#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 297 of 1
sorry, that eludes me a little - is that from the perspective of some fundamental polygon
yea
for a, b, c you will need a 1-cell each
the attachment of the 2-cell is made clear from drawing out that polygon
and labeling the edges and observing how the interior attaches
this is the construction youve explained, right
yes
ok, cool. damn
you can also look at it this way:
this clearly shows all 3 1-cells
and it shows the 2-cell as well
just doing the gluing together of identified edges as usual, you can see what happens to the 2-cell
is there some algorithmic way to construct a fundamental polygon from a cellular chain complex?
i see! thanks
not really no
the other way around, yes
but cw complexes are much richer in structure
oh, no, i just mean that its not intuitively clear to me how to construct the fundamental polygon of a space
because the attachment maps are a lot less opinionated
got it. thanks!
np
i just knew the above because cylinders are easy to construct by edge labeling of a square
is that resulting space a cone
ah, yes , ok.
aa^-1b
read my mind on what i was gonna ask
yea ?
if you have an edge labeling that identifies all vertices of the fundamental polygon with one another
then the edge labeling tells you the fundamental group of the resultant space immediately
you dont even have to compute anything
oh, i think ive heard of this one -- the first homotopy group can be read off 'as relations' right?
yep
very cool!
so take for example the klein bottle
pretty hard to compute the fundamental group
but we know the edge labeling is
... let me think
it's the other one from the torus
so let me look for just a sec
yeah ok
aba^-1b
haha, i see where youre going -- the vertices should identify, so we can use that result right?
now the fundamental group
is the group with two generators ab
and aba^-1b = 0
and no other relations
ahh, homology is a little bit away for me at the current moment (not sure what it means properly yet)
it's actually much simpler than homotopy groups
like if someone explained it properly you would immediately understand it
i see. im vaguely aware that it also measures loops (intuitively)
it measures the failure of cycles to have properly filled out interiors
aka it measures holes
right, which is the exactness of chains
haha, im having a puerile moment
:^)
is there a good way to think about homology groups then? the kinda learn-curve that intimidates me is that theres some sort of variance here, where theres relative homology, and also* simplicial and cellular homology (?)
i dont really know any abstract homology theory
but
nor do i know cellular properly
but ive just read up on simplicial and singular homology
I heard from a postdoc that in hindsight he thinks the best way to be introduced to homology is via morse homology
morse from morse functions re cw complexes ?
ok, will read up on that
thank you!
appreciate the help @quartz edge
gonna go ahead and fiddle with more cw complexes
🐲
Apparently this is not path connected (according to a mark scheme) but I've discussed it with a couple of people and we seem to all agree it should be.
Surely given any two points I can use the path $\gamma(t) = \begin{cases} (0,0) & t = 0 \ (t,\sqrt{t} \sin(1/t))& t > 0 \end{cases}$ to connect them?
yeah I asked my tutor about that qn, he asked the lecturer and it really is path connected
potato
so you're good
Oh okay
Phew lol
This question was bizarre anyway imo because it seemed they basically just wanted you to say yes/no for whether all the things are connected or not right?
yeah
not me trying to prove them all
Does the serre spectral sequence imply that
if we have serre fibrations F to Y to B and F to X to B
and in both cases the action of pi_1(B) on the cohomology of the fiber is trivial
that the cohomology of Y and X is isomoprhic?
Ye this should follow from Zeeman's comparison theorem
Hmm you might need to have a map Y to X that fits in with the identities on either side
I am not sure actually lol I am not very used to this stuff rn
this is very silly
but i thought this should be true just because
everything before the arrow only has B's and F's
Lol but we need the differentials to behave nicely too
Wait lemme check Zeeman's theorem once
I don't think this applies lol
You don't have these morphisms f_r
Like the 2 spectral sequences will be isomorphic via the identity map as bigraded modules, but not as spectral sequences I think
Because for that, the identity maps need to commute with the differentials, and the differentials would then have to be the same
Yeah I think differentials are gonna depend on the total space
Where are you studying from btw?
hatcher but i don't like it so any recommendations would be nice
poor hatcher
User's guide to spectral sequences
gets such bad wrap
lol deserved ngl
i had heard this had ltos of mistakes?
idk I studied only a few things from it
Look at this shit
This is why
Hatcher bad
Even if the spectral sequences were isomorphic
okay no this is true
E_infinity being an isomorphism is not the same as the convergent thingy being the same
its close
oh but there are no hidden extensions if we have
coefficents in a field
so if you have cofficents in a field
and both converge
and on some page there is an isomoprhims every where on that page
I don't think this comment about fields is true...
then they converge to the same thing
Hidden extension is a kind of informal term, but any time you have a filtration and look at associated gradeds
you risk having multiplicative extensions
basically the issue occurs when like
"ab" enters the filtration before a and b
so ab = 0 in the assgr
so the SS doesn't know about the multiplication in its entirety
okay so we can have two spectral sequences E and E'
and isomorphisms on the infinity page
but the things they converge to aren't isomorphic?
Ye, we just know that they have filtrations such that the associated graded modules are isomorphic
Over a field, they will then be isomorphic as vector spaces
But Max is talking about when everything is algebra
Then the algebra structures may not be the same even over a field
ah okay so
There are some limits as to "how bad" the hidden extensions can be
i.e. if you can rule out any possible filtration jumps
you can conclude they dont exist
H^p(X) is isomorphic to H^p(Y)
but we don't get an isomorphism on the graded ring structure automatically
what do you recommend for learning about spectral sequences
honestly I just like
stared into the void of papers
until i understood them
idk if thats a good strategy
If you learn a little bit about the Adams SS
Dan Isaksen has some good talks about like
how to work with it practically
and this extends to other SSs
I can't find them
they are on the echt webpage
oh
in the mini courses
got it ty
someone at a conference called it
"eChat"
and ive never been able to read it any other way
I spent the day reading ch2 of hovey model cats
It's so cool
But also who comes up with this shit
didn't expect to see ordinal arithmetic show up like this
oh i mean a lot of what I assume you're referring to is like
okay this construction clearly makes sense modulo set theory BS
and so now i have to fix the set theory bs
I'd have to read the relevant stuff
Did you see hovey? He says that other places just do the finite case
Like he defines this factoring property for transfinite sequences of morphisms
of some cardinality
right okay
And an object is kappa small if for all cardinals lambda of cofinality greater than kappa, all lambda sequences have that factoring property
or that object does wrt those
I need to sit with the proof for another day to see how someone came up with this as a sufficient condition
It is just so wacky
All the other conditions are the obvious ones
i do think the right way to think about this is
its set theory bs
you should think about why the smallness in the small object arguement is important
but then the kappa-small stuff is just exactly condition you want to look at
when you want to deal with things that are not small but
small enough
and keeping track of the kappa lets you keep track of the small enough
tbh I skipped all of that shit lmao
Ye it really helped to already be familiar with ordinal stuff
But reading the proof also helped me with some other stuff in model cats 
Like all the nice properties that retractions and pushouts and direct limits have wrt liftings
also today I heard that there are exactly 9 model structures on set 
here are some common definitions of the boundary of a topological space. could you also have some sort of definition of something that goes like this?
