#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 282 of 1
Haynes Miller's notes has this
So I think it's generated by $\partial\iota_2$ where $\iota_2:\Delta^2\to D^2$
@cosmic beacon
Something like that
Take the standard map from I to S¹ that goes around once
This is a cycle
Has no boundary
But is also not a boundary
Hatcher has a section that explicitly finds the generators for all H_i(S^n)
You're saying this is the generator?
Yes
But I just showed here that the loop going around twice is homologous to the loop going around once
Though it's not easy to prove that it is I think
Did I do something wrong
I remember we showed H^1 being isomorphic to the abelianisation of the fundamental group for path connected spaces, which allowed us to conclude H^1(S^1) being isomorphic to Z, but the proof that the fundamental group of S^1 is Z is somewhat tricky if I recall correctly
I mean I know how to calculate it
I'm just trying to understand what H_1(S^1) actually looks like on the level of singular homology
Like the equivalency class of what cycle(s) specifically generates H_1(S^1)?
the simple loop, I'm 90% sure you did sth wrong up there.
Ok, can you try and point it out for me?
I was light on the details, admittedly, but [\partial\sigma_2-\partial\sigma_2'=\sigma_1-\sigma_1'+c_1^1-c_1^1+c_1^1-c_1^1=\sigma_1-\sigma_1'] where $\sigma_2$ and $\sigma_2'$ are singular $2$-simplices, $\sigma_1$ and $\sigma_1'$ are the paths that go around once and twice respectively
@cosmic beacon
lmao sorry for the edits
you haven't given such a $\sigma_2$ you just assumed there exists a $\sigma_2$ with that property, which I think is wrong
Dr. J. Stockfish
I don't see why not
$\sigma_1$, $\sigma_1'$, and $c_1^1$ all are paths with both endpoints at $1$
@cosmic beacon
well try constructing one and then you maybe see why
Well, I can give it explicitly
Take the triangle
collapse one edge to a point
you get a line
wrap that line into a circle
Hmm, actually yea I guess you're right
since one of the edges of the triangle would have to go around twice
the problem is you can't "poke a hole" into the 2-simplex, as that would make the map not be continuous anymore
Where did I do anything that would imply I had to poke a hole?
the assumption that such a sigma2 exists would have to make you poke a hole into the 2 simplex, but maybe forget about what I said then if it is already clear to you
Yea, that makes sense, thanks
So the generator of H_1(S^1) is just the coset of the path that goes around once
yep
Hey, can someone confirm my suspicion that the proof in this link uses axiom of dependent choice? (In the part where he says wash, rinse, repeat and gets a sequence)
@empty grove ?
Yes
Whenever you "inductively construct a sequence" you are using dependent choice unless at each step you are just adding a canonical thing rather than choosing one out of many
But you really don't need to worry about what uses what form of choice
It's a pointless exercise unless you are just trying to understand what choice is out of your own interest. It will not help you math unless you foundations
Also metric spaces might belong in #advanced-analysis
Ok thank you! Yes, I am trying to understand choice out of my interest. I put it here because it's part of my topology class.
does anyone know if there is a solution manual to Bredon’s Topology and Geometry? I’m teaching myself topology for fun and there’s this practice problem that I’m sure is wrong
specifically this one
here’s my counterexample
Hmm, that looks intriguingly convincing.
(I can't follow your argument, which seems to be rather deficient in prose descriptions of what you're doing -- but the counterexample itself looks good).
show that the complement is open
For each point p in X\A you want to show that it's an interior point of X\A. Now use the Hausdorff property on p versus every point in A ...
Give ${0,1}$ the discrete topology and give ${0,1}^\omega$ the product topology. Am I right to say that the set of binary sequences in ${0,1}^\omega$ representing rationals in $[0,1]$ is a $\Sigma^0_3$ subset?
wy
my reasoning: there are countably many binary sequences representing rationals (they are determined by a non-recurring part and a recurring part). each binary sequence is a countable intersection of opens, which is $\Pi^0_2$
wy
this should be $\Sigma^0_3$ instead
wy
I honestly find arguments harder to follow if they’re written in words than symbols but maybe that’s just me
but do you think my math is right?
No idea -- as I said, I cannot follow it.
I don’t see why it’s hard to follow, I showed every single step
I used these definitions
Is there a less-overkill way to show that exactness of the following at $A$ implies $A=0$ other than using the five lemma?
[0\to A\to 0]
@cosmic beacon
wait
sorry
dumb question
The image of the left map is the kernel of the right map is 0, so the right map is injective, which is only possible if A is 0

Yeah that seems wrong, there needs to be a condition saying that if N ∈ N(x) contains y, then N ∈ N(y). That should fix it
If I have two singular $n$-simplices $\sigma,\pi:\Delta^n\to X$ such that they're homotopy equivalent, are they necessarily homologous?
@cosmic beacon
Do you mean homotopic?
Instead of h equivalent
I think yes, because the homotopy is a map from the prism to X, triangulate the prism to get an n+1 chain which has the difference of those 2 n-simplices as its boundary
How could I prove that if $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is a continuous function with $f(f(x)) = x$, then $f$ has a fixed point?
darkninja175
f(x) - x has to change sign
yeah, I found that f(x) was injective, and moreover monotonic. So I was trying to work with that.
Are you saying I should use IVT?
Yes
I was trying to work on a proof by contradiction, but i went weird and I don't know why
ignore the weird phrasing, just the implication seems to imply that no x in R works at all or something
Is the fact that I thought monotonicity of f implied it would preserve the ordering < a problem ?
monotonic means either order preserving or order reversing
ah, that makes sense. Just depends on the direction of monotonicity
Is there anything stopping me from using injectivity of f(x) to simply say like, it's injective so something must map to 0?
Seems too easy of course
ah, I'd need bijectivity to make statments like that I guess
So couldn't this question be re-phrased as: "If a continuous function is it's own inverse, does it ever cross the line y=x?".
ye
So I need to kinda use the inequalities I stated to show that there must exists points on "either side" of y=x, and then use IVT to show f(x)-x crosses 0, implying the fixed point
Would it be correct to say that any continuous, injective, monotonically decreasing function defined on all of R will always cross the line y=x at one point.
