#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 288 of 1
Alternatively a colimit over a diagram of cofibrants
Im not really sure what I want to do other than like
I think Im going to read this book on characteristic classes
because I know I want to learn that
It’s the same but you put an infinity symbol places
I feel like I have like 0 understanding of where to go from here broadly in topology or like what homotopy theory I should be learning 
Yes
It’s tricky
I mean genuinely if you want to do any serious algebraic topology
You gotta learn infty cats
Thats kind of why ive been doing a lot of AG for the past few months
But you might wanna start w model cats
Maybe hovey
I hear that book is good
I mean you really need like
A bare minimum of actual model cat knowledge imo
The literature is basically entirely rewritten for infty stuff
W the exception of old papers
But you can black box hard model cat stuff
Yes
Actually
You know
I think riehl has a book that like
Tries to do model cats into basic infty cats
I forget the name
She has a book "Categorical Homotopy Theory"
But that could also be good
is that what you're thinking of
Maybe thatll be good
is this the stuff I should be starting on?
Its kinda like
you know because theres all this homotopy theory stuff and model cats and crap and then also I think Im supposed to be learning about spectral sequences but the literature is not very accessible at least to me
If you wanna read something else
Try orange book
Like green book but less bad and more orange
the nilpotence thingy?
Yes
i'm still intending to make these videos lol
but i should stop talking about it and actually do it
So maybe a pitch for model cat thinking
Is
You have some construction that is not well defined
Like on some eq relation
You have options
You can try to quotient the target
To make thing agree
Or you can pick which represents count in the domain
That’s what model cats do

One sec
Max do you know the book "introduction to homotopy theory" by paul selick
its really short but the latter half of it seems like it might be helpful
This is part II
theres a part I but its just stuff i already know
like intor AT
It seems really fast so i dont know if thats good pedagogically but I feel like maybe itll let me sort of get a grip on like. the breadth of these things and orient myself a little bit
Even if i dont learn everything super well
I think I might try it out

Maybe after this itll be a little less daunting trying to figure out where to go next
13.3
Yeah

anyway like
I dont know
It doesnt seem like a huge time sink per chapter so i think ill give it a go sometime soon
I also think at some point in AT u just gotta read papers
Like textbooks are in some ways not a great way to learn math imo
You learn faster in some ways through papers
Yeah thats fair
Its just hard because like
I have no idea what im doing 
But maybe I will have slightly more of an idea what i should be doing
I think you just have to like
Pick ansubfirld of at
Subfield
And then decide to just learn that story
And maybe you blackbox some stuff
But that’s whatever
I’m waiting
okay so here is a more thought out description of model categories. Basically, you have a category with some notion of weak equivalence. Of course, after forcing weak equivalences to be isomorphisms, a lot of stuff breaks, not the least of which are (co)limits. Since we want colimits in the homotopy category to be computable in the starting category, we are forced to say that only certain diagrams "count" and as long as every diagram is equivalent to one that counts, we are good
this formalism works and is pretty useful, but it is like, kind of awkward and annoying
to make sure that you replace your diagrams properly and stuff
and like, thinks like equivalences of homotopy categories are kind of annoying to reason about
Then, on the flip side you have the infinity categorical perspective, and im just gonna paste a message from AT server you should read

The first thing that I think is important to point out is that (oo,1)-category theory is not really higher category theory. (oo,1)-categories behave much more like 1-categories than 2-categories, so maybe a reasonable way to approach them is more as "weak 1-categories" - in fact this is where the quasicategory model somehow comes from, and also how people actually use them. In that sense, their definition and use is intriniscally tied to homotopy theory, and areas that can use tools from homotopy theory (mainly in geometry, algebra and topology).
They're a way to make a lot of intuitions precise, and to say a lot of things that couldn't be said before. For instance, homotopy co/limits : I don't know about you, but it was very disheartening to me at first to realize that they didn't have a universal property if you define them using model categories. Of course people in the field knew what it "morally was", but precise statements were kind of hard to come by. oo-categories provide a way to do that, as well as provide a way to ensure that your constructions are homotopically meaningful (in this setting, if you can define them, they have to be !). Here's an example : multiplicative properties of algebraic K-theory. The history of those is kind of a mess, and there seemed to have been quite the number of mistaken attempts. Compare to the oo-categorical approach, where the multiplicative structure just comes from the universal property (see Gepner-Groth-Nikolaus for instance)
[12:24 PM] Maxime: An example of an intuition that they allow to translate faithfully is the idea that a morphism in the arrow category is a pair of morphisms together with a homotopy between the two composites - this allows to define functorial cones for instance, as opposed to triangulated category. In the homotopy category of the arrow category of a model category, a morphism between two given arrows is
[12:24 PM] Maxime: "a co/fibrant replacement of the corresponding things and a strictly commutative square between those" (up to a certain equivalence relation). That's really far from the intuition and the way you want to use it.
In that same kind of example, look at how complicated the definition of a symmetric monoidal triangulated category is, and compare to the conceptual simplicity of a stably symmetric monoidal oo-category. Granted, there's a lot of technicity, but conceptually it is much simpler, and 1000 times closer to the intuition/the things you do with it.
[12:25 PM] Maxime: Another thing that made the previpus frameworks unsatisfactory is the lack of "fornality" (not in the sense of rigour) : "category theory is about making what is formal formally formal", and many "formal-looking" arguments just weren't formal in homotopy theory, but became so with oo-categories.
@plain raven might also be interested
This seems really cool 
Main takeaway and my favorite part of this is that infinity categories are like, tailor made for homotopy theory
When riehl does this is she basically introduction infty cat theory
this is a double edged sword
some things are like impossible to construct in an infinity category
but thats because they are homotopically poorly behaved
on the flip side, anything you can build or anything you do build is automatically homotopically well behaved
since i only do homotopy stuff, this is kind of just free lunch
It was an interesting read, Max. Thank you.
I'm not doing mathematics right now but I'd like to get back into it.
wow i havent gotten to talk about exciting stuff on discord for awhile lol
that was fun

