#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 293 of 1
Why weird?
I mean topological embedding btw
Can we use something like $\exp(iA)$ where $A$ is diagonal for this?
Blitz
Well maybe not this but I think exponential map might be useful somehow
Because we can embedd R into S^1 = SO(2) using exponential function
Yep, works, thank you
I think I want to embedd R^n into U(n) instead
That's easy though
We can embedd R^n into (S^1)^n into U(n)
I feel kinda stupid now
Doing more reading this morning in Ozsvath and Szabo. Wish me luck!
No idea what that is but good luck
you mean the function $f(x)=e^{ix}$? this is not injective
Or x1
Generalization of it
Besides, I don't need it to be injective on all of R
If we were able to embedd R^n into SO(n+1) then that'd be pretty strong I think, but U(n) is alright too
I'm basically embedding R^n into (S^1)^n
I know, like I said, that's not the point
R and (0, 1) is the same thing
I can use that word
I never said I'm using exponential as an embedding
Using
This is a crucial detail you missed
Using
I genuinely did not know what you mean
Oh
When we think of exponential as a map R to S^1 I usually think of the universal covering space
Which is certainly not objective
Injective*
I meant that I'm mapping R to (0, 2pi) homeomorphically and then use exponential to map it to S^1
Ah, sure
Yeah, sorry, I thought you were just being picky
Idk if picky is a good word
Bothered with details
No I think both me and or x1 had the covering map in mind
Exponential is the way most topology books define it
Anyway, in the same way I can embedd R^n into (S^1)^n which then embeds into U(n)
Why are you using the word "embed" for R^n to (S^1)^n? Do you mean cover?
he is including R into S^1
Why don't you include yourself into my foot?
thinking of S^1 as basically one point compactification
thats not how it works dami
infact thats the opposite
But that wouldn't really be an embedding I don't think
If we're assuming you're not trolling me here
Or wait
No nvm that's not a problem
But I didn't say any maps
Yes, top spaces
I was thinking what kind of spaces have compactifications which are topological groups
So I was trying to see if I can come up with one for R^n
just any compactification?
Yes, any compactification which admits a group structure
well a compactification requires like, R^n to be dense in it dami
I see, I've never seen the term "compactification" on its own used actually
Usually either one point or one time I saw Stone-Cech lol
yeah its like, a compact space Xtilde with an inclusion of X in it
st the image is dense
I wonder if the C* perspective could be helpful to this
There's something called Bohr compactification for top groups but it's not an actual compactification
Well actually the question is:
What top spaces/top groups/other are such that some comp./any comp./Alexandroff extension/Stone-Čech comp. admits a top group structure
It'd be cool if any of this could be moved
So at least with regards to the Stone-Cech compactification, all X not pseudocompact are such that beta X are non-homogenous and hence, do not admit a group structure.
I see. So if we go further to metric spaces (say), then only Stone-Čech compactifications of compact spaces can admit a topological group structure
That's pretty cool
So iff such space is a compact top group

Does anybody kow common notation for the specialization preorder? something like SpP(X)? or SP(X)
I am given a covering map $p: S^1 \to S^1, z \mapsto z^4$ and a continuous map $f: S^1 \to S^1, z \mapsto z^5$ and I am asked to determine if there exists a lift $\hat{f}:S^1 \to S^1$ of f
Entelechy
but I am a bit struggling on this, I don't know where to start
Do you know the lifting lemma
If not, you can try to compute what such a lift would have to be at the level of the fundamental group
can someone sanity check my proof of sierpinski space is contractible
What is quotient space of square either opposite sides identified negatively
Like the mobius band square but with the other edges also identified in the same way
Klein bottle but reverse one of the double arrows
I think its the real projective plane
I can see how this might be simular to antipodal identification on disk
@bitter smelt round it out, connect two opposite sides to get something that looks like wedge of two circles, then glue across the circumference after spinning one of them 180deg
what is the free action of S^1 on S^\infty?
I know there is such an action since S^\infty is EU(1)
What's S^infinity? Hilbert cube?
Blitz
Actually I’m not sure that even makes sense
But it’s a colimit that’s well defined
I am speaking nonsense sorry
Sorry why do we know that it is EU(1)?
pls try to distinguish your union Us and set Us
lol
yeah the handwriting is good modulo that
looks good otherwise
only other comment is to avoid using things like \exists randomly in a paragraph
Prove it 🙂
if $U_x \subseteq U, \forall x \in U \implies \cup_{x \in U} U_x \subseteq U$
ProphetX
It is straightforward to prove this with elements
let $x_1,\dots,x_n \in U$. Then $U_{x_1} \subseteq U, \dots, U_{x_n} \subseteq U$
ProphetX
ProphetX
i could generalize this for abritrary index set,but just for the sake of idea
I actually omitted a step: $\cup_{n \in N} U_{x_n} \subseteq \cup_{n \in N} U$
ProphetX
but $\cup_{n \in N} U=U$, so this finishes it, right?
uh
ProphetX
I don't think you've really done anything
except re-index the union
?
What I had in mind was to like
I mean idk how to formally prove it
a=b iff a subseteq b and b subseteq a
how do you prove A is a subset of B
let a in A. Then a in B
okay
i_hate_printers
overloaded x 
Yes
ProphetX
right?
hm
i don't see how to do it. I get back to the previous point
it seems ciruclar
you can definitely do this
I mean $x \in U_x$, therefore $\cup_{x \in U} U_x \subseteq \cup_{x \in U} x =U$
but....
ProphetX
x is either in U_1, or U_2, or....
what does that mean
okay
great
now use that haha
Suppose $a\in \cup_{x\in U} U_x$. Then what do we know about $a$?
i_hate_printers
a is either in U_1,U_2,...
Well, $a$ is in $U_x$ for some $x\in U$ right?
i_hate_printers
Not necessarily naturally indexed
yes
i_hate_printers
U_x subset U
And finally?
great
np
One of the proofs i am following says this: "$\forall n \in N \exists x_n \in A$ such that $d(x_o, x_n)< 1/n$", where A is a subset of a metric space and $x_0 \in \overline{A}$. Where does this come from? The proof just sort of says it like its obvious.
