#point-set-topology
1 messages Ā· Page 292 of 1
lime_soup
i need to know that $\operatorname{colim}n(\pi{n+k}(\Sigma^{n}X)=0$
lime_soup
ah okay but $\pi_{n+k}(\Sigma^n X)=0$ for $k<0$
lime_soup
does this realyl work for any space X or do we need some coniditon like finite CW complex
any topology experts here right now i need help because i got very lost in pushouts
can you specify your question?
Let $\alpha:A\rightarrow X,;\beta:A\rightarrow Y,;\gamma:B\rightarrow Y,;\delta:B\rightarrow Z$ be continous maps of topological spaces. Prove that $(X+{A}Y)+{B}Z$ is homeomorphic to $X+{A}(Y+{B}Z)$
Zorty
did you cover the universal properties of pushouts
it would be a lot easier to prove via them
thats just this right (didnt want to write it out lol)
yes
and the fact that the pushout is determined uniquely up to unique isomorphism through this property
we barely looked at that a few weeks ago when we briefly covered category theory
so using this, if you show that the 1st one satisfies the universal property of the second one, you get that they are isomorphic
and with pushouts statements like this follow from / are known as "pushout pasting"
so your diagram looks like this and you can put both of the things in the corner down right
yeah i already drew that but i still dont get it lol
and you can prove all of this by just using the universal properties and so on, without actually looking at the topology
Quiver 
i guess it really depends on your tastes and how familiar you are with category theory whether you find this easier than working with quotient spaces of quotient spaces
yeah i have absolutely no clue about category theory
Category theory is just playtime with arrows
but universal property of pushouts doesnt mention anything about isomorphisms and homeomorphisms in my script so im confused
Well, just try to get what a pushout is, you don't need much category theory knowledge
Ah. You can prove the isomorphism though
well you can show that if 2 objects satisfy the same universal property you have a unique isomorphism between them
thats not special to pushouts, but generally anything similar
for example tensorproducts if you know them
but ok yeah if you dont have much time then its probably easier to actually work with the topological spaces
since you're not familiar with category theory
so i have to prove that one of the pushouts fufills the universal property of the other one and conclude that theyre isomorphic from that?
that would work yes
one thing you can show that is helpful for these kind of exercises is the pushout pasting lemma i mentioned above:
In the pictured diagram, if you know that the top square is a pushout, then the bottoms square is a pushout if and only if the whole rectangle (i.e. the diagram made from only the corners) is a pushout
yeah i think they expect me to do it this way
still have no clue šµāš«
If S is a non-empty compact subset of a metric space and x is some point in the complement of S,
it is possible to show that min{d(p,x) | p in S} exists by invoking continuity of the map f(p) = d(p,x).
Since f is continuous on a compact set, it attains a minimum. Done.
Does anyone know a way of showing this without reference to continuity of f?
I attempted to create an open cover of S by taking a union of balls at each q in S
of radius d(q,p), but could not make much progress beyond obtaining a finite
subcover.
Try this cover: ${U_\epsilon}{\epsilon > 0}$ where $$U\epsilon = { p \in S : d(p,x) < \epsilon }.$$ You'll have to justify openness of each $U_\epsilon$ and at this point you are just kind of redoing the proof that $p \mapsto d(p,x)$ is continuous and extreme value theorem.
kxrider
wait well openness is obvious
also, this is just the same cover you came up with ig? Wasn't reading that closely
@little hemlock: Hm maybe, not sure. Yours is the set of all points in S within epsilon of x, so I suppose we next want to make epsilon smaller and see how small we can make it before we leave S. Mine is somewhat extraneous and cycles through all elements in S and their distance to x.
@little hemlock: But I did try another approach, though I could not escape referencing continuity. Since x is outside S and S is closed, there is some delta>0 such that B(x,delta) is in the complement of S. Then delta is a lower bound of {d(p,x) | p in S} and thus the infimum exists. We can make a sequence that converges to the infimum, and that will provide a sequence in S. S is compact so it has a convergent subsequence and continuity now will show that the infimimum is the minimum. But I could not do it without continuity of f. I guess it is necessary
yea i mean, if you want something which requires a weaker condition than continuity, mine should suffice. You only need that preimages of open intervals of the form (0, eps) are open
but also any proof which basically reproves continuity of d(p,x) and extreme value theorem in the process is not "referencing" continuity of d(p,x). At least in the sense that continuity is not a premise.
@crimson path
@little hemlock: ok thank you very much for your input!
npnp
@crimson path hm im sorry, i just thought more about this and i realize it doesn't work
sorry if you were racking your brain over what i wrote lol
yea this is like a heine borel thing. it would be much much easier to assume continuity. Otherwise I think the program would look like: prove every open cover of f(S) has a finite subcover, and then apply heine borel to see f(S) is closed and bounded
I was watching a 3blue one brown video and it gave a challenge to show that there is no continous mapping from the edge of a mobius band to a circle. So I tried to think about this in terms of the fundamental polygon of the strip. In this qoutient space the top left and bottom right corner of the square are identified and the bottom left and top right corner are identified. So In my head im thinking of this as gluing two line segments together but that would just give us a circle. I would think this provides us with a continous map since these corners are identified?
After thinking more about the question in the video I dont think the question asked about the boundary of the mobius band. But actually that gluing the boundary of the mobius band to a circle required the mobius band to intersect itself
If someone asks to find homology of a map f and f:x->y, is that the same as the homology of f(X)
Or I guess it might just be the degree of f?
I know that the cofiber of $X \vee Y \rightarrow X\times Y$ is $X\wedge Y$
lime_soup
But i see no reason why the stable homotopy groups of X smash Y should vanish
If X and Y are now spectra, does $X\vee Y \rightarrow X\times Y$ always induce isomorphism in homotopy
lime_soup
or do we need that X and Y are connective/
Stably yes
can you help me see this?
i can't see how to show that the part from the smash does not contribute
Proof might depend on your Prefered model of spectraāitās immediate if you already know that spectra is additive
Fwiw the smash product of spectra is not the cofiber of this map
at the moment im just working with sequential spectra
The highlighted claim should essentially be like
By definition
Ie you have you cells you define for a product
And the low dim cells are exactly the ones in the inclusion
It should follow from a connectivity argument on the suspended spaces
hmm
I can try to write it out I just feel strangely sleepy atm lol
But basically just argue that the cells in dimension n in the product are exactly the cells in dimension n of one of the two spaces
The reason being that thereās a big range w no cells
i think i see
and then
if i want to do this for general spectra
not just
suspension spectra
I would start by proving the htpy category is additive
Thereās probably a direct way
But honestly itās easier to do the additive thing
yeah
i would like to do it the direct way though just because
when i try to do it the direct way
its seem that we need connective spectra
which i think should be wrong
so there is something I am messing up that i want to fix
You donāt need connective
That doesnāt mean your argument doesnāt need connective tho
Oh, here is a direct argument I think
Thereās a sort of obvious way to describe a wedge as a homotopy pushout (include points)
Then pi_n will preserve this homotopy colimit
This also induces natural maps into the product and a universal map into the product
Itās also clear that pi_n(XxY) is the direct sun
Sun
Sum*
So you should get exactly that the homotopy groups agree and the universal map is an iso
lime_soup
lime_soup
so indeed $\pi_(X\times Y)\cong\pi_(X\vee Y)$
lime_soup
this is very foolish of me
im not sure why we can say that this isomorphism is induced by the map X wedge Y to X \times Y
I think you argue this is the same thing as the isomorphism of direct product and sum in Ab
oh so
X wedge Y to X \times Y
is a map between
coproduct and product
hmm no nevermind
becaue the product in spectra should be smash?