choose a point s in the space and shoot vectors (or rays) out of it in all directions. then, for each vector, find a point b such that a small step epsilon>0 toward s will be in the space and a small step epsilon>0 away from s will be out of the space. then b is an element of the boundary. if you do this for every possible vector, you will end up with the entire boundary
can you draw a picture for what you mean
sure gimme a sec
here, but you do this for every possible vector
actually im now realizing it must be only for a convex shape
without any holes in it
ok I guess that limits this a lot lol
Well you'd have to define what you mean by 'directions'
I guess you're basically working inside a normed vector space which is very much a special case of top spaces
this will not work
At least not for a fixed choice of "s"
I think it will work if you allow s to vary though, and you are like, a connected shape
makes sense
and probably using the word ray is better since it is not necessarily a vector space
oh I didn't see this, yeahhhhh realizing that now
im just giving a vague description but yeah
ray still doesnt make sense
How does the fundamental group of $S_g$, where $g \geq 2$, act on $\mathbb{H}^2$?
Migillope
In particular, I am trying to understand what this might be referencing "If $S$ has empty boundary and has a hyperbolic metric, then its universal cover $\tilde{S}$ is a simply connected Riemannian 2-manifold of constant curvature $-1$. It follows that $\tilde{S}$ is isometric to $\mathbb{H}^2$, and so $S$ is isometric to the quotient of $\mathbb{H}^2$ by a free, properly discontinuous isometric action of $\pi_1(S)$"
Migillope
deck transformations?
😵💫
Every point not in A \ B
So just every point in B?

Why is it phrased like that, are we supposed to also consider points in X? But then closed in Y makes no sense/coincides with closedness of point of f(X)

I wouldn't worry about it. I guess it's phrased like that to point out it doesn't have to be closed when taken from Y\f(X)
ok lol
How can I prove this:
A conjugacy class of a primitive element of $\pi_1(S_g)$ has a simple representative implies each pair of representatives in the class are not linked at infinity
Migillope
(From pg. 230 primer on mapping class groups)
says to use the (unproven) statement in proof of prop 1.6:
So if we call $\alpha$ a simple representative of $[a]$, the conjugacy class of a primitive $a\in \pi_1(S_g)$, then $\alpha$ has the properties given in that proposition
Migillope
but I'm not sure how to relate lifts of $\alpha$ to any two elements of the conjugacy class. Are boundary points of lifts of $\alpha$ invariant under conjugation of $\alpha$ in the fundamental group? I don't think its that simple
Migillope
something along the lines of let $\beta$, $\delta \in [a]$. Then they are conjugate, in particular, to $\alpha$. BWOC assume their lifts to $\mathbb{H}^2$ intersect. Then... somehow this implies two lifts of $\alpha$ intersect. Maybe?
Migillope
Hi! So if you take a covering p:Y→X which is nice, then the Euler characteristic behaves nicely: \chi(Y)=n\chi(X), with n the number of folds. Now, what happens for branched coverings? Can I relate \chi(Y) with \chi(X), the number of folds and the Euler characteristic of the branching locus?
Actually, there's a lot more I'd like to know regarding branched covers: fundamental groups, deck transformations, euler numbers, necessary and sufficient conditions for existence of an n-folds branched covering with prescribed branch locus... Anyone having a reference in mind?
Thanks!
(Riemann-Hurwitz is only for ramified covers between Riemann surfaces and with branching locus a finite set of isolated points)
i’m having some trouble with exercise 5c and i’m having trouble understanding some of the solutions online. they state that if p is the quotient map, then for an open set U of G, we have p[U] is the union of all uH for each u in U. this seems incorrect to me, as p[U] = {uH : u in U} is not the same as the union of all such uH. they are even different objects, as the union is a subset of G, while p[U] is a subset of G/H
This proof seems false to me. in particular this statement does not hold.
from F being closed in the subspace, it follows that F=H cap W for some W closed in T
i tried fixing the proof. does this seem OK?
y is not in W, so there are disjoint open nbhds U and V of y and W respectively, U intersect Y and V intersect Y are disjoint open (in Y) nbhds of y and F respectively, qed. this proof seems overly complicated @cursive flume
wait
i'm unsure what's the difference between what you wrote and what I have
maybe overly complicated was a bad description. its just verbose imo
but thats just me, i like short proofs
yes,i write much,as i like to spell out all details explicitly,learning now
later on,when i will omit all details explicitly
but do you agree this is false though?
the proof linked is false
a subspace of a T_3 space is T_3
however,the wiki proof is false
the only part that seems false is when they state that F is closed in T
yep
we arent given that H is closed
nice catch
Does anyone know an example where path connectedness hereditarity fails?
just take two disks in a plane
Does (0,1) union (2,3) subset R work?
bumping since im still unsure how the proof of this is supposed to go
ok so
basically the way im doing this is by proving that this topology obeys each step of the definition of a topology
aka for the first one i proved that both the empty set and X are in the topology, because yk since its a collection of topologies then their intersection has of course X and the empty set
but how would i prove that any union of open sets of the intersection of the collection of topologies is an open set
sorry if this is a dumb question its 4 am so i cant rlly think straight
You need to prove that if a bunch of open sets are in the intersection
then their union is in the intersection
you can do this in a pretty straighforward manner unraveling definitions
idk how much of a hint you want
just a start: take any collection of sets in the intersection. since each set is in T_a for each a, then ||so is the union||
ohhh yeah i understand now, i proved it now but honestly writing it all out explicitly without using notation here at 4 am isnt really the greatest idea i think id probably pass out
but thank you so much!! you both helped
also for this part, to prove that there is a unique smallest topology that contains all of the family id just have to state that there is a topology that is the union of 3 sets: the union of all topologies, all possible unions of its elements, all possible finite intersections of its elements. and the union of those 3 would be the unique smallest topology right?
