the set of finite subsets of N
show that the set of finite subsets of N is countable
since every subset of a countable set is countable, then S is countable
@blazing rose
How can I show that?
Oh because the sum has an upper bound which is when a=n right?
i gave u some misinformation actually
Oh
Lochverstärker
those are languages
L1L2 would mean, a group with words where you take the beginning from L1 and the end from L2
ok, this is called concatenation
oh
so hmm
like
im pretty sure i know how to prove you can get from the left side to the right
but in order to prove they are the same, you also need to do it the other way around
and i have my doubts there
the other direction should be very similar
i know
i think the hardest part here is writing this down correctly
do you wanna see how i wrote one side?
yeah
ok
so lets say x is a word in (L1UL2)L3
that means the y (beginning of x) is in (L1UL2) and z (end of x) is in L3
that means (y is in L1 or y is in L2) and z is in L3
that means (y is in L1 or z is in L3) or (y is in L2 and z is in L3)
that means (x is in L1L3) or (x is in L2L3)
that means x is in (L1L3UL2L3)
thats it
there is still a typo here
other than that, this is correct
typo?
ah yes
its and in the first bracket
its a type
typo
that proof is good right?
ok
i think you are already done
the other side is problematic to me though
but you need to show it to both sides no?
you do
but heres the problem
i dont think so
because
lets start it
x is in (L1L3UL2L3)
(x is in L1L3) or (x is in L2L3)
now heres the problem
adding them now is problematic i think
because i dont think you can gurantee that y1=y2
what you can do is split into two separate cases
perhaps the beginning and end for x are different in the different brackets
i tried that
case 1: (x is in L1L3)
then x is of the form yz with y in L1 and z in L3
but then y is certainly in L1UL2, right?
and thus yz = x is in (L1UL2)L3
sure
im trying to think what your issue is and it seems like its dealing with both cases at once
perha
perhaps
you see, what i did was then this
(y1 is in L1 and z1 is in L3) or (y2 is in L2 and z2 is in L3)
and then i got stuck
ok, you can do this
but then you have to consider two cases again
you have to show that y1z1 is in (L1UL2)L3
and then show that y2z2 is in (L1UL2)L3
you need both
the x you started with
you dont know in which of those sets it is
you know that its in one of them or both
so to be sure you have to check both
yeah but i couldnt reach a form where y1and z1 or y2 and z2 were in the same position
what do you mean in the same position?
lik
position them so i can get something like y1 is in L1UL2 and z1 is in L3
wait
it boils down to what i did above
yeah
i was trying to do logical tricks that were too complex
like adding disjunctions
yes
i can just add the U to both sides
and get that x is in (L1UL2)L3 or x is in (L1UL2)L3
and that would solve it
that made a lot of order in my mind now
because there is another question which is the same, except with upside down U
and one side is possible to do, but the other shouldnt be possible since the groups shouldnt identical
sets
hmm
so you cant just do one side and say "just do the same but backwards"
the fact you can add U is the trick to the opposite side that doesnt work for the other question
thats the difference
might be that sometimes one direction is slightly more work
but tbh if you consider cases, it should work
i mean sure, thats also true
but if you are asked to show equality, then you can be sure its possible
which is why you cant just finish one direction and get out easily by saying "just do it backwards". sometimes you cant
this question was, prove or deny
this was the next question
they arent equal
but im pretty sure you can do one side. from left to right
let me think for a second
i already know they arent the same
i found an example
L1=(ε,a)
L2=(b)
L3=(ε,b)
ε is an empty word
in this example, the left side is empty
the right side is b
one side is possible to prove (left to right) because the right side contains it
but the opposite side cant be done
ye
in the last question, our trick was to add U
in this one it doesnt work because we need upside down U
how would u prove that k3,3 is not planar
you would do it by contradiction i assume ?
If it were planar, then Euler’s characteristic formula tells us that V - E + F = 2 where V is the number of vertices, E is the number of edges, and F is the number of faces (enclosed regions)
Vertices and edges are easy to count
So you just need to show that the number of faces contradicts the formula
ohh ok ill give it a try
so F = 1 wich is wrong so contradiction how would prove how many faces k3,3 actualy has ?
Think about how many edges you need to form a face/region
The K_{3, 3} graph has a very particular structure
so it having 1 faces dose not make sense beacsue it is bipartite ?
It certainly does not have 1 face. Note that your graph is simple so 2 edges aren’t enough; in particular, 4 edges are required to form a face because it is a bipartite graph (hence requires an even number of edges to form an enclosed region)
So every face requires 4 edges. But each edge forms a side of exactly two faces
ohh i understand
Once you deduce that, the contradiction becomes apparent
thanks for ur help
i think i get it completely now i also did the calculation above wrong, so F = 5 but k3,3 requires 4 edges to make a face so 4F and due to boundries between to faces it must be 2F edges wich would require 10 edges
Yep
what is 7C(3=35)??? formatting error?
i thought it would be 7C3 * 7C4 because unlike the first example, it matters what team you are on for the number of combinations
Once you have chosen one team, the other is automatically determined
i see, thanks
hi, i hv a question:
if i have a graph G and G1 =(V, E1) and G2 = (V, E2) are 2 distinct DAG of G, how can i show that there exists an edge s.t. if i reverse said edge from the set E1\E2 from G1, G1 remains a dag?
anyone can explain how to find the upper bound and least upper bound in a Hess Diagram
How does one approach question 2?