Yes. But I think you don't even need injectivity
For a proof: consider g(x) = f(x)-x, because f is monotonically decreasing it must be bounded from above in the interval [0, infinity) by L := f(0). For x>L, we have f(x) =< L < x, so g(x) < 0. We can apply the same argument on -f(-x) which is monotonically decreasing as well, so there exists some x s.t -f(-x) < x => f(-x) > -x, so g(-x) > 0. Apply IVT and done
well of course here you need them to be cycles in order for them to be homologous.
trying to prove the ham sandwich theorem in R^3 and struggling to get a function to apply borsuk-ulam to
a hint would be appreciated 😔
i was hoping i could extend the theorem to: for a map $f:S^2 \times \mathbb{R}^3 \to\mathbb{R}^2$ there exists $x\in S^2, y\in \mathbb{R}^3$ such that $f(x,y)=f(-x,y)$ but i doubt that's true
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
because then i can identify every point in the domain with a plane and take the map that gives the measure on the two sides of the plane
tried to simplify by looking at R^2 first but didnt get much success either
Kosher Nostra Mashgiach ShiN
for every $y\in \mathbb{R}^3$ there is such an $x$, becuase the function $f(\cdot, y): S^2\to \mathbb{R}^2$ is continuous, and use Borsuk-Ulam
Porphyrion
The idea makes sense, but you might need to be careful since these q might overlap with each other and there might be infinitely many points mapping to the same one etc
But since the preimage of a point in the image of the path p is a closed subset of [0,1], hence compact, it has minimum and maximum, and it suffices to look at the q for these
so this should take care of the case where the path intersects itself in a discrete set
So I am doing a sort of applied thing where stuff doesnt match up ideally so this might be a weird question. Anyways I have a subset of a topological group that is specially defined so that it is always acting on this space I have out of all the elements of the group
Does any problem arise with considering this to be a group action on the space
Since it's a subset of the topological group, and not the whole group or subgroup
It seems like it might conflict with the definition of action but I'm not 100%
is an open subset of locally compact space also locally compact?
if not, what would be a counterexample?
i would appreciate an answer for both of the following definitions:
- every point of X has a local base of compact neighbourhoods
- every point of X has a compact neighbourhood
if you are using the compact nbhd def of locally compact, this is immediate
are you looking for a proof of equivalence of these two definitions?
if so, do you have any thoughts about it?
As far as i know they are equivalent for hausdorff spaces, while in general compact nbhd def implies the other one. Correct me if im wrong.
How about the second definition?
my b, for some reason i thought it was hausdorff as well (locally compact hausdorff spaces are regular which makes the proof pretty short with def 2)).
I'm very confused by local compactness. Actually, after rereading my notes, I am actually most interested in another definition of local compactnes: every point has an arbitrarily small compact nbh (not necessarily closed)
I don't think this works, for example in R you can have a sequence with no convergent subsequences without that property if you consider $a_{2n}=n$, $a_{2n+1}=n+1/n$
Emma
But as a hint for something you can do, do you know the theorem that the intersection of a descending chain of compact subsets is non-empty?
But there are other ways to do it
Sorry you can use the theorem with what you said over here
No
(it's worth it to try proving the theorem, it's not too hard)
Yeah
I guess a better statement of the theorem is intersection of descending chain of closed subsets of a compact space is non-empty
(they are equivalent statements)
Fun fact Cantor originally proved this
Maybe its also good to know that for a metric space X you have the following equivalent statements:
- X is compact in the sense of finite subcovers of open covers
- X is sequentially compact, i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence
- X is complete and totally bounded, i.e. every Cauchy sequence converges, and for every eps > 0 you can cover X with finitely many eps balls
Yeah it means $S_0 \supseteq S_1 \supseteq S_2 ...$
Emma
Yes
I don't think this is the simplest argument btw, I suggested this because I was trying to build off what you were saying
But you should be able to make it work
Yeah that works
I don't really know offhand what the standard argument is, I think this may actually just another way of stating it. I think what you usually do is you diagonalize (you keep taking further subsequences which are contained in smaller and smaller balls and then you take the diagonal sequence which is a Cauchy sequence)
And you can prove that compact metric spaces are complete so Cauchy sequences converge
But this is basically a more topological instead of analytic way of doing diagonalization
I can go into more detail about diagonalization if you want
Sure
(when I say diagonal I mean taking the sequence which is the nth element of the nth subsequence)
Is there any setting in which
Hom(A,Hom(B,C))=Hom(B,Hom(A,C)) makes sense
im trying to understand this
This is generally the case in a closed symmetric monoidal category, since Hom(A,B=>C) is in bijection with Hom(A tensor B, C).
Sorry im still a bit confused
Assuming you're happy with rewriting Hom(B,C) to the internal hom B=>C.
(Your screenshot is beyond me, I'm afraid).
we can write the suspension of a space via a homotopy pushout
can we write it as a regular pushout?
but by replacing the points with discs or some contractibel space
Nobody
and for example
the mappying cyclinder of S^1 to a point
is indeed the disc
thank you
thanks alot actaully
this really cleared up a bunch
you really said all the right words
i had so many vauge ideas floating around
i knew there was some idea about
replacement up to homotopy
i knew there was some realtion to homtopy pushout
i knew something about such a think being this double mapping cylinder
long story short
thanks again
if i take the regular pushout
of S1 mapping into two point
is this pushout trivial
or S1
Nobody
no i should go figure this out
yeah
i am bad for jumping around
well i have seen this before
and i know how to figure this out
but i am bad for letting the neuroplasiticy laziness kick in
Do any of you know of any compact oriented 4-manifolds whose Euler characteristic vanishes, but whose signature (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Signature_(topology)) does not vanish?
In the field of topology, the signature is an integer invariant which is defined for an oriented manifold M of dimension divisible by four.
This invariant of a manifold has been studied in detail, starting with Rokhlin's theorem for 4-manifolds, and Hirzebruch signature theorem.
Apparently there's a unique definition of the Steenrod square on Cech cohomology which coincides with the Steenrod squares on finite cell complexes. Steenrod writes about this a little bit but I don't understand it since I haven't read the whole thing. Could someone maybe elaborate on how one would do this or post a source where I could read up on this?
this is what Steenrod writes
lmao literally googled up the definition a couple minutes ago 
I just want to see how you can generalize the squares to different cohomology theories
I learned Cech in AG this sem and I struggled 
ye there's a lot of things going on
but for now I will just read the definition and hope that I get through it without knowing too much about the actual theory
specifically I haven't read about how Steenrod introduced Sq^i on the cohomologhy structure of the nerves and it would take too long to try to find it in this pdf I think
lmao where could I find them? 
they should start pinning every rant
has so it's easy to find
holy shit so much cat theory 😵💫
I agree with this 
I'm way too noob to understand what's going 
F
Maybe some time in the future 😌
Dropped some egg yolk on my screen
and then kept swipe typing after that like a dumbass and now the whole screen's sticky 
lmao 
My brother was hogging the bathroom so I had to go out and use the tap outside in 5° weather to wash it off 
Oh
We also have a kitchen 

ez breakfast
Literally 1984
Can someone explain to me why do we care about bounded sequences having convergent subsequences? For example in the context of Sobolev spaces, how does that fact help us solve variational problems? (I am reading chapter 3 of brezis functional analysis and i'm struggling to understand the significance)
Probably better in #advanced-analysis for this particular instance. I'll ping you there
Oh nevermind that channel is in use
make a thread smh
So the idea here is that when you want to minimize something, you don't know if it actually has a minimum. If it has real values, you do know though that it will have an infimum: any set of real numbers has one.
