#point-set-topology
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you might also want to check that f_* is actually a homomorphism
all good
homomorphism ah yes that seems important
Yeah so I need to demonstrate $[f \circ (\gamma * \gamma')] = [f \circ \gamma]*_{\pi_1(Y,f(x))}[f \circ \gamma']$ right?
eesh notation ookay
woops pressed enter too early
f \circ (\gamma * \gamma') on the left, but otherwise yeah
josh the 🐀
right okay
yeah that's useful
in that case I suppose it just boils down to whether function composition is distributive over loop concatenation
yup
$[f \circ \gamma]*_{\pi_1(Y,f(x))}[f \circ \gamma'] = [(f \circ \gamma) * (f \circ \gamma')]$ is definitional for the group operation
josh the 🐀
👍
right yeah and I can see how the distributive property arises using the definitions
seems it'd be a chore to write out fully, however
pretty much how most of algebraic topology goes
lmao
good to know
I'm really just studying this for fun
It's like, the most distant topic from my actual research
then it'll be more fun when you discover a connection between the two 
now THAT would be based
next up is Van Kampen for fundamental groupoids I suppose
Grothendieck would be proud
Lmao we’re doing the same topic rn
Can you maybe read my answer and tell me what you think?
I show this by proof by contradiction: I assume $(X,\mathcal{T})$ is disconnected. Then there exists nonempty sets $U_1,U_2\subset\mathbb{Z}$ such that $U_1\sqcup U_2=\mathbb{Z}$. Then it follows by the topology that $U_1=\mathbb{Z}\backslash U_2$ and $U_2=\mathbb{Z}\backslash U_1$. Thus $U_1,U_2$ should both be finite, but the union of two finite sets is again finite and since $\mathbb{Z}$ is not finite, I have reached a contradiction and therefore $(X,\mathcal{T})$ is connected.
Ursus1234
Dont mind my english, its not my first language
what do you mean?
I mean optional exercise lol
is it not a good way to proof something?
Yea maybe you are right
If I find time I will try lol
One line proof: ||any 2 non empty open subsets intersect, so there can't be 2 disjoint non empty open sets||
Or note equivalently you can consider closed sets
Or consider which sets r clopen actually
We're very happy to announce that we have finally managed to compute the Brunerie number using Cubical Agda... and the result is -2!
The computation was made possible by a new direct synthetic proof that pi_4(S^3) = Z/2Z by Axel Ljungström. This new proof involves a series of new Brunerie numbers (i.e. numbers n : Z such that pi_4(S^3) = Z/nZ) and we got the one called β' in the file above to reduce to -2 in just a few seconds. With some work we then managed to prove that pi_4(S^3) = Z / β' Z, leading to a proof by normalization of the number as conjectured in Brunerie's thesis.Axel's new proof is very direct and completely avoids chapters 4-6 in Brunerie's thesis (so no cohomology theory!), but it relies on chapters 1-3 to define the number. It also does not rely on any special features of cubical type theory and should be possible to formalize also in systems based on Book HoTT. For a proof sketch as well as the formalization of the new proof in just ~700 lines (not counting what is needed from chapters 1-3) see:
https://github.com/agda/cubical/blob/master/Cubical/Homotopy/Group/Pi4S3/DirectProof.agda
So to summarize we now have both a new direct HoTT proof, not relying on cubical computations, as well as a cubical proof by computation.
Univalent regards,
Anders and Axel
I will try to explain what this says in my own words but i'm not an expert but i may fuck it up
It is possible to define the basic notions of homotopy theory purely internally within homotopy type theory because in this formal language the types share very similar formal properties with like, CW complexes or simplicial sets or other nice models for doing homotopy theory
This allows the homotopy type theory language to serve as a "direct internal language" for homotopy theory, i.e. a means to carry out homotopy theory axiomatically without worrying about the set theoretic difficulties of what a CW complex is, what a topological space is, what a Kan complex is, etc
instead you simply axiomatize the basic constructions
Most of this formalism is purely constructive/computational in the sense that the basic logical operations can be translated into computer operations; a proof can be "run" as a program
However Voevodsky proposed a powerful axiom called univalence which nobody knew how to give computational content to.
Research in cubical type theory has sought to give a programming language in which all the operations of homotopy type theory, including the univalence axiom, have computational content, and all proofs can be run/executed as programs.
The above link shows that Anders Mortberg and Axel Ljungstrom have, working in cubical type theory, written a proof that pi_4(S^3) is cyclic, i..e there exists n in Z such that pi_4(S^3) \cong Z/nZ. Their definitions of pi_4 and S^3 are both "synthetic", i.e. they don't rely on set theory but rather they take the notion of points and paths as fundamental. So S3 is something like
- two points,
- two paths between those points,
- two higher paths between those paths
- two higher paths between those paths
where the notion of point and path are undefined and axiomatic
Because their proof is constructive they are able to execute it and see what the n is.
The program returns -2, meaning that pi_4(S^3) \cong Z/(-2)Z, or Z/2Z
Very cool
does the proof that the product of two compact spaces is compact use any theory besides the definition of compactness?
I'm trying to prove it by myself
Does the proof you have use the fact that every sequence have a convergent subsequence iff the set is compact?
I don't know
I'm trying to figure out the proof by myself first
it doesn't look too hard
Ok, well my hint to see the proof is to prove the equivalence I did
The thing is that in general it seems that equivalence doesn't hold (Instead of sequences it talks of nets)
But makes the equivalence hold 👀
what're nets?
It doesn't use any heavy set theoretic machinery (at least for the finite product case) but the proof I would say is still tricky
Sequences are nets. You would assume that the subnet of a sequence is just a subsequence. You would be wrong.
no they aren't
wtf are nets?