Hint: consider remainders modulo 6.
A stronger hint: ||If p > 3 is a prime, then p is either 1 or 5 mod 6.||
Even simpler is to consider remainders modulo 3.
Is there a mathematical formula which proves that one node has a degree too high compared to the other degrees of nodes in a degree sequence?
So just give an example of a false connected graph?
Can anyone help me with this?
I don’t have a good approach I guess
My thought was saying the set of 2^i is in S, but there are also elements in S for which 2^i is not the case
Therefore since the cardinality of 2^i set and the set of all natural numbers is the same and they’re both finite and countable, S has more elements and is therefore uncountable
But I’m rly not sure If I’m thinking right here
You've said some correct things that almost give you a proof if you put them together in the right way, but also some wrong stuff which I have a hard time parsing (certainly $\mathbb{N}$ is not finite!)
Here are some collective ideas that might help you with a proof of $S$ being uncountable:
-
To prove $S$ uncountable, it is sufficient to prove that there is injection from $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})$ to $S$ (can you see why?)
-
The hint provided you with the set ${2^n\mid n\in\mathbb{N}}$, which you noticed is in fact in $S$. It might be a good idea to stop here and prove an intermediate Lemma that tells you that all subsets of members of $S$ are also in $S$. The upshot here is that this tells you that not only is ${2^n\mid n\in\mathbb{N}}$ in $S$, but also all of its subsets. Allowing you to conclude that $\mathcal{P}({2^n\mid n\in\mathbb{N}})\subseteq S$.
-
This shifts our focus to finding an injection from $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})$ to $\mathcal{P}({2^n\mid n\in\mathbb{N}})$. You may provide another Lemma telling you that any injection from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ gives rise to an injection from $\mathcal{P}(X)$ to $\mathcal{P}(Y)$. This would boil down the problem to pointing out an injection from $\mathbb{N}$ to ${2^n\mid n\in\mathbb{N}}$, but certainly the map $n\mapsto 2^n$ provides you with such an injection.
At that point you just have to plug things together to get an injection $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})\rightarrowtail\mathcal{P}({2^n\mid n\in\mathbb{N}})\hookrightarrow S$.
sorry gotta edit some stuff, writing latex without IDE is pain
Neverbloom
what is the difference between injection and bijection again?
am i not showing that there exist bijections between these sets?
bijection is also surjective
between which sets? and what is your definition of a set being countable (just to be clear)?
ohh right
I thought if a set is countable there is a bijection between the set of all natural numbers and that set
but it is injection instead i guess?
that is why i asked, usually one would call such a set (i.e. one in bijective correspondence with the naturals) countably infinite (or denumerable)
just "countable" usually then means "finite or countably infinite"
its best if you check your notes (or book or script) for the definition
yes this is the case
as the script says
ok i understood injection now good
ok this definition does make things slightly less obvious as to why i started by telling you that it is sufficient to show the existence of an injection from P(N) to S, so let me clarify
there are a lot of equivalent definitions of countable (in the "finite or countably infinite" sense)
one of them is that a set S is countable iff there is an injection from S to N
ok i got that but dont i have to proof then that there exists and injection from my set S to the set of all natural numbers?
That would mean that S is countable, but we suspect that it isn't countable
ohh
so the last line here with the double injection shows that?
Well if you have two injections and you compose them together then you get another injection
yea that i got
i just dont understand how that proves S is uncountable
is it because i couldnt create an inverse injection from S back to the other power sets?
Ok, let's take the proof above as just saying that there is an injection from P(N) to S
To prove that S is uncountable you suppose it was countable and try to arrive at a contradiction
Now if S was countable we'd have an injection from S to N
yes
Our proof above gave us an injection from P(N) to S, our assumption just gave us an injection from S to N
Composing those two together would lead us to an injection from P(N) to N
I hope that your class has already covered this, because that basically contradicts Cantor's theorem
yes okay
yea nah we didnt have that but i watched a video abt it
I was just not sure how to use that theorem here but now everythings cleasr
tysm!!!
Problem looks interesting, but how would I formally prove that the hint set is a subset of S
As in a while
ah makes sense, these things take a while sometimes
Did you identify a set?
I have no idea how to visualize that or write that down tho
You could say it's the set of all strings of length n, over an alphabet of 12 characters
Right
or just consisting of 12 letters, you get the idea
Then u use an identity? To get the result?
