#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 286 of 1
Rereading through chapter 0, I don’t quite get why the last sentence of example 0.15 works here
In particular, I don’t quite see why we can say that on the boundary of N, the homotopy we get by extending the homotopy at A agrees with the constant homotopy outside of N
I have a very poor picture of this example, ig the general idea is that if we can “thicken” A then (X,A) will have the HEP but I have little intuition for why it’s true
depends what you mean by any neighborhood
its untrue in most definitions
but it is true that like, if i take a connected open set around a point that is not all of S^1
then i get something homeomorphic to R1
ok ok sorry to change gears rq
question about this picture
im reading the wiki and it says that a transition map can be defined only if there's an overlap in the charts
now im still definitely not comfortable with the terminology so i could be wrong in what im thinking here, but doesnt this map always exist just bc R^n is obv homeomorphic to itself?
You should read a real textbook on this stuff
probably but munkres is checked out at my library
download it
Why are you okay with reading wikipedia off a screen then lol
I meant to say
You should read a textbook bc i think wikipedia is omitting details
that are confusing you
ah
I wanted to prove that compact subsets of a metric space are bounded (A subset of a metric space is defined to be bounded if there exists an open ball in that space containing the subset), so I came up with the following outline and was wondering if anyone could look it over and let me know if it works, cause the proof I found for it used a different open cover:
Let K be a compact subset of a metric space X, and pick some $p \in K$.
Consider the collection of open subsets {$V_n$}, where $V_n = B_n(p)$, for each n $\in$ N [Open ball of radius n, centered at p]. Since for all $q \in K$, d(p, q) < n for some n $\in$ N, {$V_n$} is an open cover of K.
Since K is compact, there exists a finite set of indices M = {$n_1, ..., n_m$} such that {$V_i$} for i $\in$ M is a finite subcover of {$V_n$}. Let s = max{$n_1, ..., n_m$}. Then $V_i \subset V_s$, for all i $\in$ M. Therefore, $V_s$ alone is a subcover of {$V_n$}, i.e. K $\subset V_s = B_s(p)$.
Hence, K is bounded.
strad
@crude vector yes
It's correct?
Yeah I definitely just kinda winged it here, no clue how to use LaTeX correctly yet
And awesome, thanks a bunch 😄
In the proof of (a), he shows that every point of the complement of E-bar has a neighborhood (open ball) that doesn't intersect E and concludes from that the complement of E-bar is open, but how can I be sure that there exists a neighborhood (open ball) of p that doesn't intersect E', the set of all limit points of E? Did he skip a step?
Oh wait if every neighborhood had a limit point of E
Then every neighborhood would have a point of E
Right?
yes
Thank you, I was about to go insane
every open neighbourhood containing a limit point is an open neighbourhood of that limit point
Ahhh I see, that I did not know
But I can see why it makes sense now
Thanks a bunch
What does it mean for something to be "strong"? In particular I sometimes hear homeomorphism is too strong for xyz
what does that mean?
@celest flare depends on the context
you can think of homeomorphisms as sort of equivalence relation between spaces, for me too strong would mean that it makes too many spaces equivalent to each other
basically, it forgets too many structure
that would be the opposite
a "strong" equivalence relation is a one that can tell many things apart
so the equivalence classes are small
a "weak" one cannot see as much and its equivalence classes are larger
so a point is not homeomorphic to a segment
homeomorphisms see the difference
but they are homotopically equivalent
depends on the perspective
while the set of equivalence classes might be larger or smaller, the equivalence classes might do the opposite
that's why I said things such as
depends on the context and for me
there's no formal take on this (at least I don't think so), so no real point in arguing
fwiw I think Zef's usage is a lot more common, especially in topology
Where most of our tools are too weak to even start to talk about detecting homeomorphism
yeah but I think they asked this because they saw my math.se answer I wrote online
maybe it's just a coincidence, but timing was too perfect 🤔
Hey guys
I have two topological spaces, X and Y
X a discrete and Y an indiscrete
suppose they're topological spaces of {1,2}
what would be inside the balls ? all the subsets of {1,2} in X and the empty set and {1,2} in Y?
what are the balls supposed to represent?
||
||
you can only really speak about open and closed balls in a metric space or a gauge space
and not in topological spaces like here
two neat problems from my recent exam:
show that RP^n cannot be covered by n open contractible subsets
show that there exists no covering map from the compact orientable surface of genus 47 to the compact orientable surface of genus 11
Hey yall so i was workign through hatcher and was stuck on this prob; i have the presentatin version of this gorup but am not sure how to show its isomorphism to integers as shown below
$$ < a, b, c | [a, b], [a, d] >$$
how do i show that this is the same as $$( \mathbb{Z} \star \mathbb{Z} ) \times \mathbb{Z}$$
sorry there was a typo
$$\mathbb{Z} \star \mathbb{Z} = \langle a, b \rangle$$, is this clear to you?
M8732
Wait, d? Are you sure it's nto a typo now?
<a,b,c | [a,b], [a,c] >?
Or thag
Ye but like how do I go from free product to croess
I’m not very comfortable with groups
You can define a group isomorphism.
Due to universal property of free groups it is easy to map out of them, so...
Mm group isomorphism how??? I’m confused a little
$$\Theta\colon \langle a, b, c \rangle \rightarrow (\mathcal{Z} \star \mathcal{Z}) \times \mathcal{Z}$$ $$ a \mapsto (0,a)$$ $$b \mapsto (a,0)$$ $$c \mapsto (b,0)$$
M8732
Should prob learn group theory haha
This is obviously surjective.
So you just figure out the kernel and make it an isomorphim.
Mm I’m a little confused by the map so b gets mapped to a pint (a,0)?
Or like I can see that the kerned of this free product is empty and conclude it’s an isomorphism?
The kernel is going to be all the elements in the normal hull of [a,b] and [a,c]
this is because they are the element that commute in the group product.
This is using the above identification of <a,b> with Z star Z.