No
Product in spectra is \times
Smash product is not a categorical product
Itās a monoidal structure
oh okay
so because X wedge Y to X \times Y is the map between the coproduct and product
Yeah
pi_* should preserve things
Basically the functor preserves this whole diagram
thank you
np
Does the covering space correspondence say that, if the spaces are "nicely connected", there is a bijection between n-sheeted covering spaces of a space X and index n subgroups of X's fundamental group? I'm having trouble interpreting the theorem because it's very wordy
Yeah, I can explain in more detail when I get home
But for now search like
Galois theory of covering spaces
if a space has sufficiently many adjectives then algebra = topology
Thank you so much. I'll keep googling!
I have a feeling that if X is sufficiently nice and $\Tilde{X}$ is an n-sheet covering space of X with it's (Galois)corresponding subgroup Y of $\pi_1(X)$ then there is an isomorphism $\pi_1(\Tilde{X})\cong Y$. I think this is what the correspondence is saying
limbostar
Yeah essentially the theorem tells us that subgroups of pi 1 should be covers and that if $X_H$ is the cover corresponding to $H$ we should have an exact sequence $1\to H\to \pi_1 X \to \pi_1 X_H \to 1$
i_hate_printers
Iām ignoring some conditions for all this to be true
Sorry that last group should be the deck group
And the first group should be pi_1 of cover
Whoops
Technically the deck group is the normalizer kill H but if the cover is normal what I said is true
I always mix this up
Thank you so much! I really appreciate that explanation š
HELP. I don't even know how to study the topological properties of this quotient space...
hmmm
good question, I don't know off the top of my head but I know this is important
you can represent two distinct points of X/G by [x] and [y], where there is no g in G for which g*x = y
there's no such g because otherwise we'd have x ~ y, i.e. [x] = [y]
now you want to find two disjoint open sets of X/G containing [x] and [y]
since X is hausdorff there are disjoint open sets U containing x and V containing y
now compactness of G will have to be used somehow
you want to get some open sets in G, somehow, so you could try using continuity of G -> X, g -> gx for each x
that's the first thing that comes to mind for me
it might also help to understand what the open sets in X/G are in terms of the action of G on X. i'd suggest writing them down, it'll help you figure out what you need to do
since you said you don't know how to study the topological properties of this quotient
i'll start: "by the definition of the quotient topology, W is open in X/G if and only if..."
Let me try
but that's what I don't knowā¹ļø
then open your textbook and get reading
you can't do a problem on the quotient topology if you don't know what it is
is it possible to write suspension in temrs of attaching a cell
I dont think so. Recall that the suspension of S^1 is S^2. To get that by attaching a single cell we would have to attach a 2-dimensional cell, and we would get a pushout
S1 ---> S1
| |
D^2 -> S^2
where the left vertical map is the inclusion of the boundary and the right vertical map is the inclusion of the equator. But then you get H_n(D^2,S1) = H_n(S^2,S^1).
This cant be, since Z = H_2(S^2) = H_2(D^2,S1), but H_2(S^2,S^1) = H_2(S^2 v S^2) = Z + Z
there is probably a way easier solution to this
is there a slick way to shwo that the n-th suspension of a space is n-connected
by slick i mean slicker than
for any space X \Sigma X is path connected
then use the induction
Cellular approximation w the correct cell structure should work I think
can you give a slight more iāve a hint by what you mean by this
Iām not confident it works but I think you should be able to put a cell structure on a suspension that has no cells in the desired range
And then by cellular approximation all maps out of the sphere are nullhomotopic
Iām about to go surfing and havenāt had any coffee so this is the best I can do rn hahah
I want to argue that If X is a CW complex then Sigma X has a cw structure in which the cells are just one dimensional higher cells from X
Like same cells but one dim higher
This will force one extra level of connectivity
Iām not actually sure this works tho lol
Surf time
in retrospect it should work, since an n-connected cw complex is htpy equivalent to one with trivial n-skeleton
hihi
Can someone help me find a finite topological space with the fundamental group Z2?
aka with two non-homotopic paths
Maybe we could say it is disconnected and it is the union of two sets that are each simply connected? Maybe that would work?
If it's not path connected its fundamental group might be ill-defined, in case both these components would be simply connected it would be trivial at every point.
Maybe this helps https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudocircle
The pseudocircle is the finite topological space X consisting of four distinct points {a,b,c,dā} with the following non-Hausdorff topology:
{
{
a
,
b
,
c
,
d
}
,
{
...
I don't think you mean finite. Maybe compact?
Oh what
Ive never seen that pseudocircle thing. Freaky!
I did mean finite, sadly. š¢
Alright, I'll look at it now!
Yeah I see. Trippy, I've never thought about homotopy in a finite space
Interesting. Do all pseudocircles have pi(X) = Z2?
ohhh
If van kampen applies to $X=A\cup B$, can I be real sloppy and take the denominator (some kernel of a map) to be $\pi_1(A\cap B)$
There are two paths, one going left and one going right?
no? the name comes from the space being weakly homotopy equivalent to the normal circle, as the article says
so it has pi_1 Z
not Z2
limbostar
im not sure if you can use this to construct the thing you want
Okay. So I can construct a set with pi_1 = Z2 from this?
Ah, okay.
although the article mentions there is a functorial way to give a finite topological space that is weakly homotopy equivalent to the realization of any finit simplicial complex
and RP^2 should be a finite simplicial complex
(and RP^2 has fundamental group Z2)
Oh, I see!
So there's a way to find a finite space weak homotopic equivalent to RP2, you say?
Can I use this same map?
the article cites McCord, Michael C. (1966). "Singular homology groups and homotopy groups of finite topological spaces". Duke Mathematical Journal. 33: 465ā474. doi:10.1215/S0012-7094-66-03352-7.
if this is some sort of homework question then there is definitely some easier way
but I also have never thought about things like this
It's an extra credit problem.
So it's much more complex than homework, I'd guess.
lol yeah
hopefuilly
This one looks easier:
I think it's just a set theory problem, basically.
yeah thats pretty straightforward i would say
Do you have any advice for making it formal?
Or any ideas?
oh wait i misread
i thought it said to show that if V and W and V n W are simpy connected then V u W is
Is a simply connected space minus another simply connected space always simply connected itself?
That was HW a while ago, I think.
No, consider a disc inside a larger disc
Or D^2\{x}
Homotopy equivalent
We have simply connected minus simply connected has pi_1 = Z.
These problems are unexpectedly difficult, it seems.
I mean, I have some lower hanging fruit.
Does any one of these three seem easier?
These problems look pretty fun, do you mind telling where they're from?