As long as we know that infimum is not -infinity, i.e. that the quantity is bounded below, we then can guarantee using the definition of inf that there is a sequence f_n of inputs to the thing we want to minimize so that they approach that minimum value.
But even if we can show this sequence is bounded (we should be able to if the thing we're minimizing is a proxy for some kind of size), we cant guarantee that it actually converges to some f which achieves the minimum.
Well, it doesnt matter if we pass to a subsequence. The values under the minimized object will still converge to the minimum.
So we might try to look for subsequences which get us a proper limit f.
Think about having a bucket with two wells, and you try to find a minimal position for a ball to sit in. You might accidentally pick locations back and forth between being near either of the two wells over and over, and not actually converge to one or the other. But when you take a subsequence, you can force convergence to one (or the other).
(not always either one, but at least one).
The situation in infinite dimensions is a lot hairier cause no longer does closed and bounded imply compact (convergence of subsequences of bounded sequences). So in functional analysis we need to resort to weakinening the topology so that more stuff converges.
This is a really important idea with a ton of consequences and nuances especially from the functional analysis perspective! I think it's one of the things that took me the longest to absorb - especially the fact that it's natural to pass to weak convergence, and to not expect strong convergence in general (and that sometimes it's natural to be able to upgrade from weak to strong).
So
One characterization of continuity between metric spaces is that
If x_n -> x
Then f(x_n) -> f(x)
Right?
makes sense
It's one of a few ways to prove functions are continuous, that they map convergent sequences to convergent sequences
So
Oh wait
Tbh I just guessed what number 14 was lmfao
And I was gonna make it a lot harder
So let's say f and g are two functions
What's d(F(f),F(g))?
well it wouldn't work would it? shouldnt it be p(F(f), F(g))
gotcha
Yeah so what's rho(F(f),F(g))?
gimme a sec I'm getting my keyboard so I can type properly
Sounds good
$\abs{\int^b_af(x)dx - \int^b_ag(x)dx}$
maximo
i think it's that
single integral?
Yup
$\abs{\int^b_a(f(x) - g(x))dx}$
maximo
sorry im not part of this at all but this makes sense, I learned this formula but never understood why it exists
what are the other criteria for continuity between metric spaces
I'll answer you soon g
Good, so now here's something good maximo
How can we bound this expression above?
It may not be clear what I'm getting at and that's fine, if not I'll tell you what I'm thinking of
But if you can guess the next step that's better so I'm leaving it vague for a moment
Good guess but not quite, it would actually be bigger than that
Because without the absolute value the integral would either be the same or negative
oh right 😂
But you're thinking in the right direction
How else can we play with absolute values?
well just from how d(f, g) would look i assume we want the aboslute value inside the integral
Smart
several people
Do you see why?
yes i do now
At least heuristically, if not proof (though proving it to yourself is good)
But yeah so we've just proven
rho(F(f),F(g)) \le d(f,g)
That implies continuity, you can use a delta-epsilon argument at that point
So now gmod
For metric spaces I'd say there are a few things to note about continuity
First off, there's delta-epsilon
This turns out to be equivalent to a criterion involving sequences, namely that f is continuous if and only if for every sequence x_n converging to some x, we have that f(x_n) converges to f(x)
Also, f is continuous if and only if the preimage of every open set is open
The "preimage of open set is open" is what generalizes to topological spaces without a metric. Obv delta-epsilon by design only makes sense for metric spaces
Sequences... kinda generalizes, there's something called a net which is more general than a sequence, and which also has a notion of "convergence"
oh okay
And it turns out a function between topological spaces is continuous iff the image of a convergent net is convergent
alright
There's something called a net which generalizes a sequence
And which has its own notion of convergence
oh interesting
And a lot of characterizations of stuff in metric spaces using sequences will hold for general topological spaces if you replace the word "sequence" with "net"
Sure thing fam
to be sure i'm understanding this properly, once we show the inequality above, we can say
for an arbitrary epsilon > 0, we take a delta = epsilon > 0. then for arbitrary functions f and g in X, d(f, g) < delta implies rho(F(f), F(g)) < epsilon
probably worded poorly but is that how i should go about showing continuity now?
Yup
I believe so since, for being f surjective, $\forall A \subseteq X: f(f^{-1}A)=A$.
I actually hold on, I don't think this is true, f is not an open map in general
but don't take me too serious since I just started studying the topic yesterday :>
ameliaan
ohh that's right
I think you can construct a counterexample the following way
take the interval
[0,3]
then define an equivalence relation on that set
for x in [0,1] we say x is equivalent to x+2
then look at the set [0,1) union (2,3] which is open in [0,3]
however its image is not open looking at the projection map since the boundary points cause trouble
@fervent bridge
the projection map is f, sending every element in [0,3] to its equivalence class
and Y just has the quotient topology as defined up there
Y is homeomorphic to S1 btw
what do you mean with S1 Stockfish? I'm trying to follow your counterexample
S1 is the circle
but endowed with which topology?
standard euclidean
ok ! I'll think about it
look at the equivalence class of 3, you cannot find an open neighbourhood of that equivalence class in Y, such that it is fully contained in the image of [0, 1) u (2, 3] since as you'll see it is a boundary point
yes
you'll probably come across that topic again since saturation is somewhat important, so that looks at the case when the quotient map is indeed open (images of open sets are open)
Hey
I have a finite space X
I must show X is metrizable iff it is discrete
Assuming X is metrizable we must show every {x} is open for each x in X
clearly, since X is metrizable there's a metric d such that x in d(x,x) which is contained in {x}
does this prove the first conditional?
I'm confused. How does this show {x} is open?
Your proof makes no mention of finiteness. It's not true that {1/2} is open in [0, 1], since we take open sets to be given by balls of positive radius.
Sure, but there is no ball of radius 0, that would just be the empty set (since d(x, y) < 0 is impossible)
So you need to find a radius such that x is on its own. Finiteness of the metric space is really important here.