You're required to give a combinatorial proof
using an identity would be algebraic
a combinatorial proof is saying both equations are counting the same thing
Oh I see
For example
Here's a losely worded combinatorial proof I wrote for this
wait before that, do i need to provide a proof that 12^n is equal to the cardinality of S
The equation on the left, which we know is the cardinality of our set, is the number of all possible such strings
I mean it should be trivial
but you could write a line for that, I'm not sure how this would be graded
So, back to our proof
it'd be 1 + something
try writing that out in ( ) + ( ) + .... + ( ) form, without simplifying the combinations
so the first term is ${n \choose 0} 11^0$
Franz
You might find some algebraic identity, but that's not what we're looking for
You don't need to expand it if you can visualize the sigma itself, but it usually helps
What we're looking at is
$12^n = {n \choose 0} 11^0 + {n \choose 1} 11^1 + ... + {n \choose n} 11^n$
Franz
See if you can count the same set, with the equation on the right
without going into any factorials
Let me know if you come up with a plausible explaination, or need a hint
im just trying to figure out what the conditions are for a combinatorial proof
oh
and i've got that down now
but i dont know where the 11 comes from
or how to derive that
Just as an fyi, you can find most of these online
definitions, I mean
From wiki -
In mathematics, the term combinatorial proof is often used to mean either of two types of mathematical proof:
• A proof by double counting. A combinatorial identity is proven by counting the number of elements of some carefully chosen set in two different ways to obtain the different expressions in the identity. Since those expressions count the same objects, they must be equal to each other and thus the identity is established.
• A bijective proof. Two sets are shown to have the same number of members by exhibiting a bijection, i.e. a one-to-one correspondence, between them.
what we're doing here would be the first kind, counting. I've only encountered bijective proofs in set theory.
I suppose, a hint, then
Notice the series goes from (n 0) to (n n)
and the only thing we know regarding n, is that it's the length of our string
so each of these terms, are choosing 0, 1, ..., n letters from the string
could you explain what you mean by this
like it counts the subsets of s that choose 0 letters
all elements of s has 12 letters
so it doesn't help to consider taking subsets of less than n letters
yeah
how do you mean subsets of s that choose 0 letters?
wait so i just say (n n) means a particular symbol is in n places
then that leaves no room for the 11 other symbols
so 11^0
That's how I worked it out
then multiply them? is that allowed in combinatorial proof?
multiply?
like (n n)11^0
Oh, okay so you can convert (n 0) to (n n) and write basically the same proof
and I see what you're getting at here
It's usually best to not swap this in a combinatorial proof, if possible
Instead of taking (n 0) 11^0 = (n n) 11 ^0
and saying (n n) means a particular symbol is in n places
You'd say there are 0 letters that are not this particular symbol
so (n 0)11^0 counts the number of the other symbols
im writing a proof like that right now, but it just seems hard to justify that its a count
and each of those symbols, can take 11 differnt values
Say I have a function f.
It takes in elements x from a set of sets X.
And for each x it returns another function that takes in a single number and returns a tuple of natural numbers that are |x| long. How would I specify the type signature of such a function?
Something like f: X —> (N —> N^k)
But I'm not sure what the appropriate notation is to specify k in an unambiguous manner.
I could instead specify the codomain as the union over k in N of N^k but I suspect that may be more confusing/less clear than if I could indicate what I was trying to get at.
first you can take a special symbol 'y' and take x_1 to x_11 as the rest of your symbols
Then, consider a string that has r letter 'x_n's (for n = 1 to 11)
(n r) gives you the number of ways you can place the r 'x_n's in n places
and 11^r gives you the number of possible values an ordered set of r 'x_n's can take
(or I guess more formally, the total number of such sets)
So, (n r) 11^r is counting the total number of ways you can arrange and assign values to, a string (in S) that has r 'x_n's
sum that up from 0 to n and you've got the total count □
okay, I'm off to watch season 4 of the dragon prince
that was excellent thank you
couldn't you just write $f: X \rightarrow (g:N \rightarrow N^{|x|})$
Franz
wait I see the issue here
Oh, there one thing I noted reading my proof,
You want to write "consider a string that has exactly r letter 'x_n's " (though it seems evident from the proof)
since by "r" we could be saying 'at least r' or 'exactly r'
Consider an infinite set $T$. For each finite subset $S \subset T$, suppose that the set $K_S \subseteq \mathbb R$. Define $K = \bigcup_S K_S$, where $S$ runs through all finite subsets of $T$. Is it true that $K \subseteq \mathbb R$? My intuition tells me yes because, if $x \in K$, then there exist some $S \subseteq T$ such that $x \in K_S$. But since $K_S \subseteq \mathbb R$, it follows that $x \in \mathbb R$. I just want to get a sanity check here. Thanks!
lots of stuff going on here, but yes $\bigcup X\subseteq Y$ iff $\forall x\in X; x\subseteq Y$
Neverbloom
Can someone give me some hints to this? :
Let D be a digraph on 2022 vertices. We want to order the vertices of D, from left to right, say v1,v2,...,v2022 so that every arc of D is form vi to vj with i<j. What is the necessary condition for having such an ordering ? Suppose the condition is satisfied then explain a way for finding such an ordering.
I am so confused on how to do any of this
what does id_A and id_B mean?
Beats me
._.
It doesn't say lol
where's this from?
okay I think I might have a solution, not sure if it would fit the notaton / definitions though
Anything helps, I'm starting to understand how the two-sided inverses would work
Same here, so g o f (a) = id_A means g o f (a) = a for all a in A
basically the identity function on A
hihi,
New to discrete mathematics, where exactly does the empty set come from in the second question?