Oh, fair enough
I'd appreciate that if you don't mind
Oh, apparently he doesn't accept problems after yesterday.
Well, I might as well try to solve them anyway.
what did you cover in the course? Just to get an idea of what tools you are supposed to use
General topology up to basic algebraic topology.
So topologies, connectedness + compactness + etc.
kk
Then
Path-connectedness, homotopy, covering sapces, fundamental group, etc.
Well, rip.
Now I have to actually study for my exam instead of just solving a bunch of problems like I did for my first mid-term. š¢
A problem is 20/0, so 75/100 + 2 * 20/0 = 105% on an exam I barely passed, buahaha.
Oh, well. I really like what we've learned recently anyway.
this looks like the lebesgue lemma could be of use
ok yeah i think that works
starting with a loop in V, you take the homotopy in V u W, subdivide I^2 with Lebesgue, and then substitute the interior of the squares that are mapped to W by extending their boundary that is mapped to V n W, which overall results in a homotopy with image in V
I'm not familiar with the lemma.
But it's okay. It's too late to get credit for the problems anyway, so I won't die trying to solve it.
Thanks! Looks interesting.
you can try proving it yourself, its just pointset topology and not too hard
moreoever, its very useful
yeah we apply it on I^2
the open cover we use consists of H^{-1}(V) and H^{-1}(W) where H : I^2 -> V u W is the homotopy
basically, it tells you that you can subdivide the square I^2 into m^2 little squares of sidelength 1/m for some m, so that each little square is mapped either completely to V or completely to W by H
Could you help me solve a HW problem or two I'm stuck on?
not now, its 2:30 am here ^^
Gn!!!!
but you can always just post them here and see if ppl will respond
Thank you for all of your help today!!
Okay, will do.
Where p: X-tilde --> X is a covering map and X-tilde is path-connected:
Suppose pi_1{X} is Z (integers) and p-1(x0) is finite. Find the fundamental group of X-tilde.
If X is simply connected, then p is a homeomorphism.
Does anyone know of a proof of Markovs Topologization theorem (a group is topologizable iff no finite set of inequalities has precisely one solution)? I read the proof in Zelenyuk's book but I have absolutely no Idea what is going on
(ie, I have no Idea why this constructed topology works precisely as we need)
*countable group
A characterization of topologizable countable groups? That's still really nice
I don't even know which paper originally contained the proof, that would help as well
(A quick search on scholar yielded surprisingly little. Perhaps I just don't know the right keywords.)
Sometimes they don't have the articles
Ah, hold on.
[5] Markov, A.: On unconditionally closed sets. Mat. Sb. 18, 3ā28 (1946). (Russian)
Found in
Topologizable structures and Zariski topology by Joanna Dutka and Aleksander Ivanov
Gonna read this next. This should provide some context.
Oof, okay, this doesn't look much more digestible tho lmao
Hey, is a topology basically a 'generalization' or 'idealization' of continuity and convergence?
A book called Topology through Inquiry motivates the definition through this explanation.
I mean yeah, it's in the names, almost all functions we care about in topology are continuous or relating to continuity in some way
Convergence comes out more in study of metric spaces but it's there too, sure
Hmm, got it.
The finite complement topology on the reals is just {R}, right?
Oh, my bad.
In any case, the finite complement topology includes the empty set as well as any set whose complement is finite
So R\{t_1, ..., t_n} for any numbers t_1,...t_n in R will be an open set in the topology.
You can see that this is a topology since the intersection of finitely many of these sets will just exclude all the numbers from each one. There are finitely many of those.
But R - {t_i} isn't finite, or is it?
Another way to think about it is that the closed sets are exactly the finite sets (as well as all of R)
Right. It has finite complement.
I think I get it.
For me the easiest way to think about this is in terms of the closed sets instead of the open ones
Not quite there yet, guess I'll read more
I wanted to say that just now

Got sniped
Wew "DarQ" Tbh
nvm
it's coz f has to be well defined
is the converse not always true?
nvm
it's answered in my textbook 
I have a problem.
I need to classify all homeomorphisms from the Sierpinski triangle to itself.
My idea is that an continuous map from the ST to itself is clearly a homeomorphism, and thus is open and continuous, and the only open map from ST to itself would be one which maps the triangles starting at generation X to another generation of the traingles...
But I'm not really sure where to go from there.
Well, Id is clearly one.
I think if we look at the first iteration of the SierpiÅski triangle, we have 3 local cut points and they need to be mapped to each other
And the 3 triangles similarly need to be mapped to each other
If we look at the second iteration, I think the same pattern occurs
Ohh, I see! So three total? Or 6?
I think the only homeomorphisms of SierpiÅski triangle are the rotations, but I'm not sure
Three
Makes total sense!!
Thanks for the idea!! That seems very correct.
Because of all the cut points of the smaller triangles.
They must all be mapped to cut points.
Okay, can you also help me find covering maps f: X -> Y and g: Y -> Z s.t. g o f is not a covering map?
I need to go to work tomorrow
Sorry
npnp
tysm!
Yes, thank you, I was thinking of S_3
My bad for saying the wrong thing
Ohh, so we do get S(3)?
All permutations on three elements?
Thanks, Nobody!
I'm going to tell my professor that "Nobody" helped me solve this one. š
I had help from "Nobody."
lol jk
I mean is this all of them? Can u prove it
Well... It has to map cutting points to cutting points.
They're not actually cut points, just local ones
Also, for the record, he's very abstract and presenting the problem will probably end up like:
Me: "Cutting points map to cutting points, which are preserved by rotations and-"
Prof: "Yep, you've got it."
Right but thereās infinitely many such things
Local cut points? Oh, per triangle?
Hmm
So you gotta rule those out ig
A cut point breaks connectedness
A local cut point breaks connectedness locally
Got it.
Is the injection of $\mathbb{Z}^2$ into $\mathbb{R}^2$ a topological embedding? $\mathbb{Z}^2$ has the usual Euclidean metric.
dumbo
It's distance-preserving which seems like it should be enough
Yes, more generally we see Z^2 has the subspace topology from R^2 and subspace inclusions are top embeddings in general
Do covering maps lift the identity loop in X to the identity loop in X tilde
I said yes by functoriality of p* but Iām trying to find counter examples and itās sort of a black swan situation
For every subgroup G of H, pi_1(X), st it can be realized at a covering space of X has the trivial loop in its group presentation so e has to lift to e
Let $\gamma(\theta) = \begin{pmatrix} cos(\theta) & sin(\theta) & 0 \ -sin(\theta) & cos(\theta) & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}, \theta \in [0, 2\pi]$ a loop in $SO(3)$
Iteribus
how do you get a homotopy from $\gamma^2$ to the trivial loop
Iteribus
I don't think I can scale the angle
especially continuously cuz then it wouldn't be a loop at all at some point
Can some one check if my proof is valid?
Thing i want to prove is following:
Let $f: X \rightarrow Y$ be a continuous map then if X is connected so is f(X).
The definitions i am working with are the following:
Contiuous map: $f: X \rightarrow Y$ is said to be contiuous if
$(\forall O_c \in X) (\exists O_{f(c)} \in Y) : (x \in O_c) \land (y \in O_{f(c)})$
where $c \in X$ and $f(c) \in Y$ and $O_c$ is an open ngbh around c.