I don't understand how can we fit an open ball in {x}
The author didn't talked about finite metric spaces , let me check it
Let's think about two points, if we had the space {2, 5} with the usual metric, then since d(2, 5) = 3, we can take the ball of radius, say, 1 around the point 2. Since there are only two points, d(2, y) < 1 is only satisfied if y = 2 (not if y = 5).
So the ball of radius 1 about 2 is just {2}
It's important to restrict our attention to this metric space, not to balls in somewhere like R.
So the question is, at a given point, how do you pick a distance which is going to exclude all the other points in your metric space?
taking eps/2 where eps is the smallest distance to another point
Exactly
so for {1,2,3} d(1,2) = 1 and d(1,3) = 2 we take eps = 0.5
Yep
Why is it important that the metric space be finite for this to work?
Well, sometimes it works anyway (like with Z)
because we don't have infinite balls?
or is it because a finite metric space has a finite number of elements? Then we could pick the one that's closest to x and take the half of their distance
Thanks
Yeah. In an infinite metric space there could be no closest element to x. If we have like {0} U {1/n : n in N}, then any ball around 0 contains infinitely many points cause points get closer and closer to 0.
But in finite metric spaces there's always a closest element.
Oh interesting
I was trying to figure if the following statement is true: If a topological space $X$ is disconnected and $P$ is one of its connected components, then $P$ and $X - P$ are a separation of space $X$.
Matejp1
My thinking is that this is not true, since components do not need to be open; they are always closed (only if there are only finitely many components, this also implies that they are open)
But I can't find a specific example of a situation, where we have non-open components. Can someone help me with that?
just take the rational numbers with the Euclidean metric
the only connected components are singletons
so for example {2} and Q - {2} are not a separation of Q?
yeah
is Q a connected set?
no
oh you can split them
by smaller than some irrational
and larger than some irrational
correct
ok I have one more question
If $X$ is Hausdorff such that there exist two compact subsets $K', K'' \subseteq X$, such that $K' \cap K'' = \emptyset$ and $K' \cup K'' = X$, then $X$ is disconnected.
Matejp1
I can't think of a counterexample or why this would be true
the complements are open...
I'm still stuck on this. I know that you can extend the Steenrod squares to singular cohomology by geometric realizations and blablabla and I suppose this is used here somehow but I'm too noob to see it
So when Steenrod writes "Since we have introduced Sq^i and P^i into the cohomology structure of the nerve of each covering..." I guess they mean that we have introduced Sq^i on the Cech cohomology of on open cover with values in a presheaf H^n(U; F). I guess that this fact comes from that we can extend Sq^i to singular cohomology but I don't know how. And then I guess that since Sq^i is natural, there's some cat theory theorem that says something about direct limits and naturality that allows us to extend Sq^i to the direct limit of H^n(U;F)
this might be a very stupid question because I know almost nothing about the Cech stuff and I only read the wikipedia page about it
Did you ever find out about that
Cohomology being a polynomial ring?
no actually not lmao, I asked my prof and he didn't know anything about it

We must show a topological space is metrizable
First we define a metric on the space, then we must show that the collection of open balls regarding this metric is a base for the topological space
thus for any finite discrete space, say (X, PX)
we must show that for any x in O (O subset of PX), there's an open ball, B(x,e), such that x in B(x,e) subset of O
And for any x in B(y,e) cap B(z,f), there's another ball B(k,p) such that x in B(k,p) subset B(y,e) cap B(z,f)
Right?
The first thing already implies this so no need to show this separately
In general for this kind of problem you need to show that every open set is a union of the claimed basis elements and every union of the claimed basis elements is open
The second condition here is trivial since everything is open
So
for the discrete topology (X, PX)
we define a metric space on X, say (X, d)
we must show for each O in PX, there's a collection of open balls (regarding the metric) such that O = collection of balls
And that each collection of open balls is open? (for the "every union of the claimed basis elements is open
")
@empty grove
Yes
When you say O = collection of those balls
I hope you mean union of a collection
And as I said this is trivially true because everything is open
indeed
Thus we are only required to prove that each O in PX, there's a union of open balls (regarding the metric) such that O = U (balls)
hello!
so i have two squares here and the matching arrows represent sides that are being identified
I understand that the left orange figure represents the real projective plane RP^2, I would like someone to verify my belief that the right figure means exactly the same thing
they are the same picture 
in the sense that the continuous image of compact spaces are compact, yes
Connectedness of each equivalence class should follow from connectedness of G
And continuity of this action
Hausdorff
I think the action map G × D → D should be continuous
Because it's a restriction of the action map GL_n(ℂ) × ℂⁿ → ℂⁿ and I'm pretty sure that's smooth
I think that should follow from the continuity of phi_g for all g
No
You would at least need the assignment g ↦ phi_g to also be continuous for that
Yeah I think it's an iff
If both things are continuous then so is the action map
Because everything here happens to be a nice topological space
So you can curry stuff
This is also pretty easy to prove actually
Hmm I'll try
have you guys ever heard someone talk about 1/x being "discontinuous at 0"? or just general alternative terminology for continuity especially when it comes to real functions. I know that is not standard at all from a mathematical perspective, but some textbooks (maybe for non mathematicians) even use it, and it is also being mentioned on the wikipedia page of continuity
They probably mean that there is no extension of 1/x that is continuous at 0
yeah but with their terminology they will say stuff like 1/x is not continuous
or 1/x is continuous everywhere except at zero, or continuous on its domain, which is kind of redundant.
it feels like this could cause lots of confusion
although I agree with what you're saying, I don't think it causes much confusion because it's a technical point that really doesn't matter to most people except mathematicians who already know well enough to not be tripped up by it
I agree with this too, however sometimes people are really curious and I am asking this because I just had this discussion with someone. a highschooler who basically asked whether this is continuous or not and then it turned out that the terminology taught was conflicting
yeah that's a pain, it doesn't help that connected and continuous are separate concepts either haha
I was fairly disturbed when I found out about this "alternative terminology" used in textbooks
nah, textbooks being bad is a given, just tell the kid his books trash and you're right and strong arm him into victory
well if the teacher insists on the textbook we kinda got a problem
hand-to-hand combat
mathematics battle like in the good ol days, we're sending each other 30 problems to solve
"Oh highschool math teacher it appears you're not well versed in melee combat? KA-POW!"
The yellow name basically means that mero is endorsed by the server so you might as well take this as advice from the mods and mods are never wrong 
so the yellow name basically means every text you send has been peer reviewed already
yes
Hi again
I haven't proved the continuity of the action yet
but also I don't see how this implies connectedness of every equivalence class?
Ah yes, and G x {z} is connected as G and {z} both are connected
Right
There is a thing that you should be slightly careful about when doing something like this
So I should try to start with proving that this is continuous?