Nets are a good idea but it also isn't much of a surprise that they work so well in characterizing things given that they mimic the order type of the neighbourhoods of a point
like sequences, but you index them using directed sets
you can speak about their convergence etc
posts in analysis channels
Opinion discarded
I don't post in analysis channels
hatcher has a proof of the result but they never introduced nets 
I was probably helping someone
well, they post questions from topology there, so I have to sometimes
the anime channel
Maybe don't use it. I don't know the proof, what I said it was an idea, but may be wrong
a generalization of sequences basically
I think it should be easier for product of two spaces
yeah tychnoff is hard bc it's for infinite products
Smells like AC
yeah it is
idk if you need all that machinery for the finite case, but I can't be bothered to think up what the proof would require right now 
I think something like Alexander's subbase theorem works
My idea is to mimic the proof for the case when you can use sequences
But with nets

I have never heard the term tube lemma before in my life lmao
I thought I was tripping 
They make sense though
You put the space in a tube
Wrap it up
Which is possible because it is compact
✓
hmm it's too early in the morning to unwrap this in my head
ok here is serious statement
If you have X x Y and Y is compact
And you have open set U in X x Y
And you know that a line L = {x} x Y is in U
Then there is some open set V in X
Such that the "tube" V x Y is contained in U
And x is contained in V
✓
Yes

Tokidrotocol
✓

If you have a cover of X x Y by sets of the form U x Y and X x V, and neither the sets of the form pi(X x V) = V cover Y nor pi'(U x Y) = U cover X, then taking their union, clearly they don't cover X x Y. So we can assume without loss of generality that sets of the form pi(X x V) = V cover Y, and taking a finite subcover, we have a finite subcover of our space X x Y. By the Alexander's subbase theorem it follows that X x Y is compact
I don't think I am wrong anywhere here
Alexander's subbase theorem says that it's enough to check the compactness property for a subbasis of your space
Nice
hmm
I guess that subsumes tube lemma
imma bash my head onto this for a few more hours before I use those cheat codes hints
you shouldn't really try to deal with compactness of the product on your own imo
coz I'm pretty sure hatcher didn't use any of that and I want to figure how they did it
Here is another tube lemma based exercise though
if you have a universal cover with compact base and finite fibers, then the total space is also compact
or at least, without any tools
I would say have a go

I'm the guy that picked up rudin to get the active role
I don't fear no consequenses 

Nice
I miss Mokiloki✓
RIP 😔 🙏
I’m struggling to fill this out. I’ll have time to discuss this 4 hours from now.
I have been studying algebraic topology for two days so allow me to weigh in with my expert opinion
Specifically that $\pi_1(S^1) \simeq \mathbb Z$
josh the 🐀

If D^n is n-dimensional disk, then D^n and n-dimensional simplex are homeomorphic and in fact contractible
I saw someone state elsewhere that spaces with isomorphic homology groups are homotopy equivalent - is this true?
no I don't think so
the fundamental group of S^n is 0 for n > 1, this is a standard result for spheres
Two days I have been studying this! Two! I don't know what a homology group is yet!
but if you work with CW complexes that are simply connected then a map between these that induces isomorphisms on homology is a homotopy equivalence
I think
When can you use homotopy/homology groups to infer homotopy equivalence?
when the spaces and isomorphisms are really nice
Hmm
Is it generally just super difficult to prove spaces are homotopy equivalent then?
Unless they are particularly well-behaved
Suppose X and Y are spaces and f:X--->Y is a continuous map inducing an isomorphism on homotopy groups. Then if X,Y are CW complexes, f is a homotopy equivalence. If X and Y are simply connected and CW, and f induces an isomorphism on integral singular homology, then f is a homotopy equivalence.
The spaces only have to be CW and the isomorphism doesn't have to be nice, just induced by a continuous map.
i see
keep in mind that being CW is not a particularly difficult constraint, for two reasons
1: every decent space is already cw
2: every space is weak-equivalent to a CW complex
Alright cool
Can a CW space contain infinitely many 0-cells?
Hang on
I'm getting my terminology muddled
So a CW space is formed by gluing n-balls right
sure
Is there any finiteness condition on the number of n-balls for each n?
Alright
How about uncountably many?
Yeah I think you just need it to be set-indexed
So R^n can be seen as a CW space by placing 0-discs at each point in the space with integer coordinates, say, then gluing on the requisite n-discs to fill the space?
sure
Alright nifty
A pretty cool fact is that you can't construct R^n using finitely many cells
Is this just because R^n is not compact
Right
A finite collection of cell attachments probably preserves compactness at each step
right
Wait, don't we need like k-cells for every k < n?
Yes. It's nice how it generalizes "closed and bounded = compact."
Yeah I handwaved that away by "gluing on the requisite n-cells"
Probably should've said k-cells for K leq n
You only need to construct a cell structure on R^1
and then you can take the product structure for R^n
which gives you exactly the cell structure you're picturing
Given a pointed map f : X --> Y, can we define a space T(f) such that T(f) is contractible iff f is an equivalence?
Are the homology groups obtained from the simplicial/cellular/singular homologies the same (up to isomorphism) for an arbitrary space? Or is this something else that is only true for CW spaces?
you can do it with two spaces, but not one
well
I guess you could just take the union
of the two spaces
Oh, we need X and Y to be CW
What are they? Mapping cones?
when defined they all agree
singular is the only one defined on all spaces
(well, technically you can define CW for all spaces via replacement)
homotopy fiber and homotopy cofiber
Yeah I suppose the cellular homology is only defined in the category of CW spaces anyway
Ok
often times we only think of homology as being a functor out of the category of CW complexes
Ohh, right..
Mmh my category theory is rusty. does this mean that different homology theories correspond to different functors?
I guess really I just have no intuition of what exactly that means
The only solution here may be for me just to learn more category theory lmao
The functors are from the category of CW complexes into what? The category of homology groups?
the category of (graded) abelian groups
a homotopy invariant of spaces that acts nicely
The co prefix leads me to assume some functoral relationship with homology?
Like, a contravariant functor to the homology functor?