Connected space: X is said to be connected if
$\nexists U,V \in X$ such that $(U \cup V = X) \land (U \cap V = \emptyset)$
The proof:
Assume Y is not connected, then there exist $U,V \in Y$ s.t. $(U \cup V = Y) \land (U \cap V = \emptyset)$. Let $x,c \in X$ and $y \in U$ and $f(c) \in V$. Since f is continuous, $x \in O_c$ and $y \in O_{f(c)}$. If $y \in O_{f(c)}$ then $U \cap V \neq \emptyset$. Hence Y must be connected.
FireLi0n
Perhaps I'm misundrstanding something but your definitions don't seem to be correct? For example your definition of continuous doesn't make any sense to me - it's certainly not the standard one
Similarly the definition of connectedness is incorrect
isnt this definition of continuous maps standard definition with open neighbourhoods? Also the connectedness is the one we use, i just failed to write that U and V are open sets
This is from a book
No, if you want it to be pointwise you've switched the roles of Y and X for starters (and not actually mentioned what x and y are either) but the typical definition would be that the preimage of open sets under f is open
And sure, that's the typical definition, but also note when you write it in symbols you need to say U, V are subsets of X rather than elements thereof
ah, okay that makes sense
If x is in a path component P and a neighbourhood of x is path connected then that neighbourhood will be contained in P
this is by the definition of path components
I see
I did an REU in knot theory, I may be able to answer
What's REU?
Anyways
What's a square knot and is there a trick to tying it faster/more accurately?
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I...
I'm trying to understand the math behind this
Tying knots isn't knot theory afaik
It probably helps though.
probably knot
Square knot? I only know $3_1#3_1^*$
cgodfrey
are you saying there aren't tricks I could use to make it better?
no he's saying that the study of physically tying knots in string is not really what mathematicians refer to as "knot theory"
physical string knots that are infinitely thin and have the ends tied together
knot theory does coincide with the real practice of tying knots somewhat, one main difference is that in order for something to be counted as a "knot" in mathematics it needs to be joined up at both ends
mathematicians basically look at two of these knots and go "hmm what topological invariants can I use to show that these are not the same knot"
or "how many different knots is it possible to tie if you work in 3-dimensional space"
wait so
if I have a loop
are u saying Ican tie all those without interrupting the loop?
no you can't untangle mathematical knots
not allowed to have the string pass through itself
if you were able to untangle a knot into a loop then the knot would be considered to be identical to a loop
oh
hmm ok
yeah like in that picture the top left knot is considered to be identical to the loop in the bottom left
on an unrelated note does anyone know whether there's a way of embedding the direct sum $A\times B$ into the free product $A*B$ as a subgroup
assuming A and B are finitely generated
this old book I have has some cool pictures
they're links - multiple knots tangled up
ok so to summarize
knot theory doesn't actually teach u how to tie knots or how strong the knots are?
thats right aha
definitely not how strong the knots are
would u happen to know which field does this?
sailing
hahaha im from a related field
boy and girl scouts
the thing about marine knots are they're good at tying the stuff but they dno why they should tie a certain knot
it's all just
do this do that
so I figured I should dive further in
I think determining the strength of a knot can be done using some things in physics
because physics studies tension and friction, which are what make knots work
or engineering probably
how about researching more efficient ways to tie/untie knots?
I think that mathematicians do do that but it's probably overkill to use that sort of theory on knots in rope (I think at least, knot theory isn't my field)
there are people trying to use knot theory to work out how to unravel DNA
well, it's not so much on sailing knots but on surgical sutures
@sharp frostWould it be possible to do a quick 15 mins or 30 mins informational interview on what you do and what knot theory is about in vc?
whenever you're free ofc
I don't know much about knot theory I'm afraid, you can get a lot more from a youtube video than you can from me https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=aqyyhhnGraw
First in a series of videos about knots. Here we have Carlo H. SƩquin from UC Berkeley.
More links & stuff in full description below āāā
More videos to come at: http://bit.ly/Knot-a-Phile
Edit and animation by Pete McPartlan. Film and interview by Brady Haran
With thanks to Rob Scharein for the use of his software Knotplot - http://www.knotplo...
okay will check it out
thanks anyways :)
Can something be said about inductive dimension of subsets
Say, closed subsets
For covering dimension it can
Which is the same in what I'm doing
why is this true?
X a CW complex then
$[\Sigma^n X, \operatorname{hocolim}k \Omega^k Y{n+k}] \cong \operatorname{colim}[\Sigma^n X,\Omega^k Y_{k+n} ]$
lime_soup
is it true in general homotopy classes of maps into a homotopy colimit is the same as the colimit of the homotopy classes
seemingly we need X compact
(manifesting max to appear)
@gritty widget are you sure you want colimits here, rather than limits?
iām (was) pretty sure?
hmmm
like just in standard category theory we have [X,lim Y]=lim[X,Y]
if you have an inverse limit (<-) then this is a limit
okay yes then this is not an inverse limit
this really is a colimit
yeah because
okay that's weird
so like this statement would be automatically true for (homotopy) limits rather than colimits
you want it to be whatever the groups stabilise to for large n
or a compact object I guess
yeah so you need X to be a finite discrete space I think
i have no idea how we use compactness
actually
can i ask you about compact objects
you're not using compactness, you're using that X is a compact object; these are different notions
sure
so if C is a locally small category with filtered colimits, an object X in C is compact if Hom_C(X,-):C->Set preserves filtered colimits
in top spaces the finite cw complexes are the compact objects?
that is, Hom_C(X,colim Y)=colim Hom_C(X,Y)
which is the sort of thing you're trying to do
ooh okay
In Top, the compact objects are finite discrete spaces
hmm okay
maybe
cw complexes are
generated under colimits by the compact objects
right
maybe one last question because this is getting away from alg top
but is there some relation between
compact objects
and a size arguement
in a large category
that the compact objects are small?
Hew, how can I find the fundamental group of RP2\{0}?
Any tips?
what is 0 in RP2
Any point, sorry.
I'm guessing it's Z, that's what it looks like in my head...
Or maybe it's Z x Z, actually?
That would make intuitive sense. Or Z x Z2.
using the description of RP^2 as the disk with antipodal boundary points identified: remove a point, retract outwards to the boundary, and you're left with something homeomorphic to S^1
Okay, so my initial idea was correct!
Many thanks!
Small is sometimes used as a synonym but has nothing to do w sets
Are there theorems of the form dim(XxY) >= dim(X)+dim(Y)-r
lebesgue covering dimension?
if so, it never holds (unless r=0) for compact spaces, nor when both X and Y are metric
otherwise there are examples where X is metric (and even separable) and Y isn't where the dimension of the product is strictly larger than the sum of the dimensions
@compact bluff compact metric spaces
Yeah, covering dimension
I've made an error in my calculations because I thought the equality holds, but maybe it can be saved a little
equality doesn't hold (in general), but you get dim(X x Y) <= dimX + dimY for compacta
(or even if at least one of X or Y is compact)
How bad can it go?