When we say G x {z}
We usually mean the subset of G x D under the subspace topology
Whereas you just used it in the sense of take subspaces first, then the product
Product and subspace operations commute so here it works out
But yeah that is correct lmao
Yep makes sense
Hello, I'm wondering about the following question
Source: me
I still don't get this plz help
The problem with being faster than light is that you are always in the dark 
when Steenrod writes "The cech cohomology groups are obtained by ordering the open coverings according to whether one covering refines another, taking the nerves of the coverings, and then taking the direct limit of the cohomology groups of the nerves" it feels like he says that the cech cohomology groups of an open cover is always isomorphic to the simplicial cohomology of the nerves and I don't know why this would be true
I guess I can kind of see it if we use a constant sheaf but not in the general setting
this is really getting on my nerves 
Interesting
Let $X$ be a cellular complex and let $e^k = \varphi^k(\mathring{D}^k)$ be a $k$-cell. The closure $\bar{e}^k$ in $X$ is sometimes called a $closed$ $k$-cell. Show that $\bar{e}^k = \varphi^k(D^k)$ and that $\bar{e}^k$ is compact. Is the closed cell $\bar{e}^k$ a homeomorphism image of the closed disc $D^k$?
eM
I was thinking since $D^k$ is closed and bounded, by the Heine-Borel theorem, $D^k$ is compact, and apply the fact $\varphi$ is a homeomorphism, but I totally forgot $\varphi$ is a homeomorphism only on the interior of the disk. Besides, had I assumed otherwise, that would've answer the last question.
Would you suggest using sequential continuity? I'm getting nowhere with open sets and epsilons
am I really stupid or is the topology you get when you quotient any group G by an open, normal subgroup N the discrete topology??
let x be a point, then xN is open, q(xN) is just a point in the quotient group quotient map is open => all points are open?
Use the fact that polynomials are continuous
You will not need to get your hands dirty
That sounds right, open subgroups are also closed so every coset has open preimage
or more like
All cosets of an open subgroup are also open
Hausdorff
Interesting
but I'm not very convinced with it
i.e. pi_i \circ phi is continuous (??)
ok lmao I was asked to prove that if G is totally disconnected and N is a normal, open subgroup then G/N is totally disconnected
yes
how!!! it's a polynomial of the entries, that's all we know
polynomials in t are continuous in t
but this is a polynomial of the entries of g and z
polynomials of entries are really polynomials of projections
Taking an entry is the same as taking a projection
And addition and multiplication are smooth
On C
Projections are continuous, so polynomials of projections are also continuous
That's actually neat
wait it is over then? so phi restricted to G x {z} is continuous for every z
and wow done
Yep
thanks!!

Can someone help me try & understand the answer to this post?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/425007/union-of-connected-subsets-is-connected-if-intersection-is-nonempty
I'm confused as to how the contradiction comes up (in the answer with the checkmark). I think it's because A and B are relatively open to that big union.
$A$ and $B$ are relatively open to $\cup\mathscr{F}$
(𒀭)
I'm not entirely sure about how the last line violates the relative open-ness.
RIght, so it'd make sense that any set in F would be a subset in the union of A and B.
right?
is the union of any two connected sets also connected?
I feel like I'm missing something big here...
The idea is that F is in mathcal{F}, hence connected, but A and B are disjoint so A cap F and B cap F are too
the contradiction is that A cap F and B cap F are both non-empty when they are disjoint and F = (A cap F) cup (B cap F)
which implies that F is disconnected
and they are both open subsets of F
I really wish the question didn't use two F's...
mathscr{F} is a set of sets, F is an element of mathscr{F}
$A\cap F$ and $B\cap F$ are both non-empty and disjoint, and $F=(A\cap F)\cup(B\cap F)\subset\mathscr{F}$, and that implies $F$ is disconnected. But, since $F\subset\mathscr{F}$, we have that $F$ is connected?
(𒀭)
Ultramothematics
and they are both open subsets of F
Yes
Nope coproducts are just disjoint unions with the obvious topology
You can see it from the fact that the forgetful functor from Top to Set has a right adjoint (put indiscrete topology on any given set) and so preserves colimits, so the coproduct topology should have as its underlying set the disjoint union of underlying sets, and then you have to put the largest topology on this so that all the inclusion maps that define the coproduct are continuous. This is assuming that coproducts exist though
I assumed that you've seen adjunctions but if you haven't then you can ignore this 
Yes
This is like one of the silliest ways of using an adjunction lol, it's just a quick sanity check sort of use here rather than a proof since we did assume the existence of a coproduct in the first place. You'll see a lot more actual uses too 
Hatcher has got this example of the fundamental group of the complement of two disjoint circles embedded in R^3 in his first chapter. He says that this group will be abelian iff the two circles are linked. Is there a simple proof of this? I can't seem to find a homotopy from some loops I was able to construct to other loops that commutativity would say should be homotopic
Well i think the right adjoint applied to a coproduct should be a coproduct, without the assumption that coproducts exist "in general"
But the right adjoint applied to anything is an indiscrete space
Not all topological coproducts would be indiscrete
Instead of working at a loops level, you should probably try to deformation retract this space to something simpler or apply van kampen to this space
A tip for the deformation retraction would be to first try to do it completely informally, thinking about stretchy rubber, and only once you have some idea of how to proceed, you should try to break apart whatever deformation you have into a sequence of simple deformations that you can actually formalise (if you care about formalising them at all that is)
But you'll see some nice tools yes 😌
Can someone help me formulate a proof for this?
https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Set_between_Connected_Set_and_Closure_is_Connected
I've read the proofs there and it seems like it's based around some stuff I haven't seen in my classes yet.
I've half-formulated something that looks roughly like:
Assume $K$ is disconnected, then it can be partitioned into two disjoint non-empty sets $A$ and $B$ that are both open relative to $K$. Consider $A\cap H$ and $B\cap H$. If both of those intersections are non-empty, then $H$ can be shown to be disconnected by partitioning it into the sets $A\cap H$ and $B\cap H$, so one of those sets has to be empty.
(𒀭)
Not entirely sure where to go from here though.