Now I'm just guessing what cohomology is based on years old category theory lmao
An open set U in a metric space (M,d) is a subset of M such that :
For all x in U, there exist epsilon > 0 such that B(x,epsilon) is include in U ?
yes
There are a few ways to think about the duality between them
In particularly nice cases you get an actual linear-dual
Ok because my prof introduced a topology which is "the natural topology"
Oh neat
In general there is a short exact seqeunce / spectral sequence between the linear dual and the actual object
And I was like ok so the open sets (the elements of the topology that are defined like that) so I wondered what is an open set in a more general way
@gritty widget
The term you're looking for is a general topology
on a set
you can read about it on wikipedia or any number of books
I'm just confused as hell about the definitions
what do you mean?
Essentially it generalizes things like connectedness, closeness of points, and so on
I want to sort things in my mind
I thought that
hum
I don't know how to explain
anyways xd
All spaces are hausdorf
Which definition in particular Christopher?
A topological space is a set together with a family satisfying certain axioms called the topology.
Any metric space usually has the topology that you defined above
Wait does the word space imply hausdorf
In actuality no
But all spaces should be hausdorff
I don't know I'm confused in general about topology now
Yes, we could of had defined the topology differently, but this is what we mean when we talk about the topology of a metric space
I want to sort everything in my mind
Yeah topology is a weird one to get your head around at first
The thing is
For me it was helpful to actually forget the natural metric topology to start with
At the beginning of my year they introduced open sets in R^n so I was like ok that's cool
Though your mileage may vary
Then they generalize everything and it's confusing me
it's probably the most natural one, because it appears as the topology for which the open balls of a metric space form a basis
open sets, we don't talk about open spaces because being open is a property relative to the space that we are contained in
when I think about "nearness" I think about something like proximity spaces instead
In topology, a proximity space, also called a nearness space, is an axiomatization of the intuitive notion of "nearness" that hold set-to-set, as opposed to the better known point-to-set notion that characterize topological spaces.
The concept was described by Frigyes Riesz (1909) but ignored at the time. It was rediscovered and axiomatized by V...
Actually hangon
@snow cobalt https://mathoverflow.net/questions/19152/why-is-a-topology-made-up-of-open-sets this classic mathoverflow post might be helpful
zariski topology
Trivial topology
algebraic geometry already has its own "hausdorff"
I am aware that my clearly false statement is false
But thank you
all smooth functions are analytic
Is it me or topology is just definitions that are stacked one after another
lmao
you're not wrong about general topology, it really does just feel like a bunch of definitions over and over again
you're probably missing motivation for those
general topology was a mistake
You're on my shit list now.

where
general topology is just set theory buttered up with fancy words like "geometric" and "space" that evoke a vague sense that what you're doing is useful
damn coming for the throat
Depends on how much generality you're willing to allow
I wouldn't work with topological spaces on their own, but I think they're useful to built up upon
general topology was a necessary step toward the invention of stable homotopy theory
thats why its good
For example when defining quotients of a metrizable space, we need to consider some badly behaved topological spaces before we can get to upper-semicontinuous partitions
this is a sign that we were never meant to quotient metrizable spaces
A lot of constructions give upper-semicontinuous families of sets
Components of a compact metric space for example
Some attaching spaces etc.
They're common
Why is the argument made in the blue line the case. To give context , HATS means Hausdorff aleph-one size Toronto space. A toronto space X is a space in which its subspaces are homeomorphic to X if they have the same cardinality
lmao Toronto space
Because if it's uncountable then it's of size aleph_1
So since it's a Toronto space, the subspace is homeomorphic to X
But X were assumed non-discrete
Ok. So. @broken nacelle Take a skim.
The important stuff here is toward the very bottom of pg 1. Basically Brouwer was trying to solve Hilbert's fifth problem in low dimensions and he hit a brick wall because the foundations of topology weren't adequate to support his research, so he switched from his current research to point set topology in order to drive geometry as a whole forward. It's unlikely that we would have a rigorous proof of the Jordan curve theorem either, which has been the pitfall of many mathematicians.
The students of Lie were badly held back by their inability to comprehend the new paradigm. Lie's papers made some claims that were just literally wrong and other mathematicians wrote papers contradicting them, maybe because they thought in terms of the "generic case" and may have even expected counterexamples. Elie Cartan also tried to avoid topological methods but as a result left accidental gaps in his papers that require topological methods to fill.
The definitions and theorems were not given in a vacuum.
Weyl saw that you needed point set for Riemann surface theory, (and later rep theory of Lie groups) as you can see above, and he wrote "The Idea of a Riemann surface based on this" which was hugely influential. Hausdorff didn't postulate his famous separation axiom for masturbatory reasons, he postulated it because he was thinking about Weyl's work and the foundations of complex analysis, because Riemann surfaces obviously need to be fucking Hausdorff, and Veblen and Whitehead realized this was more generally essential for the definition of an n-dimensional manifold. Without Urysohn and Tychonoff, there is no Haar measure for LCH spaces, which von Neumann used to solve Hilbert's fifth problem for compact groups, and more generally no modern theory of harmonic analysis.
It was exactly Brouwer's research into questions in point set topology (the invariance of dimension theorem) which led him to the basic modern methods of algebraic topology.
The Hahn Banach theorem , the Banach fixed point theorem and several major fixed point theorems of functional analysis were direct results of research into point set topology and the efforts to extend Brouwer's fixed point theorem to the infinite dimensional setting.
Let (E,tau) be a topological space and A C E.
I don't understand formally why the closed sets of the subspace topology tau_A are the closed sets of tau intersected with A
It seems logical but I want to get that from the definition
what is the subspace topology in your def
tau_A = {A intersected U | U in tau}
Let C be a subset of A
C is closed in tau_A <=> C^c is open in tau_A <=> there exists U in tau such that C^c = A inter U
<=> C = A^c union U^c
I get here and I'm blocked
I want C = A inter F where F is closed
draw a picture
oh wow
that's so thoughtful of you
yeah history is interesting
mathemtics is way cooler when it's historically motivated anyway
this is from a big book on the history of topology full of various essays
Props to you, it's a good weapon to have in your arsenal. Knowing about the context in which a concept was invented is a powerful key

@gritty widget so is the subspace of isolated points discrete?