I wouldn't be surprised if there exist Y of arbitrarily high dimension but you get dim(X x Y) = dim(X) + 1
What about dim(X^n) ?
you might be able to get better estimates on that (though maybe still not perfect)
though apparently this paper gives a necessary and sufficient condition for when dim(X x Y) = dim(X)+dim(Y) https://www.jstage.jst.go.jp/article/pjab1945/36/7/36_7_400/_pdf
Looks like if the Q-(cech) homological dimension equals the dimension of X
might be easier to compute this condition using Lemma 1 in that paper
Hmm...
I think there might be some results in one of the newer versions of books about dim theory
Yeah, apparently dim(X x Y) >= dim(X)+1 can't be improved
For compact spaces
An application of topological data analysis
So i dont know if i understand the set of open balls correctly. So the open ball is a set of points which are located a certain distance from a chosen origin of that open ball ( if i understood that correctly). So if i have set of all open balls of a metric space, isnt that just a union of all points as you can just have different open balls with different origins and different distances? You dont even have to care about the distance in the definition of the ball, just the origin, if you have enough balls you will cover all the points by just those points being the origin, no?
I think you may be confusing the set of all open balls with the union over that set
the set of open balls contains open balls, not points
but you're right that if you take the union over all open balls, you get the whole space back
i.e. every point of your space is in some open ball
hmm ok, so how exactly do those open balls form a basis of space then? My understanding of a basis comes from linear algebra where you have vectors from whose linear combination you can produce any other vector in the space. How does this concept extend here?
no the basis from linear algebra is only the same in idea
the definition is completely different
A collection of open sets of a topological space forms a basis for that topological space, if every open set can be written as the union over open sets in your basis
so in the case of metric spaces, the collection of all open balls form a basis, because you can write any open set as a union of open balls
that may not be obvious immediately, but its not hard to prove
ah okay, that makes more sense. And since the open ball can be as small as possible in "distance" you can form any open set you want with them
yeah thats the idea
now it makes more sense in my head
thanks
just a technical question, are the words "collection" and "set" synonyms or is there some technical difference?
People often say "collection" when they're working with a set of sets or a set of functions or something else that can get confusing if you don't use separate words.
Is it?
i meant in the sense that they determine the object you are working with
or do you mean that there is more analogy there?
The second is how I understood it, and were questioning
Let $\alpha:A\rightarrow$ and $\beta:A\rightarrow Y$ be continous maps of topological spaces, where $\alpha$ is surjective and $Y$ connected. Show that the pushout $X+_{A}Y$ of $\alpha$ and $\beta$ is connected.
Zorty
My understanding of connectedness using the more set theory based definitions and visual meanings of pushouts is quite okay, but it's just questions such as these where a very "formal" approach is needed where i really struggle... Can someone help me?
I suppose it would be enough to prove that $Y\rightarrow X+_{A} Y$ is surjective which makes sense since every point in $X$ is identified with some element in $Y$ since $\alpha$ is surjective but im really not sure
Zorty
since you are working with pushouts, there is a characterisation of being connected that fits quite nicely
a space X is connected iff every continuous map f : X -> {0,1} is constant, i.e. not surjective. Here we equip {0,1} with the discrete topology
if you know that X is connected iff the empty set and X are the only clopen subsets, then this criterion follows basically immediately
and so now we can work with maps out of the space. Recalling the universal property of pushouts, a map X +_A Y -> {0,1} induces maps X -> {0,1} and Y -> {0,1} that commute with maps from the pushout
since Y is conected, the map Y -> {0,1} is not surjective, and since alpha is surjective, the map Y -> {0,1} already completely determines the map X +_A Y -> {0,1}, from which you can conclude that that map is also not surjective
hence X +_A Y is connected
this works too though
i only saw it now xd
epimorphisms are stable under pushouts
How would alpha being surjective imply that the map from the pushout to {0,1} is determined by Y -> {0,1} alone? i dont quite get that part
ok so if you have x in X, then you can write it as alpha(a) = x for some a in A.
yes that makes sense
now use that the square commutes
its a bit hard to write down without names of the maps xd
sending x from X to {0,1} is the same as sending it first to X +_A Y and then to {0,1}
but since alpha(a) = x, this is the same as going A -> X -> X+_A Y -> {0,1}
right
which agrees with A -> Y -> X+_A Y -> {0,1} since the diagram commutes
but then this is A -> Y -> {0,1}
so the map X -> {0,1} is already determined by Y -> {0,1}
and the universal property of the pushout tells you that maps out of X +_A Y are uniquely determined by the corresponding pair of maps out of X and Y
if you look at the definition topologically, when you map some element in X+_A Y to another space, you choose a representative in X or Y, and then use the maps from there
ok i think i got it lol
doesnt this mean that X is connected as well?
no
oh no nvm yeah its just a specific map to {0,1} which is constant of course it doesnt hold for all
if you want to show X is connected with this method, you start with a map X -> {0,1}
but that doesnt give you a map Y -> {0,1} or X +_A Y -> {0,1} for that matter
Also: do you by any chance have an example in mind for surjective, continous functions $f: X\rightarrow S$ and $g: Y\rightarrow S$, where X and Y are connected such that the Pullback from f and g is not connected? I've been looking for an example in R but I couldnt find any unconnected curves, where both sides were surjective functions
Zorty
yeah so consider S = S^1 and X = Y = [0,1] with f(t) = exp(2pi i t) and g(t) = f(t+1/2)
Then the pullback is X x_S Y = {(x,y) in X x Y | fx = gy} = {(x,x+1/2) | x in [0,1/2]} u {(x,x-1/2) | x in [1/2,1]}
so you get the blue region, which is clearly not connected
ohh yes that makes so much sense thankssss
any idea how to prove this. im not sure what is meant by induced in this context tbh
there exists a map $\tilde{f}\colon\bR P^{n-1} \to \bR P^{m-1}$ such that $\tilde{f}([x]) = [f(x)]$, brackets denoting equivalence classes in projective space
TTerra
mmm where our equivalence is $f(x) \approx \lambda^k f(x)$
Optimism
? seems like the proof is rather trivial
so like is it simply saying let $x \equiv \lambda x$ then noting $f([x]) $ where we take a representative implies taht $f(x) = f(\lambda x) = \lambda^k f(x)$ which is identical to defining a function $\tilde{f}$ over projective spaces?
Optimism
Am i right in understanding that every point in a metric space is a limit point of some sequence in that space?
haha, i didnt think about that one xD
what if we limit it to non trivial sequences such as that?
you can find sequence such that a repeats infinitely often
your metric space in general could have like an, isolated point
that might be the type of image you are trying to get at
hmm, what i am trying to do is to prove the following:
Let $S \subset X$. Prove that $z \in \overline{S}$ iff there is a sequence of points $(x_n)$ in S converging to z.