FireLi0n
@still vessel $x_0\in \overline{A}$ means that for any neighbourhood $U$ of $x$, $U\cap A \neq \emptyset$
Blitz
Pick an appropiate neighbourhood U for each n
i understand that, but how do you get to distance being 1/n
is it just, there is always at least one that is exactly that distance?
nothing more than that
What are the most basic neighbourhoods of a point in a metric space that you can get?
You never said you want them to be exactly 1/n distance apart
okay yes, less than that
but the point is that you can put any distance there as an upper limit, right?
there will always be a point like that
yeah, bound not limit. Okay i guess that makes sense, thanks
there's compact spaces and para compact spaces. Is there something as para normal space?
every paracompact space is normal
or maybe im not understanding what you are asking
It's a joke
oof
not a serious q
Lol
paranormal spaces are spaces that are not hausdorff
I have a question about finding normal closures under the free group on 2 elements. How do I find the normal closure of the subset {a^2, b^2, (ab)^3} of the free group <a,b>? This is to subsequently find a presentation for this subgroup and create a corresponding 2-orientable graph.
The idea is most likely to avoid actually finding the normal closure
and instead realize that if you force a^2,b^2,(ab)^3 to be 0 you automatically force that on the normal closure
Oh sorry, you want the subgroup generated by those
Then the idea is to make those loops the nonzero ones
i.e. "a" should not be a loop in your graph but a^2 should be
and so on
yeah so I can just directly take those set elements directly to constructing the graph?
Well with those elements in particular I feel a bit stuck. the a^2 and b^2 elements feel like they "lock" me into a very rigid structure and I can't find a place to allow the last element
I feel quite locked into this structure, not understanding how to alter it to accommodate for the last element being cubed
The way I normally do this by trial in error is a draw a point
and then i draw an "a"
and then I try to draw another "a" and a "b" starting at the end point of the first "a"
and whenever the subgroup generators tell me i need to have a loop
i force it back to the starting point
yeah, so I guess just some hardcore trial and error
so for the one in the picture
i would draw a
and then see a^2 so my next a has to go to the start
then the ab also forces the b to go back to the start
and you're done
now you do the first b
and you repeat
until youve exhausted everything
its fairly algorithmic (and might actually be decidable?)
hmm yeah that does make sense, I guess I just have trouble visualizing everything
This seems somewhat like it, but it induces commutativity of the ab within the (ab)^3... which i don't think works. like it would give <a^2, b^2, (ab)^3, (ba)^3> i think
@marsh forge I hope a ping is okay
ababab=1 implies babab = a implies bababa=1
Oooohhhhh the a^2=1 allows for the inverse to be removed, amazing ! I didnt think of that. Thanks for all the help 😄
no worries
you could even think of your diagram as a "proof" of that extra relation
since you did everything right and still ended up with something extra
just be careful to actually check that the algebra works out
so there is a theorem that says that in an inner product space $(X, <,>)$ for any $U \subseteq X$, the orthogonal complement $U^{\bot}$ is always a closed subspace of X. My question is doesn't that mean that U is also closed as its also a orthogonal complement of some other subset of X?
FireLi0n
The orthogonal complement of the orthogonal complement is not always the original subspace
It's the closure of the original subspace
It doesn't even have to be a linear subspace, just a subset
Yeah, in any case, the original subset does not necessarily have to be the orthogonal complement of some other subset
Hi!
I'm wondering how this is true
For example, take the closed real interval [0, 1]
There is no way 1/2 has a neighbourhood that intersects [0, 1] in 1/2 alone
Alright understood thanks
fwiw accumulation point means the same but sometimes sounds better
Is $RP^2$ homotopy equivalent to a closed disk?
limbostar
I know that RP^2 minus a point/disk is equivalent to S^1
I don't know if that helps lol
I dont... think it's equivalent?
Yeah that's true, just by imagining removing the 2-cell away from a common CW structure for RP^2. Then keeping the 2 cell should give the interior of the S^1 I think. So yeah
the real projective plane has fundamental group Z/2Z, and any closed disk has trivial fundamental group. Ignoring base points because both spaces are path-connected.
Ahh that's true. That is a problem
I think it must be the disk after identifying a pair of antipodal points along the boundary of the disk and identifying the remaining arcs of the boundary
well RP^2 itself is a sphere with all antipodal points identified, so yeah you can't just "collapse" the sphere down to a closed disk because you would be forgetting about some of the antipodal points and subsequently forgetting about some of the structure
@fair idol if you're comfortable with Van Kampen then this is a pretty approachable link that helped me a little while ago with understanding RP^2: https://www.math3ma.com/blog/the-fundamental-group-of-the-real-projective-plane
what does it mean that the top and bottom halves can be separated by a left-right mirror reflection?
Hello
What is the usual topology on R² ?
I'm new in topology
Is it the set of unions of open discs ?
Yeah; that's the same as the topology induced by seeing it as a metric space with the Euclidean metric
Or any other metric on R^2 since they're all equivalent
Okay so I can consider rectangles instead of discs ?
Sure, that's what you get with the infinity-norm
for ||.||_infinite
It doesn't say that; you're trying to continue reading after the end of one line at the beginning of the line you just finished ...
okay thank you
It says "top and bottom halves can be separated from each other by a two-sided Möbius strip".
The important point here is, I believe, that if the ambient space is not orientable, then a non-orientable surface can have two distinct sides.
If I could explain it in my own words, would the left-right mirror reflection of the cube be the non-orientable ambient space since going through through the mirror would mean you would end up in the flipped surface?
The left-right mirror reflection in the example is not a reflection of the entire cube; it's only there to describe which point on the front face each point on the back face is glued to.
So if you're standing inside the cube and step out through the back side a little left of center, you'll arrive into the cube through the front side, with your head still pointing up but a little right of center. (And you yourself become mirrored by stepping through the glued face, so your subjective experience would be of having stepped into right left side of a different cube that's the mirror image of the one you came from. But "really" according to the mathematical model there's only a single cube that you're now experiencing in a different way).
Yes so like this. But Im still confused about how the mobius strip is two sided. Would the mobius strip be 2 sided from the gluing of the two sides of the cube?
The Möbius strip is flat and horizontal, stretching from the front side of the cube to the back. Thus it has a top side and a bottom side.
Ah I see thank you!
Alternatively you could stretch a pipe horizontally through the cube; it would then match up across the glued face to become a Klein bottle with a definite interior and exterior.