Mm thx I’ll look at it
Is figuring out how R^3- a knot/ a link deformation retracts usually a hard problem?
Hatcher gives deformation retracts for simple examples and sure they’re intuitive but it seems like a pain to actually prove these deformation retracts
Does anyone want to study Hatcher's algebraic topology book together?
Hatcher is too hand wavy for me, I prefer something more formal
Do you have a specific book in mind?
There's Spanier, Dieck
Some people recommend to learn manifolds first
From Lee for example
Is Bredon good? It covers diff. manifolds also in the second chapter.
Have you read these books or would you want to study them?
I've read some of Dieck, like the first two chapters.
right now I'm studying something topology-related already + exercises, so that takes time
So I don't really want to read algebraic topology, but only for right now.
Good luck finding someone, for me studying with other people was always more of a mental pat on the back though
Thanks
the book of Dieck can be pretty technical ig, but that's what I like, so... I'm not everyone, you know
I think I read on math.se that it's good for learning both manifolds and alg topology at the same time
but I haven't read it so I wouldn't know
Im trying to show that $(\mathbb{Z}\mathbb{Z)}/[\mathbb{Z}\mathbb{Z},\mathbb{Z}\mathbb{Z}]\cong \mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$ and my first thought was to use the first isomorphism theorem. I've been trying to use the homomorphism $\phi:\mathbb{Z}\mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z}$ defined by $\phi(a^{n_1}b^{m_1}\cdots a^{n_k}b^{m_k})=(a^{n_1}\cdots a^{n_k},b^{m_1}\cdots b^{m_k})$ Where we are considering $\mathbb{Z}*\mathbb{Z}$ to be the free product of two infinite cyclic groups generated by a and b respectively. I have shown that this is a homomorphism and is surjective, but i am really struggling to show that the commutator is the kernel. I have that the commutator is contained in the kernel but i cannot show the other containment. I am beginning to suspect that it is in fact not equal to the kernel, but if that is the case I am stumped on how to proceed. I was hoping someone would be able to shine some light on the problem.
llspacebarll
what are your preferred book for algebraic topology (other than Munkres because that's what I'm following rn)
Munkres is for point set 
Rotmanstan has been stanning rotman
Unsurprisingly
learned from spanier
it has some 'homotopy' stuffs
yes that's why I'm asking lol
@swift fjord tell us why rotman good 
moldi tell us why may good
May not good 

It is so difficult
yeah it skips a lot of details
i recently tried to fill in the details in one claim in the cofibrations chapter
which claim was it
something about products of ndr pairs being ndr pairs again
oh god ndr pairs
and he gave the construction
but he said its obvious that its continuous
but it wasnt
by far
lmao
i had to hunt down various statements in dieck and brown
imagine checking continuity in 2022
fair enough
clear and concise writing which doesn't leave you in the dark with hazy geometric intuition, but doesn't completely hold your hand either
good chapter order
just overall excellent writer with supreme pedagogical sense
no, it just actually does algebra unlike some authors
hatcher be like
proof:
look I drew a pretty picture
reading 400 page book in 1 summer 
summer is long
munkres be like:
S I M P L I CI A L H O M O L O G Y
Simplicial homology 
Does munkres do simplicial stuff?
elements of algebraic topology
Oh right
the driest book i've ever read
you know elementary topology by viro?
Wait hold on I just realised this simplicial homology is not the homology of a simplicial object 
Simplicial homology 
can't even distinguish which one is a suggestion and which one is a joke
id say singular homology is actually more in that direction
Read Rotman then come back and tell us why shin is wrong
singular set is kan complex etc
True
yea except proving anything in it is awful
easy to compute for small examples
so you want to immediately move to singular
But isn't simplicial homology also the homology of a simplicial abelian group
cellular is also nice, but it sucks when you have to prove that certain maps have certain degrees to compute the boundary maps
Or are you just saying no kan condition
much nicer if you can just say "obviously this is degree ..."
so true
hmm
you mean you take the chain complex via dold kan and homology of that?
why would that be stupid
kinda redundant 
its what you do for singular

well ok which simplicial abelian group are you talking about then
You have singular simplices still but only the specified ones 
So viewing it as a simplicial subgroup of the singular simplicial group
specified ones as in the ones that appear in the delta complex structure
ah yeah ok
noooo you were supposed to tell us why shin is wrong 
Moldi why do u hatr me
@swift fjord want me to say it? 
I went to ivory once and everyone was bullying you
I thought it was cool
It's all part of my plan
I have the entirety of ivory in the palm of my hand
Wait were u there for CP^infty

I don't get why that was bullyworthy
I guess it is just cool to bully you 
it's because he's so smug about it
it's too easy to bully some people. but it's a challenge to bully shin
That justifies bullying? Wow ryc
I am the most well-liked member of the ivory tower
would you bully someone you didn't like? no of course not
you only bully the best people
Yasuke would never have let this happen
guess that's why i haven't been bullying moldilocks as of late... 😮💨

I realize i think I have misunderstood the definition of a vector bundle
can someone clear this up for me
sure
you don't actually have to specify the "transition" maps
you just specify the local trivializations
yes
and the transition map cocyle conditions are automatic
well
yeah
you specificy local trivializations and then you need to check that the transition maps are linear isomorphisms on fibers
and like
the smoothness stuff you can check either on transitions or on local trivs
but do you though?
i guess not
the definition doesn't seem to mention transition maps
you can also check that on the local trivs
yeah
there are two ways to construct these things
once you're constructing things from coordinates you often have to refer to the transition map defns anyway
but
yes, you can do either and you don't need to do both
this seems very strange
it doesn't seem to suggest any compatibility on interesections?