Maxime seems like a nice guy. I have talked to him a few times on twitter
thank you!
topologists seem like
very nice in general
everyone ive met
save myself
i think topologists tend to be chill bc we just have our little spaces and we play with them and we don't have as much glory or wide reaching applications as other fields but we are having fun and that is what matters
Kind of need that in my life
its a good vibe
Is there a good way of defining the long line without getting into the messy ordering stuff?
what is the long line
lines at the dmv!
long lines are funny 
Is b gonna be a 3 sheeted or 4 sheeted cover?
I couldn't come up with a 3 sheeted cover for b, but my 4 sheeted cover seems to have loops that are too long
The subgroup I got was $<a^2,b^2,a^{-1}ba^{-1}, baba, a^{-1}bab^{-1}>$
Finitely Many Bananas
Which is bad because it contains b
Can anyone help with the last one
Thats what i was thinking
you can always scale an element in Y to an element in X and vice versa
so they are homeomorphic sets
thats the tricky part
y = tan(x*pi/2 )
i think this works for (i)
(x_1,........x_n) \mapsto (tan(x_1pi/2),........,tan(x_npi/2))
could this work?
its the only thing i can think of
true
but which number?
oh
does this seem right
hold on this has length one
Nah im not sure to be honest
agreed
ill come back to this later
I think scaling does work nicely if you wish
Try to find a pretty much rational map for (i) (there is a specific simplest one up to scaling) and then you can alter that
Could anyone help me solve this?
dist(x, C1) = || x - P(x)|| where P is the projection to the relevant space
How about taking the lines with slope 1/2M and -1/2M in R^2, intersecting only at the origin. Then let x = (2M,0). Distance to intersection is 2M, whereas distance to the lines is at most 1, as they have the points (2M,1) and (2M,-1) lying on them
Cool, thanks!
How do I get
Klein bottle from annulus
by identifying the antipodal points

Of both outer and inner circle
thats just the usual construction of the klein bottle i think?
annulus is basically a cylinder
hmmm
just a bit flattened down
but homeomorphic
I know that for any $\varepsilon>0$ and $1>t>0$ there is homeomorphism $f:[-1, 1]^n\times [-1, 1]\to [-1, 1]^n\times [-1, 1]$ such that $f \equiv \text{Id}$ on $[-1, 1]^n\times [-1, t]$ and $\text{diam}(f([-1, 1]^n\times {1}) < \varepsilon$ for $n = 1$
Blitz
Can I use induction to prove this for all n?
Maybe I can use something like. Let $h$ be a map for $n = 1$ and $h_k(x_1, ..., x_n, x_{n+1})i = h(x_k, x{n+1})_i$ for $i\in {k, n+1}$ and $x_i$ otherwise
Blitz
And then set $f = h_1\circ ...\circ h_n$
Blitz
First property is satisfied
what do you need this for?
i feel like visually the claim is obvious
but might be tedious to write smth down
To prove the Hilbert cube is homeomorphic with its own cone

