#point-set-topology
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is pi1 ever uncountable?
and why not?
i never thought about this
why cant pi1 be Real
Uncountable wedge of circles
It can be any group
All groups can be realised as fundamental groups
ok so im not crazy
i probably read his statement without context
also isnt that the eilenberg maclane proof
I think they're talking about second countable hausdorff manifolds in particular
Yes you can always get a 2 dimensional CW complex
is the construction simple?
There are many
is there a canonical one?
You write G = F/N for free groups F and N
And then take a graph that realises F
We can do this because we know how to realise free groups
Ye
Then there's a cover of this corresponding to the subgroup N
By the Galois correspondence
So you have f: E โ X a covering map from pi 1 = N to pi 1 = F
normal subgroups*
Then the mapping cylinder of f has fundamental group G
Can be checked easily from van kampen
fuck
is mapping cylinder a map from E to X I
i never learned what is was useful for
ok ty
But there are more elementary (harder to prove) constructions in Hatcher
Hatcher gives 2
i had suspicions that it was like suspension

Lol
what are you in grad school for?
I'm doing an MSc, still haven't decided
very cool
๐
does this mean you are doing topic other than math?
or is msc just the name of degree
I was reading model theory and AT before my semester started but then I was hit with my busiest semester ever 
I plan to continue those now that vacations are almost here ๐
it cool
gimmie an example

like what motivated you to learn it
You can prove that every first order theory which has โ โ axiomatization has direct limits, which proves this for groups, rings, modules and a lot of other things at once
I find stuff like this cool
It might be โ โ axiomatization tho 
lol order matters๐คทโโ๏ธ
Ye I don't remember I just remember it being very cool 
That includes fields
So must be the first order
i can see how existence of direct limits is cool
ive always found limits to be super cool when used
And Ax Grothendieck and Nullstellensatz are commonly cited applications
Ax Grothendieck was first proven using model theory
You can apply it to any class of objects that is first order axiomatised
Yes
Yes
Variety is like manifold but instead of smooth functions we care about algebraic functions
And then you can throw away R and C and use any field
i just have understanding that varietys are solution sets to things but idk exactly what, i only know definition in terms of solution sets to system of polynomials for affine algebraic variety
but then i see shit like abelian variety
๐ตโ๐ซ
and it makes me question wtf
many such cases of internet learning
many such cases
we gotta stick to the books

to be off topic
what is motivation for higher homotopy groups because I always percieved homotopy invariance as only tool cared about
why in particular is pi2 important
or pin
i thought i knew
because of this homomorphism
huerwochz
or something
I have no clue ๐
but idk why it is even true
i just know there is this thing called heurswixz homomorphism between homology groups and homotopy groups
but idk why anyone cares about it even
i suspect it makes calculations for homology groups easier?
but it probably doesnโt
Probably because homology groups lose some of the information and you can use that to quantify amount of information lost
๐ตโ๐ซ
o mayb
I thought covers were always connected
Count the holes of a space
Under some connected conditions hurewickz homomorfism gives you an isomorphism, so it help you calculate homotopy groups
yes
but why do we care about higher homotopy groups
doesnt homology count holes with betti numbers
higher homotopy groups counting holes 
I guess AT want's to "classify" maps up to homotopy [X, Y] but this is hard so we can at least try to do it when X = S^n
also homotopy groups classify spaces up to homotopy equivalence better than homology
Whitehead theorem tells you that if a map induces isomorphism in homotopy groups then this map is a homotopy equivalence
Assuming the space are CW complex
makes sense ig?
i always did find that weird
my intuition for what holes meant in homotopy was better than in homologu
oh wtf ty
oh great
i can only understand vocabulary in homotopy theory section
im lost on the other two
its ๐
what's a really accessible introductory topology online course?
In book that I follow, it includes second countability
How do I prove the transitivity of the action?
my attempt:
Let $x\in X$. By surjectivity of $q$ there is $e\in E$ such that $q(e)=x$, so $e\in q^{-1}(x)$. For any loop $f$, there is a unique lift $\tilde{f}$ such that $\tilde{f}(0)=e$. So we define the function $\beta:\pi_1(X,x)\to q^{-1}(x)$ to be $\beta([f])=\tilde{f}(1)$.
RaD0N
Now, I want to prove that, for any $e'\in q^{-1}(x)$ there is a loop $f$ and a lift $\tilde{f}$ such that $\beta([f])=\tilde{f}(1)=e'$.
RaD0N
I note that, by construction of $\beta$, we always have $\tilde{f}(0)=e$.
RaD0N
What theorem can provide me a lift of $f$ such that $\tilde{f}(0)=e$ and $\tilde{f}(1)=e'$?
RaD0N
OK...................................................
If $q:E\to X$ a covering map is proper, then it is finite-sheeted. I don't understand why the fibers are discrete spaces?