you just don't need it
the compatibility on intersections all comes from composing things you know
you already know E is a manifold
ooooh
i feel like im not seeing something obvious but not sure where could anyone help :p
(also this is an exercise from bredon i finally decided to actually learn nets LOL)
hmm do we actually need that E is a manifold
a finite dim vector bundle over a manifold is definitely a manifold
but when you want to talk about classifying vector bundles
you need to introduce slightly more general spaces
maybe i am wrong
but it seems like h being a vector space isomorphism on the fibers should give the glueing data?
yeah okay we don't need them to be manifolds
Here X_m is the mapping cylinder of the map z -> z^m on S^1
I’m having a lot of trouble seeing how letting x vary allows us to get X_m
It’s in the context of the torus knot K(m,n)
Ie that winds m times longitudinally and n times meridianally
You are actually reading about the torus knots 
Why, is that a meme
who cares not like I need donuts to untangle my earphones
I mean i don’t care all that much about those knots but it’s a working example
And if I don’t understand the method there’s something I need to fix 
do you think you might be able to explain how the radial lines trace the required mapping cylinder in the end 
,rotate
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages.
bruh
Oh I think I might have understood it
The center of the radial segments is S^1 x{0}
And the outside is S^1 x {1} with the required quotient
Because as x varies the center loops once but the edges loop m times
That’s such a weird way to see it
There is nothing cylindrical about this 
Aight now I just need to get how they make the deformations agree on the boundary torus
New problem if I view it this way the intersection of X_m and X_n isn’t S^1 x {1/2} like it should be 
Ohhh i think it’s the other way around
The « circle » on the boundary of the torus is the intersection of the two « cylinders » and corresponds to S^1 x {1/2}
The core circles of the two torii are S^1 x {0} and S^1 x {1} with the proper identification
That’s mind bending ngl
I'm struggling to understand why we can find these U_x,j for each x
for every (x,t) in X \times I we can find a U_{x,t} such that the bundle is trivial
Does anyone see why this is true?
I'm neither sure why the projection is a homeomorphism
nor why it would lift to the bundle
I read it and I was given therapy afterwards
It's the worst construction he does
it doesn't even showcase Van Kampen that well anyways??
Hatcher bad 🤝
Nah
I read like half of Hatcher
it's it's OK
not that I could do any exercises 😔
Also the only other one I know is Dieck
But Fiona stans that one
Damn
i have a question in #diff-geo-diff-top which should have been in here, but i misplaced it
Is there any result about fiber bundles that says something like
The nth homotopy groups of sections of the bundle
Is equivalent to the path components of some maps?
Since R^n+k is contractible, the space of bundle mono morphisms is homotopy equivalent to space of sections of this fiber bundle
I don’t get why this is true
Lecture 2 of Algebraic Topology course by Pierre Albin.
Found this playlist to use alongside Hatcher
Anyone know if it’s any good?
Let $f : (X, x_0) \to (Y, y0)$ be a pointed continuous map, and
consider the induced homomorphism $f_* : π_1(X, x_0) \to π_1(Y, y0)$.
(1.) If $f$ is one-to-one, is $f_$ also injective?
(2.) If $f$ is onto, is $f_$ also injective?
(3.) If $f_$ is injective, is $f$ also one-to-one?
(4.) If $f_$ is surjective, is $f$ also onto?
For those that are true, give a proof; if not, give a counterexample.
eM
I think I have an idea on how to approach this, but it feels like I'm bouncing between proving injectivity but needing surjectivity, and vice versa, which violates by intuition that all of these should be true.
he's great
Circle, line, disk should probably be enough to do all of them
where I am saying that all 4 should be false
Also why sometimes injective and sometimes one-to-one 
Ye all 4 are false
I have no idea why it is worded like this lol
because homomorphisms can be injective or surjective, but pointed continuous maps can be one-to-one or onto
clearly!
quick question, is the empty set and the set of real numbers open?
i'm trying to prove that the cofinite topology on the reals is a topology
yes
axiomatically, the empty set and the whole set X are open for any topology on X
cool cool cool, thank you
The cofinite Topology is usually explicitly defined so that it includes the empty set
Because the empty set is not cofinite
ahhh thank you i've written this so far, but I can't see how the cofinite topology will include R itself since R is not finite
R is cofinite
The complement of R in R is the empty set
Which has cardinality 0 by convention is you wish
Ohhhh yeah, gotcha cheers
Np
i'm trying to to prove the statement of arbitrary open unions are open, however it seems like what i've written is a contradiction as the complement of an open set is closed
What part of this gives a contradiction?
the final line I didn't finish writing it but it says R\u is the complement of u. However I defined u as open, so the complement is closed, therefore the intersection of them will be closed as well
Yep, that's all true
But none of that is contradictory
All you need to show is that the intersection of all those complements is finite, that would imply that the union of all the Ui is open. Does that make sense?
i'm slightly confused as to how it would imply it's open? Is it by definition of the cofinite topology?
Yep
"U is open" means "R \ U is finite (or U is empty) " when we're talking about the cofinite topology
When you write τ = ..., you're defining the collection of open sets (which is τ)
Ahhh brilliant, thank you so much
Would the homology of a space with coefficients in:
-Q as a ring
-Q as a Z-module
-Q as a Q-module
always be the same for any space?
As I understand, homology with coefficients only cares about the abelian group structure, which begs the question, why do we care about homology with coefficients in a general ring or module?
good evening
can anyone here help me understand the difference between an identification and a homeomorphism?
A bijective function f between two topological spaces X and Y is a homeomorphism if and only if both f and f^(-1) are continuous
A function f : X -> Y is an identification if and only if U \subset Y is open if and only if f^(-1)(U) is open```
I was thinking that if, for example, X is a space with a lot of points i a single open set, then f is not bijective but is an identification
ahhh
but the requirement is dropped in the definition of the identification
so the only difference is that f need not be bijective?
hmmmm then why do we choose a homeomorphism rather than an identification to be the statement of "these are the same topological space"
wouldn't, for example, connectedness or compactness be preserved by an identification?
Yes, but if you don't have a bijection between the spaces then you really can't say the spaces are the same.