Yes
Cohomology operations of type (m, G, n, H) are defined as natural transformations of the form
H^m(- ; G) → H^n(- ; H)
But then the squaring map is given as an example of an operation of type (n, R, 2n, R) where R is a commutative ring. But squaring isn't even a group homomorphism though?
Are these just natural transformations as functors into Set?
@empty grove
Ye squaring is the cup product squaring
But that shouldn't be a group homomorphism though?
Like that is just saying that (a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2
So ab = -ba
But that isn't always the case for cup product
Ye they don’t need to be homomorphisms
They just need to natural

ye okay I checked Hatcher, they don't need to be homomorphisms
Wait so is H^n(X; G) = [X, K(G,n)] not a homomorphism?
Only bijection?
I thought [X, K(G,n)] also has a group structure
no that is a homomorphism right?
ok wait
Ye they shouldn't be if cohomology operations are not necessarily homomorphisms
Because that contradicts Yoneda
😵💫
What does it mean to be homotopic/isotopic relative to boundary
Homotopy/isotopy is identity on boundary?
I'm pretty sure it means that the homotopy should keep the boundary fixed but don't listen to me lol
Toki be like correct answer but don't listen to me lol
Ye homotopic rel boundary means the boundary stays fixed throughout the homotopy
Same for isotopy
I'm doubting myself so hard when I answer question in this server lmao
you're probably more qualified on this topic than most people on the server
If you answer with enough confidence, the poster will change their question so that your answer is right
be confident
cuz hopf map

Homotopy groups of spheres are weird
I though homotopy groups were for capturing holes and now my whole day is ruined
homology is better for that
That basically counts the ways to map S^4 into S^2, up to homotopy, right? Intuitively one would think that has to be trivial due to the difference in dimension ...
Friendship ended with Homotopy. Now homology is my best friend.
Can anyone confirm that a retraction of a connected space is surjective?
Retraction is surjective
I should hope so
ye it has inclusion as right inverse by definition
Thanks guys, totally slipped out of my mind
So do homotopy groups behave more... intuitively on spaces that aren't spheres
I assume not
OK great
Designed for it?
Right. Is that covered in e.g. Hatcher?
I'm just self studying this stuff
Sounds about right lmao
I suppose so there's a clear thread to follow if the book is used for some a graduate course or w/e
Consider π_2(T²). Clearly it's a hollow tube right? Surely that's a hole
Here’s a pitch for why they shouldn’t ever be well behaved in general
Whiteheads theorem tells us that for CW complexes, the homotopy groups know everything about the homotopy type
So in particular, the homotopy groups should be no less complicated than homotopy types
And figuring out whether two spaces are homotopy equivalent is usually very hard
Like homotopy groups essentially give you a complete description of the homotopy type, which is a very complicated amount of information
Here's why you're wrong:
If something has 1 hole, it should be a sphere 
See, homotopy types aren't that complicated
That would make my field much more boring
It's probably just that physical experience with spheres up to S^2 gives shit intuition about how the higher ones behave?
Right so
For S^n—>S^m to be nonnullhomotopic
We need n>=m
The n=m case is easy
The issue is that the spheres we can picture are S1 and S2
And S2->S1 is always nullhomotopic
So you can’t really use any visual intuition
Higher dimensions are actually wrong. 4 dimensional space was never supposed to be ℝ^4. Humans saw a pattern in ℝ^0, ℝ^1, ℝ^2, ℝ^3, and assumed that this must continue with n dimensional space being ℝ^n. This is a dangerous and baseless assumption, and needs to be rectified asap.
This is a good exercise if you’ve read like ch1 in hatcher
Are you memeing
Or actually making a point

Well. If it's a point then what should the continuation be then
R^n+1 should be R^n for n >2
S^n should be defined to be K(Z, n), R^n should be defined to be S^n minus a point 
cursed
What does K(Z,n) minus a point look like moldi
It is a K(0, n)
I see
Keep in mind the homotopy groups haven't been defined yet
The fact that every contractible space is eilenberg maclane has never occurred to me before
The new insights novel approaches bring
Principia mathematica 2.0
Are all homotopy groups $\pi_n(S^2)$ known?
josh the 🐀
ye
well that's something at least
The strongest result I could find is https://arxiv.org/abs/1506.00952
Namely that for all n>1 the homotopy groups of S^2 are non-trivial
oh F
Yeah
I was under the impression that we don’t know the homotopy groups of a single finite CW complex with nontrivial universal cover
Was this difficulty the motivation for homology?
Or am I missing the order of events here
Ah ok
Right ok
Fun fact
When pi_n was first defined people said it couldn’t possibly be the right definition
lmao why?
ah
Sorry I’m in an elevator lol
So presumable the homology groups of a space lose some information about homotopy type
Yes
There is if the space is simply connected and you take integral homology
I would think of the different homology theories as like
Different kaleidoscope lenses
Through which to look at spaces
They all have benefits and drawbacks
In some sense homotopy groups are a very similar lens, whose primary drawback is that they are impossible to compute hahah
lmao ok
This will be a sort of important aspect of the blue book group
Lol
I'm just joking. I don't expect to be at the level to be able to meaningfully engage with the seminars in such a short amount of time. I'm aware my attendance would just cause issues 
How can attendance cause issues 
You’re welcome to attend
I probably wouldn’t want you to give a talk but that’s not unique lol
I mean having read the syllabus it didn't appear to be that type of thing
I firmly believe that attending seminars you don’t have the prereqs for
Is a good thing
Even if you don’t understand what’s happening
Things tend to stick around in ur brain
Waiting to be awoken
You’re welcome to
Based thanks
Though I do still need to build some intuition as to why anyone bothers with homotopies when homology is so much easier
In particular what interesting information is lost in homology
Lots of spaces have the same homology but aren’t homotopy equivalent
Mm yeah
What theorems exist that can deduce homotopy equivalence from some homology
You mentioned one pertaining to simply connected spaces?