or do i have to prove it in a more concrete way
think about defining a sub-basis to do what you want for the smallest topology containing all of them.
alternatively, you could consider all topologies containing each T_a
think about part (a) for the largest topology contained in all of them
hm ill think about it thank you though
oh that was easy
the union of the whole family of topologies is the subbasis
ye
the alternative was to intersect all topologies containing each T_a
just take indiscrete 
still need help?
yes bro
U ↦p[U] is open
as a function?
wait im confused on what this means exactly lol
you said p[U] ={ uH | u ∈ U} does not sit right with you
p[U] = {uH : u in U} is the right thing
i dont agree that p[U] is the union of all uH such that u in U
but thats what some online solutions have said
and i cant really follow them
are you ok with saying p(u)=uH
yes
if yes then it's same as saying imf = ∪ (x ∈ domain) {f(x)}
thats not the same as union f(x) for all x in the domain tho
you are taking union in the quotient G/H not as a subset of G
you mean it should be ∪{uH} and not ∪uH? I can definitely see that
well aren't quotient maps supposed to be open maps by definition?
not in munkres
p : X --> Y is a quotient map if it is surjective and U subset Y is open if and only if p^{-1}[U] is open in X
yes
i think what they mean is that p^{-1}[p[U]] is the union of all uH such that u in U
that i agree with
I believe what they are doing is showing the inverse image of UH in G is open amd from that they are concluding the image must have been open
that is ∪uH is open, thought the way it's written is wronf
p^-1 p (U) = ∪ uH
and that just means p is open map?
i dont think so. just because V is open in X doesn't mean that p[V] is open in Y.
example in munkes : take A = {(x,y) in R^2 : x >= 0 or y = 0} and consider p = pi_1 from A into R
p is a quotient map that is neither open nor closed
there's an "iff"

page?
section 22 exercise 3 page 145
like, if i am the preimage of some subset of Y and i am open, then im open when taken to Y by p.
but there can be open sets in X which arent complete preimages of sets in Y
hmm
If I take the unit disk in C and I create a quotient space by gluing points z whose magnitude is 1 (they lay one the edge of the disk) if their argument is k*2pi/n apart. Fixed n in N{0},. And k varies in Z. What is the fundamental group of this space? I think it is Z/nZ. How would one prove this?
I think this is homotopic to the n-holed sphere? You can inductively use Van Kampen’s theorem
does anyone have a reference for general point-set stuff for fiber bundles?
I've been working through the constructions myself but this is very time consuming
Yes
a genus of uncountable infinity?
Look up "infinite type surface"
No
The fundamental group of any manifold is countable
Maybe this convinces you that the genus can't be uncountably infinite, if you figure out how to define things so that that makes sense
the fundamental group is related to homotopy right?
like deforming curves on the space to measure how many holes it has?
yeah
what exactly are the elements of the fundamental group? the curves? like the f: [0, 1] -> T (T being the space)
Almost
So we want to require f(0) = f(1) = p for a fixed "basepoint" p
So it's loops based at p
right
But then the tricky bit is that we mod out the set of all these loops by an equivalence relation to get the group structure
equivalance relation between...?
between the loops
Two loops are set to be equal if there exists a homotopy between them
Graphically speaking if they can be continuously deformed in one another
Arrow
Does my solution work?
Arrow
this works, although for clarity it's better to say "open subset of X contained in U" than "open subset of A"
The latter sounds like you mean open in the subspace topology on A
Oh yeah that makes sense.
using lots of set theory relations
try writing out what should be true here and seeing if it is
you can discover the relations yourself
Hm OK, I'll give that a go.
either way you should be able to follow the definitions and do this
as you can for 90% of general topology problems
(this is a hint)
Can you explain more? I disagree with the n-holed sphere thing. Wouldn't that give Z as fundamental group?
Or the free group on n generators
n-1 generators
Arr0w_04
Does that work in regards to set up? This is kinda tricky to visualize for me....
But the unit disk construction. Can you explain to me how it is homeomorphic to holed sphere?
no one said homeomorphic (except for you just now)
anyway, I'm not interested
Like I am reading Munkres right now, and there aren't that many definitions to use to make this work

you want to show that given a collection of open sets in the intersection of all the topologies, their union is also in the intersection of all the topologies
Right.
what does it mean for their union to be in the intersection of all the topologies
It means that given an indexed family of sets that consists of open sets in the family of topologies, the union of that indexed family is contained in the intersections of those topologies?
right, ig i should've emphasized the word intersection. What I'm getting at is that you should show that for any of the topologies, the union of all the open sets is contained in that topology
you will not get a homeomorphism, but rather a homotopy equivalence ignore this i didn't read
This seems right to me. In the case n=2 you recover RP2 and you can prove this by viewing your space as S^1 with a disk glued around n*generator
Basically if you draw the picture you can prove this from van kampen
Walter: yeah that makes sense, now I am stuck on how I could go about doing that. The only thing I can think of doing is using a basis to show this, since that is kind of intertwined with the notion of an open set. But that doesn't even make sense to do that since basis shouldn't be involved.
there's no basis involved
yeah
you shouldn't get either
i didn't even read the original question lmao
i assumed they were asking things about n-holed spheres
i had my own question in mind
@gritty widget ok think about it like this. We have a collection of open sets U_a contained in the intersection of all our topologies. In particular, this means that all of the U_a are contained in each of our topologies. We want to show that the union of the U_a is contained in the intersection of all our topologies. To do this, we fix a topology T in our collection and show that the union of our U_a is contained in T. Can you fill it in from here?
I was being dumb.
Maybe, I'm thinking of how I can do this. Does a proof by induction work here?
Like if prove the union of U_1 and U_2 is in T, then induct
a proof by induction is not necessary, nor would it work here since we want arbitrary unions to be in the intersection of the topologies, not just countable unions
we know that all of the U_a are contained in T, right?
right
then what can you say about the union of the U_a and T?
remembering that T is a topology
well each U_a can be expressed as a union of basis elements in T nvm that idea sucks
I think you're over complicating it
no need for bases, remember the most basic properties/definition of a topology
well it has to be in T since T is a topology
exactly, since T is a topology a union of open sets in T is contained in T
now, we've shown that the union of our U_a is contained in T, but we chose T arbitrarily from our collection of topologies

so it applies to the whole family of topologies, so unions are proved?
just to spell it out completely, yes we've shown that the union of the U_a is contained in every topology in our collection, hence by definition it is contained in the intersection of our topologies
OK that makes so much more sense now. Thanks Walter, I think you're right, I was really overcomplicating this.
definitely try working through it on your own for intersections
yep I will
glad i could help though, point-set stuff can be deceivingly straight-forward at times
Ok thanks a lot. The image you drew is simlar to what I drew. It makes sense. The paths that dont cross the edge are null-homotopic. The ones that cross the edge and pop out 2pi/n clockwise rotated are one homotopy class, and the ones that pop out 2pi/n counter-clockwise are another, and they annihilate eachother kind of.
