#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 296 of 1
potato
That's how I'd write it
alright I get that
yeah it'll look much cleaner without those j's
so something like this right?
ye although should quantify over all x in Y in the first or smth to be clearer I suppose
yeah a for all
a covering map is surjective and has the path homotopy lifting property I'm pretty sure or something like that
Well to lift a map $f:Y\to B$ to a map $Y\to E$ you need $f_(\pi_1(Y))\subseteq p_(\pi_1(E))$, so using $Y=S^n$ and the fact that $\pi_1(S^n)=0$ you have $p_*$ is surjective. Then injectivity follows from the fact that $S^n\times I$ also has trivial fundamental group
Whoever
I've done it, but what's next?
I mean that’s it
It’s already a homomorphism
And if it’s injective and surjective then it’s an isomorphism
I got it. thx
Hi, I'm trying to show that the mapping cone of the Hopf map is homeomorphic to CP^2. Any hints?
Hm. idk but the hopf map is a sphere bundle and the mapping cylinder (not mapping cone) of a sphere bundle can be understood as like, filling in all the spheres with solid matter
like
if p : E -> B is a sphere bundle with fiber S^n
then the mapping cylinder of p is also fibered over B with fiber the solid ball D^{n+1}
idk if that's helpful but it's the first thing that comes to mind.
I'm just struggling to figure out how exactly $S^2$ attaches to the cone of $S^3$ to make mapping cone
my friend is telling me that the Hopf map is a Lie group homomorphism but I don't believe him
and you shouldn't, since it lands in S^2 and that's not even a Lie group
aha thanks
thanks
Your friend Lied 
are there more sigma algebras on a set, or more topologies?
like which structure is more „minimal“?
I'd suspect there'd be more sigma-fields, but I don't have precise numbers
if the set is countable, then the sigma algebras are all topologies (since the union axioms agree, and the intersection & complement axioms are stronger)
but idk about uncountable
is there a way to characterize density in terms of nets? there is a way to characterize density in terms of sequences in metric spaces, but i’m not sure if it breaks when you’re aren’t working in a metric space
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Net_(mathematics)#Properties
yeah. It works the same way
a subset Y of X is dense iff every element of X is a limit of some net in Y
thanks. would be interested if someone had an example where the sequential characterization broke in some top space. can’t think of one atm
Y = [0, omega1) is dense in X = [0, omega1], but every sequence in Y converges to an element in Y
topology is the order topology here, right?
yes
thanks
surely not every sequence converges. what about 0,1,0,1,0,1,...? i could see how every non-decreasing sequence converges to some element in Y.
I didn't say that every sequence converges
"every sequence in Y converges to an element in Y"
That's not math, that's just the way you speak. It might be confusing but it's correct
?
What it means is that every convergent sequence in Y converges to an element in Y.
that is different from what you said here
but thank you for clarifying
Like I said, it's an issue with English language, and it can be interpreted like I said that.
i still disagree, but thats ok
c squared is right
there is no english language issue
"every sequence in Y converges to an element in Y" includes the phrase "every sequence in Y converges" which is wrong
but whatever everyone knows what was meant
that doesn't make sense, a sentence changes meaning with words missing
in general, sure. but in this case the missing words don't change the fact that you said every sequence in Y converges
which is the problem, since that's not true
I didn't say that
i am copy pasting from your messages
lol
lmao
i did not know that you knew that we knew that you knew what we meant

"convergent" means "which converges" in this context
i think that everyone except you not understanding this should tell you that this meaning was not clear
even if it wasn't clear, that doesn't make it incorrect
tbf, i have never seen this used before
and I agree that it wasn't completely clear
sure, if you interpret it the way you meant. but what you meant was not clear
please just use words to say what you mean
there is never any harm in writing more down
no one is omnipotent
I meant that I can't be careful all the time about people understanding what I said, everyone is prone to mistakes
such things will happen
admit your mistake when it's called out, then
but what you said and what you meant are two diff things
I did agree
But I didn't agree that it's a wrong way to say it, and that I said it was convergent
agree to disagree?
anyway, it's all offtopic
right. so back to the example you gave, consider just listing the elements of Y in order, which you can do since Y is countable. this sequence converges to its supremum since it is non-decreasing, which is w_1
it's not a sequence though
in what sense?
a sequence has to be ordered by natural numbers
yes. there is a bijection N --> Y
every such sequence in [0, w_1) has a supremum which is < w1
this is because w1 is uncountable
oh wait what is happening i wrote that down a few seconds ago
there is a notion of generalized sequence which are ordered by an ordinal, and spaces in which such sequences define the topology also have a name (which I forgot)
but not every topological space satisfies this
wait so what is the supremum of {a : a < w_1}?
im under the impression that this set is countable
am i correct in saying that?
right
this is countably infinite, but each of its members is a finite ordinal
okay thanks, makes sense
{a : a < w_1} I think this is actually w1 by definition
so it's the same size as w1, trivially
cant be, thats circular
oh you're right
so Y is an open set, is sequentially closed, but not closed in X since its complement, {w_1} is not open in X. w_1 is a limit point of Y. interesting stuff going on here
what I meant is that if you look at the definition of ordinals by transfinite recursion then I think those should be the same by definition
yeah

Are you taking about nets?
No, I am talking about nets of the form $a:\alpha\to X$ for some ordinal $\alpha$
Blitz
I mean, nets are indexed by a preordered set, not necessarily an ordinal.
Ok
I’m reading Atiyah’s geometry and physics of knots and he is describing the axiomatic definition of a quantum field theory. He says that the axiom that $Z(\Sigma \times I)$ being the identity endomorphism of $Z(\Sigma)$ as well as functoriality is enough to give homotopy invariance. Can someone explain this.
vivasvat
I know that I said generalized sequence which is also another name for a net, but I meant literally "a generalization of sequence", sorry for confusion
I just remembered, those are called pseudoradial spaces
In the definition of simplicial homology, is it important that the vertices of each simplex have the ordering of a simplex? Meaning can the vertices of a triangle be oriented v_1 -> v_2, v_2 -> v_3, v_3 -> v_1 and we keep the orientation consistent everywhere
Because the usual ordering is that v_i < v_j iff i<j
So the orientation is supposed to be v_1 -> v_2, v_1 -> v_3, v_2 -> v_3 and not v_3 -> v_1
@coarse kestrel definitely! you can define whichever sign convention you want, so long as you preserve the property that d^2 = 0
the usual order v_1 < v_2 < ... < v_n is just the most convenient to state and generalize to all n
I see, and the resulting homology groups will still be the same? As in d^2=0 is the only thing we need?
If I have isomorphisms for all cohomology groups, how can I show in general this induces a isomorphism of rings for the cohomology rings?
I don't think you can. There are examples of spaces with the same cohomology groups but different ring structures.
@fair steeple Ah ok, specifically im trying to show the wedge sum isomorphism on cohomology rings from the isomorphisms on the groups. Does this just follow from the cup product satifying f^(a \smile b) = f^(a) \smile f^*(b)
I'm missing some context I think.. what do you mean by "the wedge sum isomorphism"?