That is basically it
Ah lmao
The only other way to get homotopy from homology is essentially the Adam’s spectral sequence
The idea is to try to use homological algebra to go from homology data to homotopy data
Right, I see
So the goal of algebraic topology, broadly, is to classify spaces up to homotopy right?
Yeah sure
I mean okay depending on who you ask
that's more of one of the big research yardsticks that classifies our progress in the subject matter
A modern algebraic topologist might not care at all about spaces
Gotcha
Like stable homotopy theorists tend to sacrifice a good chunk of space-level data in return for working in a nicer category
And philosophically a lot of them find spectra to be more interesting than spaces
Or they study generalizations of spectra
That said, it’s always cool to solve space level issues with homotopy theory
And that’s the type of stuff that tends to make it to eg annals
Right
It’s similar to AG where ostensibly the field started by studying varieties but a lot of people are interested in schemes just for their own sake
Mhmm yeah that tracks
I personally think of AT being broadly about finding new ways to study complicated “geometric” objects via concrete algebra
What exactly is a spectra/spectrum? Some sequence of spaces chained by some type of interesting map?
The homotopy groups of spheres are a great yardstick / testing ground for these ideas
You can think of a spectrum as being a sort of space that has been suspended to the point that suspension stops changing the algebraic invariants
If you’re familiar with localization
The idea is to “localize” spaces by formally inverting the suspension functor
Yeah I'm not quite there yet
This makes a lot of sense though
It’s similar to algebra
Like I can take Z
And some prime p
And formally invert p
So that multiplying by p becomes a bijection
This of course loses some information from Z
But maybe it’s nice for other purposes
Huh, I'm not familiar with that
Oh! It’s like obtaining Q from Z
We just formally adjoin an element called 1/p
And then add all the like
n/p
For n in Z
And make sure the multiplication and addition still work
Analogous to a field extension?
Yeah similar
I hope I'm not interrupting, I only have one little question.
Why is the homotopy of chain complexes called that
It would be like
Though naturally not a field
Z[x]/px=1
You mean like chain homotopies?
yes, like when you write f = dh + hd
It ends up behaving similarly to normal homotopies
It’s an eq relation on morphisms that most relevant invariants can’t distinguish between
Adjoining 1/p to Z gives a Z-module right?
It turns out (ahistorically) that this is an example of a much broader phenomenon
Z algebra!
Aha right yes
oh, so it's more in the name than having actual relation to homotopy?
check https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/chain+homotopy under 3. Properties
It’s supposed to be an analogy
that definition in nlab looks awfully similar to the standard homotopy definition
what is Cxl?
Like you have some interval object
oh ye that one
yes right
I'm sure this definition came before model categories though
The spaces one and chain complex one might’ve
I see, there's more analogy than I thought then
Ye
But I don’t know if the idea of an interval object is that much older
Like it's just C tensored with simplicial chain complex of the unit interval
So interval object here is pretty simple
Anyway point is that the notion of homotopy ends up being vastly generalizable
And a lot of homotopy theory originates from like
Looking at chain complexes and the derived category
And looking at spaces and the homotopy category
And being like
Wow these are very similar
one really short answer is that a homotopy between continuous maps induces a chain homotopy between the associated maps of chain complexes
(in singular homology)
plural homology drops when?
if you know about homology with coefficients, that counts as multiple homology theories
but there are far more
what are your thoughts?
I cant think of any counter examples
Which non-Hausdorff spaces do you know?
Only indiscrete one
discrete spaces are hausdorff
i think you should research some examples of non-hausdorff spaces before continuing
maybe keep your problem in mind as you do so
you tell me
It works just trying to understand why its not hausdorff
look at its open sets
Note that "codiscrete" is another word for "indiscrete".
Another famous (and not quite so destructive) example is the "line with two origins".
It suggests a bit more intuition than R/Q does.
Any hints boys
The space deformation retracts to a copy of S^1 perpendicular to the S^{n-2} you removed.
my hint is to draw it for S^2
Wait I am being dumb how is S^{n-2} being defined there
first two coordinates zero
Ooooooh right
x = (x_1, x_2, ..., x_{x+1})
i have a very bad headache rn and dont want to think too hard, can anyone help me with a result
i believe that if you take the eilenberg steenrod axioms, and add one addition hypothesis, you get that all such theories are wedges of eilenberg mac lane spectra
but i cannot for the life of me remember what it is
Homology theories “computable by chain complexes”
I don’t know the precise definition
But Peter May mentioned this
Probably something like if it factors through D(Ab)
I’ll try looking for a reference when I go back home
oh right thank you! this does sound familiar
how does being dense in a hausdorff space mean that f is determined unique
If X is hausdorf and S is a dense subset of X, then a continuous function is determined by its restriction to S.
$$f\mapsto f\restriction S$$ is an injection
Being Hausdorff implies that it's closed (you can use an argument with the diagonal {(x, x) : x in X} being closed to prove that)

this is what you get for reading hatcher
no i'm just kidding
i'm just teasing you
all fun and games here
if a topological space is not Hausdorff, does that mean that there can't exist a metric on R s.t. tau is the metric topology of the metric space (R,d)?
A metric topology is always Hausdorff, so I assume no?
Huh?
Is R real numbers
yes
if I have that for a topological space (X,t) this space is not Hausdorff, can there exist a metric space (R, d) s.t. t is the metric topology of (R,d)?
X = R?
yes
Huh
X is not R originally
I'm still not sure what your question is since you're somehow varying your base space?
If a space isn't Hausdorff then it's not metrizable
X = (-1, 1)
(X, t) is not hausdorff
so its not metrizable?
Yes
correct
thank you
Any ideas?