If Y is a Hausdorff space then any two maps g, h : X -> Y are equal if they are equal on any dense subset of X. Is the converse also true? That is, if every two maps g, h : X -> Y that agree on a dense subset of X are equal, is Y Hausdorff?
If we set X = {0,1} with the indiscrete topology, then all functions out of X are continuous. Given two points y,y' in Y, we have maps f,g : X -> Y with f constant on y, and g(0) = y, g(1) = y'. Note that f and g agree on {0}, which is dense in X. Hence f = g. But that means y = y'.
This proves that every such Y is already a one-point space
thus in particular hausdorff
if you mean for a fixed and not arbitrary X, then the answer would be no since e.g. we can take X to be a one-point space where trivially all maps out of it that agree on a dense subset agree on X (the only dense subset is X itself)
Wait doesn't X have to be the discrete topology for all functions out of X to be continuous?
An algebraic topology person told me this is an iff and I am becoming increasingly skeptical
i mean it still feels like a really strong condition
There's a standard exercise in Munkres along the lines of: let Y be a Hausdorff space and g h : X -> Y arbitrary maps into Y that agree on a dense subset of X. Show that g = h
I was told the converse is also true but struggling to prove it
My current idea is: suppose Y is not a Hausdorff space, so there exist x != y such that every pair of opens around x and y overlap. Then it suffices to find two maps g, h : Y -> Y that agree on a dense subset yet aren't equal. Note that at least one of Y\{x}, Y\{y} must be a dense subset (if they were both not dense, then {x} and {y} would be disjoint opens around x and y). wlog say Y\{y} is the dense one. If the closure of y is more than just {y} (I can't get rid of this condition) then the map
h(z) := if z = y then some arbitrary element of Cl({y}) other than y else z
is continuous and distinct from id : Y -> Y, but h and id agree on the dense subset Y\{y}
You're having problems proving that if g = h, then they agree on a dense subset?
I'm having problems proving the converse of (Y hausdorff) implies (for all X and maps g, h : X -> Y, g and h agree on a dense subset of X implies g = h)
Ah, OK.
g and h need to be continuous rather than completely arbitrary, I trust?
Yes
This person sent me a proof, turns out it's much easier to show (for all X and g h, ...) implies the diagonal Delta(Y) is closed
Blitz
@solemn temple like this?
Cool!
Yep
I never thought of this as a real definition, but something informal
Hello
Does anyone here know of an explicit homotopy between $C(\vee_A S^1)$ and $\vee_A e^2$ which fixes the copies of $\vee_A S^1$?
dadaurs
Basically, I need to show that the pushouts obtained from $C(\vee_A S^1) \leftarrow \vee_A S^1 \rightarrow \vee_I S^1$ and $ \vee_A e^2 \leftarrow \vee_A S^1 \rightarrow \vee_I S^1$ are homotopic which is equivalent to showing the above, but the parametrization of the homotopy seems non-trivial and when I asked my prof he didn't know it either
dadaurs
where the right to left maps are always the trivial inclusions and the left to right maps are the same in both pushouts
for those who have studied degree theory
could u give me some insight
on how to get started
i plan to go through math 327 utoronto topology course (is it a good place to start with?)
bit about me: sophomore math student, taken real analysis courses, lin alg, odes and intro abstract algebra courses
i'm sure that point-set topology is not enough for topological degree theory
math327 is an introductory course on point-set topology
oh
sorry for the trouble
but do u know any course/ online resource/text to get started
actually the origins of degree theory lies in algebraic topology but some people do degree theory in analytic viewpoint with point-set topology only.
a common introductory textbook for topology is munkres topology which covers both point-set topology and intro algebraic topology.
Thanks a lot!!!!!
have a great day!
I believe you are speaking of finite-dimensional topological degree theory since you don't know linear functional analysis.
You can go really deep into degree theory but for the basics you don't need algebraic topology actually
you should also mention why you want to learn degree theory.
umm
i am doing a project under a prof
for my odes class
which requires proving schauders fixed point theorem
you would only need some basic concepts in point-set topology
oh!
thanks for the information!
mat327 won't teach you enough topology (neither algebraic or differential) to be able to jump into degree stuff. you'd want to look at 1301 or 367/1300
source: took all these courses
1301 is algebraic topology, 1300 is differential topology, and 367 is the undergraduate version of 1300
what he's looking for is applications of fixed point theorems to ODEs but not something deep in degree theory. He certainly only need the basic topology
ooo are u a grad student at uoft?
oh damn!
u took all those grad courses in ur ug?
m only planning to do mostly 2, a grad ode n func analysis course
p scared about them
i am planning to apply to uoft/ uwaterloo n some unis in eu for my masters as well 😊
i did 367 instead of 1300
1300 really is differential topology, whereas 367 is like "here are manifolds, vector fields, etc etc, stokes"
general advice for taking graduate courses is: if it's a "core" course then it's going to be intense (exceptions apply, 1301 this semester was super easy), and if it's a seminar or topics course, it's not going to be very difficult workload-wise
ie the workload for topics courses is whatever you make it
oh damn
yea the ode one is a core course
thanks for the advice
ah
yeeee
assumed you were talking about uoft courses mb
the advice on grad courses still holds though
and he often refers to those courses
yep thanks!!
Suppose that we have a pair $(X,A)$, where $A \subset X$ is closed and the inclusion $\iota : A \rightarrow X$ is a cofibration. And let's assume that we have a self-homeomorphism $f : X \rightarrow X$ that restricts to a self homeomorphism $\tilde{f} : X \setminus A \rightarrow X \setminus A$ of the space $X \setminus A$.
\
\
If we know the fundamental group of the quotient space of $X$ obtained via the orbits of $f$ and we also know the fundamental group of $A$ (possibly of $X \setminus A$ too if such a hypothesis is necessary), can we recover the fundamental group of the the quotient of $X \setminus A$ by obtained from the orbits of $\tilde{f}$.
You are using setminus, do you mean quotient or set difference?
MISTERSYSTEM
I see, including the last statement?
you say quotient
Oh
I see now
sorry I was misreading
Yeah, I was also having a hard timing writing this down for some reason haha.
I hope this is not so confusing.