Hello, consider the circle represented by the unit circle $S^1$ in the complex plane. Let $f(z)=z^2$ in $\mathbb{C}$. Is $S^1/{z\sim f(z)}_{z\in S^1}$ the set of all points in $S^1$ with antipodal maps identified?
blackiris
z^2 is not antipodal to z in general no
It's quite easily $S^1/{z\sim -z }_{z\in S^1}$ I see that. However I am actually trying to construct a CW-complex structure to a space $X$ which is $S^2$ with the antipodal points in the equator identified. It turns out that the gluing map for the 2-cells (hemisphere) to the skeleton $S^1$ is given by $f(z)=z^2$ and not $f(z)=-z.$ Why is that?
blackiris
When gluing, you're taking two disjoint copies of S^1 and gluing z from one circle to f(z) of the other
If you identify z ~ z^(2) then also z ~ z^(2n), and every point whose argument is a dyadic rational multiple of pi (i.e. each p/2^k pi) is collapsed to a single point, giving you quite a mess of a space
Gluing along the map z --> z^(2) has the effect of twisting the boundary of the hemisphere twice around the circle you're gluing it onto
Why would that result in the identification of the antipodal points?
I mean quotienting out by f(z)=z^2 seems to identify much more than the antipodal points.
I must be misunderstanding something critical here.
Oh shit
I think I understand now
So $S^1 $ disjoint union with $S^1$ quotiented out by ${(z,1)\sim (f(z),2)}_{z\in S^1}$ is different from $S^1/{z\sim f(z)}$
That is the idea although that notation doesn't seem right
Should be like pi_1(z) = pi_2(f(z))
Where the pi's are inclusions into the respective circles
blackiris
Maybe something like the edit above?
disjoint unions are products right
So anyway, $S^1 $ disjoint union with $S^1$ quotiented out by ${(z,1)\sim (f(z),2)}_{z\in S^1}$, is this homeomorphic to a circle with antipodal points identified?
blackiris
Yes. The points (z, 1) and (-z, 1) both map onto (z^(2), 2)
Goddamit, let's go! Thanks!
This whole gluing business is more subtle than I thought.
But a circle with antipodal points identified is just a circle. The important thing is the map z --> z^2 is defined on the upper hemisphere (or I guess a neighborhood of the boundary of the upper hemisphere) so it can be used to glue the hemisphere along the boundary
Can someone please help a bit with the following?
Given a set X decide whether the collection of subsets such that their complement is infinite plus X is a topology.
So X belongs to it by definition, but does the empty set belong? since it's complement is X and I don't know whether X is finite or not im kinda stuck. Does the fact that X belongs to the collection by definition solves my problem?
The complement is X, which like you said need not be infinite
if it's not too much trouble, I'm still mostly stuck on this.
I think the only direction I can walk down would be something like this:
WLOG assume that $B\cap H=\varnothing$, this would imply that $B\subseteq K\setminus H$ and that $H\subseteq A$.
(𒀭)
I guess there's also that $cl(H)\subseteq cl(A)$, but I'm not sure how to get to some kind of contradiction from this?
(𒀭)
I think the only available contradiction would be to show $H$ is disconnected regardless of $B\cap H=\varnothing$
(𒀭)
So I have to construct two non-empty, proper subsets (say X and Y) of H that are both relatively open to H.
Can someone verify this for me?
This part is good, the rest not so much
Note that in particular cl(A) = cl(H) and calculate closure of A in K, note that A is closed in K
This should give you the desired contradiction
You don't need that B is a subset of K\H anywhere
Awesome, thanks!
Looool
blackiris
Let me try again: Let $X$ result from $D^3$ by identifying points on its boundary $S^2$ taken into one another by the $180$ degree rotation about the vertical axis. Give $X$ a CW-complex structure and compute its homology.
The way I did this (this time) was to construct $X$ with one $0$-cell, one $2$-cell, and one $3$-cell. The $2$-cell is attached to the $0$-cell via the constant map $S^1 \to S^1$, resulting to $S^2$ while the $3$-cell is attached to $S^2$ via a 2-degree map $S^2\to S^2$, resulting in $X.$
We obtain a chain complex of the form $0\to \mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}\to 0\to \mathbb{Z}\to 0$ with boundary maps $\partial_0=0$ $\partial_1=0$, $\partial_2=0$, $\partial_3(1)=2$, $\partial_4=0$. The homologies can be computed usig these boundary maps. Am I correct?
blackiris
One thing, in the topological space of R^2, we have the topological structure of the union of all open disks
but
this union ranges over all r or a where r is the radius of the disk and a the center of the disk
I mean, I see it could be r because the union of all balls (disks) centered at the origin makes the entire plane
but
what about a
nvm, the topological space of the plane is composed by disks centered at the origin
(right?)
I don't think so
There would be some balls away from the origin that you cannot generate by such balls
you need the basis to vary with the centers as well
Just a quick question. If $A\sim B,$ and both $A$ and $B$ are subspaces of $X$. Is $X/A\sim X/B?$
blackiris
By ~, I mean homotopic
No
Yes, I see that now. Thanks!
This looks correct to me
Thanks!
Is $R^{\infty} - {0}$ with the box topology homotopy equivalent to $S^\infty$ with the union topology?
Michael Harp
I wanna just take the straight line homotopy but doesn't $R^{\infty}$ have points which are non-zero in every component?
Michael Harp
The latter is contractable - Makes sense because I can take H(x,t) = (1-t)x
The former is not - why?
I don't understand what you mean here
Or the message above it
right
Oh wait I misunderstood something earlier so let me restart a bit. My goal IS to show that $S^\infty$ is contractable. My strategy is to take $S^{\infty}$, embed is into $R^\infty - {0}$ and do a straight line homotopy there. What homotopy exactly? Denote $T(x_1,x_2,...) = (0,x_1,x_2,...) so that H(x,t) = (1-t)x + tT(x)$. I have already shown $x,T(x)$ are linearly independent. The issue is this homotopy cuts out of $S^\infty$ (like you said), so I wanna deform retract $R^\infty - {0} \to S^\infty$. To do this, i need to use some homotopy, right?
Michael Harp
Right
Normalize it
Which I am confident I can do on the interior of the sphere
Oh wait that should be enough, I dont need to deform retract all of R^{\infty}
lemme look
I knew i had to normalize but I was worried some things wouldn't be normalizable
So is my new homotopy $H'(x,t) = (1-t)H(x,t) + \frac{tT(x)}{|T(x)|}$?
Michael Harp
trefoil and circle aren’t homotopic right?
what is isotopic?
this is really knot formal. i was just trying to transform a trefoil into a circle with a piece of string and i couldn’t
Isotopy to Homotopy: I'm you but stronger
and that’s because the two aren’t isotopic
so a knot is anything that is homeomorphic to a circle that lives in R^3
and it’s just less interesting if you make them live in R^2 or R^4, right?