That's what they wrote in my book. But I want a correct proof, with no hand waving
ok
They mentioned induction should work somehow
Actually the map for $n=1$ is such that $h([-1, 1]\times {1})\subseteq {1}\times [-1, 1]$
Blitz
yeah
you shrink one side of the cube
and interpolate linearly between that shrunken side and the part of the cube where the last coordinate is <= t
at least thats what i'd do
I've used barycentric coordinates
So it's identity where I want it to be
And I can map sides to other sides
Homeomorphically
This works for n = 1. Would be too difficult for n > 1
cant you just say $f(x,s) = (x,s)$ for $s \leq t$ and $f(x,s) = \left(x\left(\varepsilon\frac{s-t}{1-t} + 1-\frac{s-t}{1-t}\right),\ s\right)$ for $s >= t$
Phil
nvm i think i misunderstood the problem
the map f in you statement needs to be surjective onto the cube again, i completely overlooked that
what does it look like for n=1?
Well, I didn't write it explicitly, just used that I can map polygons onto other polygons homeomorphically while keeping some sides intact + subdivision. Using barycentric coordinates
but where do you map [-1,1]^n x 1 then
I can draw a picture tomorrow
Blue region is being mapped onto the green region
@lunar yoke
wow
that seems pretty arbitrary
i thought of something like this
the first step is the function i gave above
i mean sure if it works then nice
So maybe a little arbitrary
Is there a specific reason for this approach?
This seems like it would probably easier to prove for the normal infinite cube
This almost works
Take $h_k(x_1, ..., x_{n+1}) = (x_1, ..., h(x_k, x_{k+1}), ..., x_{n+1})$
Blitz
Then $f = h_1\circ ...\circ h_n$ should work
Blitz
No wait, it doesn't work
I'm having trouble proving that given a metric space (X,d) the vector space of continuous functions from X->R is finite dimensional if and only if X is finite.
The backwards direction was simple because the topology on X is just the discrete topology and every set is clopen and every function is continuous.
This means a spanning set is the set of functions that send one value to 1 and everything else to 0I'm not sure at all how to do the forward direction.
A hint was to use Urysohn's lemma
the same argument as for finite X should apply to show that if X is infinite it has unbounded dimension
i.e. pick n points, then you find n functions such that the i-th one is 1 on the i-th point and 0 on the others
hence these n functions are linearly independent
Ok so I can construct these functions by Urysohn
if X is finite you can pick n arbitrarily large
I'm not immediately seeing that they are linearly independent
right for this you can use urysohn
no, sadly not
take for example R^2 -> R, (x,y) -> xy/(x^2+y^2) for (x,y) != 0 and sending (0,0) to 0
this is continuous everywhere except the origin
but there its continuous if you fix either variable
This cover is normal right?
Since rotation by 0, 2pi/3, and 4pi/3 are deck transformations which make the thing act transitively
So the conjugacy class should just be the set <a^3,b^3,ab,ba>
Also, since this is a 3-sheeted cover, 0, 2pi/3, and 4pi/3 must be all deck transformations so this group should be isomorphic to Z/3Z
Can someone verify this?
This seems too easy
Does this look like a reasonable amount of material for a 2 semester AT course?
Idk honestly, hard to tell how superficial the coverage will be
Gotcha
Overall the courses at Columbia have scared me because they cover far more topics than the equivalent at UW
Here’s their geometry class for example, at UW we spend the whole year covering like topological manifolds and the basics of topology, followed by just Lee’s Intro to Smooth Manifolds
So I don’t think we really hit any of the latter 3 groups, so I’m a bit worried that the pace might be much faster than what I’m used to
Granted they don’t have to cover the basic point-set stuff UW spends the first quarter doing, but even then the list of topics covered is not comparable
Both look pretty standard for a 2 semester course tbh
Or I guess standard for a Columbia tiered university
yes
this looks like a great class, honestly and about the speed mine went at
although different and arguably better material
Keep in mind maybe that adding smooth structures and stuff makes everything slower and harder
1st semester looks a bit much. Depends on how deep you go into every topic of course
I assume a lot of the material won't be in depth
If X is locally compact, then the functor - x X preserves quotient maps
this is usually shown in pset-style fashion like this
does anyone know whether its possible to prove this using left-adjointness of - x X and some fancy category theory?
im pretty sure it works for easy cases like quotient maps where we contract some subspace cause thats a pushout anyway
hm
now im confused
bc quotient spaces are colimits and left adjoints preserve colimits
so i dont even know why the locally compact assumption is necessary
so that - x X is a left adjoint at all
if its not locally compact that doesnt work in Top i think
you would have to go to compactly generated spaces or smth
ohhhh
the adjoint is the mapping space (-)^X
lmfao
i was thinking about the wrong assumption
i see
then yeah this is immediate as long as xX is a left adjoint
(i always forget that Top is not actually a good category)
now im confused
how do you represent a general quotient space as colimit
coequalizer?
hahaha
anyway thanks 
it was one of those things where i didnt have a construction in mind but like
quotient topology 100% has colimit vibes
yeah it feels like it for sure
« Best thought of »
Accurate 😼
what does "closure of a linear set is meager iff it's nowhere dense" mean
what does "linear set" mean
I think we're in R^n here
Probably vector subspace
that does not correlate well with the context
eh, no need to overthink it
I am wondering how to prove this theorem by Nadler
Let $F_n$ be a sequence of contractions of a locally compact complete metric space, convering to a contracton $F$.
Let $x_n$ be fixed points of $F_n$ and $x_0$ be a fixed point of $F$. How to prove that $x_n\to x_0$
Blitz
I've showed that there is an increasing sequence $N_k$ of natural numbers such that $F^{N_k}(x_{n_k})\to x_0$
Blitz
note: this doesn't hold without local compactness, so it plays an essential role here
the convergence is pointwise btw
If $L_n$ is Lipschitz constant of $F_n$, then this boils down to showing that $\frac{1}{1-L_n}d(F_nx_0, x_0)\to 0$
Blitz
at least I think so
$d(x_n, x_0)\leq d(x_n, F_n x_0)+d(F_nx_0, x_0)$
Blitz
@marsh forge dude why are the details of anything in homotopy theory so insane
that selick book i found is only so short because 80% of the proofs are "see this other book" and then when i go look them up theyre horrible 
what are you doing moth? 
i am learning classical higher homotopy theory i guses
Not even maybe idk
I am doing fibration and cofibration stuff
I see I see 🙈
hahaha whats an example
Everything 
nice
yeah i feel like the modern treatment of this stuff is hard to find
homotopy groups are just an artifact of the natural t-structure on spaces 
yeah all this technical stuff is just gross lol
Yeah
Its bad
also i genuinely think more statements are unproven than proven in this section
this is a good place for you to learn to not focus so much on details
focus on vibes
sometimes they dont even tell u where to find the proof theyre just like
They just state it 
This book is from like 98!
max admits to being old and decrepit
idek what numerable category means
Its just semilocally simply connected


Thats not concise
bc concise's treatment of this stuff itself is bad
Its like uhhh
what is may2
"classifying spaces and fibrations"
gross
Peter 
The stuff after this chapter seems less
Like this
I mean i dont even hate this really
is there a reason u just ignore my suggestions for reading
and read this awful stuff instead
What suggestions 
I tried blue book but it was 
Yea
what tripped u up
i didnt go very far
what is orange book
Idk just like the general typesetting and vibe and not feeling like i knew enough about fibrations/cofibrations/etc
something periodicity something nilpotence by ranvenel
Why they called color book
Ill probably pick it up again i guess
well the green book isnt even green so who knows
I only decided to try out selick because its short as fuck
ye same
but my cat theory was shit as well lmao
the fibrations/cofibrations stuff isnt that big of a deal
you can think of them as just nice inclusions and "covering" maps, respectively
bruh its officially called orange book i thought it was some kind of meme
I will read riehl probably soon
They have a copy of HTT in my college library
honestly moth like
Saketh borrowed it as a meme in our first year
it might be more productive to do like
Baby riehl, half of big riehl, bluebook + orang book, finish big riehl
then do real homtopy stuff
And we went around the hostel showing it to everyone and going "hey I have a doubt on page 563 here" or "I read this book but I found it to be quite lacking in content, do you have better recommendations"
at least riehl would teach you model category stuff in the correct generality

there's big riehl? 
which of these is big riehl
Categorical homotopy
Homotopical category
oh wait

actually @fading vale
this is a great short read probably
I think learning about cofibrations from old topology books
is bad
and also sometimes like
incorrect
Yeah so like i basically want to do this but my thought process on this is that I think id feel more comfortable if i had a better sense of the stuff that this came out of + had seen a taste of these things and selick is so short that I feel like i can read it on and off while i do other things before i jump into these like
much larger undertakings
if u say so
i mean genuinely like the right intuition
is that cofibrations are cellular maps of CW complexes