Have that \tilde{H}^{n}(X \vee Y) \cong \tilde{H}^{n}(X) \oplus \tilde{H}^{n}(Y) on the reduced cohomology groups where X, Y are path connected, strong retracts ect. Trying to extend to ring isomorphism for \tilde{H}^{*}
Oh I see. But doesn't H^*(X v Y) begin its life as a subring of the other one, by Mayer Vietoris?
Hmm, only just been introduced to cohomology rings, it sounds true haha
I think it might be more beneficial to keep track of the entire ring structure from the very beginning, as you go through this argument
rather than just doing group and then trying to improve it to ring, for which there are counterexamples in general
when I say counterexamples I just mean spaces for which the groups match but the ring structures are different.. not counterexamples to the theorem you want, of course
I see
i'm trying to understand why the comb space is not locally path connected, but it is path connected
I can't think in terms of pictures at all,just definitions
could anyone give some hint?
Let $E:=\left( {0} \times {0,1} \cup \left(\left{\frac{1}{n}|n \in N \right } \right) \cup [0,1] \right) \cup \left( [0,1] \times {0} \right)$
This is a subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$, which is equipped with the subspace topology of the standard topology.
I want to show, that for every $y,z \in E$, there exists a continuous path, which connects them.
pretty sure you defined it incorrectly
should probably be {1/n} x [0, 1] and {0} x [0, 1]
but anyways if you take any point p on the first the hair of the comb (i.e. p = (0, y), where y ≠ 0), then consider any neighborhood basis
it necessarily contains a neighborhood that is a subset of B_y/2(p), so we examine that neighborhood
it doesn't reach all the way down to the base of the comb, but it does intersect the other hairs of the comb
so now you need to prove that there isn't a continuous arc connecting p and a point on another hair of the comb
hey if i have a cohomology theory defined on a subcategory are there any interesting ways to try and extend this to the whole category
like if i have a cohomology theory defined on compact hausdorff spaces
is there a good way to extend this by formal nonsense to all compactly generated spaces?
maybe by some nonsense with like, localizations in a sheaf or presheaf category
like
there's probably some kind of grothendieck topology on the category CH such that like compactly generated spaces can be regarded as a subcategory of sheaves on that space
It wouldn't be the whole category because compactly generated spaces for sure don't form a topos. that would be nuts
(What would be the subobject classifier lol)
but yeah i'd be interested if anybody has a reference for a reference that allows you to formally extend a cohomology theory from a category C to some category of sheaves over C
but all i really care about is the CH -> CG case
Just to verify
A sequentially compact metric space is complete, right ?
But every compact metric space is not necessarily complete
This is a better question for #real-complex-analysis, but for metric spaces, compact and sequentially compact are the same, and a metric space is compact iff it’s complete and totally bounded
Ok sorry, thank you
I disagree. This is not about analysis
Oh I guess fair yeah
Ok this might sound pretty convoluted but lemme explain,
Basically I played around with X, the set of all functions from [0,1] to [0,1] and I gave it a topology induced by the basis described below
I listed a few examples of how such basis elements would look like
And that's when I noticed that this kind of topology would actually... behave in a similar way to the discrete topology on [0,1]
I started topology recently so I don't know some of the more advanced concepts, but is there a name for such a correspondence of topologies on different spaces? Does it have something to do with quotient spaces?
In this space, any two functions f, g which have the same zeros are topologically indistinguishable.
Identifying such elements, the topology becomes the same as the subspace of functions from [0, 1] to {0, 1}
Do anyone know any place to learn the cat theory needed for reading tom diecks algtop book? Would the first chapter of mac lanes book be good?
I've read it, you just need nlab really
Nothing too difficulty from category theory is there
At least, I didn't learn any category theory myself. But I guess I knew what it is. So maybe you do need something like Mac Lane
yeah, that'd probably be good
just read first chapter and supplement with nlab
and all functions from [0,1] to {0,1} have a cardinality of 2^|R|, same as P(R) or P([0,1]), so that's why there's that connection right?
It's not really discrete
oh?
No singleton except for the function f(x) = 0 for all x is open here
sanity check: an "open basis at x" is a basis for the neighbourhoods of x right?
It's a family F of neighbourhoods of x such that any neighbourhood of x contains an element of F
I mean yeah but what I meant by "behave like" is that for example taking the intersection of Ua's corresponds to taking the intersections in the discrete topology on [0,1]
cheers
But the unions don't correspond to unions
yeah that's true
this reminds me of how vector spaces behave
an intersection of 2 vector subspaces is another vector subspace
I am confused in show that two definitions of chain homotopy are equivalent
one being the standard definition where h is a chain homotopy between f and g if
f-g=hd+dh
im trying to show this is equivalent to a chain homotopy is a chain map H:C \otimes I to D
C, D being R-modules and I being the "interval object" or something like that?
C,D being chain complexes
chain complex, right, sorry
and yes I is the interval in chain complexes so its
I_0=R<x_0,x_1>
and I_1=R<e>
and the differential maps e to x_1-x_0
so like here you think of x_0 and x_1 being the boudary of the interval
e is the 1-simplex between them
then the differential is just the boundary map
where i am stuck is
oh never mind i left out a term
all good now?
sorry no i do have a mistake
H has the property that
H(x \otimes x_0)=f(x)
H(x \otimes x_1)=g(x)
H(x \otimes e)=h(x)
i want to show that requiring this to be a chain map, so dH=Hd is equivlanent to g-f=hd-dh
but if i do Hd(x\otimes e) i get
$H( dx\otimes e +(-1)^{|x|} x \otimes x_1 - (-1)^{|x|} x \otimes x_0)=h(dx)+ (-1)^{|x|} g(x) -(-1)^{|x|}f(x)$
lime_soup
so putting this equal to dH(x\otimes e) we get
$hd(x)-dh(x)=(-1)^{|x|}(f(x)-g(x))$
lime_soup
so there is this extra factor of (-1)^{|x|} that i don't understand
I think these 2 definitions aren't exactly the same, but there's a canonical bijection between the homotopies defined in the 2 different ways
If you want on the nose agreement, you should take I ⊗ C → D instead of C ⊗ I → D
ah thank you very much
and this morphism is just the
natural iso that
makes the tensor product of chain complexes commutative up to natural iso
and the factor (-1)^degx was weird because
the element e has degree 1
and that why the f and g were inthe wrong order
thank you very very much
Np ✓
so long story short
the morally right thing to do is always write homotopies as H:I times A
Maybe 
Or you could argue that the hd + dh = f - g equation is morally incorrect
It doesn't matter much when there's a natural isomorphism anyway 
Hey guys!
I've just recently finished my linear algebra course, and our professor put down some bases for projective geometry. One of them was the notion of the projective line and projective plane. To display visually such thing, while accounting for points on such spherical surface (using this specific representation of the projective plane based on ℝ³) which are equal in the relation of equivalence defined by points being on the same line but on opposide sides (bozo notation "" -a=a ""), we reduced such surface to half of itself.
But then we still had to account for the line at infinity where technically we would have to bind all points on opposide sides.