More generally R^(n-2)—>R^n I think
Higher knot theory I forget the author explained why the difference being 2 is the only interesting case
4th line of the proof onwards, what is he even trying to say 😵💫
After reducing to finite wedges
The reduced homology groups here have a provisional definition, not the actual one
For a based (n-1)-connected space, the nth reduced homology group is defined as
n = 0, Z^(number of path components - 1)
n = 1, abelianisation of pi_1
n > 1, pi_n
Maybe he is using the Freudenthal suspension theorem?
the conditions there look similar to whats said in your picture
not sure about the details tho
hi, so it's my first time doing algebraic topology and my class is using hatcher. im trying to computer the simplicial homology of $\Delta^2$ but I keep getting that it's just a chain of 0s. :(
shortcut
well it should be Z in the 0-th dimension, but zeros everywhere else
(because its homotopy equivalent to a point)
I keep getting that boundaries of the three 1-simplices are all linearly independent, and so the 0th homology group becomes Z^3/Z^3
you have 3 one-simplices, call them a,b,c, and you have 3 vertices, say 0,1,2 so that a : 0->1, b: 1 ->2, c:0->2
mhm
okay maybe numbers are not the best choice here
oh yeah
been a while since ive computed simplicial homology
i have notes on explicit computations of simplicial homology of RP^2 and the klein bottle
thats pretty much the extent of examples i did
cause later on you get many nice theorems to help compute homology
and you dont do it manually like this
great because i was struggling to compute the klein bottle 😳
alright ill give it a shot
ok so ive got that the boundaries of the 1 simplices are all 0, i think
since their boundaries are a difference of 0-simplices, and there is only 1 0 simplex
yes
hm so i got that the boundaries of U and L are a-b+c and b-a+c.
which would make H_1 Z^3/Z=Z^2...
how did you arrive at this for H_1?
maybe first construct the chain complex
since you already computed the boundary maps
i think the chain complex is Z^2->Z^3->Z
it looks like ... -> 0 -> Z[U,L] -> Z[a,b,c] -> Z[v] -> 0
since there are 2 2-simplices, 3 "sides" and 1 vertex
i dont think my H_1 is right. but i dont see how to computer the boundary of U and L
the boundary of each of a, b, c is 0.
Phil
yes i have this.
now we need to find the D_2 as well
but for \partial_2 i am not sure how to find the boundary of U and L
well you already wrote it above
it doesnt seem clear to me what the images of the vertices are
wait so i am right? it is a-b+c and b-a+c?
i think so yes
i mean with the chosen orientation in the image
i computed D_2(U) = a+b-c and D_2(L) = -a+b+c
but thats yours up to swapping sign
if this is the case then the H_1 is Z^3/Z^2 right
hm.
you have kernel of D_1 modulo image of D_2
so $\frac{\langle a,b,c \rangle}{\langle a+b-c, -a+b+c \rangle}$
Phil
where we take the span over Z
i mean quotienting out a+b-c is basically the same as declaring that a+b-c = 0
using these equations you can reduce this to something
well you dont really write it like this
its Z x Z/2Z
since only b is affected by quotienting out 2b
oh. why should you not write it with Z^2? doesn that mean the same thing?
it doesnt affect the other generator
oh whoops
since you have different subgroups in Z^2 that are isomorphic to 2Z, ts not clear which one you actually quotient out
i see now
haha yes quite right
this is so cool!!!
then H_2 is trivial since the kernel of D_2 is trivial, which is nice
so the homology is Z, Z+Z/2Z, 0, 0, ...
yes
thanks! now im going to try the mobius strip and the circle
if you have not yet read somewhere what homology is supposed to measure, maybe try guessing that yourself from computing lots of easy example without torsion
so stuff like RP^2 and the klein bottle is a bit weird in that regard and not super intuitive
but circle, sphere, simplices, are pretty good for this
maybe also try S^1 v S^1
and / or disjoint unions of some of these spaces
Say X is a topological space with a homotopy H into a single point x_0, and some x\in X. Is the set of points H(x,t) for x fixed and t varying from the typical 0 to 1 a path from x to x_0?
well what do you think?
a path is just a continuous map from the interval to your space
what do you know about the homotopy
Well like you said it's continuous. I think this is sufficient to show it is a path.
The main thing I'm trying to show is that contractible spaces are path connected and I suspect this path that every point has to the point is the key to showing it's path connected by appending these paths between any x,y in X
yes, thats exactly it
gosh i just keep messing up the mobius strip
i keep finding the 1st homology group as Z^2.
this is because the möbius strip deformation retracts onto S^1, if you know what that means
well what are the boundaries you computed?
the $\partial A=\partial C=b-a,\ \partial D=0,\ \partial B=a-b$
shortcut
sorry tired
ok these look good
for U and L i got C-D+B and D-A+C respectively
i meant B
but yeah looks right
now for the kernel, we see that if $\partial a=n_1\partial A+n_2\partial B+n_3\partial C$, that $\partial a=(n_1+n_3-n_2)\partial A$.
shortcut
oof idk, i think you can just read it off
e.g. D is definitely in the kernel
since A and C map to the same thing, we also have A-C in the kernel
and A maps to the negative of B, so A +B is in the kernel
thats all
yes, and then B+C or B+A
right
so the kernel then is Z^3
but you can see that modding $\partial U$ and $\partial L$ will yield C-D+B=D-A+C=0
shortcut
so then $C+B=D=A-C$
shortcut
yep
thank you for you patience phil.
im gonna go eat food since clearly my brain is struggling.
folks
i want to understand EG and BG more generally/deeply
where do i start
if your answer involves higher category theory, please be aware i don't know any higher category theory and i'm willing to learn it but i'll have to start from ground zero
Blitz
Can we construct a nice example if we just demand the projection to not be G_delta
maybe Baire space would be better to work with
I know of this example by Lusin, but tbh I'd like something easier
@regal swift
Sorry, I don't really understand what you're asking
The universal analytic set on omega^omega is the projection of the universal closed set on (omega^omega)^2. Is there a reason that isn't nice?
what's that?
hey yall so im trying to rpove that s^infty is contractible and i have a proof with the shift space. but i was reading on stack exchange that you could use a colim of A move it up from the equator to show it is contractible. I'm not sure how to phrase this formaly but here is the blurb. I was wondering how to write this up in math
For each n you have a homotopy $H_n : S^{n+1} \times I \to S^{n+1}$ which contracts the equator $S^n \subseteq S^{n+1}$ towards some point on $S^{n+1}$.