and that fibrations are what they need to be for this to be a model category
and once you replace everything in a diagram by (co)fibrations you get homotopy colimits
e.g. if you want a homotopically meaningful answer you should always be using CW complexes
i don't think it has to be much deeper than that
like I think there is a big difference between learning the "classical" theory and just learning a theory developed when we didnt have the proper machinery
some stuff is just outdated and backwards
Wheres the boundary between the "not having proper machinery" and classical stuff
Ah fuck it if this material isnt gonna be helpful i may as well just jump into riehl why not
@marsh forge Whats baby riehl, the book you recommended me earlier?
the category book
idk how comfy you are with baby riehl
theres also hovey's model categories
this is probably more than any modern researcher needs to know about model categories tho
I have a course from topology which touches on simplexes etc.
And I asked my lecturer if we'll be having cells
He said it's not a lot different, so we won't be having those. Is that true
no

its not at all true lol
Yeah uh. not sure about that one lmfao
i mean in some sense moth like
the right way to learn topology
is to find a paper you find interesting
and try to read it
and when you get stuck google stuff
and then go back to the paper
etc
not sure about that one re the cellular thing lmfao
Schwede recommended me this as intro to model categories https://math.jhu.edu/~eriehl/616/DwyerSpalinski.pdf
for baby riehl i think that i will probably generally understand shit up through chapter 4 but ch5 and 6 seem new
havent looked at it yet tho
that's sad. Hopefully I'll have cells in another course
this seems reasonable
i might consider blackboxing some of that stuff
like all of ch7 lol
everything else looks good tho
i guess ch7 is short
proving model category axioms is
though
6 is important if you care about how certain constructions are made (e.g., smash products of spectra)
5 is less important immediately
you'll want to know that stuff eventually
Clerk had lots of rants about monads somewhere in #category-theory which made the stuff make more sense for me
kan extensions 
yeah i believe you
just havent had the time to properly look at them yet
what is the closest thing i can get to a functor C'->D making the diagram commute
or what is the best thing i can get
is big riehl the book you told me about before
the stuff about model categories and quasi-categories
categorical homotopy theory
i think you can start with the arxiv link above
idk if the book i had in mind actually introduces model cats or takes them as given
I borrowed this from library
I read like 2 pages but I liked the author's philosophy in the preface 😌
Given a metric space, I'm not sure how to show that if the closure of a ball B, say cl B, is contained the closure of a set A, then cl B intersects A.
Suppose cl B doesn't intersect A. Show that the center of the ball is not in cl A
since cl(B) is contained in A, the only possibility of cl(B) not intersecting A would be that cl(B) is empty, so B is empty
but a ball contains its center by definition
At the start we only has cl B contained in cl A
We’re trying to prove cl B intersects A
It doesn’t have to be true that cl B is contained in A
For example A=the rationals and (X,d) is R with the standard metric
I misread
i am begging you to change your username muda
jojo fan
it's useless
SHINSHINSHINSHINSHINSHONSHISNSYINSGISNSHINSHISNHOSMUSINSHIN
This is actually so based
why is this not a triangularisation of the dunce hat? apparently it can’t be done with less than 8 vertices but i don’t see why this doesn’t do it
yeah i think you are right about only needing X connected
The issue is that you have things like these two red lines which are technically being identified
You want to add one more vertex around the center to prevent this identification from happening
yeah thanks now it makes sense. i was trying to make sure no vertices are the same but forgot to look inside lol
Anyone know a good resource for someone who is just starting topology and is very comfortable with algebra? I am sort of struggling being able to effectively write proofs
I am currently doing homeomorphisms and continuous functions. Chapters 18 and 19 of Munkres.
For example I dont really understand the whole open ball arguments
Munkres would probably be the recommendation, have you done chapters 1-17 of munkres?
Yeah i did 12, 13, 15, 16
I had a brief look over the set theory one, but perhaps I should go back and restudy it
You should probably do the rest if things like open balls are tripping you up
While that is true, I did not have much trouble with chapters 12,13, 15 and 16, but now I got into continuous functions and im a bit more clueless
Besides Munkres, which is the book I'm currently using, are there any other resources that may be helpful?
I mean... continuous functions are ch2 of munkres
just bc you didnt struggle with 12 or 13 doesnt mean you dont need prereqs for 18 etc
But hatchers notes are a good secondary, short resource
What should one have in mind when thinking about the quotient space given by (x,y)~(x,y+1)~(x+1,y) on IR², namely IR²/~. I know that it is homeomorphic to a Torus ...
I get that each of these points are equivalent in the quotient space, but how does this form a Torus?
You can imagine the quotient map here as taking each square and mapping it onto the central square containing 0 so that we'll be left with a single square containing the origin
so think of this square as being given by like, (t, s) for 0 <= t, s <= 1
The problem with this is that the edges of our square might be given by, for example, (t, 0) and (t, 1)
But if you look at the quotient map in question we actually have to identify these together as well
since (t, 0) ~ (t, 0 + 1) = (t, 1)
similarly (0, s) ~ (1, s)
so the actual resulting quotient is the square here (filled in) with sides identified like so
This is equivalent to the torus
by these identifications
Totally makes sense now. Thank you.
why is $\bR$ complete if the Cauchy sequence $x_n = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{i}$ does not converge in $\bR$?
meg sam
harmonic series ?
yeah
it's not a cauchy sequence
wait... why?
think of the cauchy sequences as all the sequences that converge
with a few exceptions when the value to what it converges doesn't belong to your space
isnt the definition of cauchy sequence just $\forall \epsilon \exists n (\forall m>n d(x_m,x_m+1)<\epsilon)$?
sorry, too lazy to do latex
like the cauchy sequence $\left( 1 +\frac1n\right)^n \in \mathbb{Q}$
Entelechy
yea basically
the distance between terms whose indices are greater than n
but the harmonic series does have that property
it does not
huh?
...........oh, it's not this
i just forgot that the 2 terms dont have to be, like, adjacent
meg sam
ahah based
In general topology was invented to formalize arguments about continuity which appear in analysis and (differential) geometry. So for intuition you should read real analysis or functional analysis, and perhaps an introductory book on manifolds (Introduction to Topological Manifolds by Lee)
A good real analysis book will be self contained in terms of topology so you will be able to read it without problems. The book by Lee assumes background knowledge of topology, I believe, but you will be able to get geometric intuition even if the formal arguments are not clear.
A good complementary book on topology is the one by Klaus Janich, not that there's anything wrong with the Munkres book.
Topology books are usually not very exhaustive, I think
Because I read through Dugundji, and there's still so many things to learn in Engelking Sieklucki for example