Hm
This seems tricky
Any time set differences show up in topology things get funky
at least algebraic topology
This might sound silly, but I thought about this more general question when trying to solve a really elementary problem.
Suppose that we have a linear automorphism f : R^2 -> R^2 given by (x,y) |-> (2x,y/2). Now, we know that this restricts to a self homeomorphism of R^2 \ {0} given by:
f' : R^2 \ {0} -> R^2 \ {0}, (x,y) |-> (2x,y/2)
One of my problem assignment questions was to prove that the quotient of R^2{0} by the action induced by f' is in fact a covering space map and also to calculate the fundamental group of the quotient of R^2 \ {0} by the action of f'.
And my idea to solve this problem was, precisely, to extend f' to a linear automorphism of R^2 (the f we had previously defined) and calculate the quotient of R^2 by this extended linear automorphism (which is in fact an easier problem).
And see what kind of information we can recover.
I actually could solve my assignment problem using this idea.
And I was thinking if like, there was a way to generalize this.
Idk, just giving some motivation for my question.
But @Phil showed Y has to singleton (or empty), which is much stronger, anyway.
Although this do be very neat
All Hausdorff spaces are singletons?
Phil was wrong, he even corrected himself later. It holds for any Hausdorff space Y
Oh right, my bad
on what channel, do i ask doubts on lattice and linear algebra
Definitely not here if it's not topology related
I'm having trouble with the following proof: Let $\mathcal{T}_1,\mathcal{T}_2}$ be two topologies on a set $X$. Suppose $\mathcal{S}_1$ is a subbasis for $\mathcal{T}_1$ and $\mathcal{S}_2$ a subbasis for $\mathcal{T}_2$. Show that $\mathcal{T}_1$ is finer than $\mathcal{T}_2$ if and only if for every $U\in\mathcal{S}2$ and every $x\in U$ there exists a finite collection ${V_1,\dots,V_n}\subset \mathcal{S}1$ such that $x\in\bigcap{i=1}^n Vi$ and $\bigcap{i=1}^n V_i \subset U$. I know that I need to show one implication and then the other, but I really dont know where to start..
Ursus1234
Compile Error! Click the
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the intersection is a member of the basis generated by this subbasis
U needs to be union of such sets, so naturally, x is contained in some set of this form
now conversely this shows that any such U is open in the topology T1
so finite intersections of elements of S2 are also contained in T1
so arbitrary unions of finite intersections are
and this is precisely the topology generated by S2, that is T2
so T2 is contained in T1
thanks, I'll try wrapping my head around it. Still quite confusing to me
Hi, my lecturer was showing the our very first example of computing homologies straight from the axioms when the lecture recording cut off. The example was to compute the homology groups $H_*(S^n,\text{pt})$ for the $n$-sphere. She started off by choosing the upper hemisphere of the $n$-sphere and using the homotopy and excision axioms to write this isomorphism down
and then she used the long exact sequence axiom to write down this sequence
and then the recording stopped. I can see that the homology groups of the lower hemisphere are going to be isomorphic to the homology groups of a point, but how do we use this sequence to obtain an expression for the object in the top right?
probably induction, so you can assume something about the homology of the intersection of the hemispheres (the guy on the left)
that's typically how the computation of the homology of S^n goes. note that the intersection of the two hemispheres is homotopy equivalent to S^{n-1}
Ah yep, so the point is to get this kind of diagram?
these sequences still look like squiggly diagrams to me atm, the only cat theory I've learnt is the stuff I've accidentally inhaled from taking this algebraic topology course
so does this give us some sort of expression for $H_(S^n)$ in terms of $H_{-1}(S^{n-1})$
yeah, something like that. you should write down the homology of the point. in positive degrees it'll vanish, and you can use exactness to say something about the homology of S^n
Okay I think I got it, thanks for the help!
If I want to work out the set of bordism classes of dimension 10 manifolds, would the only possible choices be 10 copies of dimension 1 manifolds and a dissension 2 manifold Cartesian product a dimension 5 manifold
Or do I just have to enumerate all linear combinations of bordism classes with index i st that the sum of i’s = 10
Never mind I got it
Hi, I'm having a hard time getting the intuition of why the fundamental group of the real projective plane is isomorphic to Z/2Z. From what I understand, any loop based at x in RP^2 corresponds (via the quotient map) to either a loop based at x (or -x) in S^2 or a path from x to -x. But this is where I'm stuck
have you drawn a bunch of pictures
I have yes
can you think of an example of a path that you're not super convinced should be homotopic to one of these
a path in RP^2 ?
yeah
hmm no not really
also like, i'm assuming you know the statement of van kampen's theorem but like
my recommendation would be to take the proof of van kampen's theorem and specialize it to the case of this theorem
so don't treat it as a black box
but see how it works in this situation
I have heard of this theorem though it's not in my course
oh
ok
let p be like
the simplest nontrivial path
so it leaves the basepoint at p, leaves one side and comes back at the other
and joins the basepoint
do you understand intuitively why p^2 = 0?
let me think about it
remember that when you multiply two paths, the new path becomes detached from the basepoint at the midpoint and we can move it freely near the midpoint
yeah, x and y should be glued together at the basepoint but y is no longer required to be attached to the basepoint when we homotope f * g
that doesn't tell you itself, i'm just saying it's a helpful reminder lol
here's how i draw RP^2
i draw a circle with a dot in the middle
the dot is the basepoint
whenever a line goes out of the circle at one side it comes back on the other 180 degrees removed
so like
yea the boundary points are identified or something
draw p so that it starts at the midpoint of the circle, goes up to 12 o clock, comes up from the bottom at 6 o clock and rejoins
okay, this is a bit different from representing RP^2 as a sphere and imagining all antipodal points are the same
yeah it's easier to draw for me
well, it's equivalent in the end
so p^2 can be drawn like:
- starts at the basepoint
- goes up to 12 o clock
- comes in the bottom at 6
- comes up but veers off a bit to the left instead of rejoining at the basepoint
- keeps going up and hits 11 o clock
- comes in at the bottom at 5 o clock
- rejoins at the basepoint
okay so the "veers off" part comes from what you just told me before
yeah
i'm detaching the "midpoint" of the path from the basepoint
then like, what i'd do is homotope the point at 11 o clock/5 o clock in the counterclockwise direction
and you can eventually just pull the whole loop on the left hand side through the wall of the circle
idk if this makes any sense
okay
that's what I just saw there earlier
but now I actually understand it aha
okay so now that p^2 = 0, it says that any non trivial loop is of order 2 (well, their class rather) so the group structure is the same as Z/2Z
idk if that's a complete proof but basically like, i can't think of any simple nontrivial group elt that's not homotopic to p
and any more complicated element, imo intuitively it should be easy to break this down into the product of copies of p
alright I see, thank you for your time 🙂
I'm trying to solve following problem: Let $X$ and $Y$ be topological spaces and equip $X\times Y$ with the product topology. Define $\pi_X:X\times Y\rightarrow X$ by $\pi_X((x,y))=x$, and $\pi_Y:X\times Y \rightarrow Y$ by $\pi_Y((x,y))=y.$ Show that for every open set $U\subseteq X\times Y, \pi_X(U)$ is open in $X$ and $\pi_Y(U)$ is open in $Y$.