RaD0N
The fibers of any covering map are discrete in general
because the fiber is a disjoint union of separated points
if you want to show it explicitly take a point b in B, and a U around b such that p^{-1}(U) is the disjoint union of open V_i, each containing some point x_i with p(x_i) = b
since p restricts to a homeomorphism on each V_i, if V_i contains two points x, y in the fiber of b, then x and y are equal
so basically each point of the fiber of b is contained in one and only one of the V_i
so p^{-1}(b) cap V_i = x_i, and thus x_i is open in p^{-1}(b) with the subspace topology
hence its discrete
(side note: this is kind of a defining property of a covering map, if you drop the requirement that the fibers of discrete and just say that the total space is locally a product, you get something called a fiber bundle which is a really important construction in its own right)
slim sotruing me... seethe
Ok. I feel kinda dumb, because I knew that and I didn't identify the fibers being discrete space itself
thanks anyways
I knew that there weren't 2 elements in each open set..
Question : Suppose that $(X,A)$ is a relative CW-complex (meaning that the zeroth skelton is $A$ for some Haussdorf top space $A$) and $A\subset Y \subset$ subspace such that $Y\cap Xn\setminus X_{n-1}$ is the homoeomorphic image of characteristics maps for all $n$. (So this set is homeomorphic to open n cells). I need to show that the filtration $Y\cap X_n$ defines a CW complex structure on $Y$.
Sei
Sei
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the commutative diagram didnt render properly so here it is
is a covering map closed?
I think any local homeomorphism should be closed
because you can check whether a set is closed locally
like if you have an open cover {U_i} of X, then V is closed in X iff each V intersection U_i is closed in U_i
Then cover the domain of the covering map with neighbourhoods that it maps homeomoprhically onto open sets of the covered space
And then use the fact that homeomorphisms are closed
thx. I will see it later
If q is finite sheeted, then q is covering map. I can't understand the proof. I've been torturing myself for hours to understand. I feel so dumb these days.. never felt that way
It's okay! But you probably shouldn't do that - it's much more useful to take a break.
in munkres topology a linear order is defined as being 1) comparable/complete 2) nonreflexive and 3) transitive. This differs from every other definition of a linear order i have seen. Wikipedia defines a linear order as being 1) comparable/complete 2) reflexive 3) transitive and 4) antisymmetric. Why does munkres use the alternate definition?
ok thanks
Thx for advice, but I can't do that yet. The semester isn't over :|
bump
Quick dumb question: why is, for a real VB, the pullback a ring iso on cohomology?
(p:E->B the VB ofc)
contract all the fibers
locally thats clear to me, but how can i see it works globally?
try writing it down
is there a homotopy equivalence in general?
wdym in general

Suppose I have $H^*(X; \mathbb{Z}/p) = \mathbb{Z}/p[\alpha]$ with $\alpha$ a generator of degree $n$ such that $\alpha^2 \neq 0$. If $p$ is a prime, why must $n$ be even?
Kanga Gang Swagger Tokidoki โ
I forgot so say that \alpha^2 is not 0 as well
Let's say that we have a complex smooth projective variety $V\subseteq\mathbb{C}P^3$, defined by a polynomial of degree $k$. The second integral cohomology $H^2(\mathbb{C}P^3)$ is generated by the Poincarรฉ dual of the fundamental class of a copy of $\mathbb{C}P^1$ in $\mathbb{C}P^3$ (right?); let us denote this cohomology class by $a\in H^2(\mathbb{C}P^3)$ If $\iota:V\hookrightarrow\mathbb{C}P^3$ denotes the inclusion, then how does the pullback $\iota^*a$ relate to a generator of $H^2(V)$? My guess is that $\iota^*a$ is equal to $k$ times such a generator, but I'm not sure.
gustavn64
isn't it the case that when p is 2, alpha has a degree that is a power of 2?
I'm sorry but I still don't get it lmao, I'm extremely tired
oh lmao I see
Thank you so much! 