I haven't read van kampen, but it was the next thing I was gonna study, so that makes sense.
And then I can apply it to this and try to understand the computation you did
Yeah there are two proofs I can think of, and Van Kampen is the simpler of the two
Arr0w_04
I solved this one on my own but I wanted to post my solution to verify
Arr0w_04
Does that work out?
sorry for asking so many questions, I'm brand new to topology and I wanted to make sure I was getting this stuff right initially.
I think this also works:
let $\tau_\mathcal{A}$ be the topology generated by $\mathcal{A}$, and let $T$ be the collection of all topologies that contain $\mathcal{A}$. then $\tau_\mathcal{A} \subseteq \tau$ for all $\tau \in T$, so $\tau_\mathcal{A} \subseteq \bigcap_{\tau \in T} \tau$. but also $\tau_A \in T$, so we have equality
Average J∘du=du∘j enjoyer
wait oops. reading this again, it looks like you show that the topology generated by A is a subset of the intersection, but not the reverse? in fact the reverse is true because the topology generated by A appears in the intersection, but strictly speaking you'd need to say that
I should've read your soln properly before posting sorry
but I guess the point of this is that you don't need to look at elements and individual basis elements, you can just work with the topologies themselves
Oh yeah that makes sense, I actually did prove the reverse 
Thanks for the help, that was really helpful.
Question about convergences. According to the pic, the supremum of an empty family of convergences is the intersection of an empty famility, which is just X. This makes sense. However, the infimum of an empty family is the union of an empty familiy, which is empty. And this makes no sense because every x in X, the limits of the principal ultrafilter on {x} always contains x and so cannot be empty. Am I missing something?
Let ${X_{\alpha}}{\alpha\in J}$ be an indexed family of connected spaces; let $X$ be the product space $X=\prod{\alpha\in J}X_{\alpha}$. Let $\mathbf{a}=(a_{\alpha})$ be a fixed point of $X$. Given any finite subset $K={\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n}$ of $J$, let $X_K={\mathbf{x}\in X:\alpha\in J\setminus K\implies x_{\alpha}=a_{\alpha}}$. Then $X_K$ is connected.
There is an obvious bijection $f:X_K\to \prod_{i=1}^nX_{\alpha_i}$. If this map were a homeomorphism , I would be done, but I am failing to see how to show continuity of $f$ and $f^{-1}$. Anybody have any hints or nudges in the right direction? This feels kind of simple, but I can't seem to work through it right now.
c squared
oh wait, $f=\pi_{\alpha_1}\times\pi_{\alpha_2}\dots\times\pi_{\alpha_n}$ so $f$ is continuous
c squared
each of the projections is open and the finite product of open maps is open
okay
nvm
It is a homeomorphism
yeth
That projections are open, doesn't mean it will be open after restricting to a smaller subset
But direct calculation works
not sure what you mean here
restricting the domain of the projections?
direct calculation of?
You can check that pi_i restricted to that subset is an open map by calculating it on a subbasic open set
hmm. tbh i’m having a bit of trouble doing that. if you don’t mind, i can show what i have so far
A subbasic open set here is of the form $\pi_j^{-1}(U) \cap X_K$ where $U\subseteq X_j$ is open. Show that $$\pi_i(\pi_j^{-1}(U)\cap X_K) = \begin{cases} X_i\text{ or }\emptyset & i\neq j \ U & i = j \end{cases}$$
Blitz
Are C*-algebras and operator algebras ever of use in algebraic topology or TDA?
Bump.
It's by definition of empty intersection / empty union.
Some reading here:
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/370188/empty-intersection-and-empty-union
Right. So in the union case, lim F = emptyset. But this is a problem because when F is the prinicipal ultrafilter on {x}, it's supposed to contain x.
In other words, constant sequences always have a limit regardless of the convergence.
@grave maple where are you reading this?
I've encountered these ideas in passing and thought about a lattice of convergence but I've never actually seen it in a book
By convergences I'm assuming you mean filters or something
Yes. This is from some PDF I downloaded. I guess it's from a book.
Can you post their definition of a notion of convergence?
This sort of thing isn't that standard maybe, idk
Okay this makes sense
Good to see a survey on this actually
Fun rabbit hole to go down at some point in the future
Okay so do you get what this is trying to kind of axiomatize?
I'll give some exposition
I guess
If you want
@grave maple
Because this isn't quite my interpretation I guess
So here's an example of a theorem that's really nice
That's what it means though.
If you take the constant sequence x, x, x, .... and take the filter made up of all its tails, that's your {x}^up arrow filter.
This filter converges to x by CENTERED.
Suppose that you have a compact metric space. Then every sequence has a convergent subsequence. By fixing an ultrafilter that extends the cofinite filter you can pick a limit for every sequence
That's a motivating theorem
For this sort of thing
I understand this theory. You don't need to explain it to me.
I'm just wondering about the definition of the inf.
Oh okay
No worries. I do research in this area actually.
Oh neat
I'm formalizing my research in a theorem prover and this definition of inf just doesn't work.
I guess my interpretation of a principal ultrafilter based at x is it selects the x indexed element
But I guess I'm a little confused because I'm thinking about sequences lol
Sorry
The ultrafilter containing {x} represents the constant sequence x,x,x,x....
We obviously want this to converge to x.
I mean in terms of the function it plays in terms of convergence
Oh I see
I guess I'm not sure what the issue is
With respect to inf and sup
It seems to me that the inf defintion has to consider the case when the family is empty.
Can you explain again
Sure. Let C be a family of convergence structures.
We want to define inf C.
To do so, you have to define what lim_{inf C} F is for every filter F.
If that filter happens to be the ultrafilter containing {x}, then x in lim_{inf C} F must hold.
However, if you define lim_{inf C} F as Union_{c in C} lim_c F, you run into problems when C is empty.