Ursus1234
I have a proposition that says something about if I have a subset of X that is open , then every open set in the subset is also open in X, but I dont know if that is usable here
recall how you defined the product topology and notice you only need to show this result for a basis
basis of opens on X that is
so the basis that generates the product topology is $\mathcal{B}={U\times V|U\in\mathcal{T}_1,V\in\mathcal{T}_2}$ and since $U$ is an open subset of $X$ then $\pi_X(U)$ is also open in $X$?
Ursus1234
is that correct or didn't I understand it correctly
$\mathcal{T}_1$ is the topology on $X$ and $\mathcal{T}_2$ is the topology on $Y$
Ursus1234
Seems right, you do have to show it is sufficient to show this for a basis
Im not quite sure why that is true, but I would think it has something to do with the fact that a basis generates a topology, which means that the elements of a topology are unions and intersections and so on of the elements of the basis...
I dont know whether you would always just be able to show it for a basis, or its possible in this case because of how we have defined $\pi_X$ and $\pi_Y$...
Ursus1234
well you checked it for a basis of open sets, now to check it for any open set, you have to write this open set as a union of basis elements
$f(\bigcup_i U_i) = \bigcup_i f(U_i)$
Blitz
It's just this fact applied
was trying to hint at this, but yes, that's it
Is it possible for two spaces to have pairwise isomorphic fundamental homotopy groups but different cohomology rings?
by pairwise isomorphic fundamental groups, do you really mean just pi_1, or actually that pi_n(X) is isomorphic to pi_n(Y) for all n?
if you only need pi_1, then this is pretty easy; just take S^2 and S^3. They're both simply connected, but H^2(S^2;Z) = Z and H^2(S^3;Z) = 0
if you want that all homotopy groups are isomorphic this will be a lot harder, im not sure if its possible actually.
the latter
The main point is that in you statement, the isomorphisms between the homotopy groups need not be induced by a map f : X -> Y on the level of spaces (such a map would be called a weak homotopy equivalence if it works for arbitrary basepoints)
if you had such a weak equivalence, then they also have the same cohomology groups
but this map need not exist if these groups are just abstractly isomorphic
I am trying to check: I think S^3 x RP^2 and S^2 x RP^3 would be a counterexample to this?
The cohomology ring of S^n with coefficients in Z/2 is Z/2[a]/(a^2) right?
i would be really surprised if something as easy as this works
well yeah if you say a is degree n
Yea
but i dont think these two spaces have the same cohomology ring, do they?
oh yeah that way around
two spaces with same hty groups but different cohomology rings
how are you going to compute the higher homotopy groups of your space though
this is generally so hard that its still open, even for spheres
so then by the K"unneth isomorphism:
[H^(\bR P^2\times S^3)\cong \bZ_2[\omega]/(\omega^3)\otimes\bZ_2[\alpha]/(\alpha^2)]
but
[H^(\bR P^3\times S^2)\cong\bZ_2[\omega]/(\omega^4)\otimes\bZ_2[\alpha]/(\alpha^2)]
those are different, right?
@cosmic beacon
For n >= 2
well pi_1(RP^n) is Z_2, so your thing only works for i > 1
yea sorry
but for i=1 it's easy
but yeah the example works anyway
lol "easy" is an overstatement, I had somehow convinced myself this was impossible, but then got confused when working with RP^2 x S^n and S^2 x RP^n, realizing it contradicted that
So I just wanted to make sure I didn't make any mistakes calculating
easy in the sense that you can basically write and prove it in a few lines
But I didn't go looking for a counterexample, just one popped up
What's the expected solution here? I have a solution but it seems overkill. (If T' finer than T then id : (X, T') -> (X, T) bijective and continuous; T' compact and T Hausdorff so id closed; hence id is a homeomorphism)
OK
Is there just one way to talk about cohomology here?
i think we were talking about singular cohomology with Z_2 coefficients
Is every Eilenberg MacLane space necessarily homotopy equivalent to a CW complex?
I know that any two CW complexes which are both K(G,n)'s are hty. equivalent
Nvm I don’t think that’s true
Consider the Hawaiian earring
I'm trying to show that if X is homotopy equivalent to the one-point space {a} then X is contractible. By definition we have maps f: X -> {a} and g: {a} -> X such that their compositions are the respective id maps. I feel like this should be obvious but i just can't quite get it 😭
is there some way i can show the homotopy between id_X and the constant map on a using the transitivity of homotopy equivalence or do i need to specifically construct a homotopy
what's your definition of contractible
X is contractible if id$_X$ is homotopic to a constant map
rustyjpeg
iff*
think about what it means for the compositions of f and g to be homotopic to certain identity maps
maybe the one you want will pop out
(and by "think about" i mean write out every assumption you've made in this problem)
my assumptions are that if $f: X \to {a}$ and $g: {a} \to X$ then $f \circ g \simeq id_{{a}}$ and $g \circ f \simeq id_X$. i'm also considering the fact that since $f: X \to {a}$ then we must have $f$ is the constant map to $a$
rustyjpeg
If M is a compact manifold with Euler characteristic 0, does its universal covering space also have Euler characteristic 0?