ye I think that if alpha is not a power of 2, then the Steenrod square Sq^n(\alpha) = \alpha^2 would decompose and that would yield a contradiction since all Sq^t(\alpha) =0 for 0<t<n are zero, so \alpha^2 would also be zero
the exact same argument can be made to show that a map S^(2n-1) --> S^n with Hopf invariant 1 can only exist when n is a power of 2 which is really cool
If i is not a power of two, you can look at the Adem relations for i = a + 2^k. Then you can use a theorem that says that \binom(m)(n) is congruent to the product of all \binom(m_i, n_i) mod p where m_i and n_i are the coefficients in the p-adic expansions of m and n. So when p = 2 you get that the coefficient in the first term in the Adem relation is 1
this is iff, so Sq^i is indecomposable iff i is a power of 2. For the other direction you have that i is a power of 2. Now you can use the fact that the total Steenrod square is a homomorphism and by Freshmans dream you get that Sq( \alpha^i) = \alpha^i + \alpha^(2i), so Sq^t(\alpha^i) must be zero unless t = 0 or i. So if it were to decompose, we would get that \alpha^(2i) is zero
steenrod squares are ridiculous
probably to make your life hell
I was reading through a proof that said that since a certain subset of a lie group was zariski closed, it must have measure 0 unless it is the whole space
that wasn't the claim of the proof, it was just a detail that was briefly mentioned as a step
is that a trivial result
to be clear, I can understand this for zariski closed subsets of Rโฟ but measure 0 in Rโฟ doesn't necessarily mean much for subsets of lower dimension
like SO3 is measure 0 in Rโน but it's not measure 0 in itself hahah
So to state it carefully
Let G be a Lie group... I guess actually a linear algebraic group? And let X be a Zariski-closed subset of G
Then unless X is all of G, it is measure zero... probably with respect to the Haar measure on G
The heuristic should be that if you're Zariski-closed, you're "at least a dimension lower"
yeah that's about it
I'm solving polynomial equations in SO3ยฒ btw
I'm accepting nowhere dense as well as zariski closed (nowhere dense with the usual toplogy, not zariski)
What's the particular situation?
I have a word w(a,b) in the free group on a and b
I want the solutions to w(A,B)=I in SO3รSO3 to be measure 0
unless w is the empty word of course
w(A,B) is given as polynomials in entires of A and B
I just wish I could say "this set feels pretty measure 0 to me" ๐๐
To be precise, ${(A,B)\in SO(3)\times SO(3) \mid w(A,B) = I}$?
several people
yes
that set, for a particular word w, is measure 0
I have a loose understanding for why I want it to be true
but the details are mismatched
like the set of solutions is obviously closed in SO3
Are you trying to prove Banach-Tarski?
Like oh countably many words
So there's a copy of F_2
In SO(3)
๐ณ
Not sure if that face means I called you tf out or if you're like huh
you called me tf out
:)
but i want to prove the cool version where most pairs of rotations generate a free group
Yeah tru I didn't even know this proof was a thing tbh
I just see that and I'm like wait up.... :0
My undergrad MT class on our first pset had us show that SO(3) contains a copy of F_2 and ooooo boi was that something
I'd like this proof a lot more
I wonder if we can Sard theorem this ๐ค
"something" meaning gross?
None of us could figure out anything reasonable so we kept looking through Tao writings until we found something that kinda did the trick
hahaha
Basically you choose specific candidate matrices and somehow passed to like, F_5^3
\mathbb{F}_5^3
Finite field not 5 element free group that'd be scuffed
i don't even see how that makes things free ๐ญ
F_2 contains all F_n
it does
we just need the zariski proof ๐๐
Actually now that I think about it
To apply your proof you still need to know SO(3) contains one copy of F_2
Since you wanna make sure it's not all of SO(3)
also yes this sounds like sort of related to sards theorem but I can't see how it applies
I just need one pair for every word that doesn't satisfy it
the hard part is words where the sum of powers of a and b are both 0
Oh oh tru
if non commuting rotations satisfy this then I'm fucked
but I hope just like commutators there's sort of a "if and only if they commute" sort of deal with those words
this sort of feels like trying to prove most reals are transcendental over Q
except that proof is easy
but like imagine if you needed to find one transcendental number in order to prove that
like proving a particular number is transcendental is hard
Hmm
So right now we want a measure theory argument
What about a Baire category argument?
I tried seeing if using the double cover SU2->SO3 could give me anything (it didn't)
Maybe that's easier
wouldn't that just apply to when I'm taking the union over all words
I mean the idea is we say solutions to w(A,B) = I have dense complement rather than being measure zero
yeah that's good enough for me
Honestly I'm fairly convinced that proper + Zariski-closed does imply measure zero anyway
you're right, my brain just went to measure 0 implies dense complement but only dense complement is still enough
but how to prove ๐ญ๐ญ
if there's a neiguborhood of points all satisfying this equation, then could we use some wacky analytic extension thing
like SO3ยฒ is a manifold
so we could treat the polynomial as an analytic equation in Rโถ
and then if it's 0 on a subset with nonenpty interior, it's zero everywhere
locally
Hmmmmmmmm
So Zariski closed doesn't mean smooth submanifold
But we can sorta "induct"
I guess
I can't show that analytic functions in Rยนโธ necessarily give analyticity when you restrict to a 6 dimensional sub manifold ๐
wait are you kidding
how could it be zariski closed and not smootj
I don't think this will be a problem for us
yeah I say who cares
Because you can say oh take the smooth points
And then the non-smooth points are a subvariety
So that's even smaller
etc
but also shouldn't I just care that SO3ยฒ itself is smooth??