Is there an order structure on the set of convergence structures?
Yes. If c and c' are convergence structures, then c <= c' if convergence in c implies convergence in c'. In the PDF however, the write it as c >= c'.
In terms of lim, this means lim_c F is a subset of lim_c' F.
Okay I see, so that's why inf is defined the way it is I guess
Do theorem provers not know how to handle empty unions?
Indeed, but it's wrong because they are ignoring the case where the family C is empty.
There are conventions for empty unions
The union of an empty family is the empty set.
The problem is that lim_{inf C} F cannot be empty when F is the ultrafilter containing {x}.
It has to contain x as a limit.
Why?
That's the CENTERED law.
inf C has to be a convergence structure.
That means it has to obey the CENTERED law.
Okay so you are saying you haven't identified what the inf over the empty set should be here
As a convergence structure
I know how to fix it.
I just wanted to get some feedback from someone here about the mistake in the PDF.
I see
Sounds like you'll need to interpret the union in the class of centered convergences, so an "empty union" is the one that maps a filter to its intersection.
In the C = empty set case, inf C should be the discrete convergence structure, i.e. the one where only the constant sequences converge.
(How do sequences relate to filters in this setting?)
Every sequence gives rise to a filter whose base consists of the tails of the sequence.
What's not a filter?
Huh?
The centered law is only talking about principle ultrafilters
Or principle filters
Oh I see
Yes.
Never mind
I am being silly
Okay so you just want the pairing (x, {x}^\uparrow)
Then
Is what you're saying
Seems reasonable
Sorry for the confusion lol
Yes. As I wrote before, you want constant sequences to converge.
So do you see the mistake?
What do you study in this area btw?
I mean I haven't seen where they define the inf
Oh you posted it initially
Yeah that's a mistake
Yes.
Whenever I see inf and sup over empty sets I guess I always think initial and terminal
And it makes sense that that's the initial thing here
Yeah. The convergence structures on a set form a complete lattice.
Yeah makes sense
It's definitely the thing generated by the empty union
At least
Lol
At the moment, I'm writing a paper generalizing results about topological groups acting partially on a topological space to the setting of convergence spaces.
Oh that's really neat
I'm very interested in looking into this I guess, I feel like I want to know about the relationship between filters and convergence beyond the basic stuff I've thought about
I can recommend you some books if you want.
Yeah that would be great
That PDF that I'm posting excerpts from is called "An introduction to convergence spaces".
The books that I usually consult about this stuff are:
- Convergence Structures and Applications to Functional Analysis (Beattie, Butzmann)
- Function Classes of Cauchy Continuous Maps (Colebunders)
This last one requires some knowledge of category theory.
Yeah that's fine lol
I mostly read topos theory stuff, Computability theory stuff, and logic I guess
Can you tell me about some of the results in this area?
Should I tell you why we care about convergence spaces to begin with?
Sure
I guess I have motivation from the example of filters extending cofinite filters
But I'd like to hear your take
Well, if you know enough analysis, you know that they've come up with all kinds of notions of convergence.
Sure
Unfortunately, topology is not enough to handle all these different notions of convergence.
A good example is convergence almost everywhere with respect to some measure.
There is no topology that will produce that kind of convergence.
Sure that makes sense
Although I guess you can go higher in the borel hierarchy
Relative to that space
Another problem with topologies is that, if you want to talk about the continuity of higher-order functions, you always have to work with the compact-open topology.
In categorical terms, the category Top is not Cartesian closed.
So, given these drawbacks, it makes sense to search for a nicer category of spaces to do analysis in.
are convergence spaces cart. closed?
Yes.
crazy
Of course, the algebraic geometers want more than this - they also want it to be abelian. The category Conv of convergence spaces is not abelian though.
So you are enhancing the category Top?
By enriching it with filters or something
Or is that a bad take
Does the category of convergence spaces form a topos?
I don't know what you mean by "enriching", but Top is basically embedded in Conv.
I don't think it is a topos. I know it is a topological category.
What embedding do you use?
Convergence is Top is basically determined by the neighborhood filters.
I am going to bed. We can chat some more later if you want.
Yeah I'd like to, probably should read more of the basics before I do though
Folks, I have a diagram of cohomology groups
And I have to prove that this here diagram commutes
and let me tell you something
I am absolutely having the damnedest time
Does Euler characteristic less than or equal to 0 of a surface imply the universal cover is contractible
euler just explained complexes to me.
I'm copy pasting my study notes here
I just want to ensure that I understand this correctly.
PS: I'm very bad at math, not advanced at all, but the topic is advanced (I think) that's why I post here. If this is not appropriate, please inform me.
is this correct?
There is more nuance than your notes suggest about the attachment
for example, a simplicial complex has strict rules about how you attach new simplicies
a CW complex has very weak rules
Also like
I think every single example here is more general than a manifold
manifolds are pretty simple spaces
I see, what I should have written instead?
I would say
"Topological spaces in general can be unwiedly to work with an extraordinarily complicated. For this reason, we often restrict our attention to spaces that can be fashioned out of simpler ones according to certain rules as to how they may be attached to eachother"
ok, I get that part. I mean, what other "objects" do topologist usually play with besides manifold?
oh
i mean most spaces are not manifolds
its like asking what numbers do number theorists care about that aren't divisible by 5
Topologists in general? All of them
I would say almost all topologists probably confine themselves to studying CW complexes, but even this has a lot of counterexamples
btw, that's a good rephrasing, thanks
People that study topological groups, I feel like would care the most about locally compact and pseudocompact spaces
I feel like most topological groups are CW but maybe thats just a bad list of example in my head
Like all Lie Groups, all discrete groups
People that study continuum theory would care about compact metric spaces, continua and Hausdorff continua the most, probably
Yeah that was the most notable counterexample I had in mind
Any time I try to make such a statement people seem to protest
but it was my best attempt to answer the question of "what spaces do most topologists play with" and I think most topologists are either studying manifolds, homotopy theory, or something closely related to one of those
I think topologist study topologicla groups (such as manifold), that makes more sense right?
does anyone know how the A^-t/2 is defined
btw, my motivation for learning cw-complex https://michael-bronstein.medium.com/a-new-computational-fabric-for-graph-neural-networks-280ea7e3ed1a if that helps
where A is a matrix and t in [0,1] (this is a proof concerning homotopy equivalences of topologcial groups that's why i posted it here)
Manifolds are not topological groups in general
For example, S^4 is not a topological group
To study something you need to narrow your point of view. I think that's natural. People don't study just one kind of space
am i maybe better off posting this in #diff-geo-diff-top
idk
Can't you diagonalize a positive definite matrix?