FireLi0n
so i am trying to understand how to approach this
isnt this basically saying that every point has a sequence that approaches it
It's not true in a topological space
its a metric space, sty
yes
well how are you defining closure/closed sets
Closure is a union of Interior and Boundary of a set
at least that is the only one i know of
how did you guys define boundary lol
give me a sec to find it
$\partial A = { a \in X | \forall O_a : O_a \cap A = \emptyset \land O_a \cap (X-A) \neq \emptyset }$
FireLi0n
where $O_a$ is an open neighborhood of a
FireLi0n
I think you wanted both to be not empty
but yeah makes sense
if you combine this and the interior, notice that a closed set C has the property that every point has each neighborhood intersect C
so lets work with this definition of closed
so what progress did you make on this
i proved the one way, starting from a sequence and proving that it is in closure
right
the other way i dont know how to begin with
so what do you need to show for the other way
in my mind i have to show that there is a sequence that converges to that point
sorry this is badly written lol. what i wanted to say was, each point that has all neighborhoods intersecting C is in C
i dont know how to show that there is a such sequence
ok so thats not it
yeah, i understood what you meant
the idea is that, you are closed if you contain each limit point
so rather than each point having a converging sequence
you want that for each x\in X such that a sequence in Abar converges to it, x\in Abar
does that make sense
okay, so i have to prove that a closed subspace contains all its limit points?
i mean, that is kinda trivial, no?
if you mean prove this for general closed sets from your definition, sure. good practice to convert between defs
in particular check that this holds for Abar to show Abar=closed and hence the closure right
(you can directly see this from the neighborhoods defintion btw)
Abar is the closure, i dont have to show that its closed
what i meant is that we already showed it earlier, so i can take it as true
sorry when i am saying Abar i mean the set of z such that a sequence in A converges to it
not the closure yet
you want to show its the closure
but isnt this the other way around?
i am starting from the assumption that z is element of closure, not that it is a limit point
dont i have to prove that z is the limit point?
Oh sorry thats what you are doing, i was just gonna say that, you already showed the set has to be in the closure right
so now if its closed you get the other inclusion
cause remember by definition, closure is contained in all closed sets containing A right
i must admit i am confused at this point
yeah sorry let me write this all out
So let $S$ be the set in question, let $$S' = {x\in X: \text{ a sequence in S converges to x}} $$ and let $\bar{S}$ be its closure, i.e the smallest closed set containing $S$. Now you have already noted that $S'\subset \bar{S}$ as it must contain all the limit points of $S$ right. Now if you show that $S'$ is closed, then $S'\supset \bar{S}$, as all closed sets containing $S$ will contain $\bar{S}$, this is what it means to be the closure
JohnDS
so really all that remains is to show that this set is closed
okay i think i understand now, so the point was to prove $S' \subset \overline{S}$ and $S' \supset \overline{S}$
FireLi0n
i was missing that from my logic
yeah probably should have written this out earlier, but yeah
okay, thanks for the help
Just to follow up on this as i thought more about it. How can i be sure that S' contains all of S? That doesnt sound right to me.
Ah, forgot about that crap sequence again
So every point is S is a limit of a sequence in S but not every sequence in S has a limit point in S
got it
mhm
Lol that notation S' seems potentially confusing though
since S' would normally be the set of limit points instead of the set of all limits of sequences
I mean the convention I follow these are the same things
whats the difference?
What's the difference between a Weyl chamber and an alcove?
Typically in a top space X, a limit point of a set S is a point p of X such that every open neighbourhood of p intersects S in a point besides p. In metric spaces, this is equivalent to there being a sequence in S \ p converging to p
(Every source I've used including Munkres, Rudin and Lee use this)
The difference is that e.g. elements of S needn't be limit points (for example, every point of the cantor set is a limit point thereof, whilst no point of Z is a limit point (both in the subspace topology from standard top on R))
What convention is this?
The convention where limit points just mean there is a sequence converging to it. I donāt remember from where I got this, but never caused me an issue
what about limit points in a general top space?
Same thing, all nbds intersect the set, I just donāt exclude the actual point
This is definitely wrong
Like
Against any course in topology or definition Iāve ever seen
Whatās the advantage of ur definition over mine
Well for one, every point in a set is the limit of its constant sequence
So your definition is useless lol
Like
In the set {2} \cup [0,1]
2 should not be a limit point
Plus all of the like
Limit point point set yoga is just wrong if you donāt use the standard defn
And a bunch of subsequent defns
Like?
I mean I can go through munkres later and tell you lol but youāre just being obstinate
Like Topologistās have all agreed on one defn of limit point
And itās the one used in all the papers and it is not equivalent to yours
Which Iāve never seen anywhere
I mean even in like
Brin and Stuck
A ton of stuff goes wrong
Using your defn
Ok, I mean it doesnāt change any of my explanation to his problem cause I explicitly defined what I wanted Sā to be
Given some co/homology $H_n(X)$ what would it mean to have the co/homology $H_n(X;\bZ)$ I don't really understand the notation if anyone could help!
TheEternalKittenLord
Like I know what X,M would mean (group cohomology)
but Im not too sure about ;
co/homology as in cohomology or homology btw so ignore the fact that cohomology is referenced with H_n aswell
Iām confused
Whatās your definition of H_n(X)
Normally that notation is not enough, we need a coefficient group like Z
Often times we just ignore this when the choice is obvious but itās odd that youād be comfortable with H_n(X) rather than H_n(X;G)
G just tells us the coefficients we are using
If X is a space it doesnāt really have a natural notion of group cohomology?
cohomology is usually given by H^n(X) as opposed to H_n(X)... the definition usually depends on which (co)homology theory you're working with. if you look around, people are usually using (integral) singular homology
I've personally found Cech cohomology (for compact spaces) to be useful, because I work with nasty spaces. You can also take advantage of the continuity of the Cech functor in this case.
Continua?
yea
I've started learning about them recently
they can get pretty wild
like when you first see the pseudoarc, you think its crazy (idk if you've ever read the paper "Drawing the pseudo-arc" by Lewis) there comes a time in your life when you realize that the pseudoarc is actually very well-behaved...
Like the circle of pseudo-arcs?
yea, also the generalizations to solenoids of pseudo-arcs
pseudo-solenoids, higher dimensional hereditarily indecomposable continua
ultra-arcs and ultracoproducts of continua
there's a whole world out there
no ive been studying model theory of continua for the past little while
Not really, I've been more into co-e.c. continua/infinitely generic/model-completeness type things
sure thing
Can anyone help me find two covering maps f and g s.t. g composed with f is not a covering map?
you got an example in #diff-geo-diff-top
there's a result that, under some hypotheses on the spaces, the composition of covering maps is a covering map. something like local path connectedness. try working with some spaces where those fail
What's a good example of such a space?
since i don't remember the exact hypotheses, i can't tell you. you can find it online probably
Okay, thanks!
one hypothesis that works (for the composition to be a covering map) is if both covering maps have finite sheets
you can find a counterexample involving an infinite sheeted cover
Oh, I did find one!
But thanks!
Actually, i need help with the Sierpinski triangle problem again.
So, I need to prove more rigorously that only three points are cut points, basically.
hmm
The problem basically asks for what all the homeomorphisms from the Sierpinski triangle to itself are, and the answer is S(3).
But I need to prove it formally.
that makes some sense, given the symmetry group of an equilateral triangle is S3
but I haven't done that problem before and don't know how
it feels intuitively clear that all six of the usual symmetries of an equilateral triangle also are symmetries of the sierpinski triangle
since it's made of all these essentially independent triangles
maybe you can argue that any further symmetry of sierpinsky would give an additional symmetry of the equilateral triangle, which is impossible
Hmm...