Would R^3 with two parallel lines removed work
I think so
I think it deformation retracts to r^2 with two points removed
which retracts to two circles of s_1
so pi_1=z^2
where z in the integers
I could be totally wrong here though
really
you sure
what is it then?
i know the theorem
ok
Guys i dont understand why its not Z^2
It is <a,b;> the free group on two generators
Isnt this isomorphic to Z^2?
ohh
i see
Z^2 is the free abelian group on two generators
I don't really understand this question, not sure what result to use
here M is the manifold
i think you'll get more answers to that in #diff-geo-diff-top
idle curiosity of mine: let $\mathbf{H}{m,n}$ be the hypersurface in $\bR^{m+n}$ described by the equation $$x_1^2 + \dots + x_m^2 - x{m+1}^2 - \dots - x_{m+n}^2 = 1$$ (where $m, n \geq 1$). how does one find the number of connected components of $\mathbf{H}_{m,n}$?
Ann
i guess this is denoted by pi_0 so i'll just use that
obviously $\pi_0(\mathbf{H}{1,1})$ and $\pi_0(\bd{H}{1,2}) = 1$ and $\pi_0(\bd{H}{2,1}) = 1$ (this is the hyperboloid of one sheet) and also $\pi_0(\bd{H}{1,2}) = 2$ (hyperboloid of two sheets)
Ann
i think??
theres a 50% chance i screwed this up
$\pi_0(\bd{H}{1,n})$ should always be 2 and i \textbf{think} $\pi_0(\bd{H}{m,1})$ is always 1 but i am clueless as to what happens when $m, n \geq 2$
Ann
@west spindle https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2022156/how-many-sheets-can-a-hyperboloid-have-in-n-dimensions
You're welcome
Hello folks. I'm trying to construct a topological space which is countable but not first-countable. I briefly looked online and glanced at a couple of non-trivial examples, but I really wanted to figure this out on my own and not just prove that a given space has this property. Can anyone give me a starting point for such a construction?
By countable you just mean its underlying set is countable?
I guess try to remove the topology from the problem. It suffices to study the neighborhoods of a single point. The conditions that the intersection of 2 neighborhoods is another neighborhood tells you that it might be worth trying to make all the neighborhoods small or all the neighborhoods large (intersection of large enough sets is large, intersection of small sets is small) so you probably want to involve finiteness/cofiniteness (but notice that there are only countably many finite/cofinite sets, so this won't work directly). Another thing you could think about is how uncountability of neighborhoods could arise. The easiest way to create an instance of uncountability is by making countably many choices, probably about what to include and what not to include in your neighborhoods. Combining all of this, ||you would want to make countably many choices about what cofinite subset to pick. Finite won't work because then you could pick small enough finite subsets for each choice and get a very small neighborhood basis||
@mortal latch
Thanks a lot! @empty grove I will think about this and get back to you with my progress.
Yes, that's what I meant.
Are the annular sets described by a larger ball minus a smaller ball, B(y,a,b) = {x | a < d(x,y) < b} where 0 < a < b, the basis for a weak* topology on R^n?
(This comes from trying to understand which parts of a basis of a weak* topology on the space of probability measures make it weak*)
that just generates the standard topology on R^n
i don't fully understand what you're trying to do here. If you're looking at the weak * topology on the space of probability measures, you would want a base on that space, not on R^n
I am just trying to translate their definition on the space of probability measures to one on R^n.
translate in what sense? It's a topology on the measures
Well they define it in terms of balls on measures in a metric they describe
I was wondering how it related to the typical metric on R^n. I guess my question is now, what's a basis for a weak* topology on R^n?
Is it possible to map a triangle injectively into the unit circle? I am trying to get intuition for homology and I have a feeling that you first need to deform the triangle into a line segment first and then map it into S^1 in order to get a continuous map
Filled in triangle?
Yup, I think it is also called standard 2-simplex
No, that's not possible
a circle is disconnected by removing 2 points, and a 2-simplex isn't
Okay I understand now. Nice argument!
Is the reason why higher homology groups of the circle are trivial because that there is in some sense a lack of continuous maps into S1 in higher dimensions?
I know the Mayer-Vietoris proof but I would like a more down to earth approach as a sanity check
I haven't studied homology so someone please correct me, but I don't think so? like, the second homology group of a torus isn't trivial but there isn't an embedding of the 2-sphere into the torus
oh wait you're not talking about n-spheres, just n-simplices
sorry I got confused bc of S1
I'll let someone else answer
I can't formalize it properly but since you can't wrap boundaries around the unit circle without sacrificing injectivity this should mean that you can't have too wild chains in higher dimensions
I feel like there is a simple geometric answer but I can't see it
Filter isomorphism = inclusion preserving bijection?
What's F?
@gritty widget
What's F though, in the second screenshot
@gritty widget
This is like a spiral of unwrapping the definitions 
Yeah im just going to link the paper:
F is not an ultrafilter, F is homogenous, https://wrbrian.files.wordpress.com/2012/01/thetorontoproblem.pdf
its around page q12
page 12*
I might check it out later, this isn't something I can answer on the fly
So the filter portion of the paper just describes how the isolated points are determined I believe
Alright thanks
Let $G_1$, $G_2$ be separable locally compact topological groups. Let $\pi: G_1 \to G_2$ be a continuous isomorphism. Using the Baire Category Theorem, I want to show that $\pi$ is necessarily a homeomorphism.
Buncho Spheres
It's been a while since i've used point set topology, so I'd appreciate a gentle nudge in the right direction
this sounds like a variant of the open mapping theorem for Banach spaces. Maybe look at that proof and try to modify it? Not sure
Do all CW spaces admit a simplicial representation?
At least up to homotopy equivalence I suppose
Yep, up to homotopy
based thanks moth
I've had to give up on hatcher

The guy's writing style winds me up big time
Am I reading a theorem? A proof? Remark? Some kinda stream-of-consciousness expo?
Absolutely maddening to me 
hatcher is so fucking hard to read if you just want to find a result
fun pictures and discussions though
Yeah his illustrations are dope
Honestly it should've been published as a picture book imo
Maybe like in an adult coloring book format
I’ll give that a try, thanks!