Note that a topological space is a set + a topology on the set. To say topological spaces are the same, we want a one-to-one correspondence between the underlying set AND the open sets.
hmmm wait the very next example seems to clarify things
In this case, an identification isn't a "homeomorphism but not bijective", is it?
for e.g. the equivalence relation could cause the sets in X/~ to be coarser than the topology on X
Hausdorffness isn't
I'm not sure about the other 2 either, I don't think an identification needs to be surjective?
At least not in the definition given above
Ye I was just thinking if maybe that forces surjectivity somehow
But doesn't seem to
Yea, I've only dealt with quotient maps which are by definition surjective
the ring structure of coefficients matters because it gives an algebra structure on cohomology
the module structure of a coefficient group means the homology (and cohomology) will be a module over the same ring
(for Z, Z-modules are just abelian groups so there's no extra structure)
I think it has to, but even if it isn't, the other part becomes discrete or something
So doesn't matter much
I was thinking of an inclusion of the point space into a 2 point set
You could define a topology on the 2 point set using this definition
You should get the discrete space yeah
So it's a non surjective identification and if you generalise this to 1 point space including into however many point set, you lose both connectedness and compactness
Something like "homeomorphism but not bijective" would be a perfect map
In mathematics, especially topology, a perfect map is a particular kind of continuous function between topological spaces. Perfect maps are weaker than homeomorphisms, but strong enough to preserve some topological properties such as local compactness that are not always preserved by continuous maps.
This is a closed continuous surjection with compact fibers
Ah so what is an identification? 😅
Identification/quotient map is a (surjective) map q:X to Y such that U is open in Y iff q^-1(U) is open in X
Closed/open continuous surjective maps are quotient maps
They have this useful property that to prove f:Y to Z is continuous, if f o q^-1: X to Z is well-defined, then it's continuous iff f is continuous
So it's enough to show f o q^-1 is continuous (I'm abusing notation a bit here)
So for example, say you have a map f:R to R
And q:R to S^1 is given by q(x) = exp(ix)
Then this is a quotient map
And you want f o q^-1 to be well-defined, this means f has to be 2pi periodic
So we get a correspondence between continuous 2pi periodic functions on R and continuous maps from S^1 to R
Just a basic application
Does it make more sense now?
what do you get from the result of the quotient map on this complex? Munkres says it's not a Torus, and I think I get why - you have the repeated ad edge, the be edge, and the cf edge, but I don't know what you would actually get from this
i dont think it is necessarily a nice space
i mean i guess theres a classification
but the best way to figure out what surface it is is probably computationally
so it's not necessarily something I can just draw/picture easily?
Well I didn't think about it hard but in general these things can be like, arbitrarily complex
so easily no
in theory you can figure it out with enough effort
So basically a continuous function is such that an open set in the counter domain is open in the domain. Then an homeomorphism is like a overpowered continuous function where an open set in either side is open in the other
codomain
not counter domain
basically mns yes
homeomorphism should say "these two topological spaces are the same"
so of course they should agree on which sets are open
yeah like max said quotient spaces formed like this can be crazy. i think it's like every compact riemann surface* or something like that has a corresponding fundamental polygon
for example you can write RP2 as one of these, and you can't even put it in R^3 without it self intersecting
It's easy to describe all orientable closed manifolds this way
I think you also get all nonorientable ones
You also get a lot of stuff that is not a manifold
also of genus >0 ig lol
You can build spheres this way
yeah good point. just identify every point on the edge together and glue two copies of the shape together along their boundaries and you get a 3 sphere. so good luck visualizing that
Oh i meant the normal sphere
Just identify two pairs of consecutive edges of a square
I guess I expected this to be nice since it was relatively "simple"
A homeomorphism is a bijection $f:X\to Y$ such that it induces a map between topologues $f^{-1}:\tau_Y\to\tau_X$ which is also a bijection.
Blitz
So I'd describe it as a bijection which is also a bijection between the topologies
Sure, but I dont think this really captures the intuition
It captures the fact that they are essentially the same
here
the only real difference between homeomorphic spaces is underlying sets
Well... yeah
my point is that you've simply rephrased the textbook definition
I was just trying to explain how one thinks about them
I would not say "these two spaces are the same" is a suitable formal definition
But if one has a homeomorphism and asks whether it should preserve property P
The intuition I gave is normally helpful
rephrasing makes it clear what they are, regardless of your intuition

you've said, more or less, "homeomorphic spaces are essentially the same as topological spaces" and I answered "in what way are they the same?"
a topology is not the ultimate way to look at a space
lmfao
They are one way to look at topological spaces
They already know the formal definition because they stated it though max was just explaining the intuition
the intuitive way to think about Definition X is by restating definition X
of course it is
different people have different intuition btw
They can have intuitions that are not different while not being the same either.
you could describe topology as algebras of a certain profunctor, and then yes this is what you would get for isomorphism of algebras
This convo went from bad to terrible
don't thank me
If I had a top space X has k path connected components, how can I show its zeroth homology group is isomorphic to Z^k? I saw the proof where X is path connected, so H_0 is Z, but that used an trick of a surjective hom f: C_0 \to Z and showing the ker f = Im \partial_1, and doesnt seem like it generalizes
Nope, not yet
The trick I have seen for the X path connected case is the following: Take the surj hom f: C_0 \to Z that just maps the formal sum to the sum of its coefficients in Z
Then C_0/ ker f = Z and then we could show ker f = im partial_1 which gives H_0 = Z
But I don't see how to extend this idea to path connected components
The way i would do it is that if you have two vertices in C_0, H_1 = C_0/im d_0 basically identifies any two vertices connected by a one chain right
because if i have a one chain, thats a path between two vertices v and w, and its image is v - w so that v - w = 0 and hence v = w in H_0
An instructor has marked this as a good answer!
except its H_0
not H_1
anyway like @light rivet does this make sense?