He lacked time, so he didn't complete the weird transformation, but he smashed down the half sphere to a circle, cut it in 3, made a mobius strip out of the middle and yada yada.
I'm using yada yada because I guess that you know what I'm saying (hoping that I have explained myself to the fullest).
He advised us to look for a representation in 3d of the completed re-binded weirdly curved surface, and I was wondering if any of you knew what thing to look for online, because my luck has been bad :(
My course is in italian, so I suffer from "how the fuck do you translate this" and my explanations get really bad in english. Sorry if it's difficult to comprehend
Sounds like you may be expected to invent the https://mathworld.wolfram.com/Cross-Cap.html
The self-intersection of a one-sided surface. The word "cross-cap" is sometimes also written without the hyphen as the single word "crosscap." The cross-cap can be thought of as the object produced by puncturing a surface a single time, attaching two zips around the puncture in the same direction, distorting the hole so that the zips line up, ...
Thank you ❤️
Every compact subset of a matric space is always complete
Is this statement true ?
(X,d) is compact if and only if (X,d) is complete and totally bounded. As such, your statement is true. 😇
Oh I see,thank you
I think you already asked that
Yes, i was still confused with the sequentially compact and compact
I'm trying to show that R2/E has 3 connected components, where E is homeomorphic to "8" (two circles intersecting in 1 point)
could this be proven just using basic topology and jordan curve theorem?
yes
Hm the details of this are actually more annoying than I was thinking
Okay there should be some epsilon such that if you thicken the borders of both circles by epsilon they don’t touch
Then take the disks inside of these thickened boundaries
These will both have two connected components by JCT
Then you can show that two of those are the same in the larger space
Something like this ought to work
I'm not sure I'm following this, they are already touching
Oh right I swapped the problem in my head (both are true)
You can probably adjust this same idea somehow
There also should be some (infinite) path in the plane separating the two and then you can solve it by splitting the plane and doing each circle on at a time
Maybe there’s an easier way
Let me think
Okay this is better I think
The JCT tells you that a circle splits the plane into an outside and inside component
And the outside components of both circles are the same
And the inside ones have to be disjoint
I think formalizing that to whatever level you need is the right strategy
Oh wait that’s not true
Oof
I’m at the airport and embarassing myself let me sit down and I’ll get back to this if someone doesn’t save me
:p yep this is surprisingly harder than it seems, just like jct I guess
Okay what is true is that this is one of two cases
The other case is that one circle is inside the other
So here’s a better explanation
I place down one circle
I get two components
I place down a second circle that intersects the first at exactly one point
This has to be contained entirely in the inside or outside components
Both components are homeo to R^2
And placing a circle will separate it into two components
Giving 3 totale
I’m sweeping the point at which they meet under the rug, but it should be clear that this doesn’t make a difference
I wonder if there is a way to construct explicit homeo from R2/“8” to space with 3 connected components
For sure not
Unless by R2/8 you mean a specific copy of 8
Like if you allow any embedding it won’t work
ohhhh got it, cool proof!
This is only true locally***
But that’s a very easy thing to fix since circles are compact (bounded)
Embedd R^2 into S^2 then?
Oh that works nicely
i dont see why that is true
R2/8 is basically just R2 minus a point along with 2 circles
If you allow an arbitrary embedding writing down an explicit homeomorphism is not going to really work
can you give me any insight as to why it wont work?
why cant i just take the disjoint union of the three spaces (R^2 minus a point and two copies of B^2) and then map R^2/8 into that space?
ig im just not sure what information im missing. also, not trying to argue with you, im just trying to see where my reasoning is breaking
I think we are having a linguistic difference
By explicit homeo I mean like
Writing down f(x,y)=…
The actual coordinate-wise shape of this general thing
Can be quite gross
ah okay
I know the following statements are equivalent:
i) $X$ is Hausdorff, compact and completely disconnected
ii) $X$ is compact and completely separated
iii) $X$ is compact, $T_0$ and zero-dimensional
iv) $X$ is Hausdorff and coherent
My question is, is the condition v) ‘$X$ is Hausdorff, compact and extremally disconnected’ also equivalent?
dgallego
I know these conditions define what it's called a 'Stone space' and I've found a theorem that (if I've understood it right) says (v) is equivalent, but the proof uses the Stone representation theorem for boolean algebras and I'd like a more fundamental way to see that, if it's possible
Hi dgallego i'm researching this as well
and
I believe the answer is no.
carefully reading section 4 here
there is a one to one correspondence between totally disconnected CH spaces and boolean algebras, up to isomorphism
and this restricts to a correspondence between extremally disconnected CH spaces and complete boolean algebras
Since not every Boolean algebra is complete, not every totally disconnected CH space is extremally disconnected
this seems really interesting
Yes, this is one of the first historical examples of an equivalence of categories.
If you have a couple minutes, I strongly recommend downloading Peter Johnstone's book on Stone spaces and reading the introduction
(about 10 pages or so)
there is the general procedure of: if you have an equivalence relation (say connectedness,path connectedness), then you have a functor from Top to Set, induced by this relation
now,I showed that being in the same quasi component defines an equivalence relation
does this mean, that this induces a functor?
note that quasi components are preserved by continuous maps
Oh I see, I didn't realize the problem relies on the completeness of the Boolean algebra, thanks!
Thanks for your question btw, the notion of extremally disconnected turned out to be exactly what i needed for a problem i'm working on
Cool!
I'm from Spain and here at the end of the degree it's mandatory to do some kind of 'research' (not producing new results but investigate about some topic and expose the existent results) and a big part of this assignment is about the correspondence between the categories of boolean algebras and stone spaces
if someone is interested in correspondences between spaces and algebra there's one very interesting between spectral spaces and spectrums of rings with the Zariski topology. It's a well known result from Hochster but I came across with a inductive process that allows you, given a poset, to find a ring whose spectrum is the poset you have when ordered by inclusion
in this case is not a duality or equivalence between categories since there are many rings that produce the same spectrum as a poset, but I think this inductive method it's quite interesting by it's own
What is a spectral space?
The spaces that are T0, compact, coherent, sober and have the finite intersection property for open compacts (the intersection of two open compacts is compact)
The spectrum of a ring with the zariski topology is a spectral space, and the converse holds: every spectral space arises from the spectrum of a ring
can someone help me understanding the statement of the theorem? the title is "proving a map that admits local sections" is a quotient map
however,in the question, I do not see where existence of local sections is assumed. they assume there is an open cover?
this is the proposition I am trying to prove
They assumed that there is a cover V_j such that for each j, there is a map g_j such that f(g_j(y))=y. Notice how this is exactly the condition 2, where an open cover is just a quick way of saying for every y there is such open set
it is more than that
it assumes that the union of those open sets is the whole space
Right
it doesn't say union of all V is the space
So you get an open cover by taking all such neighborhood at each point
yes,this is what I fail to see.
Clearly,taking union of all those points will create a larger set than X
i.e. X subset union
why union subset X?
ah,then: union of subsets of X is subset of X
hence X=union for all x in X V_x, where V_x is open nbhd of x?
is this the argument?