@zenith bay We argue about hatcher like once every three days in this channel, so i probably shouldn't encourage this, but still, l m f a o
Gotem
All good, got it out of my system now. Giving Dieck a go now
If you want the anti-Hatcher check out Spanier, but it's like Scylla and Charybdis. If Hatcher is long winded and rambly, Spanier is precise and formal to the point of it being overwhelming
i've heard tom Dieck and Spanier are similar
There's also not a lot of intuition from spanier but it's like the most encyclopedic reference i know of on singular homology/cohomology
Dieck has a very category theoretical approach
Hmmm I am interested in homology
Also category theory
I don't really know why
I think homotopy just scares me lmao
One thing Dieck covers that I heard books usually don't is cobordism
Was having a jolly grand time reading about fundamental groups and all that jazz then the higher homotopy groups of spheres came out of left field and now I have trauma
Spanier's exposition of basic homotopy theory is actually very readable imo
relative to some of the stuff on homology and cohomology which is like "Here's this theorem stated in greater generality than you'll ever need. Also it's functorial/natural in all six of these variables."
I like how Dieck talks about the fundamental groupoid and states van Kampen as a property of functor preserving push outs, it feels more natural than its usual statement
May also discusses the fundamental groupoid and gives a groupoid-based proof of van Kampen
Spanier discusses the fundamental groupoid but doesn't present van Kampen this way
Yeah I feel like some material out there really skirts around the groupoid thing
Which, like, seems important
I found some errors in Dieck though
Mostly in exercises, but one in a statement of a theorem. Only read till chapter 2 though
Spanier develops like a kind of combinatorial approach to the fundamental group as well, like he defines a "fundamental groupoid" of a simplicial complex as being given by any formal chain of edges and proves a bunch of interesting result
i feel like this is helpful for giving a flavor of the combinatorial side of algebraic topology
Combinatorial topology, heh
Also spanier is like... completely error free lol, the dude seems maddeningly careful about shit
i read that book for like 5 years and most like, he forgot to repeat hypothesis H in theorem 8 after stating hypothesis H in theorems 3-7
at that point it's clear from context what he's talking about lol
not five years but it feels like a lifetime
Sounds interesting. I'll give it a go also.
Sounds like a good book
It's a compromise between being a textbook and a reference and it basically fails at this compromise imo.
The first three chapters are excellent, the exposition of homotopy theory in chapter 7 is really good. Chapters 4-6 on homology and cohomology need to be read with the understanding that like,
- there's a lot of dense technical shit in there that is just not of general interest and you should skip over a lot of it
- the theorems are stated in somewhat excessive generality and to really understand what they mean you need to specialize them.
Example, he defines a map between cohomology groups
H^n(X;G) \otimes H^k(X; G') -> H^n+k(X, G'')
for any three modules G, G', G'', together with any bilinear map G \otimes G' -> G''.
This is not important. You should just consider the case where G = G' = G'' = R, some ring, and then you have that there's a map
H^n(X;R) \otimes H^k(X; R) -> H^n+k(X, R)
which implies that
\bigoplus_n H^n(X ; R)
can be endowed with a multiplication making it into a graded ring.
What does it mean that open sets approximate each other?
That sounds like a really strong condition
In a metric space it can't really happen since we can take arbirary small open covers
Unless O1 is a singleton
As you noticed
Damn. You said the same thing twice, sorry 😓
I have following which I dont understand. $X=(0,1)$ and $\mathcal{T}={(0,1-\frac{1}{n}), |, n\in \mathbb{N},n\geq 2}\cup{\emptyset,X}$. Prove that $(X,\mathcal{T})$ is not $T_1$. this confuses me since I would by looking at it think that it was $T_1$. Since the compliment of any ${x}\in X$ would be open and thus ${x}$ would be closed. What am I missing?
Ursus1234
why is this not the case?
note that every nonempty open set contains 1/3. In particular the complement of {1/3} is not open
but wouldnt the compliement to 1/3 be $(0,\frac13)\cup(\frac13,1-\frac{1}{n})$ is that not open or...
not in this topology
it is open in the usual topology but notice that this set is not in the topology you've been given
would this the be the compliment?
no, the first thing you wrote was the complement. In any case how can the complement depend on n?
yea, you are right
so do you get why the complement is not open now?\
no, I still understand it as a union of two open intervals. Cant quite see it
not all of the usual open intervals are open in this topology
only a few of them are open, the ones given in the definition of the topology
notice that (0,1/3) in particular is not in the topology
yea I see that
ok cool
just so I understand the intervals in this topology correctly it is (0,1/2),(0,2/3),(0,3/4) and so on right
yep
so since the complement to 1/3 or a part of the complement is not in the topology it cannot be open?
something along those lines?
yes the complement of 1/3 is not in the topology. (Don't bother with a part of the complement, that won't work as an argument)
ahh ok thank you
given this proof how is it obvious that the closure of V cannot intersect U
@true robin thank you for your patience 🙂
np
If closure of V intersects U, then U intersects V
Because then there is x in U such that every neighbourhood of x intersects V
In particular U and V intersect
If a space X has fundamental group G and H is a subgroup of G, does there exist a subspace Y of X that has fundamental group H? If not, does this hold for some set of groups? Like finite groups, or abelian groups? Sorry if this is a stupid question
No subspace of S¹ has fundamental group 2ℤ (in a way that is preserved by the inclusion map)
I don't think the weaker versions you suggest would work either
But you can look at the galois correspondence for covering spaces
It says that if X is nice enough (connected, locally path connected, semilocally simply connected) then there's a unique connected covering space of X with fundamental group H for any subgroup H of G
So instead of subspace, you have a covering space
hmmm, thats interesting
thanks, i will look into that!
@gritty widget Thank you!
Hello
I'm trying to prove that in a topological space (X,tau), V include in X
V is open <=> V is a neighborhood of all its points
=> is ok
for <=
I have :
V is a neighborhood of all its points <=> For all x in V, there exist U_x in tau s.t : x in U_x C V
And I have to prove that V is open i.e. V is in tau
Just to check, by neighbourhood of x do we mean a set containing an open set containing x?