If the cover is of finite degree, yes, but is this also true for covers of infinite degree?
you have a homotopy between id_X and something. what can you say about that something?
you are almost there
are you referring to g \circ f?
im sorry im probably missing the obvious 😭 my brain is a little fried
i am
what is g \circ f?
you know id_X is homotopic to it. you want to say id_X is homotopic to...
f is the constant map to a and then i think g is the inclusion of a into X?
so overall as a map from X to X, g \circ f is...
the constant map to a!
my only question is couldn't g send a to some other member of X - must it be the inclusion since its homotopic to the identity on {a}
ok well the claim about g \circ f being constant is still true
you caught me, i have lied
hahahahahha
my brain may be a little fried too
i think it still might be right that g circ f is homoptic to the constant map on a
ok no well actually
and that's exactly what you want
I was caught up thinking it had to be homotopic to the same constant map, but it just has to be any constant map
thanks for the help @gritty widget ❤️
I have an embedding $f : S^1 \times \mathrm{int}(D^2) \to S^3$, is $S^3 - \mathrm{im},(f)$ necessarily homotopy equivalent to $S^3 - \overline{\mathrm{im},f}$?
@cosmic beacon
here f is continuous bij. map
how can I conclude that all open sets in X are of the type f^{-1}(U)?
f^-1 is continuous iff (f^-1)^-1(U) = f(U) is open for any open U
And this is precisely what it means to be an open map
You don't need for f to be continuous for this
I am on the direction. Let f^{-1} continuous. then f is open
this is true
but in my argument i don't see how this helps
What you wrote is overly complicated
I mean I agree with what you write
but i'd like to fill in that. detail in my profo
here i'd still need to show that all open in X are preimages of opens in Y
Your proof is overly complicated and I don't see reason to work with it
So I guess I won't help you, sorry
nvm got it
How can I get good at topology?
do topology
work through a ton of examples and exercises, see how the general theory ties in with those
What chapters of math do I need to know before I get started with topology?
some real analysis is good to know
really you don't need a ton more than set theory and familiarity with reading and writing proofs
but many interesting examples come from this and other things you might've already seen in math
Real analysis? What school years is that done in?
depends on each math program
sometimes freshman calculus is taught as an analysis course right off the bat
and in some other programs there's a "real analysis" course in third year or something
Then it’s a long way for me
hmm for our class tomorrow, our little assignment is to try to find an example of sets $X$ and $Y$ and subset $Z\subseteq X\times Y$ where 1: $\pi_X(Z)$ is open in $X$, 2: $\pi_Y(Z)$ is open in $Y$ but 3: $Z$ is not open in $X\times Y$ with respect to the product topology. I've been thinking about it, it confuses me how the 1,2 are open, but 3 is not...
Ursus1234
$\pi$ is defined as: $\pi_X:X\times Y\rightarrow X$, $\pi_Y:X\times Y\rightarrow Y$
Ursus1234
would appreciate some suggestions
maybe narrow down the search space by looking for an example where X = Y
and look for a geometric space
one that's easy to visualize
ahh yea, thank you
hmm I've been thinking about it and I still cant see of $\pi(Z)$ would be open but $Z\subseteq X\times Y$ is closed...
Ursus1234
can you maybe enlighten me some more?
I was thinking about letting $X=Y=\mathbb{R}$ and $Z={(x,y)|x,y\in\mathbb{Z}}$ because the integers is a closed set in $\mathbb{R}$ but then $\pi(Z)$ would not be open either...
Ursus1234
Im a little confused
@mystic reef good thinking but instead of this take Z = {(x, x) : x in U} where U is your favourite non-empty open set
In fact the diagonal is open iff X is discrete
So for all non-discrete spaces you can just take the diagonal Delta(X) = {(x, y) : x = y}
In X x X
Delta(X)?, should this be my Z?
ahh yea, and then pi(Z) is open but Z is not open in X x Y
Unless X is discrete
but the real numbers arent discrete are they?
Yeah they aren't
thanks a lot @gritty widget
The discrete topology on a space X is the topology that takes every subset of X. As I understand it.
But I mean would this mean if we took the real numbers in [0,1] and took every subset, we would have a discrete topolgy? Why would we think of this as discrete
yeah it's discrete, the intuition is that if you look at any point x then every other point is far enough apart from x that you can draw an open neighbourhood around x that includes no other points
so you're taking [0,1] and yanking it apart so that each point is isolated from every other point
ohhh so you have all these singletons as open sets
yeah
and thats why it differs from the metric intuition
I guess I just didnt think of real analysis in terms of sets LOL
if you like you can even define a metric that's consistent with the discrete topology, and think of it as a metric space
there's a "discrete metric" but I won't ruin your fun trying to find it
hey if X is a topological group and Y is a subgroup of X then does anyone know of a strategy to get the fundamental group of X/Y from the fundamental group of X?
im familiar with the discrete metric
For $n\geq1$, does the quotient $q: X\sqcup Y\to X\vee Y$ induce an isomorphism
[H_n(X\sqcup Y)\xrightarrow[]{\sim}H_n(X\vee Y)?]
@cosmic beacon
I don't believe there is a strategy in general, what are the spaces in question? You should be able to say something if the quotient map X --> X/Y is a covering map
I have SO(3), and the subgroup is A_4 embedded into SO(3) as the symmetries of the tetrahedron
since posting the question I think I found a proposition in Hatcher, Prop 1.40, that looks like it should do the job
though I haven't had time to work it out yet
Yes this is what I was referring to, are you talking about the orbit space of SO(3) under the action of A_4?
yeah
or at least that's what I assume, the way the question is worded is a little ambiguous
Yea, if that action is properly discontinuous and free, then you have A_4 ~= pi_1(SO(3)/A_4) / Z_2
yaaay thanks for confirming
and then I can just undo the quotient with a semidir product right?
hmm I'm not exactly sure what to do from there tbh
probably need to argue that there's a short exact sequence $$1\to\bZ_2\to \pi_1(X)\to A_4\to 1$$
Interesting, how would this help? Also note A_4 isn't an abelian group, FWIW
according to my classmates the answer should be $\bZ_2\rtimes A_4$ so my brain is just doing whatever it can to get that lol
a fallacy I know
and that short exact sequence would imply the semidirect product (I think)
If the basepoints have neighbourhoods that deformation retract to those points, then that is an isomorphism for n > 0, and a (split) surjection for n = 0 with kernel ℤ
If I regard the component colour as an important property of links, then these two are not the same, right? I apparently have absolutely no visual thinking capacity, and I'm not sure if the Reshetikhin-Turaev invariant distinguishes them.