List at least 4 elements of P(*b*)
definition of the power set
The empty set, to my understanding, is just always added to a power set incase nothing from the original set exists
since the empty set is a subset of any set
Ohh, I haven't covered that. Thank you so much! I'll go read up on that now :)
Alright, for (b) wouldn't the answer just be 4 since both sets only have 4 values?
so back to this right here, if we go by the example (2, 3, 3, 47) is in A but not B, we can kind of see how a very nice bijection would look
Correct
4 values but you need to use combinations on choosing 4 values for x's
sooo did you get it
I think I got A, for B its just adding up all the possible combinations?
mhm
It's easier to calculate for set B than A, because there are no duplicates
1 - 53
Oh yeah
how does your function look?
This is probably completely wrong, but I did this because they were inverses
f: A -> B, n -> n^2
g: B -> A, n -> sqrt(n)
now that i think of it this is probably completely wrong
pretty much
like you need a bijection
so you need to map all elements in A, to all elements in B
and having to be two sided inverses
I guess I have no idea what I am doing
try a simpler case
lower the 50
to like, 1
and lower the 53 to 4
If you mess around with it you'll see it works for any n and n+3 in place of 50 and 53
f: A -> B, n -> n+3
hmm
Well then you cant get 1,2,3
could you write down one element in A?
A = {1}
Wait a second
each element is 4 values
A = {(1,2,3,4)} would be one element then?
Is that the only element?
No there would be many more elements as long as the 1 <= x1 <= x2 ... is followed
You seem to know how a power set works, so I'll assume you know set theory
so your notation $A = {(1,2,3,4)}$ is wrong, here you're saying this is the only element in A
You want to say (1,2,3,4) is an element of A, or $(1,2,3,4) \in A$
Franz
Correct, I didn't meant to say (1,2,3,4) was the only element
Alright
back to the matter at hand, if we take 1 and 4 instead of 50 and 53
what would A and B look like
A = {(1, 1, 1, 1)}
B = {(1,2,3,4)}
can you think of a function (expressed algebraically) that maps A to B, and another from B to A?
actually let's go for 2 and 5 instead of 1 and 4, to make it clearer
A = {(1,1,1,1),(1,1,1,2),(1,1,2,2),(1,2,2,2),(2,2,2,2)}
B = {(1,2,3,4),(1,2,3,5),(1,2,4,5),(1,3,4,5),(2,3,4,5)}
I am not sure what function would do that, maybe f(a) = b just matching one to one?
try constructing tow-sided inverse functions f and g for these two sets
your function would have a tuple as an input, so you have f((a,b,c,d))=
f:A → B, and g:B → A, for this paricular example
So in this case it would just be f: A -> B and g: B -> A? Matching each tuple to the tuple of the same position of the other set?
Yes, but you couldn't say "In the same position", since we don't have an ordering defined
so your job, is to define a function to do that
(mapping, not the ordering)
and it's not obvious the number of elements are the same for our original case (50 and 53), hence why we are required to find a bijection
I'm trying to think of a function that would do that but I have no idea
Think of what makes greater than or equal to, different from strictly greater than
Greater than or equal to can have the same values when strictly greater than cannot have duplicate values
if we take tuples that have x_1=10 in our original problem, what values can x_2 take for elements in set A, and set B?
assume y_n is also x_n since the definition remains the same
In set A, x_2 can take 10 thru 50 and in set B x_2 can take 11 thru 53
what values can x_3 take? x_4?
So set A, x_n can be x_(n-1) or greater
._.
hmm, this is wrong
can x_2 really be 53 for B?
I guess x_2 could only go to 51 for B
mhm
and for x_3, In set A it can take 10 through 50, but for set B it's 12 through 52
x_4, same values in A, but 13 through 53 for B
I see the pattern, but don't know how to make a function out of it
consider what kind of sets are unique to A and B
So for set B, lets say back to the original function,
49+ n >= x_n > x_n-1
the max value (not a rigorous definition) a tuple from A can take is (50, 50, 50, 50) and for B it's (50, 51, 52, 53)
the minimum, is (1,1,1,1) vs (1,2,3,4)
and I'm using maximum and minimum very losely here
Understood
could you explain what this is?
For set B, just what the next value of x_n would be
Don't know if that has any use here, but I wrote that out
but the reason I pointed it out, is just to notice the +1 pattern here
hello I have a quick question, It it true that ceiling(x+y)=ceiling(x)+ceiling(y)?
c(4.2) + c(4.2) = 10
c(4.2+4.2)= 9
I assume that's what you mean by "ceiling"
so now, we noticed the +1 pattern
So we can construct a nice function $f((x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4))=(x_1,x_2+1,x_3+2,x_4+3)$
Franz
Ohhh
You're not required to prove this spans the whole of A and B but like, it's true
So if that is the function from A -> B, would the function B -> A be
$f((x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4))=(x_1, x_2 - 1, x_3 - 2, x_4 - 3)$
Mini
going by what's asked in a), if you construct a suitable g, showing f o g and g o f are identity functions suffice
my bad
okay! we have a nice function for part a, and you see this is in fact a bijection?