im trying to outline a talk so I didnt want to type this out and am glad you are doing it instead
If this isnt clear think of it like this: Since ker d_0 = C_0, H_0 is obtained by taking the free group C_0 generated by the vertices and quotienting it out by saying that any two vertices in the image of d_1 (i.e connected by a 1 chain) are identified
(equivalently a-b in img d_1 iff theres a path connecting them, and there are no other relations)
this trick also works for the case of one connected component, of course
hmm, gimme sec to digest this
it might help to draw some stuff out
if i have a set that is diffeomorphic to a convex set, is it simply connected?
homeomorphism should suffice
it gives an isomorphism on fundamental group
which detects simply connectedness
by being 0
(since convex sets are simply connected)
oh even more its already conctractible
what is contractible
homotopic to a point
very simply connected
btw is there a nice example for a space that is not contractible but simply connected
sphere
the sphere
oof
Max 
im here for the low hanging fruit moth
why am i like this
u can do the hard work
i see. thats interesting. its fundamental group is trivial tho...
it has a handful of nontrivial higher homotopy groups
i dont really have any background in this type of topology yet. but i kinda dont like this
its the best kind of topology
just a few 
if you believe that circles are not contractible, spheres dont seem much worse
Dont like it in what sense
i need a result from complex analysis actually, and it says that any holomorphic function on a simply connected space has a primitive. but my professor phrased it in terms of being diffeomorphic to a convex set, since we havent covered the algebraic topology part of topology
ah yeah the result is just topological
phrasing it as diffeomorphic just seems silly
i uh. also dont know how to prove this result but i need it for something else...
i have some form of cauchy's integral theorem
but im not sure how to get this from the thing i have
oh wait nvm i think i got it
I don't get this part in May's proof of van Kampen. doesn't the existence of a path x -> y follows from the fact that x,y in U and U is path connected?
why do we need to assume that the cover is finite?
We dont just need to assume there exists a path from x to y in U, we need to choose paths from x to y for every y in X such that if y is in U, the path is also contained in U
So like
if y is contained in U_1 and U_2, we need the path x to y to be contained in U_1 and U_2, eg U_1 cap U_2
since the cover is closed under finite intersection we know that y is in some finite collection of elements of the cover, and the intersection of those elements is also in the cover, and then we can take a path from x to y in that intersection
if the collection is infinite then if take some cover U_alpha and write y in bigcap U_alpha, then there is no guarantee that bigcap U_alpha is in the cover, and in particular not even a guarantee that its path connected, so there might be no path from x to y in bigcap U_alpha
ah yeah this was the part I missed
I honestly cannot think of an example where finiteness is crucial off the top of my head lol you need something weird and fucked up where you're taking like infinitely thinner slices so that when you take the infinite intersection its a point or some shit
and that disconnects it
maybe the comb space would provide something concrete
But theres really no need to worry about that 
This is just being very careful
How can I show the interior of a set is nontrivial?
Find a non empty open subset
prove that the complement is not dense
equip the set with the discrete topology
*i should add that if you are to use this argument, it is essential that you state you can do this without loss of generality
this is actually a really nice trick to use in general
you can you use it to show things like
every manifold is connected
every manifold is infact not a manifold
I think this should be true but im not sure
M an manifold, N a closed submanifold, U a tubular neighborhood
the closure of U should deformation retract to N?
Theres a general fact here where the total space of a vector bundle deformation retracts onto the 0 section
locally the total space is B x F so if we take local coordinates x, v for B and F then H(x, v, t) = (x, (1 - t)v) is well defined and works
this works for any bundle?
It comes from like, the formal way that your tubular nbhd works
Like
a tubular neighborhood U of a closed submanifold S of M is equivalent to like
you want a bundle E -> S and a map f: E -> M
such that S -> E -> M (f composed with the section S -> E) commutes with the embedding S -> M and f has closed image in M
Like if U is a tubular neighborhood regarded as a subset of M containing S then it corresponds to a bundle with total space E which deformation retracts onto S
E embeds into M though, and its image is closed so its the closure of U, not U itself
this still confuses me
@gritty widget how are you defining a tubular neighborhood
(if you see this sometime soon you should probably ping me if/when you respond
)
If I could ask a vague question... How can I decide whether a topological space can be the covering space of another?
Homotopy groups can be a great test
You need to be able to realize pi1 of the cover as a subgroup of pi1 of the base
And pi_n has to agree
Can I just pick a generator $z$ of $C_n(D^n)$ such that $\partial z \in C_n(S^{n-1}) $ (so it becomes cycle in relative homology $H_n(D^n, S^{n-1})$)? Seems obvious but I can't really justify why.
bert
Wow, I think van kampen’s theorem has finally made me intuit pullbacks and pushouts
what does it mean for sth to be "identified"?
like the definition of a torus where the left and right side are identified and the top and bottom sides are also identified.
Quotient by equivalence relation which says that those corresponding things are equivalent
Thank you so much!
I'm confused about this deifnition again
it seems there is compatibility required
it seems that there is no compatibility required
What kind of compatibility do you want 
You usually also want pi circ h to be the usual projection U x R^n -> U i guess
Show that deleting a point from a manifold of dimension greater than 1 does not affect orientability of the manifold.
This definition makes it seem like
Every bundle is a trivial bundle
Why would it?
Trivial bundle would imply that E is globally B x R^n
is there something here that implies that
If you ask a question its probably best to elaborate on what definitions of orientability you're working with and what ideas you have/what specifically you are unsure of
i am reading hatcher's book, my current idea is to apply canonical isomorphisms. not sure i am on the right track
So have you defined it as a choice of generator of H_n(M; Z) where M is ur manifold of dimension n?