It's homeomorphisms.
Not symmetries.
Hence why connectedness plays a role.
homeomorphisms are bendy symmetries and the sierpinski triangle isn't very bendy
a self-homeomorphism is a symmetry
in a way
bendy symmetry, I like that
is it actually possible to have a self-homeomorphism that's not a rigid body motion?
(for a subspace of R^n)
probably yes but I can't think of one
maybe like... take (0,1)... and start sliding all the points within itself to the right
in a non uniform way
yeah that should work
There are tons of self homeomorphisms of a disk
That just like
Mess w stuff
But yes yours works too
does it work on a closed disk?
I guess yes
but I don't think a closed interval has any except reflection
Closed interval has a lot too
Almost all homeomorphisms are not rigid body
Rigid body is super strong
interesting
I figured there would be trouble with the endpoints
like, in [0,1], if you're gonna move 0, you'll have to replace it with something, and then it's not clear how you can keep the mapping one-to-one (if it's not a reflection)
on the other hand if you keep 0 where it is
you'll have to move nearby points away from it
and that could cause a discontinuity
it could be that you're only moving nearby points closer to it
but then I thought you'd have trouble over at 1
Hereās an exercise
The orientation preserving self homeomorphisms of [0,1] are exactly the ways to draw paths from the bottom left to the top right of a square
Such that the path satisfies the vertical and horizontal line tests
ohh
that's really nice
so the closer a point is to 0, the less it moves away, which saves continuity
Sure
this may be a really stupid question--I'm trying to understand the topology generated by a family seminorms on a vector space, and I'm a bit confused. If I'm considering the topology generated by only a single seminorm, then wouldnt the initial topology on this seminorm only contain open sets that are unions of circles? (because every preimage of a seminorm is a union of circles)
my bad, circles centered at the origin*
i guess, rather union of annuli about the origin
i imagine its supposed to be everything generated by the open balls, but i'm not sure what im missing
^ realized im really stupid and that the definition of an initial topology on a TVS requires the addition/scalar mult functions to be continuous
I am currently reading the book "Complex Topological K-theory" by Efton Park. This is an introductory text and mostly deals with K-theory of compact hausdorff topological spaces. And from what I've noticed, a major theme in this book is that when we are doing K theory of compact hausdorff spaces, we can identify the monoid of isomorphism classes of complex vector bundles under whitney sum with a certain monoid of idempotent matrices with coefficients in C(X), so that we have at least a certain explicit description of the K-groups of X in terms of certain algebras of matrices. (I am attaching some screenshots from the book where the author discusses this)
So, I'd like to ask if this relationship between between the K groups of a topological space with certain algebra of matrices still holds up in more general settings. Can we still somehow describe the K groups of a more general topological space in terms of certain (possibly more complicated) operator algebras?
you can relax compactness to locally compact Hausdorff spaces, by noting that for LCH X, the inclusion map i : {p} -> X union {p}, the inclusion of p in the one-point compactification of X, induces a map on the K-groups, K^0(X cup {p}) -> K^0({p}) = Z. Then you define K^0(X) to be the kernel of this map. then K-theory will still give a cohomology theory, but now on LCH spaces
or by more generalized, maybe you mean operator K-theory? In this case, you can define K-theory for C*-algebras and get K-theory for these "noncommutative" spaces, in which case the operator K-theory of C_0(X) for an LCH space X will agree with the topological K-theory of X
Oh, I really meant for more general topological spaces, I didn't even know "operator K theory" was really a thing lol.
Yeah, the locally compact hausdorff case is as interesting as the compact hausdorff case, but this book seems to treat mainly K-theory for compact hausdorff spaces.
Which is fine I guess for an introductory book.
yea I'm not sure you can generalize further to get interesting/useful things... I mean if you do, you're probably either going to break the fact it is a cohomology theory, or you're going to break bott periodicity, which are really the only way to compute K-theory
or if there is, I haven't seen it.
though i'm not super well-versed in this stuff
This is the best I could find for the time being.
You might be able to find some answers in this book: https://www.math.uvic.ca/~hemerson/NCG_2.0.pdf
Thanks a lot, I will take a look into it when I get the time 
š
At the time I am mostly interested in studying K-theory in order to understand better some stuff in differential topology related to cobordism and surgery theory.
But nothing too fancy
Yeah, I will probably have to study foliation theory at some point, since I probably will focus on trying to do geometric topology in the future.
But tbh, idk a lot of references for foliation theory.
Do you know any introductory references to the subject? that would be helpful too.
I will probably not read it soon, but I will keep these ideas in mind until I encounter orbifolds and foliations in the future.
Alright, thanks Ultra. I will try to search for it.
Ah, also Ultra. Do you know any references for studying elliptic operators?
With like, more of a focus on diff top and K-theory, I know K-theory is useful for studying elliptic operators and these also appear a lot in diff top.
So I was thinking studying these would be the next thing to do.
Alright, thanks again Ultra.

Wait we doing k theory now
how can we be sure of that line?
(I hope this is the right channel for such questions, it seems far too basic for what's usually discussed here lol)
L's definition as a supremum
if you could not find such c, then L would not be the least upper bound
note that's not always true (e.g. 2 is the supremum of [0,1] union {2}) but it's true here because the set for which L is a supremum is an interval, I think
Given a compact space X, can we always embed X into a product space [0, 1]^A for some set A?
I don't think non-hausdorff can embed into hausdorff
yeah
the existence of such an embedding is equivalent to X being completely regular and Hausdorff
Hausdorff
@vast estuary sure, take arctan() and compose with a linear function that sends (-pi/2,pi/2) to (a,b)
Equivalent to being completely regular
So any compact Hausdorff space embedds into [0, 1]^A for some A
Or more generally any LCH space
Got it! Thanks
why do we [X, hocolim Y_n]= colimit [X, Y_n]
if this was not a homotopy colimit
and if X was compact object in whatever category
we would just say
for compact objects
the corepresentable functor preserves filtered colimits
but iām not sure what to say in this model category case
Is this statement true for any topological space?
$$A \subset A'$$, where A is a subset of a topo. space and A' is the set of all limits points of A.
FireLi0n
Let A be the closed interval [0, 1]. Every point in (0, 1) is an interior point of A.
The points {0, 1} are, again, boundary points of A. A point x ā R is an exterior
point of A if x < 0 or x > 1.
Consider x ā (0, 1). Let r = min{x, 1 ā x} > 0. If y ā B(x, r) =(x ā r, x + r), then x ā r <y < x + r. But r ⤠x, so
y > x ā r ā„ x ā x = 0,
and r ⤠1 ā x so
y < x + r < x + 1 ā x = 1.
Therefore y ā (0, 1) so that B(x, r) ā (0, 1). Hence x is an interior point of (0, 1).
Now suppose that x = 0, and fix r > 0. Then x ā B(x, r), and x /ā (0, 1). Let
y = min{1/2 , r/2}. Since r > 0, it follows that y > 0. But y ⤠1/2 <1 so we conclude that y ā (0, 1). Furthermore, |x ā y| = y ā¤r/2 < r, so y ā B(x, r). Therefore, for any r > 0, B(x, r) contains a point in (0, 1), and a point not in (0, 1). Hence x = 0 is a boundary point of (0, 1).