Well what I'm saying is, I want to reduce the statement about Zariski-closed => measure zero to a statement "submanifold of strictly smaller dimension => measure zero"
yeah the hard part is the first half of that
why it would be strictly smaller dimension
hey we can actually use sard for this. the problem points are negligible
Tru tru
So yeah basically you're saying something like
Also tbh we should go to #diff-geo-diff-top
Also holds for difftop ๐
yeah let's move
Good opportunity to clear our heads a bit
so I'm a little confused
so if we have a pair of chains, we can talk about a chain map
(e.g. realizing a chain is a functor from a particular indexing category, and then chain maps are natural transformations)
then we have homotopies between chain maps
but say e.g. the "uniqueness of projective resolutions" mentions a "chain homotopy"
what's that about?
chain homotopy equivalence? or what
Yes it is uniqueness up to chain homotopy equivalence
Because the identity map of modules gets resolved to identity up to chain homotopy
something like that
ok that makes sense to me
one day I'll prove that proper but black boxing works for now 
Is it true that a subset of a topology must be equal to one of either its interior or its closure?
That would be equivalent to saying that all subsets are either open or closed
I see, so false then, right?
ye
Many thanks, gentleman

This is one of the first qs in my topology book so not sure if it should be asked here, but it's Prove that the set of all finite subsets of a countable set is countable.
So it suffices to consider the positive integers. My idea was that to every finite subset, we'll put the elements in increasing order, and then concatenate them to associate to it a natural number. However, this fails for repeat digits e.g {9, 99} and {999} will be the same. So to fix it (after a hint) what I did was instead of immediately concatenating I replaced all the commas with 0's e.g {9, 99} becomes 9099 instead. But I'm not sure whether this works, and if it does, how to prove injectivity?
Nobody
nice, that's clever
i presume there's a way to do this without using \mathbb{N} at all


what
Dumb question: Is $\langle e \mid -\rangle$ a presentation of the trivial group?
Anton.
I suppose, but why in the topology channel 
Well it should not have e in the generators
No generators
Sorry, it has to do with algebraic topology though. I'm trying to figure out the Seifert-van-Kampen theorem.
Hmm? "e" refers to the identity element.
Yeah, I forgot to mention that. It is standard notation, however.
You can write < e | e > if you want
You have to say that e is the identity in the relations if you want it to be the identity
A presentation of Z is given by <s|-> where s is in {1,-1}.
๐ณ
Alright, thanks
Okay, thank you
P4 from Rotman AT chap 1 asks you to show Brouwer's fixed point thm for spaces homeomorphic to D^n
That is, if X = D^n, show any cont f: X -> X has a fixed point
The proof of Brouwer's given in the book makes use of a lemma that says there is no retraction from D^n to S^n-1, and then assuming f: D^n -> D^n has no fixed points, you can define a retraction from D^n to S^n-1 by mapping x to the intersection of S^n-1 and the ray from x to f(x)
Now, if there is a retraction r from X to dX then I think you can give a retraction from D^n to S^n-1 by taking g o r o g^-1 where g is the homeomorphism between X and D^n
But my question is how do you construct such a retraction from X to dX
dX is the boundary of X?
Yeah
If you have a retraction r from X to its boundary then using the homeomorphism g: X -> D^n you can obtain a retraction from D^n to its boundary
In the form of g o r o g^-1
I think
And this is a contradiction ofc
you can construct the retract from X to dX by mapping over to D^n, doing the ray thing there, and mapping back
but there's a shorter way to argue tho
a map X -> X gives you a map D^n -> D^n and extract the fixed point from there
Yeah true lol
any help here?
is it true that if i have a continuous surjection f : X โ> Y, then X and Y have the same number of connected components?
no
ce?
oh wait
it was literally staring me in the face
the problem iโm working on rn is a ce
lmao
The function that collapses two o circles to a point
what weaker conditions do you need to preserve the number of components other than homeomorphism?
Homotopy equivalence
but also homotopy equivalence is so much stronger than have the same number of connected components
Homotopy equivalence implies weak homotopy equivalence and this implies have the same pi_0
hmm. well, i wanted to show that there is no continuous injection from A = (R x 0) U (0 x R) to R. i was going to argue by using connected components.