Yes
also,then this statement is not minimal
cause in 2) it would need not require surjectivity
that follows
It's a very common situation: where "every point x has an open neighborhood V such that some statement holds" is the same as "there is an open cover where for each open set, a statement holds"
Well statement 2 implies surjectivity
that's my point
they assume it in the statement of 2
by assuming surjectivitiy of g
so it's not minimal,in this sense,even if true
yeah,but they could make 2 different theorems I think
like 2 propositions,instead of 1
to be minimal
I mean sure lol, that doesn't quite matter
for the univ property of quotients,why do we need to require constancy on fibers?
It's a necessary condition
why?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2560556/f-continuous-leftrightarrow-f-circ-p-continuous-implies-p-quotient-map in this answer they seem not to use constancy on fibers
Say $\pi:X\to X/\sim$ is a quotient map, say $f:X\to Y$ is a map such that there exists a map $g:X/\sim\to Y$ with $f=g\circ\pi$, then if $x,y$ are both in the same fiber, meaning $x,y\in \pi\inv(a)$, then $f(x)=g(\pi(x))=g(a)=g(\pi(y))=f(y)$
Whoever
Meaning if induced map exists then the original map has to be constant on the fibers
can you give a counterexample why this fails?
Why what fails
why is this theorem false?
I proved it
and I never used constancy on fibers
neither stated it
I mean $f=\bar{f}\circ\pi$ will imply $f$ is constant on the fibers as I literally just proved
Whoever
You don't necessarily need to use f being constant on the fibers to prove the theorem
I'm not sure
that is,if f exists
I need to prove first,that the quotient topology exists,it satisfies the universal property
and after this, I get as corollary constancy on fibers?
the thing is you said this is a necessary condition
but i don't see where it needs be used per se
i'd say it's not necessary at all,it is a corollary(which i can't precisely see yet)
Because the function can't be defined otherwise.
This has nothing to do with topology, really
Just pure set theory
It's the same in algebra, for group, ring, module homomorphisms
If you want functions f, g, h such that h = fg then h(x) = h(y) whenever g(x) = g(y)
So the 'kernel' of g needs to be contained in the 'kernel' of h
It's not a corollary - you have to assume that ker(g) is contained in ker(h) in order for it to be possible to exist such f
For set theoretic reasons as above. Remarkable is that it's often enough to assume just that
At least in algebra, because in topology it only really works for quotient maps
Because if that criterion holds, we can define f uniquely (assuming g is surjective). But it turns out this f will often be a morphism in our desired category already
Is $\mathbb{C} - [-1, 1]$ is not dense in $\mathbb{C}$?
ctx.author
It is dense
So if f is entire function whose range is C-[-1,1] then f must be constant how to prove this?
I think again i need to change the channel ☹️
In complex analysis, Picard's great theorem and Picard's little theorem are related theorems about the range of an analytic function. They are named after Émile Picard.
Oh yes, Thank you.
is this a good way of showing that an arbitrary intersection of open sets from the co-countable topology is not open?
or could this be written in a more compact and easy to understand way?
the empty set is open
oh
yeah true lol
well I can just take away 1 set from the intersection and be left with a singleton right?
Let $X$ be a locally compact Hausdorff space, and let $X^+=X\cup{\infty}$ be its one-point compactification. Let $Y\subseteq X$ be a subset. Compute the closure of $Y$ in $X^+$ in terms of its closure in $X$. I dont really know how to go about this.
Ursus1234
Do you know how closures work in the one-point compactification?
no, not really. I have definition where if Y is compact Haursdorff space and X a proper subspace og Y whos closure equals Y, then Y is said to be a compactification of X
OK, then I guess you'll have to work out some results about one-point compactifications using that definition. Suppose S is a closed set in the one-point compactification that does not contain oo (infinity). The what can you say about this set as a subspace of X?
hmm Im not sure. Wouldnt that mean it would be closed in X as well?
Yes. Very good. But there is more you can say.
hmm ok, let me think 2 min
is it compact as well?
if Y is closed in X+ it follows that Y is compact?
Yes. Very good.
In fact, this is an iff result.
closed in X+ iff closed and compact in X.
OK. We'll get there. Now suppose S is closed an contains infinity.
then its not a subspace of X right?
Right, but what could you say about S - {oo} as a subspace of X?
closed and compact...
Well, it can't be compact because of the iff result I just stated above.
but wasnt S-{oo} just the set we talked about before
Yes. But in that case we were assuming that S - {oo} is closed in X+. Here we have assumed that S is closed in X+.
ok so now we are assuming that S a set containing infinity is closed in X+?
Correct. We're considering two cases for S: it has oo and it doesn't.
if it doesnt its closed and compact
We will have to consider these two cases when computing the closure too.
ok
Best to compute this by asking yourself question: What are closed sets in the one-point compactification of X?
That's what we're doing in fact.
thats what Im having trouble with, still trying to understand one point compactification and closures
And those are 1) compact subsets of X and 2) closed subsets of X together with point at infinity
That's by definition of the one-point compactification
Right. 2) is what we were working out right now.
So you have two cases 1) cl(Y) is compact and 2) cl(Y) is not compact
where cl(Y) means closure in X
If cl(Y) is compact, then this will be the same as closure in the one-point compactification
Because the one-point compactification is Hausdorff (since X was assumed to be loc. compact and Hausdorff)
and if cl(Y) is not compact?
If it's not compact in X, then cl(Y) can't be equal the closure of Y in the one-point compactification of X
but cl(Y) is the intersection of it with X
(that's how closures in subspaces work)
hmm ok, why is your notation for closure in X cl(Y)?
cl_X(Y)
cl is short for closure
That's the notation for closure of Y in X.
ok
I just didn't want to differ between those so I mentioned explicitly it's for X
so we know that cl(Y) is a proper subset of closure of Y in the one-point compactification, and that its intersection with X is precisely cl(Y)
and there is only one point we can really add to it
the point at infinity
so it must be precisely cl(Y) together with the point at infinity
hmm ok. Ill try wrapping my brain around it
need to get some lunch now
thank you both of you
Hi there! I'm currently searching for examples of locally compact non-metrizable Hausdorff spaces.
One contender I came up with is the real product of [0,1], which is compact (Tychonoff) and Hausdorff, but not first countable, in particular non-metrizable, as far as I have made no mistake.
I'd love to know whether this is correct, and find other examples. :D
You mean [0, 1]^continuum ?
Any uncountable product of spaces is not metrizable
So any uncountable product of compact Hausdorff spaces is compact Hausdorff but not metrizable
And locally compact Hausdorff spaces are precisely compact Hausdorff spaces without a point
What if most spaces in your product consist of a single point?
I forgot to say non-trivial
Can you give me a proof sketch for that? :D
Oh nevermind, you can just show they're not first-countable just as you would do it for [0,1]^continuum I guess.
How can I find a locally compact Hausdorff space X and a function f : X -> IR, such that f is the limit of a monotonous increasing net of continuous functions with compact support, but not the limit of a monotonous increasing sequence of continuous functions with compact support?