I think I might be just imagining things
Never mind
these are linked, you use the period lattice Lambda to get an isomorphism between C/Lambda and an elliptical curve, so elliptical curves are just torii
Hello, physics student here on his first steps with topology, so i am having a slight beginner problem, i dont know how to prove something is an open set. Normally what i would expect is to have some condition that need to be met or to prove some equalities and such, but the definition of open set in the book we use is pretty much non existent (Morreti book) so i dont know how to go about proving something is an open set
and a closed set is define by having a complement which is open :/
Do you understand the definition of a topological space?
It will help if you post a specific example, it is easier to argue with specific examples and then you can extrapolate from there.
i believe i understand the definition of topological space at least at face value
the example is to prove that an interior of a subset A of a topological space is open set
my only idea is that i need to somehow prove that interior of a subset is also a subset of X, which would make it an element of a topology an would have to be by definition an open set?
is that a correct thinking process?
Can you give me the definition of interior
where interior point of S means there exists an open neighbourhood in S which contains x
wait is union of open sets an open set? It sounds like it should be
Yes, this is one of the conditions on a collection of subsets to be a topology on a given set.
Ah, so can i say that an interior is basically a union of open neighbourhoods and as such is open itself?
The standard definition of a topological space, from Wikipedia.
Precisely!
Nice, ok thanks for the patience and letting me come to it myself xD
#2 here tells you that the union of any collection of open sets is an open set in a topology.
yeah, did not really think of it like that
I just read proof of the Sierpiński theorem about characterization of rational numbers using some homogenity properties of the Cantor set
damn that was nice
just everything falling out of the earlier results
These are very related things! Elliptic curves over C correspond to embeddings of the torus into C^2
you got any resources on this?
There are lots of ways to do it
It kind of depends on whether u want to take a complex analytic or algebraic geometry approach
(theyre equivalent but the machinery is pretty different lol)
The intuitive explanation is that elliptic curves are smooth projection compact connected curves (so dimension 1) of genus 1 hence diffeomorphic to a torus
But not biholomorphic
So the complex structure can look very different
was mentioned here
intuitive