but i donโt think that works now
like. removing the origin from A produces a set with four connected components and its image then has two connected components
wait. maybe it does work. how does this sound. if i have a continuous bijection f : X โ> Y, then f^-1(f(U)) = U and f(f^-1(V)) = V for all U subset X and V subset Y. this gives a bijection from the set of connected components of X to the set of connected components of Y
nvm : (
Problem 5 from Rotman Chap 1 gives f, g: I -> I^2 with f starting/ending at y=0/y=1 resp and g starting/ending at x=0/x=1 resp. I'm asked to show the paths intersect, and the idea is to use Brouwer's
The question is, what should the map from I^2 to I^2 be
A hint would be appreciated, I honestly have no clue
take some sort of difference but normalize it so that it lands back in I^2
I remember doing a similar problem but I dont remember the exact function
hmmm
can we assume f(t)_x > g(s)_x always 
no
ignore that
okay
we can assume one of f(t)_x - g(s)_x and f(t)_y - g(s)_y is nonzero

okay if they dont intersect
then f(s) is never equal to g(t)
taking rays from f(s) to g(t) defines something from I^2 to the boundary of I^2 
but this isnt a retraction
Kanga Gang Consigliere Brtogi
Kanga Gang Consigliere Brtogi
Kanga Gang Consigliere Brtogi
Kanga Gang Consigliere Brtogi
we have a surjection to {L,R} x {Top, Bottom} iff the curves intersect
blech
this doesnt do anything
@velvet finch did you figure it out
oh fuck this works
yeah you can show that it's always surjective by arguing with endpoints/points where the curves touch y = 0,1 x = 0,1
nvm
alright define \varphi and \phi as above
claim: I^2 ---> {L,R} x {T,B} is surjective
proof:
pick t s.t. g(t)_x = 0 and g(t)_y is max (among things with g(s)_x = 0)
then \varphi(g(t)) = left as 0 is less than everything
\phi(g(t)) = top due to the max condition
so (left, top) is in the image
now pick t s.t. g(t)_x = 1 and g(t)_y is max (among things with g(s)_x = 1)
If \varphi(g(t)) = left, then 1 \leq min{f(s)_x : f(s)_y = g(t)_y}, which implies that the curves intersect (we're assuming that they dont)
therefore \varphi(g(t)) = right
we have \phi(g(t)) = top
so (right, top) is in the image
using a similar argument for f, we can show that the other two things are in the image
so the map is surjective
the logic so far is: Curves do not intersect implies map is surjecive
but if the curves do not intersect, they bound some region (you probably need the jordan curve theorem here), and you can show that the function (\varphi x \phi) is constant on this region
not really the region bound by the curves, but you should be able to define two new curves which only keep track of "forward" or "upward" progress using max and min as above
these probably still dont intersect
this should give you three regions, and the function defined above is constant on each region
which should give you a contradiction
as the image of the function has 4 things

There's also an easy way to do this using Jordan curve theorem 
You can connect the endpoints of one of the paths from outside the square and then prove that for the other path, one of the endpoints lies in the unbounded component and the other doesn't
But you have to first reduce the problem to one where you can apply the theorem because that needs an injective curve
And I think you can do that by zorn's lemma
Cutting out loops of f until no more can be cut out
I dont think you need to cut out loops
you can just ignore backward progress
oh nvm

I was thinking of doing something like replace g with t mapsto (max_{s \leq t}{g(s)_x}, g(t)_y )
and do a similar thing for f (but upward instead of forward)
but yeah nvm this doesnt work
unless we can show that f and g don't intersect implies the replacements don't intersect
But they may not go back along themselves, and need not be monotonic
I dont mean back along themselves
I mean back in the sense that the x coord decreases
.
I see
this isnt even continuous lol
no
it is
it is
I think
I am go eat
brb
ping me if you figure it out
Ye it is
You can do this though, right? If a value is repeated, then take the first and the last time that it is hit by the path, and make the path constant between them. Call this operation O(s) where s is the repeated value. Then we can take the poset of all repeated values, with s > u if the inverse image of u is in the convex hull of the inverse image of s. Then given a chain, you can argue that the supremum of that chain, S, is also in the poset by continuity, so that's an upper bound. This means that's there's some repeated value v such that when you do O(v) the function no longer has any non constant loops. And we can easily then eliminate this one constant subpath
this doesnt eliminate all the loops
right?