This is a question in my notes. The given set is A and this example proves its interior, exterior and boundary points. I understand the logic behind this, but could someone please help me understand how r is chose for proving x is an interior point
and how y is chosen for proving when x is a boundary point
No
It's not true for R
why not?
Take any finite subset of R for example
Then A' is empty
If you want this property to hold, you need to take $A\cup A' =\overline{A}$
Blitz
but cant you just make a trivial sequence for every point making it a limit point? I feel like i am confusing mulitple things here
Which is the closure of A
This is generally different from derived set A' of A, that's the problem
No way
this is actually what i am trying to understand, as its a bit confusing with the theorem that point is an element of the closue iff it has a sequence converging to it
Limit points are different from points of closure
isnt a limit point a point which has a sequence that converges to it?
No
what? i am utterly confused now
If you're not studying limit points then idk why you need to do this rn
becouse i need it to prove a theorem
Limit point of a set A is a point x such that for any neighbourhood U of x there is a point y which is in U, A and is distinct from x
Being distinct from x is what makes A' and closure of A different
yes, i know that, i just thought its a property not a defintion
It's a definition
For sequences we also have limit points, but they don't relate in any direct way to limit points of sets
For sequences those are just "all possible limits"
More precisely, all possible limits of subsequences
This can be generalized to filters and/or nets
Without trouble
so the proof that i am following and trying to understand refrences a theorem which states that a limit point of a set is also a limit of a convergent sequence
isnt this the same as what i said?
This might be only for a metric space i guess
Blitz
So the theorem states:
Let $S \subseteq X$, where X is a metric space. Then $z \in \overline{S}$ if and only if there is a sequence of points $(x_n)$ in S converging to z.
FireLi0n
doesnt this imply both $A' \subseteq \overline{A}$ and $\overline{A} \subseteq A'$ ?
FireLi0n
Is the property āa_n converges to aā preserved under the sup of topologies?
I tried thinking about it in terms of the closure operator which we can construct explicitly for the sup, but my example doesn't quite seem to work (T_i = cofinite topology adjoining k\N as a closed set, and then hoping that the sup of the Ti is discrete)
Perhaps someone knows how the neighborhood base of a must look like in the sup of the topologies
The basis for topology here is $\bigcap_{i=1}^n U_i$ where $U_i$ are open in their respective topologies
This proves the supremum preserves this property
This is possible because the intersection is finite
Assuming the previous basic open set contains a
Ohh, yeah, that's pretty easy once I flip my mind back to think about the open sets
Thanks @gritty widget
This easily generalizes to filters then, since if all U_i contain some filter element F_i in F, so does their finite intersection
With the special case being the tails filter here
š
Could you guys give me some motivations for introducing the notion of homotopy equivalence between morphisms of chain complexes of modules? I mean, I guess one of the reasons is that when two morphisms of complex are homotopy equivalent then they induce the same maps on homology. But like, how is this notion of homotopy equivalence related to the notion of homotopy equivalence of maps in the usual sense of topology?
well for one thing any homotopy in spaces induces a chain homotopy between the singular chain complexes
you use this to show that singular (co)homology is homotopy invariant
If you do the intermediate steps Top -> sSet -> sAb -> Ch, then they all preserve their respective notion of homotopy, where this is only nontrivial for the last map
if you believe that simplicial things are topological, then Dold Kan, which says that the category of (bounded) chain complexes is equivalent to the category of simplicial abelian groups, also gives motivation to have some notion of homotopy
Wait, what is the category of simplicial abelian groups?
Fun(Delta^op, Ab)
equivalently, the category of abelian group objects in sSet = Fun(Delta^op, Set)
Ah. So like, is this a general construction? If we take any category C, then it is "natural" to consider the category of contravariant functors from the usual simplicial category into C (I.e Fun(Delta^op, C))?
yes, usually we call them presheaf categories
they pop up everywhere
of course not necessarily with domain Delta^op
but any small category
Ah, ok. I know about sheaves of abelian groups in the context of topology.
But idk about sheaves in category theory.
E.g. Fun(C^op, Set) is the category of presheaves on C
well to look at sheaves instead of presheaves you need some sort of notion of what it means that a collection of objects covers some other objects
i think you do that with sites
though they can tell you more about that in #algebraic-geometry
Alright, then. Thanks for the insights š
It is a generalization of it
Homotopy theory extends far beyond spaces
And really shows up anywhere you have some notion of things being āweakly equivalentā
So the idea is that like, chain homotopy to homology is more or less the right analogy to homotopy and pi_*
Can somebody remind me how to introduce a cell structure on a genius two surface? I think there is a standard 4n-gon structure but can't find the details
it's always these adjacent abab strings right?
i don't really have intuition for why that works
somehow each is like
a petal of the surface
if you think of the surface organized like a fidget spinner or something
yeah i think i see now
The way I think about it is when you identify a_1 you turn one copy of b_1 into a loop, same with a_2 and b_2. I think these are where the two holes come from
Given a topological space X and a subgroup $H<\pi_1(X)$ how do I find the corresponding $X_H$ covering space?
I have a concrete example where $X=RP^2\times RP^2$ and $\pi_1(X) = Z_2\times Z_2$. Its subgroups are the identity ${0}$, itself $\pi_1(X)$, and $<(1,0)>$,$<(0,1)>$,$<(1,1)>$.
I have a hunch that the identity of X is the covering space corresponding to X as a subgroup of itself. Further the universal covering space is the one corresponding to the trivial subgroup. There must be some lattice structure here. Any hunches on how to calculate the corresponding connected covering spaces $X_{<(1,0)>},X_{<(0,1)>}$, and $X_{<(1,1)>}$?
I read something about orbits but really couldn't comprehend it.
limbostar
Right so the galois corrospondence acts like this:
for a cover Y->X, for a subcover Y', you send it to aut(Y|Y') and for a subgroup H of aut(Y|X), you send it to Y/H
Y/H is the quotient space of the action of H on Y
i.e space of orbits
and you give it the quotient topology
(its like, a "fixed subcover of H" if you will, similar to something you might know from field theory)
Is there no automorphism of a stone-cech compactification that fixes the original space?
oh yeah there is not due to density
I thought those were automorphisms over the subspace?
Any automorphism that fixes the original space extends uniquely to that spaces closure
oh yeah
mb

I'll self-sully

Yeah that's a good point though, I should be careful about that
It's a neat result though. I'm assuming by "continuum hypothesis implies there is some" you mean there is a topological space which has multiple such automorphisms
Hi! If I have a Kirby diagram of a 4-manifold X, it induces a surgery diagram on Y=(bdy)X.
But... what is this diagram? I mean, I understand that the 2-handles give a framed link, but what happens with the 1-handle unlink? Does it simply become a 0-framed unlink?
The computations that I did work fine if I 0-frame that unlink, but idk in general...
Does $\mathbb{R}^n$ embedd into $SO(n+1)$? Or $SO(m)$ for some $m$.
Blitz