So could I just write it like f: A -> B, $f((x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4))=(x_1, x_2 + 1, x_3 + 2, x_4 + 3)$
Mini
yeah
and you'll see $f o g (x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4) = g o f (x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4) = (x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4)$
Franz
which is the identity dunction we needed
Ok, got it 😄
So that's most of the heavy lifting, now we need to use combinations to find the number of all possible y values for B
have any ideas?
So for B, you can have a max of 50 different numbers in each spot of the tuple
And the same goes for A
So would it be 50^4 different combinations?
Thank you for your time by the way, my professor does 2 lectures a week and doesn't explain anything
Yw, I'm just bored and I should be doing Analysis problems rn
the tuples are ordered
There's a reason they ask you to find the size of B and not A
Oh yeah
it becomes more nuanced when you can take two or three of the same value, but it's pretty easy to calculate when they're 4 distinct values
what class is this btw?
I'm confused why the total amount still wouldn't be 50 x 50 x 50 x 50 even if ordered, cause the first value can be anywhere from 1-50, the second can be 2-51, the third can be 3-52, and the fourth can be 4-53
well if the first value's like 50, the other 3 values are fixed
Correct, but thats just one combination
If you take 50^4, you're saying there are 50^3 combinations for EACH of the 50 first values
Hmm
Oh
we can use this ordering to our advantage
I'm just confused about how you would count them all up because if x_1 is 49, there are only 5 combinations but if x_1 is 1, there are many combinations
say you took some 4, distinct, numbers in the range of 1 to 53 at random
53 choose 4
How many ways can you arrange such a selection, into y1 y2 y3 and y4?
If the order of those doesn't matter than 53 choose 4 to the power of 4?
In the context of our set of tuples B
I do not know
Well it would be 53 choose 4, but then you need to take out all the combinations in which are not ordered
Prove that if m|x and m|y then m|(ax+by)
consider a single selection of 4 distinct numbers, in the range of 1 to 53
in how many ways, can you fit those 4 numbers into y1 y2 y3 and y4
(4,6,32,51), 1 way?
o_o
never mind, that makes no sense
So if these are the 4 distinct numbers, there are only 1 way to put them
Do something with this, and ^
I'm stuck
uhhh, what've you got so far?
Nothing, I'm just trying to think about it and don't know how you would do that
Is it not just 53 choose 4 combinations?
It is .-.
..............
............................
so there's 53 choose 4 ways to select 4 distinct numbers, and only 1 way to arrange each
you can see how this'd be complicated if we had the equality (ie the case for A)
I was thinking of like 53 choose 4 minus something to take out other cases, but there is only 1 case per
mhm
Damn
but since we spent like an hour constructing a bijection from B to A, we know their cardinality is equal
Hey, I really appreciate your time and help. I have probably already learned more from you than my professor. He has like a 1.4 star on ratemyprofessor but he's the only one who teaches it and its required for my CS major.
glad I could be of help
That took nearly two hours, I kinda feel bad now that it took so long
It was fun to work through the process though, wasn't it?
It was, thank you for having me do that. I'm now starting to think of how this stuff actually works rather than just being given an answer and not knowing how any of it works
There are some great channels on youtube, that've made playlists explaining some of this stuff
You have a playlist you recommend?
Two channels I've found to be very helpful, are Neso Academy (mostly CS) and The Bright Side of Mathematics
3Blue1Brown has some great explanations of Calculus and Linear Algebra, if you haven't watched those already
Neso Academy has a great introductory playlist for Discrete Mathematics, tho I haven't come across a problem exactly like this
I will definitely check them all out! Haven’t gotten to linear algebra yet but will definitely be useful in the future. Again, I can’t express enough how much I appreciate all the help and teaching you have given me.
you're most welcome
Linear Algebra has some neat applications in CS
I guess it's time I stopped procrastanating on these Analysis problems
have a great day
Neat! I’m a first-year with past CS experience but haven’t even able to apply any math to anything or do any complex applications. I’m excited to move further with my degree.
You too, have a great one!
Linear Algebra surprisingly (or not surprisingly) has some neat applications to combinatorics which might be of interest to computer science students; in particular, if you want to get into extremal combinatorics (incl. extremal graph theory), you'd be exposed to quite a fair amount of linear algebra
I've got a midterm tomorrow, can someone explain to me what is happening here?
I think that is the middle term because the 3rd summation became -30
but I have no idea how these are being broken up
Do you mean how they got the second line from the first line?
Or how you compute the sums?
no, how the sum(i=4)(9) i became 2 sums
Observe that [ \sum_{i = 1}^m a_i + \sum_{i = m + 1}^n a_i = \sum_{i = 1}^n a_i] in general. In other words, [ \sum_{i = 1}^3 i + \sum_{i = 4}^9 i = \sum_{i = 1}^9 i]
You can think of it as grouping the sum: 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 as (1 + 2 + 3) + (4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9) and then subtracting one to get the desired sum that you wanted
Interesting, is there a reason why it was broken up like that? Easier to compute?
there's a well-known formula for the sum of the first n integers
namely, [ \sum_{i = 1}^n i = \frac{n(n + 1)}{2}]
Ah yeah the closed formula
Yeah, they basically just exploited that formula
New question, Where did the 19 and 7 come from in the numerator, and 6 in the denominator?