Isn't the constant sequence a monotonous increasing sequence of functions
But only if f itself is continuous with compact support. :)
I know that X must be non-metrizable for that to exist, so I'm searching for some suitable f in like X={0;1}^continuum right now, but I have no idea how to prove some function is not a sequential monotonous limit of cont. f. with comp. supp.
Well I'm thinking maybe take the one point compactification X* and take a function f that is 0 at infinity and nonzero everywhere else. Then take a net indexed by the compact subsets of your X and functions that are supported in your compact set and agree with f in some region inside the compact set. Then if f is the limit of a monotonous sequence of compactly supported functions will imply X is sigma compact by taking the support of each function, so take X to be a non sigma compact space
But I'm trying to work out the details
Hmm doesn't make sense
What doesn't make sense? :)
Well the existence of such f will require X to be sigma compact so it doesn't make sense to take X to be a non sigma compact space lmao
So my answer doesn't make sense nvm I tried 
Haha don't worry, thanks for your input regardless. 
For context, I'll hold a seminar presentation on Bourbaki/Stone Integration Theory soon, which makes use of nets instead of sequences to remain correct for non-metrizable locally compact Hausdorff Spaces.
... But I have yet to find an example that legitimizes this decision. xD
Any particular reason you are using nets and not filters?
Uhh all the literature I have available uses nets, I honestly have never encountered the concept of a filter. 😅
Wow, really? OK. For me, it's the other way around.
hello, I really need help, I have an exam tomorrow and I am studying topology, sets, can anyone explain to me what an open, closed set is? and like... what's closure and interior point? I have to clarify that I am only a high school student in Georgia (Country) I am like in the 12th grade and This exam is going to be in an olympiad which if answered 30% correctly, I can get scholarship in my university
Metric or general topology?
Were topological spaces defined, or were you guys working with metric spaces
alright, so a topology is a family of subsets of a given set X such that it's closed under arbitrary unions, finite intersections, and contains the empty set and X
elements of topology are called open sets
a complement of an open set is a closed set
sorry if this is a dumb question... but What's a complement?
closure of a set A is the smallest closed set F such that A is contained in F
equivalently, closure of A is intersection of all closed sets containing A
If A is a set, then its complement (in X) is the set X\A, that is all points in X which aren't elements of A
aah okay, got it
finally, the interior of a set A is the biggest open set contained in A
an interior point of A is a point in the interior of A
any questions?
if X is {a, b, c} and tau is {empty set, {a}, {a, b}, X}
can you tell me, like which set is closed, open and which is the interior or closure?
we speak of interior and closure with respect to some subset A
open sets here are empty set, {a}, {a, b} and X
closed sets are empty set, {b, c}, {c} and X
Give me a set A and I can take closure/interior of it
I am sorry, I am not used to this kind of theoritical explanations in algebra, I totally just do a lot of textbook problems 😅
A {b, c} is that allowed?
It's not algebra, topology is borderline analysis and geometry (very roughly speaking)
Yes, any subset will do
yeah, I know I just compared it's learning pattern to algebra's learning pattern
cl({b, c}) = {b, c} and int({b, c}) = empty set
cl means closure and int means interior here
closure operator is a function, denoted cl, which to a subset A assigns its closure cl(A)
okay, thank you so much ❤️ you were a great help ❤️
np
for all
and what's the basis of topology?
did you check wikipedia or any textbooks for the definition?
It's a collection of open sets which is closed under finite intersections
yes, but I feel like it's kinda all over the place
@opal pond I said something wrong here, my bad
I must be tired or something
It a collection $\mathcal{B}$ of open sets such that every open set is union of elements of $\mathcal{B}$, or equivalently, for any $B_1, B_2\in \mathcal{B}$ and $x\in B_1\cap B_2$ there is $B_3\in\mathcal{B}$ such that $x\in B_3\subseteq B_1\cap B_2$
Blitz
Motivation is like this: we often specify topology in terms of its basis.
For example, topology of a metric space, we define open sets as unions of open balls $B(x, r) = {y : d(x, y)<r}$ where $d$ is a given metric. Those balls then form a basis for topology.
Blitz
Thanks ❤️
I'm back with another trivial looking result I can't deal with 🙂
If X in R2 is homeomorphic to the closed disk, show that R2\X is connected
seems like it should follow right from jordan curve theorem but only thing it tells me, as far as I can see, is that the interior of X is either in an unbounded component or in a bounded one
not sure what else to do from that
The property "compact subset of R^n separates it" is a topological invariant
This can be proven
So we can assume X is the unit disk
The proof uses some results such as no-retraction theorem, but it's elementary otherwise. It's not trivial to come up the proof with either
what do you mean by "separates it"?
We say A separates Y if Y\A is disconnected
This result is how you can prove Jordan's theorem. At least in part, because it doesn't tell you about how many components does the subspace separates R^n into
You need further analysis using tools from algebraic topology for that
I see, thanks
still wondering if there's just an easy way out with JCT, I think there should be...
It's doable
You can separate R^2 into two parts using the boundary of your disk
Main difficulty would be to prove that the interior of the disk is the bounded component
Things get a little complicated here
It's contained in it for sure, this only uses connectedness
can you elaborate why? It could in principle be mapped outside, sort of like an annulus
(because of the fundamental group this is not the case, but other weird cases could hold (maybe?))
You're right, my bad
isn't the connectedness of the two components part of the statement of the jordan curve theorem?
Take a point in the bounded component such that the disk doesn't touch.
And treat the disk as a subset of punctured plane
bruh wtf is this I am so confused
If we consider path around the boundary of that disk, we get a path in the disk which can't be contracted
This is a contradiction
I could be brainfarting but given that X is homeomorphic to a closed disk, i don't think this can happen
So every point of the bounded component is a point from interior of the disk, from connectedness, it needs to be equal
It was just a hypothetical comment, I think
Hopefully you can formalize this
I'm still processing it hmmm
and yep, this shouldn't happen but my point was to proof that this does not happen
I'm sorry I'm not getting it, loops in the punctured plane can't always be contracted
This is a loop in the disk
Which a contractible space
But at the same time, a non-trivial loop in the punctured plane
Hence contradiction
Essential loop
got it, wasn't understanding this
yup I think that works, thanks 🙂
You're welcome
what's a natural topology?
One that, if polled, 9 out of 10 mathematicians will agree is the best one on a given set.
whut?
Trying to understand a bit more about van Kampen, is it effectively just saying that if X = A \cup B and everything is path-connected (plus whatever other nice conditions) then the fundamental group functor preserves pushouts? In particular, X is the pushout of the inclusions A <- A \cap B -> B, and van Kampen is saying that \pi_1(X) is the pushout of \pi_1(A) <- \pi_1(A \cap B) -> \pi_1(B), right?
idk how to do diagrams with the latex bot here :/
Van Kampen is better thought of in terms of the fundamental groupoid functor
Then it's precisely a statement that this functor preserves push-outs
@coarse kestrel does this look legit now? the proof we discussed yesterday
@gritty widget sorry for not replying to your messages yesterday regarding the quotient topology,i'm still progressing it- will get back to you in like 30-45minutes when i TeX the proof
Natural topology on R^n is the one generated from the standard metric d(x, y) = |x-y| where |x| = sqrt(x_1^2+...+x_n^2)
it's not immediately obvious to me what pushouts are in the category of groupoids?