what about something like this
Ok I think this works, for the Brouwer approach, not sure if this is what brofib did
Take Iยฒ โ Iยฒ defined by
(s,t) โฆ (s,t) + f(s) - g(t)
But this may not land in Iยฒ, so just compose with the standard retraction โยฒ โ Iยฒ after this. Continuity is obvious, and then Brouwer's theorem says this has a fixed point. If the fixed point is on the interior then we are done because then it must have come from the formula itself. On the boundary you'd have to argue some more because the retraction messes with things, but in my head it works out
[\begin{tikzcd}
& \bullet & \bullet \
\bullet && \bullet && \bullet & \bullet \
& \bullet &&&& \bullet \
&&&& \bullet
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-3]
\arrow[from=2-3, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=1-3, to=1-2]
\arrow[from=1-2, to=3-2]
\arrow[from=3-2, to=3-6]
\arrow[from=3-6, to=2-6]
\arrow[from=2-6, to=2-5]
\arrow[from=2-5, to=4-5]
\end{tikzcd}]
Kanga Gang Consigliere Brtogi
Ah right
Then maybe apply Zorn's lemma again to get a maximal set of maximal repeating values 
The retraction I'm thinking of here is the one that projects the area outside orthogonally onto a side, and everything that can't be projected like this onto the corresponding corner
No that doesn't work 
Wait maybe it does
f-g/|f-g| gives you something that lands in the box
|f-g| is never zero by assumption
Yeah but that won't have the property of fixed point โ intersection
This does
yeah I think im done for now lol
Suppose the fixed point is on the boundary. Then let's suppose it's because the first coordinate is 0, so the point is (0,y). Then g(0) has x coordinate 0, so the image of this is R((0, y) + f(y)), so this being the same as (0,y) means that f(y) has x coordinate negative or 0, so must be 0, so this must be the intersection
And then argue similarly for all 4 edges and corners 
There should be a more convenient normalisation
But I'm pretty sure this will get the result
Actually I'm not sure how this argument would work on the opposite edge

Fixed points wouldn't correspond to intersections though
Wait can we say that fixed points also get divided by 3 or something
Nah doesn't seem right
what about the sup norm 
What about it 
nvm

yeah I dont see how to do this with brouwer
I think I can make my up/down/left/right thing work with some more work
but it still uses jordan curve 

You can use $h(x,y)=(1-||f(x)-g(y)||/\sqrt 2)(x,y)$
'quid
The fixed points should be exactly the points where f(x)=g(y)
Yeah
๐ฟ
๐ฑ
yo what
how did u type this!
[\begin{tikzcd}
& \bullet & \bullet
\bullet && \bullet && \bullet & \bullet
& \bullet &&&& \bullet
&&&& \bullet
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-3]
\arrow[from=2-3, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=1-3, to=1-2]
\arrow[from=1-2, to=3-2]
\arrow[from=3-2, to=3-6]
\arrow[from=3-6, to=2-6]
\arrow[from=2-6, to=2-5]
\arrow[from=2-5, to=4-5]
\end{tikzcd}]
Toucan
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i dont care for your discord bio.
Ah I see, yeah I figured it was gonna be some norm related expression in f and g
I just couldn't figure out what
I did something like this initially
Because I was thinking of the proof given for Brouwer's when n=1
Or no what am I thinking of
No that's right
And then you argue that if the graph of f doesn't pass through the line, it's disconnected
Oops I didn't send my message
So you draw I^2 with a diagonal y=x line
No I went to sleep at 11
Went to bed
Fell asleep
Fell to bed
Rotman Ch1 P6: A in Mat_nxn(R+), show it has an eigenvector in D^2
Does it not suffice to just define g: D^2 -> D^2 given by g = cA for a sufficiently small c
Or well not D^2 but that's the case I had in my head
Then g(x) = x by Brouwer's gives Ax = 1/c x
Explicitly, you can take c = 1/max{||Ax|| : x in D^2}
The hint given defines a linear functional giving a suitable scalar for every x in D^2 but I don't get why just taking a single sufficiently maximal scalar wouldn't work
Is every metric space a topological space?
yes
but the converse is not true
if a topology has a metric, it is a hausdorff topological space
But see, a definition like this is confusing me, since there's no mention of topologies
Is it just implied?
eh
there doesn't really need to be a mention of topologies until later perhaps
an introduction to metric spaces uses the motivation of literally distance, doesn't really need to talk about topologies right off the bat
Ah, I see
Yeah I suppose for like an analysis book or something, it doesn't need to dive that deep
doesn't that book discuss topology a bit
There is a natural topology for metric spaces
yes
But saying that metric spaces are topological spaces is a bit off I think
Like morally it's true
mathematical morality
They define some natural topology with open balls or something, was that it
I read about that
Yeah
I see, and sets with that topology are what we call metric spaces?
no metric spaces come together with a certain metric
different metrics could induce the same topological space
like in R^n you can look at the euclidean norm or the 1-norm if you know these
and they both induce metrics that are also different
but if you consider the topology generated by open balls then they yield the same
Ohhh I see
this is nice to visualize since you can place the balls in one norm into balls of the other norm
So how do we distinguish between them, we say they generate they different metric spaces?