Are you familiar with the closed formula for the first n squares
is that the one for i^2?
yes
n(n+1)(2n+1)/6
Alrighty that makes a lot of sense now. Appreciate it
hi, the question is to make f R→ R x → |x| bijective and find f ^−1 1) I got ̃f : R+→ R+ : x → |x| for the first part and was wondering if that was also correct.
- For the second part I got ̃f^ −1 = R+ → R+: x → |x|, because I thougt you had to do: |x|=y and then solve for x to get ̃f^ −1 witch is just |x|=y again, so I dont understand why its not just that
correct answer: ̃f : R−→ R+ : x → |x|, ̃f^ −1 = R+ → R−: x → −x
i need help with these colouring questions
i get a), thats straight forward
b) i dont understand, a triangular prism (no a pyramid) can be rotated horizontally, but we need to consider it being rotated vertically as well? thats kind of where i get lost i think (although im not good at determing how many colourings a horizontal move would need - its based on duplicates i think..).
c) makes sense, they flip across the orange lines so there will only be 2 faces which can change
but the base of the triangle also doesnt change, so isnt it 3 colours, not 2?
d) i dont understand how they get 8 or 3 do that final calculation
@spark silo what is this talk of a triangular prism? you have a triangular PYRAMID, not a prism...
yea u right, fixed that
and you are explicitly asked to fix ONE order-3 rotation and consider what colorings get fixed by THAT rotation.
i dont understand, how do you know what colorings get fixed?
and what do you mean fix one? are you saying you only consider R(90) but ignore R(180) or R(270)
what's R(90)?
oops i mean R(60) or R(120)
what's R(60)?
but the amount of degrees you rotate it?
the tetrahedron does not possess any 60-degree rotational symmetry.
it does have one that rotates 120 degrees though.
but yes, you take one such rotation and ignore the others temporarily. (the rotations cannot be described by a number alone anyway, there's multiple different axes of rotation...)
and think about what faces would have to have the same color for the coloring to stay the same after rotation.
im trying to understand why there is a 120 degree symmetry but not 60?
obviously the base of it will always be any colour and it would be the same after rotate
but rotating 60 degrees will need one colour to be the same for all 3 sides - idk how to think of this other then using a diagram and trying to rotate into the same colours
120 degrees however would be the same... like if u replace the B (Blue) with R(red) rotating by 120 still doesnt give the same orientation of colours
im trying to understand why there is a 120 degree symmetry but not 60?
one-third of a full turn is 120 degrees
oh yea ur right, i was using the degrees of the triangle itself but thats wrong
so the actual rotations would be R(0) R(120) R(240)
well,
(the rotations cannot be described by a number alone anyway, there's multiple different axes of rotation...)
but yes
so ur suggesting that red line i picked could have been changed to any of the 3 other corners
but\ that would be even more confusing to calculate lol
$a\equiv b (\mod{m})$ is the same thing as $a = km + b$ for some integer $k$
valley
I dont really understand the solution
Start by computing [ \prod_{j = 1}^n 2^i \cdot 3^j.] Note that, since $2^i$ is independent of $j$, you effectively get $n$ copies of $2^i$, while the product of $3^j$ becomes a sum in the power. So the inner product gives you [ \prod_{j = 1}^n 2^i 3^j = 2^{ni} 3^{\sum_{j = 1}^n j}]
Then consider what the outer product does (completely analogous to how we computed the inner product)
there's alot of questions where they just use a sum of expression just seemingly randomly which doesnt make any sense. what are all the sum of expressions do i need to know (i know thats a bit of a vague question..) and where to apply them??
i dont understand any of the working out any help appreciated..
is f^−1(T1 ∪ T2) = f^−1(T1) ∪ f^−1(T2)? is this correct?
discrete math vs calculus which is harder
subjective
discrete math more fun 💅
hi, I need help. How should I go about proving that
It would be useful to think of O(…) as sets or classes of functions; in other words, you’re proving that two sets are equal
Recall that $g(n) \in O(f(n))$ as $n \to \infty$ if there exist some $c, N > 0$ such that $g(n) \leq c \cdot f(n)$ for all $n \geq N$
So showing that $O(f(n)) \subseteq O(c f(n))$ is immediate
To show that $O(c f(n)) \subseteq O(f(n))$, suppose that $g(n) \in O(c f(n))$. Then, by definition, there exist $b, N > 0$ such that $g(n) \leq b(cf(n))$ for all $n \geq N$. But noting that, for $c \geq 0$, we have that $bc \geq 0$, which gives us the result required almost right away
does that mean if I prove that g(n) = O(f(n)), I can conclude that O(f(n)) is a subset of O(cf(n), what should I base this on?
sorry let me comprehend it again
Well, showing that O(f(n)) is a subset of O(cf(n)) is immediate just by unrolling the definition of Big-Oh
i understand now, thank you very much
i feel dumb seeing this.