$A^d$
LukitoTheWise
what do you call this?
Do you need to know what they are? Computationally-wise, you'll still use the version with groups
but the picture I have in mind goes something like this: we can't apply normal van kampen to compute the fundamental group of the circle, but it feels like if you have two open arcs which cover the circle, you can fix two points (one in each intersection), and then use the fact that each arc is contractible, hence there's one homotopy class of paths between the points in each arc. Taking some sort of pushout here yields two distinct homotopy classes of paths between the points, and looking at the endomorphisms of one of the points in the fundamental groupoid shows that it's isomorphic to Z @gritty widget
ah yeah ig that's true
it was moreso about guaranteed existence but i feel okay taking that for granted
Existence of pushouts?
yeah
I've been thinking about this, why would the image of the loop around the border of the disk be non contractible? It feels very obvious geometrically but I can't find any justification
if the point was in the disk, then sure, but by assumption it was not
Because of its winding number being non-zero
was thinking about that too, but why it would be non-zero? which theorem is implying this?
I know that the winding number of a circle in the punctured plane is non-zero (1)
but is this preserved by homeorphic images? it surely is not by just continuous images (I could make it do two loops instead)
@gritty widget I got your point. the constancy on fibers has nothing to do with topology. it is pure set theoretic requirement for the map to exist, as yo usaid
found a counterexample to see why it is as you said
Hey guys, I noticed that continuity in topology is not the same continuity in functions, do they differ greatly? Or is it the same thing, but just said topologicly?
Hey guys, I noticed that continuity in topology is not the same continuity in functions, do they differ greatly? Or is it the same thing, but just said topologicly?
the latter
And what is homeomorphism?
a continuous map of topological spaces with a continuous inverse
Can you give me an example of a non-sigma-compact locally-compact non-metrizable Hausdorff space?
What is omega_1?
first uncountable ordinal
I haven't studied ordinals yet - any other manner of definining the space?

well, I could try but I don't see a reason to
ordinals correspond to well-orders
they are "equivalence classes" of them
ordinals can again be "well-ordered"
in particular we can consider what's the "smallest" uncountable well-order
this is omega_1
like, in my opinion, it's not necessary to study topology without knowledge of ordinals
but if you want examples, then it's good to have those
so imo, you should learn ordinals
and come back
I feel like that's way too big a time investment just to construct examples
that's not an investment at all
As long as you have some key properties of omega_1 you can prove these properties for the space
when you first learn about cardinals etc., you basically learn ordinals with them
Well depends on how deep you go
Assuming you study set theory properly
see Dugudnji's "Topology", first chapter
Very often people just learn about basic cardinality arguments in an intro analysis course and never learn about ordinal arithmetic (like everyone at my college)
@gritty widget Fair enough, I'll keep that in mind. :) In the end, I'm just searching for any way to answer my question linked here, which is probably an analysis question, but kind of lives off the topology of X, I guess.
[0, omega_1) isn't as scary as it might seem, it's an uncountable analogue of natural numbers
If you go about finding counterexamples seriously, you will inexorably encounter ordinals/cardinals.
Yep. And if you want to dive deep enough into topology issues, there'll be some heavy set theory here and there.
Things like forcing and such... I don't know much about those things
Basically, all I want to achieve is somehow legitimize that the Bourbaki Extension Process in Bourbaki Integration Theory uses nets instead of sequences.
Even when working with metric spaces - there are examples of subspaces of the real line for example, that are very cool but also set theoretical in nature (depend on the axiom of choice)
Working in general, you have to be prepared to work with some pretty general spaces
It's just how things are
I know of an example of a non-metrizable topological space used in analysis: bounded [0,1] -> R functions. There is no metric that describes pointwise-convergence of these functions.
Yeah, I get that absolutely. There's a lot to explore. ^^
A little more elementary example would be an uncountable discrete space. Or more generally, you can take the sum (cf. Bourbaki TG I, §2, n°4) of an uncountable family of non empty compact spaces.
As for your actual goal, I think nets/filters are more canonical than sequences and it's actually sequences that lack legitimacy... 
A discrete space is sadly metrizable, I'll check out the ither example.
I know for sure nets are more legitimate than sequences, I just couldn't find a single example where monotonous nets of C_c(X) functions offer more limit functions than sequences of such functions 😅, but I will definitely need such an example to explain the entire approach in comparison to the Daniell-Stone net based approach on locally compact metric spaces we covered in class.
Guys what's a card in topological mathematics?
I haven't heard of this. Can you provide more context?
I couldn't find this concept on google.
uh do you mean chart?
oops didn"t read the whole original meassage xd
Ignoring metrizability (which isn't very important for the integral), you can see that if a function f on a locally compact space X is the upper envelope of a countable family of non negative compactly supported continuous functions, then the set of points x in X such that f(x)>0 is contained in the union of a countable family of compact sets.
So as long as X cannot be written as the union of a countable family of some of its compact subsets, then the constant function 1 on X is not the upper envelope of a countable family of non negative compactly supported continuous functions, but is for sure the upper envelope of all the non negative compactly supported continuous functions majorized by 1
if you translate the word we use in german for chart literally you'd get card as well
yeah true i just said that because there might be more languages who'd translate it like that
i'll just wait for them to provide more context 
So im trying to show the following. Let $X$ be a topological space, $A\subseteq X$ a closed subset. Show that if $X$ is $T_3$, then the quotient space $X/A$ is Hausdorff. I can intuitively understand that its true, Im not really sure how to show it. I was wondering if instead of showing $p\Rightarrow q$ that I could show $\neg q\Rightarrow \neg p$. But I dont know if its better/easier...
well, T3 means you can separate points with closed sets
btw you wrote quotient wrong, it should be X/A
If you take two points x, y which are not in A, how would you separate them in X/A?
Ursus1234
thank you
finding/showing a neighbourhood around each of those points...
I think
disjoint ones I presume
yes
yeah, we can always do that, but there's one thing, we don't want them to touch A
now if you project this into X/A, they should still be open and separate those points
so the only thing left is that if x is a point which is not in A, then we can separate x with A (assuming here that A is non-empty)
in X/A
And this is pretty much the same, you use that the space is T3 and then project onto X/A
np.
Ohh, thank you, that's perfect! :D
Hey guys, I was able to prove that an infinite set has infinitely many topologies like this (using the well ordering theorem for any uncountable sets in a similar manner). How else could I prove it without relying on orderings?
Why not just take everything outside of a countable set to be open? Then you can assume your set is countable
to construct T0, just choose a point, which is always possible
To go from Tn to Tn+1, just choose a point outside of the largest open strict subset of Tn.
oh so we construct topologies based on the uncountable set we exclude?
also yeah that's a better way of expressing my idea, without orderings
how can one classify vector bundle structures on a fiber bundle with vector space fiber R^n?