Or is orientability = admitting an oriented atlas?
these are equivalent but id just like to know which one you're working with 
first one
Oh okay
so basically your goal is to show that if M has dimension n > 1, H_n(M; Z) cong Z implies that H_n(M - p; Z) cong Z
right?
or i guess since you want to show it preserves non-orientability too you want an iff
yes, the orientability won't change after removing a point, if M is orientable, M-{x} is still orientable vice ver sa
Yeah thats what you want to show 
either i am missing something or i overthink the problem, will work on it after a break
Ok tbh i was kinda busy and idk where i was going with this proof i think its kind of hard to do it with the global homology 
But im going to leave these msgs up in memorial to my shame and just delete the actual thing or something
In defining the CW complex, the 0 skeleton is only ever defined as some discrete space
Does this mean we can take it to be as disgusting as we like, like R with the discrete topology?
And all theorems about CW complexes with such a disgusting 0 skeleton would still be true?
Yes but how can discrete be disgusting lol
I mean it’s disgusting in the sense that it doesn’t really fit with the nice intuition of a 0 skeleton as a “discrete set” whatever that means in my mind of points
I guess it’s because I’m viewing R as a continuum but with a discrete topology I should view it as separated points, just uncountably many of them
Yes
I just have trouble imagining an uncountable amount of separated points
That's not what continuum means
A continuum is a compact connected space, so more like [0, 1]
I wasn’t taking a formal notion of continuum
Rather the idea of a connected “continuous” line which fair enough a discrete topology also contains (it’s still a connected space) but it doesn’t have the same qualifies
Qualities*
This is all in an informal sentiment
Compactness isn't part of it
Or at least linear continuum is ordered set with archimedean property and suprema/infima
Connectedness is a consequence, compactness is one if it has global supremum and infimum
It would be weird if ℝ weren't a continuum lol
Oh apparently compact is part of continuum 
Given a free group F, why can I find a graph X st the fundamental group of X is F? Does it have to do with being able to write any graph as a wedge of circles that correspond to generators in F?
There doesn't exist a graph
Oh wait free group
Yes
Wedge of κ circles has fundamental group on κ generators
And every graph is homotopy equivalent to such a wedge
And every such wedge should be homotopy equivalent to some graph if there is justice in the world
Sweet thank you
Well if by graph we mean a 1 dim CW complex then every wedge of circles is a graph 
Also connected graph oops
Yeah that’s what I kind of realized just now since it’s all just boundaries of 2 discs
Not sure if that’s a good way to think about CW complexes though
In general you can count the number of edges of a graph - its minimal spanning tree
Fundamental group of the graph is then free group on as many generators as such edges
I get f(X) has to finite in Y so g(f(X)) is a finite set in X, but idk how to show it's not homotopic to 1_X, or f(g(Y)) ~ 1_Y
continuity in spaces other than lR feels impossible to me 
no
I'm almost saying that unironically
Ok here's another hint in addition to the one given, you might want to first think about what homotopies in either space look like
that I am unable to visualize 
Hint 3 a homotopy is a bunch of paths next to each other
I will be able to extend the finite set slowly to whole X, is that what you are saying
No, I'm saying that to understand homotopies in a space, you first have to understand paths in that space
true
what about arbitrary space, f:X-> Y. Thinking about paths will be of any help?
If you know about the structure of Y to some extent
Ok so you have 2 spaces X and Y here, and you wanna see if there's a homotopy equivalence between them
Which means you want to check if there exist functions f: X → Y and g: Y → X
Such that fg ≈ 1_Y and gf ≈ 1_X
And this is why you want to understand homotopies in X or homotopies in Y
So you can see what a function homotopic to the identity would look like
ye
Now do you see what paths in either space look like?
yes
What are they?
singletons
the same function
Yes, constant homotopies
So now every ≈ so far becomes a =
The question is then asking if these spaces are homeomorphic
oh that's what you meant by it
thanks
Anyone can provide a little hint on showing that if convex sets in R^m intersect non trivial in triples then they must have a common intersection?
I’m trying to set up some kind of function of the distance of a point in a k-th set to other convex sets to show it intersects with their intersection somehow so that the result would follow by induction but struggling
I feel I’m missing something super basic
What does intersect non trivially in triples mean
Every triple of sets intersects
Like we have a collection of convex sets and any 3 have non trivial intersection
Yeh
and you want to show that the entire thing has non trivial intersection
Yup
https://www.cut-the-knot.org/pythagoras/ConvexSets/HellysTheorem.shtml @shadow charm heres a proof
this is called hellys theorem
This is only R^2 though hm
Thank you 🙏
Should be adaptable lemme check
Hmm this uses radon’s theorem which I don’t really have access to I don’t think
I feel like I might be approaching this problem the wrong way
The original problem is showing that the union of open convex sets in R^m with non trivial intersection in triples is simply connected
If I can show they all intersect I can just use van kampen
But maybe there’s another way to go about it
Wait this doesn’t even really work because it considers intersections of more than 3 sets as soon as we are above R^2
Alright I’ll assume then that there is a counter example and that I must approach this differently
Wait I’m an idiot
Okay I’ve got another way at this
Thanks for the help
Is it true that D^2/{p} where p is not in the boundary is homotopic to a wedge of circles?
I’m trying to compute the fundamental group of the complement of a point in the torus (S1 x S1) and reasoned that D^2/{p} is homotopic to S1 but I’m not sure if this is enough to conclude that the punctured torus is homotopic to a wedge of circles ie the fundamental group is generated by <a,b|. >
I guess the punctured torus is homotopic to it’s 1 skeleton which is a wedge of circles is good enough?
To one circle
Do you mean T^2?