I dont understand why it approaches infinity
@covert bolt do you mean "i think it should approach something else" or do you mean "what even is going on here???"
the latter tbh
right well
the limit was l'hôpital'd 10,000,000,000 times (the exponent in g(n))
and now the expression inside the limit has the form $c \cdot a^n$ where $c > 0$ and $a > 1$
Ann
yes
what about line 1 to 2 doe
well to be more exact
line 1 to 2 is one application of l'hop
line 2 to 3 is the other 9,999,999,999 applications of l'hop
$c$ is actually absurdly small btw, it's around $10^{-1.957 \times 10^{11}}$
Ann
but it is positive regardless
ah ic
jfc was 10 chosen arbitrarily?
It was chosen since, if n > a for some constant a, then n^n > a^n. So, if a = 10, choosing n > 10 is the most natural choice to choose. Although 10
o so arbitrary
ok thancc
Can someone please help me with this functions question? I understand the meaning of surjective and total.
Anyone know what I did wrong here?
where'd that formula come from
or rather that expression
which looks like 2n + n - 2 as written but apparently it is 2^n + n - 2
It’s supposed to be 2^n + n-2
ok but where does it come from
Formula sheet we have I could’ve done it wrong but I didn’t think I did
show the formula sheet!
shouldn't d) be false, wouldn't it only be true if it were a proper subset symbol instead?
unless im getting hte wrong definition, im thinking the ⊆ means every element of a set is also every element of another set.
and ⊂ means every element in one set is also in another set (but this set also has additional elements)
d) is true. For A ⊆ B to be true, all elements of A should be contained in B, but it is ok if B has some elements that are not in A.
Examples:
{1,2} ⊆ {1,2} is true,
{1,2} ⊂ {1,2} is false,
{1} ⊆ {1,2} is true,
{1} ⊂ {1,2} is true
then would ⊂ , a proper subset of. another, just a more verbose way to say a little more about the relationship between to sets when it satisfies?
Right, ⊂ would mean a proper subset of.
thank you ! lol i was looking at examples online, they dont show the example u did.
made me think that theres a distinction
np 🙂
dude wtf
?
what formula sheet would you use for this
can I see it?
not all equivalence relations are totally ordered sets due to the trichotomy law, correct?
but there could be equivalence relations that are totally ordered sets?
what kind of series do use for this: 𝑓(𝑥)=𝑥^4 * ln(1−𝑥3) ?
Are you asking if an equivalence relation can be a total order?
Assume that R is a relation on a set S, and that R is both an equivalence relation and a total order. Take two elements a, b in S. Since R is total, either aRb or bRa, so assume the first aRb. Since R is symmetric, then also bRa, so both aRb and bRa. Since R is anti-symmetric, then a = b. Thus S can contain at most one element.
question unclear
Hi guys
can anyone help me show that this is surjective
Can i just finish the proof with
because for every y in R the equation (1-y)/2 is solvable in R and produce a value for x which is also in R?
to be clean
for arbitrary real number y, 1-y/2 is also a real number
and f((1-y/2)) = y
and you are done
Guys.
Please help me with my question
Essentially, they give you an example of a real-life situation and you have to suggest which out of the ten options it is likely most to be. I am not too sure how to solve it but I will explain my reasoning
Please can someone check my reasoning.
My reasoning:
I believe option a is a total surjective function (3). I believe this as the domain is all of the possible GPS coordinates and the range is either true or false. It is not injective as it is many to one. More than one GPS coordinate will produce an output of true for example. I am also assuming that there cannot be two trees at one GPS coordinate - if this was the case, option A would not be a function.
I believe option d is a partial surjective function (6). I believe this as the domain is the building identity and the range is a set of GPS co-ordinates. Since there are some GPS coordinates that do not have a building upon them, they would not be in the range and they would not be mapped. Hence, I believe it is partially surjective.
I believe option c is a partial bijective function. (4) The domain is the set of all GPS coordinates and a car might not be present at a certain GPS coordinate making the function partial but wherever there is a car present at a GPS coordinate, it is uniquely mapped out to a unique license registration. Since there is a one-to-one and onto correspondence, it must be bijective.
I believe option b is partial surjective function (6). I am quite uncertain about this answer. I believe there is an infinite number of pixel types in the domain and not all colours may be in the range so it is partial. Many different types of pixels may map to the same colour, hence it cannot be injective.
could someone help me give an idea on finding latin squares which idempotent/half idepontent symmetric/not symmetric
i understand symmetry, but the idempotency doesnt make much sense to me. thanks alot
hi, how can I find out the Big O complexity of this funtion?
You can rewrite n as k^log n
So you'd have $k^{5 (log n)^2}$
Franz
(log n) ^ 2 grows slower than n
I see, thanks a lot.
Prove or disprove: if R and S are two equivalence relations on a set X then R \S is also an equivalence relation.
its not correct right
if X is (1,2,3)
R is (1,1) 2,2 3,3 2.3 3,2
S is just 1,1 2,2 3,3
then if u remove its 2,3 3,2 which is symetric but not reflexive
i think this has to do with well ordering but i dont really understand how to figure this one out
i think its the first one
Hi guys
Anyone know why g1 and g2 are not right inverse to f?
if i have it left
g1 $\circ$ f
Wuff
Wuff
Does this seem right? Look just at x2 x4 and x6 then obviously you’ll need one more to get to second largest
I got 3
If anyone looos at this please @ me! Thank you in advance
If we say that n{a_i}={n*a_i} for any real number n, then what does the following mean?