Do you mean that the base is itself a fiber bundle?
I don't see what difference that would make, but it reads as if that's what you want.
Vector bundles are classified by homotopy classes of maps from the base into Grassmannians, but this is usually not very practical.
It is pretty practical in this case
What case?
in the case in which you are trying to classify the things that you just gave a classification for lol
A classification theorem puts two things in bijection, the objects being classified and the "classifier" space, so to speak. In that sense any classification is great.
But that doesn't mean that it's easy to compute.. this is what I mean by practical.
I know, I was being snide
If you classify something by natural numbers that's easy to understand, but I don't think anybody can claim to easily compute the cohomology of BO(n) for every n.
in the case that the space in question is contractible 🙂
OHHHH
IM so sorry
I misread prophet's message
hahaha
I thought they wanted to classify bundles over R^n
Yeah, the fiber is contractible.. which is always true.
yeah the representing thing isn't super useful most of the time i agree
What does K(*,*) generally refer to?
Ive seen it several times and cannot google it
For example:
see "eilenberg-maclane space"
oop
yep
thanks!
so for this, we're saying (using notation from the wiki page) that S=X, and G = $\pi_1(S)$?
Migillope
yes
And so then obviously $\pi_1(S) \cong G \coloneq \pi_1(S)$, and all other homotopy groups are trivial since the universal cover of S is contractible
No, S and X don't have to be the same, X = K(G, 1)
Migillope
I mean in the context of the screenshot, the S there is the X on the wiki page?
yes, sorry
Basically checking that "is a K(*,*) space" means "is an Eilenberg-MacLane space of type K(*,*)"
you may be looking for $\coloneqq$
TTerra
and you are correct on the homotopy groups
I mean, i give you a fiber bdl with fiber R^n as input and ask how many inequivalent vector bundles can i build out of it
And which are those
at least in the smooth case, the multiplication by reals completely determines the vector bundle
that might mean something
this isn't a suggestive remark btw, i'm just throwing stuff out there
all finite dimensional hasudorff TVSs of the same dimension are isomorphic
so i imagine the uniqueness of continuous vector space structures on R^n are enough to say that the vector bundle structure is unique for a fixed fiber bundle, but idk
what's the book's definition of a topological space? i've never seen the requirement that they be non-empty
I've seen non empty
the book's definition is the most important
Empty set is 100% a topological space.
just about every reference i can think of doesn't require non-emptyness
It is not a based topological space
its not that big of a deal
ya
at the pinnacle of mathematics are questions about signs and the empty set
thing is, I thought singletons are
No
I used to that is
They would not be even if you removed the empty set
wait so what's the fundamental group of empty set?
You always take fundamental groups of based spaces
the empty set is not a based space
a cringe space if you will
Mandela effect
Where can I find a proof for this?
tl;dr: a map of total spaces of vector bundles is a vector bundle morphism if and only if it intertwines the scalar multiplications
Which theorem here?
around corollary 2.1
The language is so abstract
let me try to motivate the result. suppose $V, W$ are finite-dimensional real vector spaces and $\varphi\colon V \to W$ intertwines the scalar multiplications. picking bases, we can assume $V = \bR^n$ and $W = \bR$. fixing $x \in V$ and differentiating $f(tx) = tf(x)$ with respect to $t$ at $t = 0$, we have $$f(x) = \sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial f}{\partial x^i}(0) x^i,$$ which shows that $f$ is a linear map.
TTerra
doing this consistently fiberwise is the more difficult part
maybe posting the whole paper just for this specific result was a little overkill, but hey there's some fun stuff in there so why not
Why W=R?
pick a basis of W and work componentwise
They definitely are. I just don't see "empty metric space" defined often
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metric_space
like on wikipedia here
once we had an argument, my professor was like "there is no empy metric space", and I give him counter arguments, that you can define a unique metric on it, and someone said that there's no empty metric space on wikipedia, lol. I gave up
at my uni you lose a mark if you don't specify the metric space is non-empty when stating banach fixed point thm oof
Nah, it's all conventions. Things usually break for empty sets so people don't like to include them. But it's usually the same either way anyway, lol
Similarly in universal algebra you assume algebras are non-empty. But like, from category theory perspective, removing those means you remove initial objects from your categories.
In the end it doesn't change much
Am I correct to assume that the Long Line is a locally compact non-metrizable non-sigma-compact Hausdorff Space?
yes
Thanks!
The moral of the story re: emptyset is that the emptyset is included if and only if the theorems are true with it included
Can you define a map between topological spaces by saying where the basic open sets of the domain space go to?
Open sets in a basis are a cover of the space, so yes. If you declare where basic open sets go, you're also specifying where all points go
There is a slight distinction to be made
One interperetation is that we are simply looking at the like
formal lattice of open sets
and describing a like ordered map between them
the other is to define a set map on all the open sets that can "glue" to a full map
the latter is equivalent to the data of a continuous map but the former is not unless you space is sober
Theorem 1.1. Suppose U is open in a locally compact Hausdorff space X, K ⊂ U , and K is compact. Then there is an open set V with compact closure s.t. K ⊂ V ⊂ V- ⊂ U . [Rudin p.37]
I don't have a copy of Rudin - any tip on how to prove this? I remember a similar statement for normal spaces, and assuming this is not far from it, as we are locally normal.
You can find a pdf of rudin online, but this also should be doable? Don’t have time personally
yeah, you have lots of results for locally compact Hausdorff spaces analogical to those for normal spaces
Tietze and Urysohn theorem also get their own versions iirc
You prove this very easily actually, for every point of K take a compact neighborhood disjoint from U
I think
Or maybe like, if U^c is compact then we can separate K and U^c since the space is Hausdorff
Otherwise U^c union {infinity} is compact and disjoint from K
Take two disjoint neighbourhoods, then intersecting with X, they're still open
infinity is the point at infinity from the one point compactification
Oh yeah, I forgot you can use one-point-compactification in such scenarios, gonna keep it in mind, thanks!
the one point compactification argument is cooler
This result is similar to: In a locally compact space, every compact set is contained in the interior of a compact set.
I wonder how complicated the proof would be using filters.
Is there a difference between the product/trivial bundle and the tangent bundle other than how the local trivializations are constructed?
why is munkres going through all this trouble
wdym
like why define cartesian products with the idea of an m-tuple as a map
though if im being honest i dont really get how the m-tuple is a map from an index set to X
its the best way to do it formally
an m tuple is
a first element
a second element
...
an mth element
this is the same as a function from {1,...,m} to your set
x_1 is the image of 1 under this function
x_2 is the image of 2
and so on
so like if f:{1,...,m}-> X is a function
the associated tuple is
(f(1),f(2),...,f(m))
TIL ryc is good at celeste
this made more sense though thanks 
so just to be clear that map he defines in the first line is just how we formally index the m-tuple?
yeah an m tuple is formalized this way
or at least this is one way, and probably the best one imo
the issue is that sets have no notion of order and can't contain duplicates
but functions out of ordered sets do have an order implicitly and also can have duplicates
How does he formalize sequences?