Phil
an explicit formula shouldnt be too hard to figure out
mmm i have an explicit formula but i cant figure out how ot work it
oh wait i meant homotopies $H_n : S^{n+1} \times I \to S^\infty$
Phil
just take the inclusion at the end
then you can lift these to homotopies $\widetilde{H}_n : S^\infty \times I \to S^\infty$ along the identity
Phil
would this not work?
getting these via HEP and then doing the infinite concatenation
i thought thats whats done in the picture
which pic?
and while we are at it, could we also do it using the stuff we talked about with moldi a while ago here?
like the inclusions of the S^n are cofibrations
so fundamental group and colimit should commute
then all groups are 0, and u use whitehead
Nobody
ah thats what we talked about back then i think, with the finite image
@kind depot there are various ways to solve this, but the one I just said is probably not the best if you just started with algtop
it would take a rather long time to explain everything
but i dont really understand you picture either
i also heard of a soln where u can contract each D^n not sure how that works tho
D^n is always contractible
oh the hemispheres
like u could write it using D^n somehow
yeah if you glue two D^n along their boundary you get S^n
mmm
well the basic idea that is in this stackexchange post is that you can contract S^n to a point in S^{n+1} for each n
right
and then you do the first construction in like 1/2 the interval
the next in 1/4
the next in 1/8
and so on
so you do infinitely many in the interval [0,1]
like i get the idea
but i cant understand how to phrase it in language of homotopy
cause i thought i had to write an explicit map like above
well the details are a bit cumbersome
maybe look at this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1301466/infinite-concatenation-of-homotopies
Hello, I was wondering if anyone here knew anything about the contractibility of discrete spaces, been reading a bit but haven't been able to make enough headway
This all boils down to a question on my homework, which asks which of the four topologies on {0, 1} are contractible
well do you think it would make sense to say that the discrete space of two points is conctractible?
do you know properties that conctractability entails? (something something connected)
I thought to begin with the definition that a space is contractible if it is homotopy equivalent to the singleton, but I don't quite know how to make use of that
I know some properties, I don't know if they're the ones you have in mind
well its not hard to figure out using the definition of htpy equivalent to a point
The simplest property I know is that if a space is contractible, it is path-connected
yes
but when is a discrete space path connected?
Intuitively no, but I'm not about to take that as true if I cannot prove it
This I don't know, I would have thought it's never path connected
Simply because no path exists between two points
well there is exactly one discrete space that is path connected
The singleton?
right
While we're at it, small aside question: Does it make sense to say that the empty space is path connected, or even regular connected?
say you have at least two points x,y in a discrete space X and p: [0,1] -> X a path between them
path connected yes, i dont know the definition for regular connected
can you derive a contradiction from this?
Because the set of points inside this is empty, so anything is true? Or is there a stronger topological argument
Then assume a path exists between them. Such a path cannot be continuous, and is not a valid path. Is that sufficient?
yes, its called vacuous truth. Path connectedness is a requirement of the form "for all pairs of points in the space ..." but since there are no points, its just true
i mean i guess, but why is it not continuous? you kinda just reformulated the question
Ah, btw I was also wondering, I was taught that a map (and a path, by extension of definition) were assumed to be continuous unless specified otherwise, is that convention or is that something course-specific
thats the norm in topology
you generally look at continuous maps only
its like homomorphisms in algebra
Yep, good to hear it's not just a convenience taken in my course
Alright, here's my idea - because a discrete space isn't connected, it cannot be path connected
Is it sufficient to say that there are 2 clopen sets?
non-trivial clopen sets
so thats it
we showed that a discrete space is contractible iff its the singleton space
Right, before I get too deep into this hole, would you mind checking if my interpretation of my homework is correct lol, in that our discussion does help answer my question
Because it appears to me that our discussion shows that no non-trivial discrete space is contractible, and so the answer is none of them are contractible?
Ah! But we assumed the discrete topology, and not all of these topologies are discrete, right?
yes, only one of them is the discrete topology
Right, so if we called the 4 topologies
- {x, {0, 1}}
- {x, {0}, {0, 1}}
- {x, {1}, {0, 1}}
- {x, {0}, {1}, {0, 1}}
where x stood for the empty set, our answer would only apply to 4), correct?
correct
hmmm.... following my intuition now, the other 3 are contractible - for 1), the chaotic/indiscrete topology, all the open subsets are path connected, and so it is contractible. I'm not very sure about the other two.
that implication is not valid
at least i dont think so
path connectedness certainly does not imply contractability in general
Hmmm... any hints on where to begin thinking?
Thank you for your time btw, I greatly appreciate it - wasn't making any headway online
And I've been trying to avoid looking up the answers
well you could try to define a homotopy H : {0,1} x I -> {0,1} which start at the identity and end at a constant map
if you can do this so that H is continuous, then the space is contractible
This idea of using an identity map and a constant map - I've seen them quite a bit already at the start of alg topo - it seems to be quite a useful technique for coming up with homotopies?
uhh
thats the definition of being contractible
or its equivalent to various other definitions
btw now that i think about it im pretty sure you can show that topologies 2 and 3 (they are isomorphic anyways) are also not connected
with the same argument as above
Hmmm... the only definition of a space being contractible that I know is that a space is contractible if it's homotopy equivalent to the singleton so I feel like the answer should be obtainable somehow
yeah if you unravel all the definitions then thats equivalent to what i said
do whats most comfortable for you i guess
yep, two and three obviously have symmetrical arguments.
Would I be wrong in saying, that for a particular open set in a topology, that open set is homotopy equivalent to a point?
im not really sure what you mean
I guess instead of particular you could use arbitrary open set
spaces can be htpy equivalent to points
open sets are just sets
unless you endow them with the subspace topology
but then the claim is false, since any space is open in itself, and then you would get that every space is contactible
I see, quite amusing that my argument could be deconstructed so easily 😆
always try the most trivial examples first
but what i meant above is that the argument you used to show that a nontrivial discrete space is not conctractible should also work for the topologies 2 and 3
we know conctractible => path connected => connected
and you said its not connected since it has a nontrivial clopen set
but if you look at 2 and 3
nvm
i got confused
yeah ok actually its path connected, the map p : [0,1] -> {0,1} with p(0) = 0 and p(x) = 1 for x > 0 is continuous if you endow {0,1} with the topology {{},{1},{0,1}}
because p^{-1}({1}) = (0,1] is open in [0,1]
Ah, took me a second - here [0, 1] is the standard interval right?
yes
I see, I didn't even consider fibers
wat
what definition of continuity do you use then lol
pretty sure it's the standard ones, but like I said I just didn't consider them
oh ok
This is a more GT concept than AT but it might be useful - is there some sort of preservation of connectedness as your topologies get finer/coarser?
the identity from finer to coarser is continuous
and continous images of (path) connected spaces are again (path) connected
yeah ok so 2) and 3), which are called sierpinski spaces btw, are contractible
using you definition, you can consider e.g. f : {0,1} -> {0} and g : {0} -> {0,1}, 0 -> 0
you already have f \circ g = id