yes, it is just that manifold is a topological group that I am kinda familiar with, so that's the example im putting in my notes haha
you can
and then such matrix has positive eigenvalues, no
you define the power by calculating the power on each of the elements on the diagonal after the diagonalization then
If A is a non-negative-definite matrix, you write A = BDB^-1 where D is diagonal with >= entries
D^t is defined in a natural way, by taking power of each element on the diagonal
then A^t = BD^tB^-1
ohh okay thank you, i haven't seen that before
ye you're right
i just didn't know what it was gonna be ig so i went with the channel that fits the book where its from
the mapping cone of a map of CW complexes is contractible iff the map is a homotopy equivalence, right?
actually, I'll just add my full question here: when working with chain complexes, it's not hard to show that the mapping cone of a homotopy equivalence is exact. Idk much about algebraic topology but i expected this to work for the singular chain complex of the cone of a map between spaces, but I'm confused because the singular homology of a point is Z in degree 0
so in particular, if you have a homotopy equivalence of spaces, the mapping cone is contractible, hence its homology is isomorphic to that of a point, right? but then its singular chain complex isn't exact? I also don't really know anything about singular homology so feel free to lmk if I'm completely wrong about something here
okay a few questions here
the first statement isn't an iff, you could have the cofiber (mapping cone) be trivial but the fiber nontrivial
I don't have a great example off the top of my head
In the category of spectra your statement is true however
a good analogy is that a cokernel can be trivial without the kernel being trivial
ah, that's fair
As for the exactness statement no we don't expect the singular complex of a contractible space to be exact
The right way to think about this is the following
we expect mapping cones (cofibers) to be "homotopy equivalent" to 0 in the category where they are taken
So we expect the mapping cone of a chain complex to have 0 homology
and we expect the mapping cone in spaces to be contractible
ohhh, zero object in the category of spaces
but this doesn't mean that after appyling a random functor you still get the 0 object
pointed spaces technically but yeah
that helps so much, tysm
np
ok i'll have to think about this more then because now i find the passage from spaces to chain complexes a bit confusing
that'll teach me to learn alg top before all this homological business 🙃
is this true?
let f: X to R^n be a map that is never zero
view S^n as the one point compactification of R
is the map X to S^n smash X induced by f
homotopic to the map constant map
or sorry
the map that just sends x to (0,x)
What map is this? The map that is trivial on the X component?
Reposting since it's been buried (and is simple to state)
Is the universal cover of a surface of Euler characteristic less than or equal to 0 necessarily contractible?
Hmm
So we are assuming connected here
If we're assuming closed orientable then this is just classification of surfaces + uniformization
If we don't want to cite the latter
Then we can prob also use Poincare duality. The universal cover will then be a non-compact orientable surface
H_2 of that surface is gonna be H^0_c
Which should be 0
Also I guess working mod 2 we shouldn't need to worry about orientability (or maybe we do tbh)
The scary case is with boundary
Could you elaborate on this?
A simply connected Riemann surface is biholomorphic to either the sphere, the unit disk, or the plane
So in particular those 3 are the universal covers of any closed orientable surface
But this involves a fair bit of complex analysis and requires knowing that closed orientable surfaces can be made into Riemann surfaces
So I think arguing by Poincare duality is better
is the claim that the universal cover of a surface is the sphere or disk up to homotopy hard
you have so much control over the algebra
I was hoping to avoid homology, many of the first and second years haven't seen it yet, but I'll investigate these two ideas some more, thanks!
oh
i think this would be quite hard to prove without homology
or higher homotopy groups
Yeah I was thinking Hurewicz basically
since the universal cover is simply connected you can use whitehead-for-homology
but I guess we need integral coeffs in that case
annoying
still, you get a lot of control from P.D.
I guess you could give surfaces as polygons and talk about tilings?
I'm not sure how that looks exactly though
Is this a generally known fact? It was stated as though it was free
i did not know it
Hi, is there something analogous to intermediate value theorem which I can use to deduce that it's impossible to stretch a loop that contains a hole into a loop which does not contain a hole? This is in 2 dimensions btw
have you seen the fundamental group before? and by stretch, do you mean a homotopy of the inclusion of the loop?
yeah I just want to show that the left loop isn't homotopic to the right loop
and yes I know about fundamental group
nice nice
so the pro strat
is to use the fact the a homotopy equivalence induces an isomorphism of fundamental groups
so the space we're looking at is R^2 - {0}
and a useful thing to do is to see that R^2 - {0} is homotopy equivalent to the circle S^1 by radial projection
no problem 🙂
there's a lil fiddling you have to do at the end depending on what exactly you want. The fact that radial projection induces an isomorphism tells us that these two loops are not loop homotopic (fixing basepoint). You probably want that they are not homotopic, where we don't care if the base point moves or not
but you could make an argument that if you (supposing to the contrary) had a homotopy moving the basepoint, you could construct one that fixes the basepoint
yeah so I can pretty much take the retraction $(x,y)\to \frac1{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}(x,y)$ and see how the two loops look once they get retracted under this map
yep
the key is knowing that the induced map on fundamental groups is injective here, so knowing they are not homotopic after retracting tells you that they are not homotopic before retracting
and it's injective because you have the homotopy inverse which is just inclusion of the circle into R^2
yes
x goes to (f(x),x)
is it possible to prove that the Euler characteristic of an odd-dimensional manifold is 0 using only homology (and not cohomology)?
how do you get them to cancel out though
the proof in Hatcher (cor 3.37) mixes a bit of cohomology in there
yes, I'm aware of the definition of the definition of Euler characteristic in terms of homology groups. I'll be more precise in my question: How do you prove, using homology only, that a closed odd-dimensional orientifold has zero euler characteristic?
if it can be done then it should be easy, given that it's a small question on one of the previous years' exams for my algtop class (5% of a 2 hour exam)
nvm I got it
sketch of the proof:
- for 'good enough' spaces try to find its triangularization
- using singular homology, show that spaces realized by a triangularization can always have Euler characteristic zero, if they're compact, closed and of genus 0. (-)
- (not easy) showing that each space satisfying (-) is homeomorhpic to some of the spaces given in 1. Then we get our result as homology is invariant under homeomorphism.
not sure if this works and maybe it's the way Hatcher used
I assume Hatcher's proof uses poincare duality and the isomorphism of homology and cohomology over a field?