Ah I see I’m not sure how you plan to use the fact about D2
Depending on who you are proving this to yes this is enough
By D^2 I mean the 2 disc
Yeah, the first sentence is just confusing
It is of course homotopic to a wedge of circles in the sense that one circle is a wedge of circles
I think it’s 2 circles since the 2 disc has gluing instructions for a torus now that I think about it
My bad question was poorly asked
what's an example of a limit that the pi functor doesn't commute with
I feel like it doesn't preserve all limits
Okay I think I’m getting the hang of this type of argument I just need someone to check that what I’m doing makes sense
So I want to show that the complement of a finite set of points in R^n with n>=3 is simply connected
The case n=3 is trivial and I’ll be doing the rest by induction
So I suppose it’s true for n=k-1 and consider the case n=k: let X_k be the complement of k points x_1,…,x_k and X_k-1 of the first k-1 of these points
I consider a loop f in X_k based at some point x_0 in X_k
As a loop in $X_{k-1}$ this is hullhomotopic so there is a homotopy $F: I\times I \to X_{k-1}$ between $f$ and the constant loop $\gamma_{x_0}$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Now consider an open ball neighborhood B of x_k that doesn’t contain any of the other x_i
Its inverse image is open in $I \times I$ so a union of possibly infinitely many open rectangles
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
The inverse image of $x_k$ is compact in $Int(I\times I)$ and so contained in finitely many of these rectangles $(a_i, b_i) \times (c_i, d_i)$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
For each of these rectangles consider a map $G_i: I\times I \to \overline{B} - {x_k}$ that maps $\partial (I\times I)$to $\partial ((a_i, b_i) \times (c_i, d_i))$after reparameterizing the open rectangle
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Then the restriction of $F$ to the closure of the open rectangle is homotopic to $G_i$ rel $F(\partial( (a_i, b_i) \times (c_i, d_i)))$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Hence doing this for each rectangle homotopes $F$ to $F’$ in $X_k$ where $F’$ is a homotopy in $X_k$ between $f$ and $\gamma_{x_0}$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Looks fine
You could also use van kampen for the induction step
Cover the space with 2 open sets, both having fewer holes
I knew there was some way to do van kampen but couldn’t figure it out 
Since it’s the van kampen chapter
Like you would take X_k union X_k-1?
Wait no that wouldn’t help at all lol
Without loss of generality there is a point with highest x coordinate
Because you can rotate
Yep
Yeah makes sense thanks
fellas, if I have Y, a subspace of a metric space X, do I say a subset of Y is closed relative to Y if it is the intersection of Y with some closed subset of X?
or does that definition only work with open sets
Can someone explain to me the difference between the homotopy lifting property and it's special case, the path lifting property.
Homotopy lifting property
if f:Y->X and X has a covering space p:Z->X then there exists some g:Y->Z s.t. pg=f.
If Y is a point this is called the path lifting property. What does this have to do with a path?there's got to be some definition I'm not thinking about. I would assume if Y=[0,1] it would be called the path lifting property
As an alternative, does this suffice as a definition for "closed relative to Y"? $\
\text{E is closed relative to Y if whenever p is a limit point of E and p} \in Y \text{, then } p \in E \text{is also true.}$
strad
Yes
Merci beaucoup
what do people use symmetric products for
also idk any visualization for it
make new tensor from old tensor
oh lol
Wtf is a symmetric product
i didnt mean that one
i meant one from normal topology
apparently symmetric product in diff top is just Sym(T tensor U)
symmetrization of any tensor product
apparently there is a notion in topology where given topology X and S_n symmetric group
SP^n(X) = X^n/S_n where Sn x X^n -> X^n by (permutation, x)->permuation(x)
In algebraic topology, the symmetric product of a topological space X consists of unordered n-tuples of distinct points in X. The infinite symmetric product is the colimit of this process, and appears in the Dold–Thom theorem.
im trying to visualize this
0 avail
its like its treating X^n as a tensor
I think it appears in the construction of the free commutative monoid on X
point set question (its been a while):
Are pull backs of covers of a quotient space (w/ quotient space toppy) also covers of the base space?
(with pullback being pullback of the canonical map)
nvm thats a silly quesiton
Let f: X --> Y be a continuous surjective map of a compact space X onto a Hausdorff space Y. Then Y has the quotient topology Uf.
So fat I have that Y is compact Hausdorff.
Suppose f from S^1 to S^1 is null homotopic. Show f has a fixed point and maps atleast one point x to its antipode -x.
I already know of a way using the inclusion of s^1 into D^2 to force Brouwer fixed point theorem and the borusk ulam lemma but is there a more obvious way to do it?
what is Uf
Yeah that’s what I ended up doing since the induced homomorphism from fundamental group of S^1 has image of 0, using the real numbers as a covering space on to the other S^1 we also get 0, and then there exists a lift from S^1 to R and the IVT solves it from there
what is the relation? open in U_f iff open in Y implies open in X?
or wait bad phrasing
Any continuous f.
And surjective.
I think the definition of quotient topology is whatever topology makes f a quotient map
A quotient map takes preimages of open sets to open sets
Since y is hausdorff, pushing a compact set into Y via a cont map means it’s a compact set in hausdorff -> f(E sub X) is closed
Yeah?
I think I have that ao far. Surjective f => Y is compact.
what is E_X?
A compact set in a Hausdorff space is closed. A continuous map takes closed sets to closed sets. Then, try to partition into Y into some union of sets.
open set in quotient?
Union of open points?
what open points?
Do you know what it means for a set to be saturated?
arent all points closed in Y
No.
wikipedia gives cool definition
C = f^-1(f(C))
for C a subset of domain
so like restriction of X to a saturated set is injective
X is compact. Write it as a finite sub collection of an open covering. Each one of these is closed by argument above. Then, there’s a natural partition of Y into disjoint subsets whose pre image is X
You know what I’ve confused myself I need 10 minutes to google some stuff
why would the partition of Y be natural?
cant the open covering map to subsets that meet?
or do we use hausdorff here?
Yes
- a continuous map from a compact space to a Hausdorff space is closed
- a closed continuous surjection is a quotient map
1 and 2 imply it's a quotient map
How is it closed?
And thanks!