Or well, not generate
I don't know if we use that word here
like this
a metric space is just a set with a metric. there is a natural topology associated to any metric space
well metric spaces are just sets together with a metric
if you use the open set definition of a topological space you can use that to prove every metric space is a topological space. it goes something like defining open sets in your metric space as neighborhoods i believe. I think usually books have a proof on this somewhere?
and if the metrics are different then the metric spaces are different i guess
Oh, so we don't actually use the topological space part in the definition, that comes afterwards?
yes
Okay okay, now I get it
if this is a book on topology, then its probably just there to give an example later. since metric spaces yield rather tame topological spaces and you usually have a good intuition for them
unlike many other wild topological spaces
Yeah, I'm treasuring this feeling of being able to visualize examples, R^2 is just lovely
In any case, thank you all a bunch, I get it now
I would say it's not
Completeness is not preserved under homeomorphisms and that's an important property of metric spaces
Actually idk what you mean by morally it's true so nvm
there's a natural topology on metric spaecs
which means it's fine to think of metric spaces as being topological spaces
although technically the topology is not part of the definition
I interpreted that as there is no more structure
they're not just topological spaces yeah
Because existence of a natural topology was mentioned before
I don't know if this question makes sense, but say that I have something "nice" in a cohomology theory (say the cup product on singular cohomology). How would one generalize this "nice thing" to an arbitrary cohomology theory?
is there a standard way of just generalizing something or does it depend on what you want to generalize?
This semester I took an undergraduate intro to topology course, the course covered both point-set and algebraic topology, I am fairly confident with the point-set part but have messed up my education in algebraic topology.
Is there any recommendation on how to self study the topic over the winter? Thank you!
I am currently working with Fumenko-Fuchs' "homotopical algebraic topology"
it's got basically all you'd want to know on the basics i think, from homotopy groups, knots, surfaces, fibrations, CW structures, (co) homology, UCT, spectral sequences and also some K-theory etc further back
i think it's quite nice and the presentation is fairly elementary
But there are some typos thrown in so you got to be aware
Also there are really beautiful illustrations in there
they're unrelated but inspired by the content of the book and i found them to be a good source of motivation while reading :)
Oh thank you so much! Is it beginner friendly to someone like me whoโs only background of alg top is basically just fundamental groups + van kampen?
And some covering maps etc.
yeah i think it def is
it starts only assuming point set and not even group theory, really
and it goes fairly in depth on fund groups, vK, covering theory too
so you'll find anything you're missing on the way
it seems very self contained if nothing else
it doesn't stress categorical language too much
that can be a good or a bad thing depending on your level but it's usually fairly apparent what's a twisted product etc when you see it in the text
one example for the typos:
in this proof that every map has a h-equiv strong serre fibration, the last line says phi = s when it should say = x
But from context it's pretty much always clear whats meant, i felt
My prof called this 'block.decomposition' but I can't find anything about it. The idea is for a simplicial.complex K and a subcomplex L, you take a sequence of increasing subcomplexes
L=M0\subseteq M1\subseteq.... Mn=K, such that Hr(Mk,Mk-1)=0 for r \neq k. You then construct maps from d:Hk(Mk,Mk-1)->Hk-1(Mk-1,Mk-2) which satisfy d^2=0, and apparently the homology of the resulting chain complex is isomorphic to Hk(K,L)
We haven't proven this uet but this was the general idea he gave
Thank you so much for your recommendation!
@spiral stratus I was actually looking for a similar recommendation this book looks exactly what i was looking for so thanks too 
This classic text of the renowned Moscow mathematical school equips the aspiring mathematician with a solid grounding in the core of topology, from a homotopical perspective. Its comprehensiveness and
yes
thats the one
i quite literally found this on the floor
no idea how i would have discovered it otherwise
does the fundamental group functor have a right adjoint
I'm guessing no but I don't remember the exact details. I thought there were sum spaces whose wedge sum had a fundamental group other than the free product
No, it does not preserve all colimits
svk tells you one kind of colimit that it preserves
if it had a right adjoint svk would be trivial 
yeah that's what gave me the idea
There are counterexamples when you remove any one of the hypotheses in svk
I mean it could have a right adjoint that's much more hard to describe than van kampen is to prove.....
this was my idea
Like S^1 when you remove connectedness of the intersections
oh yeah
would be kinda insane ๐ตโ๐ซ
I mean we know it's false
ye
I mean if something like that were true
svk has so many hypotheses
cover by open sets, path connected triple intersections and even then it only talks about pushouts
yeah ๐๐
you're right
ok well like
that's all still reasoble in a universe where is t had a right adjoint
ye lol
let's pretend it has the most complicated right adjoint ever
then it's fine to give a weak svk
and then the bug fancy people can say "we actually know a stronger version of this but it's too hard"
it's not like people always give you the most general version of every theorem
Ye but that seems very far fetched though
we'd at least have a version for preserving coproducts at least
But coproducts aren't preserved
Wait are they preserved by the fundamental groupoid functor
It looks like it 
yeah that's what my doubt was but I couldn't remember a specific pair of spaces where it fails (I think something like the hawaiian earing or something)
You need existence of a neighborhood of the basepoint that deformation retracts to the basepoint
Then coproduct is preserved
So ye Hawaiian earring should give a counterexample
nice
yeah I think
All I know about the fundamental group of the earring is that it's uncountable
I would be willing to believe that earring โจ earring is homeomorphic to earring lol
me too
๐
but the question is whether it's fubdamental group is it's own free product with itself
Ye
๐ฉ
anyways on a slightly related note does C2*C3 contain a free for up
free group*
and no I don't count Z ๐๐
The trivial group is free 
๐
yeah I think so
like it just has to
like come on
Seems too small ngl 
Can probably use covering space theory for this
Want to prove that figure 8 or something with that fundamental group can't cover the wedge of some wacky quotients of a sphere
ok take 1โข1 and 1โข2 where the first number is in C2 and the second is in C3
๐ตโ๐ซ
those have to be independent don't tbey
does this sound easier to you?