I have a space $X$ with countable basis of clopen sets $\bigcup_{m=1}^\infty \mathcal{B}_m$ where $\mathcal{B}m$ is a countable partition of $X$ by sets of diameter $\leq 1/m$, and $\mathcal{B}{m+1}$ refines $\mathcal{B}m$.
How do I prove that if $X$ is $\sigma$-compact, then it can be partitioned into compact sets $X = \bigcup{n=1}^\infty A_n$ where diameters of $A_n$ go to $0$?
Blitz
Is there some result that says that if a hurewicz fibration is a homotopy equivalence it has the form Y^I -> Y or something?
Im trying to understand why cofibrations, hurewicz fibrations, and htpy equivalences form a weak factorization system for Top
I get 2 of the axioms but the actual lifting is confusing to me
To use the HEP for cofibrations you need this diagram to have the form A -> Y^I -> Y through the top and right and A -> X -> Y through the left and bottom
Ok thinking about this for a little bit didnt work so its time to call upon @marsh forge 
There are explicit models you can use to do this easier, I don’t think it is obvious from the axioms
The idea should be to use mapping cones for cofibrations and a sort of fattening for fibrations
I believe the details are in concise
do the homotopy classes of maps from T² to S² have a nice enumeration and/or group structure?
I do not think so.
to both questions
well i don't think there is a natural group structure, obviously any set has a group structure
it feels to me like any map from S¹ x S¹ essentially splits via the projection to S¹ ∧ S¹
so you'd have some mostly-natural identification of [T², S²] and [S², S²] = pi_2(S²)
a based map $X\times Y \to Z$ descends to a map $X\wedge Y\to Z$ only if it maps $X\vee Y$ to a point.
if the original map comes from a product of based maps $X\to Z$ and $Y\to Z$ then this is satisfied, but not necessarily otherwise
Even working up to homotopy, I don't think there is actually a comparison that works here
(I could be wrong though I am quite tired)
So I tried recalling the proof of the Whitehead theorem and noticed that somehow i was convinced one can assume the map f : X -> Y between the (lets say connected) CW complexes to be cellular by cellular approximation. Most proofs i could find also do this, but without elaboration.
But why is the assumption that f induces isomorphisms on all homotopy groups preserved by such an unbased homotopy?
If the homotopy could be chosen to be based then it would be obvious, but im not sure if that can always be done.
For instance, what if the map we start with has image disjoint from the 0-skeleton of Y?
Okay I keep trying to write things and keep confusing myself lol
relatable
i literally only find proofs that either completely avoid this or dont elaborate
Okay I think the lemma needed is the following, which I was drastically over-complicating. Given any unbased homotopy between $f,g:X\to Y$, where $X$ has a basepoint $x$, we get an induced base-change $\pi_n(Y,fx)\to \pi_n(X,gx)$ given by restricting the homotopy from $f$ to $g$ to the restrictions to $x$. Then the following should commute
[\begin{tikzcd}[ampersand replacement=&]
{\pi_n(X,x)} & {\pi_n(X,fx)} \
& {\pi_n(X,gx)}
\arrow["\cong", shift left=1, from=1-2, to=2-2]
\arrow["f", from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["g"', from=1-1, to=2-2]
\end{tikzcd}]
ShamsOnlyTwitchSub(Prime)
in particular if one of f or g is an iso so should the other be
sorry
the RHS should be Y
not X
oh i know that lemma
sick guessing skills
I mean i am sure i heard it before
i just don't think about this stuff often
does that make sense phil?
as to how it answers the original Q
yes, thank you
i just noticed that i almost drew this exact diagram in my own attempt
but i had a homotopy in the middle
and then it became messy
i should maybe try to do the more simpler thing first in the future
lol fwiw i did not think of this approach for like 15 minutes bc I kept trying to do something fancier
well i guess the fancy proof of whitehead is that yoneda style one
and this is more a hands-on approach
this is in Dieck p.127 btw
well if y is in B_r(x) then d(x,y) < r and you have a ball around that y in your union
this proof is pretty straightforward. another route your could take is to note that d(x,B) is a continuous function from X to R
the classifying space of line bundles is RPinfinity with the canonical line bundle
but how do i find what the classifying map for the mobius bundle is
i assume it should be
include S1 into RPinfty as RP1
"toplogically, a dog is a sphere" has to be the most based thing i ever heard
We all know that it is cows that are spherical.
exactly
im a bit confused with the topology on R^infinity
why can we say that the map (x1,x2,...) goes to (0,x1,x2,...) is continous
There are several different topologies to choose between. The common ones do all make the shift map continuous, but the precise arguments will depend on which topology you want it to work for.
i'm using the topology via the direct limit of R^ns
That's an unusual choice. According to https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3025251/what-is-the-topology-on-the-direct-limit-of-bbb-ri-rightarrow-bbb-rj, the resulting topology is not metrizable, so you might need a somewhat ad-hoc argument there.
Perhaps you can show that the shift map is a homeomorphism onto its image, though?
let's say i have two topological spaces X,Y and two open subsets A in X, B in Y, why is A x B an open subset of X x Y ?
(in product topology)
The product topology on X x Y is generated by preimages of open sets in X or Y under projections. What is the intersection of (preimage of A under projection onto X) with (preimage of B under projection onto Y)? Write out what points are in this set.
Since finite intersections of open sets are open, this is open.
hmmm, doesn't this intersection only contain one point?
does the intersection contain a subset of the product topology?
is the pullback of a trivial bundle trivial?
if a set contains an open ball does it imply that the set is open? or can closed sets also contain open balls? Thanks
- no, (0, 1) is contained in [0, 1]
- wdym by "also"
ahh yes of course
Sets don't divide into open and closed
A set contains an open ball iff it has non-empty interior
Closed under coequalizers here means that if f,g: X -> Y are cofibrations for example then so is the coequalizer q: Y -> Q? Not that q circ f = q cirg g
That basically makes sense I guess, I can try to come up with a specific counterexample maybe
Maybe theres something for abelian groups by looking at cokernels
Why isn't the indiscrete space connected?
For if X = {a}, the indiscrete topology would be {0, {a}}
why can't we make a partition like {{0}, {{a}}. Then the intersection would be 0 and their union the whole space
One question: is {0} open in the topology above? I see it isn't an element of such set but I am not getting it
Moreover, {0} and {{a}} are both nonempty subspaces of {0, {a}}
is 0 supposed to be the empty set?
Ye
Cause to be disconnected it has to be the union of disjoint nonempty open sets
(every space would be disconnected if empty was allowed)
but {0} is not empty?
{0} is not an open set
its not even a subset
i mean assuming your space is not some cursed bs w the empty set as a point
so the subset would be from X or from the topology?
open sets are subsets of X
to show a space is disconnected you must produce two nonempty open sets with trivial intersection whose union is X
The latter isn't
Otherwise that would imply that the empty set itself is an element of your space, like max mentioned
I see, the confusion was that I've been taking subsets from the topology
That's why I was refering {0}
I see, then that's the reason for the discrete topology on {a,b} being disconnected
because {{a,b}, 0} , {{a}, {b}} satisfy the requirements
Yes if I put the discrete topology on X, then any subset of X is open e.g is in the topology, viewed as a set of subsets
So i just need to write X as the union of any nonempty disjoint subsets
And if X has more than 2 points this is obviously always possible
Question: Can the partition be of more than 2 sets?
Functionally speaking yes because the union of open sets is open
so for {a,b} a possible partition would be {0, {a,b}, {{a},{b}}?
so {0, {a,b}} and {{a},{b}}
no

you cannot include the empty set in a partition
{a},{b} is the only valid partition of the discrete space {a,b}
lol
you should really think about this geometrically
Yeah I was about to say that if you're amenable to it I think you should draw a picture
this should be thought of as finding a separation of your space into two "connected" components
The idea is that you are literally dividing up your space
it makes no sense to consider the empty set a connected component
you should also draw a picture if you aren't amenable to it