Blitz
Ohhh wow
yeah. I usually work with metrizable spaces so for me it's enough that domain is compact, but this is how you do it in generality
How does this imply that Y has the quotient topology?
what is "this"
Showing that f is a quotient map
well, it doesn't exactly have quotient topology, but it's homeomorphic to a quotient of X
Does closed = open for maps?
nope
Then how does this make f open?
it doesn't, it makes it a quotient map
quotient maps don't have to be open
Hmm
For example, $x\mapsto \exp(2\pi i)$ with $x\in [0, 1]$ is a quotient map from $[0, 1]$ to $\mathbb{S}^1$
Blitz
it's closed, surjective, continuous, but it's not open
Are you a grad student?
to give you an example of a map that's an open quotient but is not closed, we can cook up an example using products and projection maps
I think $\pi:\mathbb{R}^2\to\mathbb{R}$ given by $\pi(x, y) = x$ should work
Blitz
for example, consider graph of tan in (-pi/2, pi/2), then it's closed and its projection is an open interval
so that's a map which is open continuous and surjective, but not closed
Thanks for all the help!
Could I ask another question?
sure
Thx
So, if I take S1 x I over the eq. relation (x, y) ~ (s, t) iff xt = ys, how would I show this is homeomorphic to the unit disc?
And why would I need the quotient at all?
I can get it visually.
Take the map $f:\mathbb{S}^1\times \mathbb{I}\to B^2$ given by $f(x, t) = xt$
Blitz
B^2 is the unit disc? 👀
this is a quotient map, and from the fundamental property of quotient maps, $B^2$ is homeomorphic to the quotient of $\mathbb{S}^1\times \mathbb{I}$ by the "kernel" of $f$, so precisely by the relation $\sim$
Blitz
2-dimensional unit disk, yes
Hmmm
It's (S1 x I)/~
where kernel of a map $g$ means something like $\text{ker}(g) = {(x, y) : g(x) = g(y)}$
Blitz
so it's a little different than in linear algebra
Okay...
So basically take (x, y) in the S1 x I and map it to xt in the unit disc?
How does that work?
S^1 x I is compact, and the map is continuous and surjective
so it's a quotient map
But you have to use (S1 x I)/~, right?
use it?
Ohh, show S1 x I ~= (S1 x I)/~?
The problem is to show that (S1 x I)/~ ~= unit disc
that $f$ is a quotient map implies that $((\mathbb{S}^1\times\mathbb{I})/\sim)\ \cong B^2$
Blitz
Huh...
How is thay implied?
it's a general fact
if $f:X\to Y$ is a quotient map then $Y\cong X/\text{ker}(f)$, and the homoemorphism is given by $\bar{f}([x]) = f(x)$ for $[x]$ an equivalence class of $x\in X$
Blitz
I see.
I have never been introduced to that concept.
you should read a book about general topology
I'm in my first intro to topology class.
Sorry.
So
Bascially
I can use that map to show (S1 x I)/~ ~= (S1 x I) to start?
use LaTeX, I don't understand
The quotient is homeo to the space?
depends on what space
(S1 x I) is homeo to (S1 x I)/~
nope
B^2 is contractible while S^1 x I isn't, which proves the two spaces aren't homeomorphic
I'll have to think about this some more and read over what you've wrote to understand it fully, but thank you for your help.
S^1 x I/~ is homeomorphic to B^2, this was settled already
but B^2 is not homeomorphic to S^1 x I
the reason is basically that, we can shrink B^2 to a point, but we can't shrink S^1 x I to a point, the reason begin we can't do it with S^1
How can I prove it wiyhout using kernels?
lol
We haven't used that in class.
I just defined it
Can I use compactness or Hausdorffness somehow?
I mean, I don't think that's the solution he wanted.
why don't you write your own solution
Yeah...
Sorry, I'll work on it some more. Thanks for giving me ideas.
Hi, does anyone know how to compute $\pi_1(S(O(p) × O(q)))$?
sheeppunk
For context, I'm trying to find the fundamental group of the Lie group $SO(p, q)$ by examining the fundamental group of its maximal compact subgroup$S(O(p) \cross O(q))$.
sheeppunk
Homotopy equivalence preserves the amount of path-components of a space
Is it true that any two subspaces of R are homotopic iff they have the same amount of path-components
Should be, any connected subset of ℝ is contractible
Would the space {1,1/2,…,1/n,…} be homotopic to {1,2,3,…} though
Maybe they were asking for finitely many path components though
hmm? do you not need to add 0 to the first one for them to be nonhomotopic?
uhhh
Ye
Yeah should’ve specified oop
Yeah I mean I think homotopy equivalent and homeomorphic are the same in these cases no?
yes i suppose so
idk when these are the same
presumably for totally disconnected spaces?
Ye since no non trivial paths
mhm
ok then i should have said totally path disconnected i guess
those might be the same thing
Why do we need a notion of connectedness and path connectedness
Is connectedness useful?
(As in not path connectedness)
It's a property preserved by continuity and lets you examine functions out of a space
Yeah but it feels like connected spaces that aren’t path connected exist for counter example’s sake
Functions out of a space correspond to pairs of functions out of any separation of it 
I probably ought to read up on connectedness before opening my mouth lol
Because in ℝ^n these turn out to be equivalent for open sets and most of the time when we work with functions we take their domains to be open subsets
Responding to this
There are plenty of things which should obviously be connected which are not path connected
And which are relevant outside of point set
E.g. functions with bounded / unbounded variation come up all over analysis
on the flip side if all you care about is algebraic topology, path connected and connected tend to coincide
so you are not entirely off base
I would agree both notions are important, though
I see
I've used this recently to show that the topologists sine curve is not an absolute neighbourhood retract
What's an absolute NR?
And you still want to talk about their connectedness properties a lot. E.g. sometimes I want to say that a weierstrass function has the intermediate value property to pick a relevant point even if its image is not path connected
Oh yeah moldi theres our example
Image of a sufficiently nasty weierstrass function is connected and totally path disconnected

Why is it’s image not path connected
It wiggles too fast
It's a space which is a neighbourhood retract of any space it embeds to as a closed subspace
Depends on the weierstrass function
But isn’t the restriction of the function to an interval a path between the two points



is the instructor you