Don't know Munkres, but pretty universally an A-sequence is a function f : IN -> A.
What is the set X^{omega}? Is that standard notation? I can't find where it's previously mentioned in this book
This is munkres btw
omega = {0, 1, 2, ...}
X^omega is product of countable amount of copies of X
it can be thought of as the set of all functions from N to {0,1}
OH
Ok
Thanks
That must be isomorphic to set of all infinite strings of 0's and 1's
f(n)=g_n(k), where g_n(k)=1 if n=k and 0 otherwise. Does that satisfy as an answer?
Also, concerning a "choice function," can I think of it as a function such that an element in the image has form ((A_1,x_1),(A_2, x_2), ...), in other words you input a set of sets, and it outputs a collection of ordered pairs consisting of an element and the set it lives in (from the set of sets).
Here x_n is in A_n
So, if the collection A is all nonempty subsets of the positive integers, a choice function could be "select the least integer in each"
yea
have you seen the notation B^A for the set of functions {f: A —> B} ? if so, then the space of m-tuples X^m (in the sense of a list) gets identified with functions {f: m —> X} where m is viewed as a set with m elements (as a von Neumann ordinal)
which is exactly the definition munkres has
maybe I'm weird but I think this is a cool example of good notation
agreed
although, at this point, we need cartesian products to define functions
so there’s already a notion of a tuple
and it gets kind of hairy
Functions only need you to define pairs
You define pairs, then functions, then arbitrary tuples
but once i have pairs i can get triples
without needing functions
like, idk. there’s two diff tuples floating around
Ye but then getting infinite tuples is not so nice
The standard thing in set theory is to define pairs to define Cartesian products and functions and then only use the function construction after that
Though they are in bijection so it won't matter much anyway
nope, your proof is correct
its kind of weird nuance to get used to but if you can specify some element uniquely for each choice then you arent using choice
For example, if i had an infinite set of nonempty well ordered sets
i could choose the minimal element from each
without using choice
oh
wait, so you wouldn't be using a choice function that selects each minimal element?
i mean ur using a "choice function" of some sort
this isnt a formal term
but you aren't invoking the axiom of choice to do it
Yeah.
AoC is for saying we can make arbitrary choices
The AoC is needed exactly in the cases where it can't be defined explicitly
oh thats a cute way to see that the well ordering theorem is eq. to choice
just well order all the sets and pick the minimal one
maybe thats how people usually prove it
Generally if you only pick one time or you pick some finite number of times this doesn't require choice. this is just like, how we interpret the existential quantifier in logic
Yeah, I think I get it
But we have confidence in our arbitrary choice because if nothing else we can do what @marsh forge said
well well ordering theorem is similarly independent of ZFC
like choice and Zorn's lemma
but i think the point of this exercise is to help you distinguish choice from not choice
oh heres a fun fact
The statement that every surjection of sets has a left inverse is equivalent to the axiom of choice
That's literally the question I did right before lol
oh hahaha
makes sense
anyway thats not the real fun fact
the real fun fact is that you can axiomatize what it means for a category to be "similar to the category of sets" (this is called a topos)
and then in an arbitrary topos, even assuming choice, it won't always be true that every surjection has a left inverse
and so you can ask whether arbitrary toposes satisfy an internal form of the axiom of choice
and this is one reason you might care about whether a statement does or does not require choice
because if it doesn't you might be able to prove it for every topos
but if it does it won't be true
I don't know much about categories yet. Are you saying they aren't rooted in zfc?
a topos is itself a model of set theory. you can define what a topos is using only first order logic without assuming set theory but the ones people care about in practice arise in the course of ordinary set-theoretic mathematics, and there are useful hypotheses and assumptions you might want to make about a topos which require set theory to state.
Even if you accept AOC you might be studying the topos for reasons related to like, applications in algebraic geometry and you might want to know whether an argument goes through in the model
Oh sweet
That's circular because you end up having to choose a well order on each set
You would well order their union instead, then inherit that to each set in the family
Ah fair enough
i came back to this and i just wanna make sure i got this: the m-tuple is really like an ordered tuple of the results of the indexing function? where the domain corresponds to the index of each element in the tuple
that's a weird way of phrasing it but i think that's it
he also says at the beginning of the section that this is a more general cartesian product but how
Yes that is it
I am on this proof for ages and tilted 
Trying to Check any superset of an element in G is in G (filter axiom 3)
Can someone check my proof please
Let P cap U be in G, where P in F, U in N_x. We claim if V superset P cap U, then V in G. Indeed: P cup V superset P, and since P is in F, by axiom 3 of filter, P cup V in F. Moreover since U is a nbhd, we can enlarge it as much as we want: U cup V in N_x. We conclude: (P cup V) cap (U cup V) in G. We now use A cap (B cup C)= ( A cap B) cup (A cap C) for A=P cup V, B=U,C=V to obtain:
((P cup V) cap U) cup ((P cup V) cap V))
=((P cap U) cup (V cap U)) cup ((P cap V) cup (V cap V)).
Now note that this is equal to V, as P cap U subset V by assumption, V cap U subset V, P cap V subset V and V cap V=V. Qed
Looks OK. This is basically the infimum of two filters.
If $(\tilde{X}, p)$ is a covering space of $X$, with $x_1, x_2 \in \tilde{X}$ st $p(x_1) = p(x_2) = x$ then is it true for any loop $\alpha$ based at $x$, there exists a lift of $\alpha$ which is a path from $x_1$ to $x_2$? I know that for each element of the fibre of $x$ there is a unique lift starting at that point but I'm not sure if you can use path inverses to get a similar fact for the end points of the paths
rustyjpeg
if your covering space is path connected, then this follows from the uniqueness of path lifting. given a path \gamma from x_1 to x_2, p o \gamma will be a loop at x in X. Then lifting p o \gamma to a path starting at x_1 yields the desired path
great thank you 🙂
i'm also trying to gain some intuition of regular covering spaces, is there any example or description that makes it more clear what a regular covering space "looks like" rather than just referring to normal subgroups
There are some nice images of the different covering spaces of S1vS1 in hatcher iirc which give examples for essentially all the theory
A homeomorphism is a type of a structure-preserving map. What kind of structure is it preserving?
the topology
as in the collection of open sets?
open sets = elements of the topology
yeah, exactly. if f: X —> Y is a homeomorphism then the topology on Y is exactly the f-image of the topology on X
a homeomorphism is a bijection which induces a bijection on the topologies
So in a sense, it's just a relabeling of elements
such that after the relabeling, the way the family of open sets "lies" in your space, is the same as before
the family of sets wouldn't have to be a topology, really
we could generalize this
no information is lost, for sure
other than what we name the elements, similarly to how in graphs we could label them multiple ways
we could relabel them, but we still get the same graph
it's the same. It's simple, really
maybe not completely straightforward from the definition of a homeomorphism. But that's how they work
i have a small question on cw complexes -- just collecting examples for myself; is there a cw complex structure on the cylinder S1 x [0,1]?
yup