I think that's the most straightforward way
poincare duality is mainly used for corresponding homology to cohomology. But nevertheless, one have to use at least one of them to prove the Euler characteristic thing. So maybe that's not the key point here
The idea in the proof is that poincare duality for an orientable manifold will give you H^i(X,Q)=H_n-i(X,Q), but a result about homology over fields gives
H_n-i(X,Q)=H^n-i(X,Q)
So it gives you that H_i=H_n-i for all i, and from this you can deduce the result by the odd dimensionality
But I think bobbicals wants a direct proof without going through this
I have a very possibly stupid question. But I have trouble understanding why a sup always have to exist and I think deep it comes down to one question. Do you always know whether an arbitrary element exist in a well defined set?
Not really a topology question, but existence of an element is exactly an asseetion that a set is nonempty
I'm not sure what you mean by 'well-defined set'
Sorry I am asking not as clear but I meant like say you know it’s non empty and you know there are some elements but then here comes a random element and do you knows if that element is in the set or not
And also I don’t know what it means of “well defined” that’s also one of the question I want to ask
Also feel free to recommend a place for me to ask this question
Nobody, it's silly to say that an element without a predetermined containing set is a pathology. I don't know how that helps the student, either
So this is the context of where I have my doubt. I am mostly not understanding why a sup of Fn exist. Thanks to how it is defined is so complicated lol
Also to put it more simple terms, in step 1 of this wiki page, I am not understanding why step1 is a legitimate. As isn’t the act of “checking” an countable thing but the sets might be uncountable. So how whether is (A+B)/2 an upper bound can always be checked
You don't need the result of this check at all - all you need is that the given numbers is either an upper bound or not, for the argument to work
And that is precisely what I don’t understand, why do you always know if an element is an upper bound. (Yes I do understand that there does exist an upper bound)
When I look at this in the context of the proof of vitali covering lemma, Fn is a set that is not defined by its length. Of course I know there is an upper bound of l(E) but how do I know an arbitrary element I will be a upper bound or not, the definition of Fn doesn’t mention at all
Again, when you have an upper bounded subset of the reals then you always have a supremum in the reals as well, this is the property used in the proof you photographed.
That property follows directly from every construction of the reals, an example proof you found on Wikipedia, and that proof works - even though I do understand that it can be hard to wrap one's head around the proof logic
I think your questions can be addressed much better in #proofs-and-logic to be honest :)
The funny is I know exactly where my head can’t wrap around
Ok time to bother those guys now thx for the help 🙂
Best of success in learning! :D
Thank you!
What is the fundamental domain of $\pi_1(S)$ for $S$ a hyperbolic space on $\mathbb{H}^2$ acting by deck transformations
Migillope
Somehow, I feel it ought to "strips" of the space (taking the disk model), but I don't see how this follows from the algebra
For example, with each color being a distinct domain
But I just don't see it. The fundamental domain is defined as follows (according to wiki)
Take one point from each orbit of the action. This constitutes a fundamental domain.
But I don't see why this even has to be connected in this case. Is it just that we "can" take a fundamental domain to look like this, and thus do whenever we mean "take some fundamental domain"?
If this is what we mean, how do we know it is possible? Is it necessarily true that we can always pick representatives like this? A stronger statement would be 'is it possible to pick, for any given element in the disk, some deck transformation that sends the point to any given strip'
This might be the case: hyperbolic elements of the fundamental group (in fact, all elements of S_g, g>=2 which is the surfaces I care about) have deck transformations which act by translation on some axis. It probably is the case that we have an axis moving sufficiently fast in any given direction, but I do not know this to be true for certain
I figured it out
what's your thought?
I would simply think like this:
- The deck transfromation is a discrete over H^2. So it looks like a lattice.
- Then we can think about H^2 modulo by this lattice. Since it's discrete, the quotient is then 2-dimensional and compact.
- so the quotient would be 'similar' to a small region.
not sure if I'm right
I think the key is the orbit over H^2 of each deck transform induced by an element of the fundamental group of S, is discrete.
so I think if your way of thinking, it seemed that you treated the orbit as a continuous thing. that's not the case imo
I'm not sure what you mean by the deck transformation being discrete over H^2. It'll act by translation on an axis connecting two fixed points on the boundary of the disk, so that seems continuous to me?
The orbit is certainly discrete though, I agree
maybe I was wrong on saying the transformation looks like a 'lattice' because I was thinking something like how you construct a torus from plane. But anyway, it's a fact that the deck transformation is a discrete group.
I was thinking that the deck transformation is induced by some elements of the fundamental group of S. So 'all possible deck transformations' forms a group
Of course, it is in fact a group isomorphic to the fundamental group, since H^2 is the universal cover
(of a genus g>=2 surface)
so each element of the fundamental group has a corresponding deck transformation
I think that we can find a tiling of H^2 by some collection of fundamental domains, which we can probably make look like strips if we desire
but it isn't necessarily true that all choices of fundamental domains might be disjoint (ignoring boundaries) I think
let me think about the defination of fundamental domain...
There's a lot of freedom with fundamental domain, and that the wiki page says "Typically, a fundamental domain is required to be a connected subset with some restrictions on its boundary, for example, smooth or polyhedral" make me think we probably can
(this is, not really a sound argumentation of course)
so, for example, for construction of a torus, one take the quotient of a plane by a lattice. The fundamental domain in this case will be the 'unit' parallelogram right?
I mean there's will be some choices but all look like equivalent
A fundamental domain
In the quotient space?
Are we considering the group action of Z^2 on R^2 by translations?
then, in the g>2 case, I think the idea will be similar that a fundamental domain of H^2 acted by that group can be obtained and it's a compact region
Then yeah, we can choose a fundamental domain to be the unit square
This is probably a canonical choice even
but we could also choose something horribly disconnected, it seems, just from the definition of fundamental domain
not necessarily square as it depends on the lattice, but anyway it's the unit shape given by the two generators
if its Z^2 acting on R^2 by translations it would be a square, no?
on R^2 you take two independent vectors than you get a Z^2
not necessarily orthogonal
oh okay fair, yeah depends on the lattice
mm, still should be a square, just rotated maybe?
doesn't really matter
anyway, what's the analogy?