uh, ok so for X = {a} we can't like divide X in two (or more) subsets such that their intersection is trivial and the union is X
but for Y = {a,b} we can make {a},{b}
a discrete topological space is connected if and only if it only has one point
yes
Interesting
Consider Q with the relative topology induced from R, letting $A = Q \cap (-\infty, \sqrt{2})$ and $B = Q \cap (\sqrt{2}, \infty)$ we see that Q is disconnected.
mns
You can even show something stronger
Q is zero-dimensional
So it has a basis of clopen sets
they are so good at explaining https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCvyNnSLtoHOzeEwnOZWGXWQ/videos
anyone knows any other youtube channel about AT?
Wildberger 
echt
Is the following equivalent to requiring a Mayer-Vietoris axioms
If $X$ is obtained by $B \cup_f Y$, where $A$ is a subcomplex of $Y$ and $f:A \rightarrow B$ is cellular
Then $\ldots h^q(A) \rightarrow h^{q+1}(X) \rightarrow h^{q+1}(B)\times h^{q+1}(Y)\rightarrow h^{q+1}(A) \rightarrow \ldots$ is a long exact sequence
lime_soup
Is that supposed to be a direct sum?
anyway you can definitely recover normal mayer vietoris. for X = A cup B write X as the pushout of the inclusions A cap B -> A and A cap B -> B and apply this to recover the usual mayer vietoris
For going the other way around uhh
Gimme a sec
ok back
This should be a statement about preserving homotopy pushouts, which should be true
it might actually just be stronger than MV
I havent had coffee yet tho so im not sure
but homology should preserve arbitrary homotopy colimits
Yeah this is how I wanted to think about it
Is there some result like
pushouts of CW complexes are homotopy pushouts
yeah
homotopy pushouts are computed with cofibrations between cofibrants objects
cellular and cw suffices
oh right
Hey folks! Does anyone know about the relative Thom conjecture (https://mathoverflow.net/q/75381/137265)? The question and answers are a 11 years old, maybe some things have come up in the meantime... Thanks!
like a continuous function maps a connected set to connected set , what can we say about complex analytic functions , and what are some topological properties of complex analytic function, are they behave same as continuous function?
Imo people around discord generally wouldn't know things like these, you'd get more information by asking directly on math overflow
Every complex analytic function is continuous of course, but they don't quite behave like continuous functions, they're much more rigid
You can also ask on the AT server if you are willing to use your real name
(I don't know anything about this conjecture)
I wanna be on AT server
There are invites floating around
if $E \subset X$, then is $CL(E) \subseteq X$?
ArtyLeAardvark
where X is a topological space
If X is the entire space then the closure of E in X is necessarily in X
Just by definition
yes but what I meant was does the closure of the set then mean that CL(E) could be a subset or the set X itself?
whereas before E was a proper subset of X
does taking the closure then remove the fact that it's a proper subset?
It could be all of X yes
For example
If you consider Q inside of R
The closure of Q is all of R
Such a subset is said to be dense
ohhh that's what dense means
Np
So I know S^n minus a pt is homeomorphic to R^n via sterographic projection, and S^n minus its north and south poles is homemorphic to R^n minus a point. I don't see why that is homemorphic to S^{n-1}
Its not homeomorphic, but homotopy equivalent
im pretty sure this follows from invariance of domain
basically S^2 without north and south pole is still mostly 2 -dimensional, but S^1 is completely 1-dimensional
coincidentally, i also have a question regarding something similar
Let I = [0,1] and say I have a cont. map f : I^n -> I^n so that f restricted to the interior is an open embedding
is it true that f(boundary I^n) is disjoint from f(interior I^n)?
im going throught a very lengthy proof of hurewicz right now and this is claimed as true by "pointset topology"
i feel like this should also somehow follows with invariance of domain or something similar but im not sure
yes, but S^n minus 2 point is not homemorphic to S^{n-1}, only homotopy equiv
*two points
without a point its just D^n and contractible
yep, mb
I don't really care about my real name, I use it on the MathOverflow already! What's this AT server? 🙂
i figured it out, its true, and really is just basic topology, not even invariance of domain
Thanks!
I have the following question. A continuous map f: S^n \to S^n induces a homomorphism of their nth homologies, so a homomorphism Z \to Z. I don't see why this is clear. I know that if we have chain complexes C,D, then a chain map f certainly induces a homomorphism of homologies, but why is that also the case here. A chain map is more than just continuous.
So given a topological space X you can form the singular chain complex C(X) which has C(X)_n = free abelian group on the continuous maps from the n-simplex into X for n >= 0 and C(X)_n = 0 for n <0
using the inclusions of faces of simplices you can build natural boundary maps between these
and the homology of this complex is by definition exactly singular homology of your space
taking the singular chain complex is functorial, so sends continuous maps to chain maps
and homology as well is functorial as well, as you already noted
so continuous maps of spaces induce maps between the associated homology groups
i mean there are lots of details missing and maybe you should just consult a book
Ok, I think I understand that now. I have the following other question. If I have S^n, and I take a hemisphere of it, why is that hemisphere homeomorphic to a n-simplex? This is clear to be in S^1, where the heimisphere is a closed line is the 1-simplex
A hemisphere of an n-sphere is homeomorphic to D^n which is homeomorphic to an n-simplex
The latter homeomorphism is explicitly given by some kind of like barycentric subdivision projection thing but it also just follows from the n-simplex being convex
I think technically the barycentric projection thing is how the homeomorphism between convex sets and balls in R^n is constructed but like 
Oh I guess ill ping since its been like 4 hours
sorry if you already figured this out lol @light rivet
I got it. ty
I have a question about borsuk ulam. There's this proof of it in this one 3b1b video and it feels deceptively simple compared to every other proof I've seen. I was wondering if someone could point out where the rigor breaks down
Solving a discrete math puzzle using topology.
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huh, so does this not generalize to S^n by doing basically the same thing?
oh wait, I guess I cant be certain about the loop cutting the origin anymore huh?
Hi, if I have a sequence of function $f_n:X \to Y$ that converges uniformly to $f: X \to Y$ ($X$ and $Y$ are metric spaces) how would I go about showing that if all $f_n$ are continuous, then $f$ is continuous too ?
Entelechy
hey so I am a bit confused with question 3 in section 1.10 Well Ordering section of Munkres.
This is my depiction of what is happening
I know the ordering is not the same but i am having a hard time picturing the ordering relationships I suppose
oh wait i think i know where i may have messed up with the second one is it…
I would say this is more of a real analysis question, but note that |f(x) - f(y)| <= |f(x) - f_n(x)| + |f_n(x) - f_n(y)| + |f_n(y) - f(y)| holds for all x,y,n and see if you can figure the rest out
Oh I see, two triangle inequalities