It seems to me like I can just rotate the red ring 180° and get exactly the right picture
Dont know the invariant, but they seem highly the same
@vocal anchor
oh dang you're right lmao
oh wait yeah
I see it, but I can't prove it, because "rotate 180 deg" doesn't translate to Reidemeister moves for me. But I think I have found the proof
Like cant you literally write down an isomorphism of knots that leaves the components alone??
why do you need the second row
isnt the firsy row exactly what you need
ah nvm
I look at it later
will leave the house now
you read the second row from right to left, and then the 1st row from left to right 😄
Don't worry about it 🙂
thanks 👍
you don't need those though?
those are two spaces in R^3
Well, I'm not a topologist, so don't get me started with constructing explicit homeomorphisms 
Like, for me "rotate 180 deg" is not a proof, it's a topologist's proof.
rotate it a little bit not even really changing it in place
I understand that, but I don't have a theorem that tells me this operation is good, and to be one the safer side of things, I'd rather use Reidemeister moves: I know they work, and I don't have to rely on intuition (in my case, topology intuition is usual quite wrong, so)
I mean link you fingers like that
and rotate both hands in the same way 180°
Its like literally a linear rotation of the whole R^3
More iso you wont get anywhere
No, you only rotate one hand though, not the whole R^3
Oh I see
well yeah ok, in that case its hatder to write down the ambient iso
No actually
I will write it down when I'm home
why would you want to write it explicitly 
I'm an algebraist, I need to detail every step, and put equation numbers over equalities, when I use previously known facts.
if you say so
For the following subsets U ⊆ R 2, determine the closure, interior, and boundary. I couldnt understand what is meant with for example sin(x1)<x2
All examples I found had a set with points ... and a topology on the set, tau and a subset
I am new to topology so excuse me if my questions are to easy
It means $\sin(x_1)<x_2$
Blitz
I don't know what else to tell you
Did you try graphing those sets
no do you have an advice for an online graph?
You can just use a piece of paper
without understanding the given how can I do that
what do you not understand?
it means that sin(x_1) is less than x_2
but in this question
how's it different in this question from its usual meaning
ofc its not but what am I suppose to do with that
If you had x_2 = sin(x_1) instead, can you identify what U would be
no
do you know what sin(x) means
yes
okay, that's something
-__-
{(x_1, x_2) : x_2 = sin(x_1)} is just the graph of sin(x)
it's a set of points (x, sin(x)) on the plane
okay
@thin girder do you know what this set builder notation means?
no
so now {(x_1, x_2) : sin(x_1) < x_2 } would be everything above that graph
{x : p(x)} where p(x) is some logical statement means the set of elements x such that p(x) holds
here it's meant that (x_1, x_2) is an element of R^2, which is the standard Euclidean plane
{x in A : phi(x) } is the set of all elements of A which statisfy phi. So {(x,y):x^2=y} is the set of all 2D points that satisfy x^2=y (ie the graph of a parabola)
yeah. Like A = R^2 in this case but the author didn't write it, which is a slight abuse of notation but it's forgivable
${x\in A : \varphi(x)}$
Blitz
just so you don't get confused by what we mean when writing it in text
okay
it reads "the set of elements x belonging to A such that phi(x) holds"
Maybe try {(x,y): x^2>y} as an easy example first
Before going to your actual exercise
alright
@thin girder are you trying to learn topology on your own?
kinda
did you try learning some basic set theory first
it'll be a problem if you don't understand the notation
yeah, union, intersection, inverse images, images etc.
notation for a function
properties of functions
Yeah like topology is literally impossible otherwise
Well, that's used all over mathematics, so it should be learned
so this would be the the area left on the parabola?
it's points below the parabola
:/
{(x, y) : y < f(x) } are things below graph of function f, {(x, y) : f(x) < y } are things above it
oh yeah
here f(x) = x^2 is a parabola
yeah, you just have to think about it for a little while
thats what I thoughtt but I guess I saw the > wrong
ok but is x1 =x and x2=y necessarily?
it's irrelevant what we name those
in the set notation those are just dummy variables
Nope
then how should I image the graph
{(a, b) : f(a) = b} = {(x, y) : f(x) = y } = {(x_1, x_2) : f(x_1) = x_2}
those are all the same
okay
just we named those variables, in the set notation, differently
yeah but since for example a is before b (a,b) it is f(a)=b
note that those aren't explicit numbers, it's more like a description for a method for obtaining an element of this set
okay
{a:a>1} is the same set as {z:z>1}
I can help you with this question but you should read about set notation from a book asap
and then continue to read about topology
Oh, for topology? I have a book that I have sentiment for since I've learned from it but I don't know if it'll be suitable for you
Dugundji is the author
most of the book should be understandable but he omits a lot of details when it comes to simplicial approximations
the math didn't change
I guess
it just expanded
okay then I will check it
but just to stop my suffering could you explain the question
just an example
Okay, maybe I will answer this question for c)
just to show you the logic behind it
okay
yep
so to take the closure you think like this
which elements of the plane can you get by taking a sequence of elements from this area and then their limit
and this will be intersection of those two areas
note how the top left part of the "boundary" of this area is now filled in
before it wasn't in this set
yeah
so literally interior is the inside
yeah, something like that
so one question
and now the boundary is the closure without the interior
is closure just the boundaries or boundaries plus intersection
hmm so again literally bounds
closure is this whole thing
you have your set and then some more
yes
you can write them in terms of closed and open sets for example
or differently, there's a couple equivalent ways you could define them
(in this context)
okay for example how would boundary look like
$\partial U = \overline{U}\setminus U^\circ$
Blitz
you could define it like this, closure without interior
this is the closure
this is the interior
I suppose these are in general , is there a way to add values given?
what do you mean exactly
these are notations right
in general
what would these look like for our example
not all of the situations will be the same
what separates them
oh, like do you want me to write explicit formulas for boundary etc.
dont know the name but might be what I mean
Blitz
so here the only thing changing is that one inequality is changed
ah alright
Blitz
what do you mean
well I am explaining mainly based on intuition so if you don't understand then that's ok
okay
and now the boundary is the hardest to write explicitly
I understood the logic only thing I need to work on is the notations I believe
yeah
so I can understand what a question asks : D
visit #book-recommendations and ask for some basic set theory book
okay
if thats not so hard how would it look like
or any example would be fine
doesnt have to be about our question
${(x, y) : x^2+y^2 = 16, x-y\leq 3}\cup {(x, y) : x^2+y^2\leq 16, x-y = 3}$
Blitz
in general I already wrote how to obtain it here
one last writing?
is there a way to write this without the union
the cup symbol you used in latex
${(x, y) : x^2+y^2 = 16, x-y = 3}$ maybe like this?