If V is empty it is open by definition
If V is not empty I create a family of U_x until I fill V ?
And by definition of tau, arbitrary Union of open sets are in tau
I assume you mean if not empty? But yeah, there's no need to differentiate between cases anyway really
(also I'd say arbitrary not random)
But yes. Suppose V contains an open set U_x about each x in V - what is the union of the U_x?
I don't know if it is a valuable argument because I can't disassociate my vision in metric spaces
I differentiate cases so that I can take arbitrary elements x to create a family of U_x
Well you haven't really given a proper argument yet ig
Eh you can still say 'for all x in V' even if there are no such x, but sure
you're absolutely right
false => blabla so implication is true
so useless to treat cases
Yeah, just try to formalise what your idea is, but it is the correct idea
The intuition from metric spaces does work here
Np
is it true that the red set is disconnected? (black sets = the topology of X)
I'm probably blind, but to be disconnected there'd have to be 2 disjoint non-empty open subsets of {a,d,e} but... {a,d,e} has no open subsets to begin with
@wary furnace open sets in {a,d,e} subspace topology are
{}
{a}
{d,e}
{a,d,e}
oh subspace topology
yeah now this makes sense
after all {a,d,e} had to have some topology, doesn't make much sense to talk about the connectedness of a set without any topology
Is it a thing that the 2nd homology group of a connected 2-dimensional space will always be Z?
This breaks my brain because I’m looking at the classification of 2D surfaces and they’re all meant to be equivalent to a sphere, a connected sum of tori, or a connected sum of projective planes and all of these have nontrivial H2 group
classification of closed 2d surfaces.
compact and without boundary
the mobius band has boundary
Is the orthogonal group in n-dimensions a complete space?
O(n) ?
Isn't it compact even?
Yes.
You can just see that it's a closed subset of R^(n^2) (it's defined by a level set of a continuous function A^t A - I = 0)
Thanks
how the heck is the hopf map defined? I can't seem to find an explicit form of it
something about regarding the unit quaternions as S^3 and then mapping each quaternion to some coset
There's an explicit one shown on the hopf fibration wiki page, under Direct Construction
where you think of a point of S^3 as a pair of complex numbers (z1,z2) with |z1| + |z2| = 1
Sick Dr. Octagon pfp btw
I was born on jupiter
oh tru how did I miss this
ayyyyyy it's very rare that someone recognises it
hey, is anyone here familiar with hatcher's homology chapter?
im trying to figure out just how much of it i need to read to understand the proof of the jordan curve theorem (first prop in 2.B)
i have a final project where we basically just write a paper, and an option my prof said was okay is to basically learn homology and prove something related to complex analysis. and the jordan curve theorem would be great for that
it's just a bit hard for me to decipher the exact prereqs without reading everything, so any help would be greatly appreciated
it seems to me (although i truly have no idea) that the Mayer-Vietoris sequence is necessary, which seems to require machinery in the first section, namely prop 2.21
if i only need stuff up to prop 2.21 in the first section + mayer-vietoris sequence, then that would be fine, but if more stuff is required to understand then idk if id be able to finish the project (and keep it under the page limit)
yeah I just read through it and it looks like the proof uses simplices and complexes, Mayer-Vietoris sequence, knowledge of how to extract an isomorphism from an exact sequence, and general topological concepts like compactness
so reading up to prop 2.21 should be fine unless you are lacking some prerequisite knowledge
Thanks so much! Does it require the important exact sequence (theorem 2.13)?
nah I didn't see them use it explicitly
I will double check (update: I'm pretty sure they only use the Mayer-Vietoris sequence)
Thanks a lot dude
Can someone help me understand this theorem? If I have a 2-torus, my understanding is that the fundamental group will be the free abelian group on two generators.
Now lets say you have A, which is the red subspace in the image, which is isomorphic to the circle. This would have fundamental group Z, right?
Why not?
Like this, wouldn't that be a deformation retract or am i misunderstanding what a deformation retract is?
oh
no
I understand now
Sorry
Yeah, I am dumb. This wouldn't work. Sorry
Its just nonsense, the intermediate stages aren't even inside the actual topological space of the torus, they're just small toruses
thanks anyways
If the torus in the pictures included the inside, was a "solid torus" that included all the points inside the torus, this would work, right?
FOLKS
Let X be a discrete topological space and beta(X) the set of ultrafilters on (the powerset of) X. beta(X) can be topologized in such a way that it becomes the Stone-Cech compactificaton of X.
beta(X) is compact, Hausdorff and totally disconnected.
i.e. it's a so-called "Stone space"
Equivalently, it's a profinite space.
What other properties does it have besides this?
How can it be topologically distinguished from an arbitrary Stone space? What properties does it possess that aren't shared by every Stone space?
I was thinking about algebraic topology as a subject and it seems like it's only good for telling spaces apart. E.g. "well they have different invariants so the spaces are different". Is algebraic topology really only good for telling spaces apart? I suppose you could prove stuff like browers fixed point theorem via algebraic topology so maybe there are other interesting results that don't involve distinguishing spaces. Sorry if this is a bit open ended.
why is this space (hawaiian earring) not homeomorphic to (N x S^1)/(N x {1}) ?
apparently it's the one-point compactification of countably many open intervals, but I don't see how that's not the same
wait, is that quotient even compact?
I suppose that in the HE case, for all open sets there must be a uniform bound on the size of neighbourhoods in the preimage (just from looking at the picture)
whereas the image $\cup_n ( {n} \times U_n)$ is a valid open neighbourhood in the quotient space I mentioned, where $U_n$ is a ball around $1 \in S^1$ of radius $1/n$
xdres
Hey guys is this a valid proof?
the question was "prove that the only topology that contains B as a subset is the discrete topology"
I'm still quite new to topology proofs so if there's something I could write in a better way lmk
use words to explain what you're doing