Is it the union of all w_1 and their multiples with the power of 2 altogether unified with all w_2 with their multiples of the powwers of 2 unified with w_3 with all teh powers of and etc?
in more generality, consider every equivalence relation has to include the diagonal (a,a)
so if you subtract one from the other, the diagonal will be excluded
contradicts reflexivity as you said
so not only does it fail for your specific example, it necessarily fails for every example
no, those are not equivalence relations
you need (1,1) , (2,2) and (3,3) on any equivalence relation on X
...which is not an equivalence relation
unless the base set is empty, an empty set can never be an equivalence relation
as I said, you need the diagonal as a subset of the equivalence relation
by reflexivity
function on finite set is injective only if surjective, right
this doesnt apply to infinite set
are you saying the function is X -> X
yes
yes could you give some example
of function on infinite set
to which it doesnt apply?
yeh ure right its not on cuz u dont get 1
or any odd number, but yes
yes this works the same way
hi, what does the modular of congruence mean? what is a modular of congruence?
Someone mind checking if I’m correct on this? I got 3
probably 2 or 1 idk
How’d you get 2 or 1
Yes, that's fine.
You need to check which is the greatest, which takes two comparisons. Then, you need to check which is the second greatest, which takes one more.
That's also the best case.
How would I start this question:
$$\frac{(7\cdot 2017)!}{7^{2017}}\mod 7 = ?$$
Just a hint to get me started would be enough
cedric_
try to find the exponent of 7 in the prime factorization of (7*2017)!
feels to me like it ought to be strictly greater than 2017
Why is it "->"? Shouldnt it be "^" (and)? because p->q would state that if p is false and q is true the statement is still true. So in this case if x<=y is false (so x>y) and f(x) >= f(y) this would mean the statement is still true but f would increase in this case so this shouldnt be true
if x>y, then y<=x so then f(y) >= f(x)
so x>y and f(x) >= f(y) cant happen
(ignoring equality)
More generally if p is false then the statement is vacuously true , in other words the statement is meaningless and always true because its impossible to have p(x<=y True ) --> q(f(x) < f(y) False) as p is always false
also a statement of the form "for all x,y (x <=y and(...) )" would be false
cause clearly there are x and y for which x <= y is false
would it be appropriate for this server to ask questions about algorithm analysis (complexity)? Specifically I was looking for help on topics like amortized analysis and average-case analysis. These are more computer-science topics but perhaps related to disccrete maths to some extent. I haven't seen a suitable channel around here
this makes sense. thanks!
are my solutions right? im pretty confident about a but i think i missed something in b.
i feel like in (b) my quantified statement is saying A has one zero columns and also non zero columns
I dont understand the solution
Also I dont understand why they didnt use $$B(-2)^n$$
Opify
which part?
do you see why the Lemma is true?
$A_{n+1} = \frac{A_n}{2} + \frac{1}{A_n}$
Franz
So we need to find un upper limit for A_n+1
From the induction hypothesis we have the upper limit for A_n/2
but to find the upper limit for 1/A_n, we need a lower limit for A_n
which is there the lemma comes in
$A_{n} = \frac{A_{n-1}}{2} + \frac{1}{A_{n-1}}$ for some $A_{n-1} \in \mathbb{R}$
Franz
$\Rightarrow A_n \leq \sqrt{2}$
Franz
which follows from the Lemma
so the lemma was just for $\frac{1}{A_n}$ ???
Opify
yeah
wow
how bout this
Idk what a homogenous recurrence is
ooo
oh wait I think I do know what that is
Sorry, I got nothing
It's ok, thank you
ok im done trying
the ^ means gcd
knowing that gcd(a,b) = xa +yb
the equality is trivial if x > 0 and y >= 0
but for x > 0 and y < 0
idk what to do
a,m,n >0
i tried another thing but it aint going nowhere
which is n = gcd(n,m)n'
m = gcd(n,m)m'
gcd(n',m') = 1
then proving gcd(a^m' - 1 , a^n' - 1) = a - 1
which seems simpler
but it still went nowhere
idek know but i spent sm time on this q that i ended up with this question in my hand
if this has some kinda very unique trick im switching to literature studies
it's this mf right here that's causing me all the trouble
meaning of this half circle
please
very dumb
but
very important
card(A) >= carb({{b}})
with b in A
yes got it
thanks
🫡
Uh what, no
This is the subset symbol. If we write A ⊆ B, we say "A is a subset of B", and it means that every element of A is also an element of B.
What section symbol said is not correct.
right it doesnt mean that
It doesn't mean that b is in A, either
However in this particular case it does mean that {b} is in A, and in fact this is sufficient.
but if A ⊆ B, fhen cardA =< cardB
This is not sufficient.
.
I mean is in. Perhaps you should review some set theory
thats what i was thinking
I don't want to go through these definitions here.
It certainly is.
That is right.
No.
€