Thanks, for some reason I had trouble understanding where this inequality came from
I am not sure if my visualization here is correct
what exactly is it about the first picture that stands out?
the problem when we increase by n, is when we move up in y, I think we still need to follow x < y for each row
so how would you illustrate {1,2}xZ^+
hmmm
we have a jenga tower now more or less, does that count? haha
wait a minute
i think i figured something out
i was missing some arrows?
lmao
we have more stable tower now
😂
wait do i get rid of a vertical set of arrows?
oh wait
so we are taking {1,2} individually paired with Z^+
Which was something I have a hard time following a bit because wouldn’t our 2 always be greater when we climb many y times
also might ask about problem 10 shortly
This is topology?
its around the end of the first chapter in munkres
its just abstract deconstruction leading to point-set stuff
I mean its already posted here and its in a topology book in the second to last section of the deconstruction chapter leading to the topology part of the book... I don't see the point in reposting it
also I finished every problem in the section otherwise so I am not struggling elsewhere I don't think
Can you post the question
sure h/o
h/o?
This is getting near. Now you only need an arrow that declares the bottom right element to come after the entire left stack.
ok im going to take another look. I finished the other problems I cared about in the same section
is there anything wrong with this argument?
Let X be a non-empty set and let B(X,R) be the set of bounded real valued functions on X equipped with the uniform norm.
Fix f,g in B(X,R) and consider the function F : [0,1] --> B(X,R) by F(t) = f + (g - f)t.
||F(t) - F(s)|| = ||g - f|| |t - s|, so F is lipschitz and F(0) = f, F(1) = g, thus B(X,R) is path connected.
furthermore, B(X,R) is a vector space over R
this seems like such a strong result. not sure if im missing anything subtle
Doesn't seem very strong
i guess it seems strong to me because i assumed nothing about X other than it was non-empty. even if it was empty, this claim still follows. why does it not seem strong to you?
It just doesn't. The proof is easy and very general
And yes, it's absolutely correct
It works for X = empty too
Why it works is because R is a vector space, pretty much
Like, replace B(X, R) with B(X, Y) where Y is a normed vector space over R
what norm are you placing on B(X,Y)?
||| f ||| = sup of ||f(x)|| for x in X
It doesn't matter much that f is continuous in the proof
The only place where that matters is in the definition of F
To make sure it's into B(X, Y)
f isn’t assumed to be continuous tho
Topological structure of X is basically absent
Sorry, I read this as "B(X, Y) are bounded continuous functions"
But if you take X to have discrete topology then it's the same thing
right. maybe surprising is a better adjective. i thought that the structure of X would influence B(X,Y), but it doesn’t
it’s really just the structure of Y that’s important
Because Y is a pretty strong space to have to begin with
Usually when you have C(X, Y) the emphasis is put on X being compact instead
can Y be anything weaker than a real normed vector space?
If you take Y = l^p for 0 < p < 1 then I think it works too
So if you have topology defined in terms of some generalized norm that's not necessarily homogenous, but it satisfies triangle inequality and stuff, it should still work
Then your function F should be Hölder continuous instead of just Lipschitz
but Y still needs to be a vector space over R, correct?
Not necessarily, you can still get some path-connectedness properties, even if it's not a vector space over R, I think
Ok I think I understand that problem I was struggling with.
Now I’m trying to visualize better more abstract orderings. For instance
{1,2} x (Z^+)^2… and so on
as stated above this isnt really the channel for order theory. That said, if you're interested in well-orders, you could take a look at ordinal numbers. They give a nice way to describe all well-orderings
of course except for this based take 
Thanks. Also I don’t think it’s necessary right now for me to think too hard about it
Does anybody know a good video explaining 'the circle not being contractible' proof?
I doubt there's just one universal proof of that
the one I know proves that the map $z\mapsto z$ of $\mathbb{S}^1$ is essential iirc. This is by proving it doesn't have a continuous logarithm
Blitz
Hmm, alright. The one I'm looking at uses the spiral staircase metaphor but I'm unsure of the algebraic proof behind it.
it should be similar
having a continuous logarithm means something like, it factors through the map $x\mapsto e^{ix}$
Blitz
Oh yes, that's exactly what I'm doing
this only uses some connectedness, nothing big
I have some holes in my knowledge from jumping around in the book, that may be where my issues come from lol
you suppose that there is $\varphi:\mathbb{S}^1\to \mathbb{R}$ such that $z = e^{i\varphi(z)}$
Blitz
then take $z = \exp(it)$
Blitz
alright boys, last section of the deconstruction chapter leading to the meat of Munkres. Wish me luck. I'm about to learn topology for real soon lol
remember kids, topologies are just glorified semi-lattices
If we are working with an generalized cohomology theory
is the cohomology of the empty set always going to be
0
If we define the measurable sets of a Measure Space to be open, when does this not give us a topology? (an example would be appreciated)
(trying to link Measure Space and Topological Space)
doesnt this follow from H^n(0) = H^n(0,0) and the pair sequence for (0,0)?
ah clever thank you
Feels surprising given the parallels in how a measurable vs continuous function is defined
Its somehow more natural to work with pointed spaces
Where the empty set really isnt a pointed space
In which case we are really looking at reduced theories
and the (co)homology of the point will indeed be trivial
This will correspond to the unreduced (co)homology of the empty set, I guess
It's been a long while since I've done measure
ah ok rereading the defns makes more sense
Sigma
- X
- Complement
- Countable union
Topology - 0, X
- Finite intersection
- Arbritrary union
===
Discrete, Indiscrete certainly always work
Hmm the topology has to be symmetrical (open and closed coincide), not sure of a name for that
It sounds like this topology has be a disjoint union of a bunch of indiscrete spaces
idk I feel like that's everything? If we have a clopen set, the space is disconnected and we can split into a disjoint union?
So I feel all the Topologies which are also Sigma algebras have to be arbritrary disjoint union topology of indiscrete topologies 🤔
Does anyone know of a proof for sequentially characterising interior points
Is the goal to find out which topologies can also be sigma algebras?
Because the criteria you gave seems strong
But I guess it makes sense. At the end of the day you want only complement to be satisfied because unions come easy
you want every open to be clopen too I think
Yeah I think the conditions you gave might be too strong
only because of the finite intersection condition
{X,Ø} is a topology on X that's also a sigma-algebra, but that makes a connected space.
Hmm, that might not be an answer to what you actually asked.
Ah, shutting up, then.
Turn it around: Which sigma-algebras are topologies?
Actually this does sound right to me.
This only works for finite disjoint unions
My topology isn't so strong. Can we not turn the discrete topology on R into an uncountable disjoint union of indiscrete topologies?
(for example)
Obviously yes