Ege █▀█ █▄█ ▀█▀
no, this is just two points
okay
${(x, y) : x^2+y^2 = 16, x-y\leq 3\text{ or } x^2+y^2\leq 16, x-y = 3}$
Blitz
you can write it like this if you prefer
np
come back when you learn some set theory
Can $\mathbb{N} \cross {0, 1}$ have a one-point compactification?
kaz
every space has a one-point compactification, just it's not necessarily Hausdorff
😮
but here it is
My attempt: no, as limits of the sequences x_n = (n, 0) and y_n = (n, 1) are both not in closure of this set
the one point compactification of this space is homeomorphic to ${0}\cup {1/n : n\in\mathbb{N}}$
Blitz
Blitz
those spaces are homeomorphic
any bijection is a homeomorphism
Okay, could you tell me what's wrong with my approach?
you say "limits of the sequences" but they don't converge
even if they did converged, this doesn't show anything
So what I aimed for, if there was an one point compactification
Since N X {0, 1} would be metrizable
it is metrizable
Then it being compact is equivalent for it being sequentially compact right (compactification of N X {0, 1])
you don't know the compactification is metrizable a priori
ah I see, thanks
but here it is metrizable
Well first of all consider what a knot diagram actually is: A suitably nice projection of a knot onto a plane. Consider in $\mathbb R^3$ the two circles $S^1={x\in\mathbb R^3\colon (x_1-1/2)^2+x_2^2=2^2, x_3=0}$ and $\tilde S^1={x\in\mathbb R^3\colon (x_1+1/2)^2+x_3^2=2^2, x_2=0}$. Consider the projection as if you were at $\lambda\cdot (0, 1, 1)^\top$ for $\lambda\to \infty$. Then this is precisely your first diagram. If you view from $\lambda\cdot (0, -1, 1)^\top$ instead (or from the original viewpoint and rotating the whole $\mathbb R^3$ with the knot) you get your second diagram.
MrMonday
@vocal anchor
Let $p: E \xrightarrow{} B$ be a covering map. Let $e \in E$ and $b = p(e)$. Let $A \subset B$ such that $b \in Cl(A)$. Show that $e \in Cl(p^{-1}(A))$.
Évariste Galois
while I understand the question, I'm not sure how to approach it
I could use a few hints
\xrightarrow{}???? My guy, \to???
lmao my bad
Ok, now that I've complained let me look at the question lol
Constructive criticism 🙂
Is Cl(A) the closure?
Yup
Any updates?
By $p$ being a covering and $b\in B$ there is a neighborhood $U$ of $b$, such that $p^{-1}(U)$ is the disjoint union of some open sets $U_{E,i}$ all homeomorphic to $U$ via $p$. That is we have homeomorphisms $p\vert_{U_{E,i}}\colon U_{E,i}\to U$. Now from "closure in the relative topology" we have that the closure of $A\cap U$ in $U$ is $\overline{A\cap U}^U=\overline{A}^B\cap U$. But $b \in U$ and $b\in \overline A^B$ so $b\in \overline{A\cap U}^U$. Now let $e \in E$ such that $p(e)=b$. In particular $e\in p^{-1}(U)=\coprod_i U_{E,i}$. Thus we have a unique $j$ such that $e\in U_{E,j}$ and $e$ corresponds via the heomemorphism $U_{E,j}\cong U$ to $b$. Thus walking backwards through the homemorphisms we obtain from $b\in \overline {A\cap U}^U$ that $e\in \overline{p^{-1}(A)\cap U_{E,j}}^{U_{E,j}}$. By the same "closure in relative topology" we again have $\overline{p^{-1}(A)\cap U_{E,j}}^{U_{E,j}}=\overline{p^{-1}(A)}^E\cap U_{E,j}$. In particular we have $e\in \overline{p^{-1}(A)}^E$. I guess that should be it
MrMonday
That’s awesome. Clean argument. Thanks a lot 🙂
(Everybody please fact check this proof lol)
isn't there a typo?
shouldn't g: Y,S->Y,R?
how does f o g make sense like this?
I mean whats f? I think its just a weird rephrase of a universal property. Is there anything above missing?
Otherwise its just written very sloppily
If A is subspace of X ( both path connected) then does the inclusion map induce identity map on the first homology groups?
Does this help: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relative_homology?
In algebraic topology, a branch of mathematics, the (singular) homology of a topological space relative to a subspace is a construction in singular homology, for pairs of spaces. The relative homology is useful and important in several ways. Intuitively, it helps determine what part of an absolute homology group comes from which subspace.
I guess you are talking about singular homology
yeah singular
i am sorry i dont get it
I mean I haven't solved your question yet, this was just a heads up
Thig is you get a long exact sequence $\cdots \to H^0(X)\to H^0(A)\to H^0(X,A)\to H^1(A) \to H^1(X)\to H^1(X,A)\to H^2(X)\to \cdots$. So if $H^0(X,A)=0$ and $H^2(X)=0$ then you have a short exact sequence with the first map your map in question, which then will be injective.
MrMonday
But I'd guess this holds much more often. But not sure about the general case
Eh
Oops, homology
make everything _n instead of ^n, let degrees decrease to the right and adapt the statements I guess lol
it's the universal property yes
it's the universal property of induced topology
but isn't there a typo?
f is a map (Y,R)->(X,O_X)
it's the proof of uniqueness of induced topology
because the topologies don't match
Yes, g should have switched domain and codomain

and thus f o g:Y,S->X,O, right?
yeah
how to show that the induced topology satisfies this universal property?
I only showed uniqueness
didn't show that the induced topo satisfies it
remind me tomorrow