For reference, the fundamental group acts on H^2 properly discontinuously, so we already have that the quotient is compact
so based on this idea I was assuming theirs 'only one' fundamental domain up to isomorphism, as different choices of them can be related by a group action
err, wait let me check that
that's my guess, hope it's right
ok maybe not
I think yes
as geometrically the quotient is nothing but a small region surrounded by the dots
so it's like you cut them off from the original plane
what is the relation?
Between, for example, if we take the typical integer lattice, a fundamental domain of unit square, and another fundamental domain of top half of unit square and bottom of some other square far away
we can act on the bottom half of the other square by whatever the translation is between the two squares to get the unit square back, but this is an action on only half of the second fund. domain
there's certainly a bijective correspondance between any two fundamental domains, as they each have one element from each orbit
yeah
and moreover I think usually we choice the fundamental domain so that it's a connected region on the plane
We do, but the fact that we can/must means the collection of fundamental domains dont tile
we can make any intersection we'd liek
I mean in picking the representatives from each orbits you don't have to very discontinuously taking them
even if we require connected
huh?
Given a topological space and a group acting on it, the images of a single point under the group action form an orbit of the action. A fundamental domain or fundamental region is a subset of the space which contains exactly one point from each of these orbits. It serves as a geometric realization for the abstract set of representatives of the or...
for exmaple check this picture?
the polygon one?
yeah
what about it
I think tile is not very confusing here. Yes, by tile I mean there's some point in two different choice of fund. domains. But on the other hand, in each fund. domain the point represent The same orbit. A key fact is orbits cannot intersect with each other.
oh sorry, I was thinking that 'in each fund. domain the same point represents different orbit'
that's right, but would this reduction be helpful for computing the Betti numbers from the remaining dimensions?
for example to compute a 2-manifold (i.e. surface) one considers the Betti numbers of dim 0, 1, 2.
After the reduction it's now sufficient to consider dimension 0,1 or dimension 1,2.
But still, you have to choose one of them to compute
does anyone know what is meant by the action of a group on a CW complex
it depends on how the group action is given. Without a specific action, one can say nothing but the definition of group action itself.
free action means 'no fixed point'
oh this must be the group action
this isnt a current exam btw just in case you were wondering
no one would have suspected this in the first place
lol
in fact that's no about the group action. It's the properties of free group
but let me think
the only group action I've heard about on a space is the group of deck transformations
but it never specifies anything about deck transformations here
and the kernal of the homomorphism \pi is usually called the syzygy. And if the syzygy is 0, then the group is called free
polish words smh
I heard that's also an English word. Rarely used though...
I'm not a native speaker so I don't know
for groups, people often just call elements of the kernel "relations" on those generators
yeah and that's a fancy word describing relations
I think the fact is: once you get the 'relations', then the relations is then again a stucture. One may then consider the 'relation of the relations' and it's usually not trivial.
So there's a chain of relations. In this case, the word syzygy maybe more suitable.
check this for syzygy
I think for groups in particular higher syzygies aren't really a thing because every subgroup of a free group is free
so the kernel will be free
but yeah for modules over non PIDs i can imagine it's very interesting
okay, I think the idea to this problem will be lile: Let this CW-complex be X.
- for a group action G on X, the orbit is either 1-dimensioal or 0-dimensional. In cases the orbit of x in X in 0-dimensional, it's a fixed point of G.
I'm not sure about the next steps. Is this really a theorem? or just condition?
for example consider a Z^1 action which is induced by the generator a sends a point to its next point....(for example we arrange the 0-dimensional subcomplex in order)
then it's transitive?
but how about X has some singularities?
then you consider there's an action on each 'directions'
yeah mainly it's interesting on modules
here we regard an abelian group a module over Z
so at least I know : this is true for X being a loop.
oh okay so they're not assuming any particular group action
this is true
while the group is Z
Or wait
Sorry I didn't see 1 dimensional
still true I guess. are you asking for a proof?
I guess so, but mainly I was just wondering what is meant by the group action on a CW complex
except the action is continuous and probably cellular
cellular?
Just to be sure you know what a CW complex is?
yep
cellular would just mean it takes cells to cells so like
it acts sort of on the cells rather than on points
i mean it does act on points
but the structure is on the cells
I was assuming the action is determined by it's action over the 0-dimensional subcomplex
because everything in 1-dim face (edge) can be then induced
but the action over 0-dim things are like a permutation?
I definitely should have said this before but there's a hint about using the "classification of covering spaces"
not that I know how covering spaces are classified either
I always imagine this simply 'curved simplex'
I would say that is probably too naive haha
CW complexes are sort of like
a priori wildly more complicated
yeah, many ways. when you would like to involve the idea of continuous mappings in the gluing
but that's technical
well
also just because the gluing rules are far less strict
and the resulting spaces can look a lot more complicated
this reminding me of something not related, yet very intereasting. Do you know this is related to Milnor's famous solution to the question of 'can one hear the shape of a drum'?
That's the cool part, you don't have to compute them! You have an even number of terms and every pair of terms has opposite sign because of odd dimensionality, so everything cancels out
Here what we talked about is the construction of a torus via the quotient of R^2 by a lattice. And this definition can be generalized to higher dimension cases where a general torus can be defined.
The question arises: From two different choices of lattices, what are the relationship between the induced tori? Of course as topological spaces they're homeomorphic, but that's not enough for our interest. Milnor asked: are there rotations of n-dimensional space so that the two torus can be associated to each other?
And the general answer is no. And the counter example is used for showing that: there're two 'drums' which are not the same, but having the same sounds! The latter has a math description.
and it turned of for a closed oriented surface the most important homology is of 1-dimensional
the solution is very short as it only deals with the math problem after traslated from physics. So the original problem stated by Kac maybe more interesting:
yeah, I realized that you're right. I was only thinking about a general approach to Euler characteristics. In the odd case, yeah, you're right, the computation would be very easy.
So it turned out for even dimensional spaces like surfaces, things would be complicated and need further discussion.
maybe the original question-and-answer would be hard to be a first read, so I would recommend ones who are interested to read some survey articles on this problem. It's a great example on how math connects different areas.
To hear the shape of a drum is to infer information about the shape of the drumhead from the sound it makes, i.e., from the list of overtones, via the use of mathematical theory.
"Can One Hear the Shape of a Drum?" is the title of a 1966 article by Mark Kac in the American Mathematical Monthly which made the question famous, though this particul...
I remember the excatly same argument is used to show that a Kahler manifold always has odd-dimensional Betti numbers 0. Because of the duality from H^{p,q} to H^{q,p}.