no
Free product ๐ตโ๐ซ
Nah 
in the free abelian product ๐๐
Ye lol
throught so ..
anyways there's this long chain I'm working on
I want a free subgroup of SO3
so I take the double cover SU2
then the complexification SL2(C)
then the subgrouo SL2(Z)
then the quotient PSL2(Z)
then that's the free product C2*C3
then I find a free subgroup
and somehow that gives me a free subgroup of SO3 ๐ฌ๐ฌ
I am sorry
sorry for what HAHA
For what you are having to do 
hahahah I am "choosing" to do this
but honestly I don't see how free subgroups of SL2(C) actually give me free subgroups of SU2
something about how if a word in matrices A and B evaluates to 1 uniformly on SU2 then the same must hold in SL2(C) by analytic something???
sounds right to me I just cant prove it
I was trying to figure this out by christmas ๐ณ๐ณ
โฑ๏ธโฑ๏ธ
Why 
because I feel like that's a satisfying deadline
well actually the reason is Im making this writing collection of something interesting every day from Dec 1 to 25
and I want this to make it in ๐ญ๐ญ๐ญ
do you understand this?
this is actually the step I'm most stuck on
No clue what that is 
๐๐๐
I actually don't need to do all of tbus
for every word in the free group I need to show some pair of rotations doesn't satisfy it
I feel like a good way to do that is to show there's a free group
but there may be some other way to force a non-solution to a given word..
like who knows maybe every single pair of rotations has AยฒB^-7AยณBโทA^-5=1
Guess every equation and check ๐
yesssss
hi, can someone tell me what's the closure of this {(x,y)โR2;x>0} ?
also why
{(x,y)โR2โฃx2+y2<2}โฉ{(x,y)โR2โฃ(xโ1)2+y2>1} is equal
= ({(x;y)โR2;x2+y2โฉฝ2}โฉ{(x;y)โR2|(xโ1)2+y2=1})โช({(x;y)โR2|x2+y2=2}โฉ{(x;y)โR2|(xโ1)2+y2โฅ1}.)```
closure of that in R^2 is the same set but with > replaced with >=
how did u know this

The y axis is exactly the set of limit points
okay so i have this problem and i want to ensure my thought process for it is correct
oh
im interrupting
aren't i

oh so you drew the image in your head, so if this was a bit more complex set how would you find its closure ?
or is it not possible ?
Drawing the image is usually the first step in any point set topology problem unless you are really comfortable with some other methods
If the set if too complicated you try to understand it locally
in the sense that you look at a small region around that point and see if you can say anything
and maybe use some theorems
but idk any general methods
alright alright thanks
@west spindle 
oh i can post mine now? 
aight so
i have this quotient space of the unit disk obtained by identifying each point x with -x. and i need to find the fundamental group
i think the space is homeo to the plain unit disk and thus the fund group is trivial
the idea is that it's "naturally" homeo to the lateral surface of a finite cone
cause you can take half of the disk as a fundamental domain and then glue it together into a cone, which you can then flatten
does this hold any water?
or did i do a big dum dum somewhere
I think this is homeomorphic to RP^2 so that seems incorrect 
wait we aren't just identifying boundary points
no we aren't
๐ตโ๐ซ
we're identifying opposite points within the whole disk
Yeah then homeomorphic to the disk itself seems legit, I think the complex squaring map should produce the homeomorphism
Like embed the disk into C
(I didn't get your reasoning)
then D^2 to D^2 you have a squaring map
That factors through the quotient
the disk is alr embedded in C
and the factored map is a homeomorphism because all is compact hausdorff
oh ok
ok I think I got what you are doing
same homeomorphism as the one I gave
Assuming all the stretching that you do in yours is sort of uniform
ye true
I mean it could be like the squaring map but rotated by something or whatever
Apparently if you order the vertices
that gives an ordering of the faces as well
this is supposed to be a tetrahedron drawing btw
but like what would the ordering of the faces be here, given the ordering of the vertices
if you have a k-dimensional simplex with an ordering on the vertices, you get a canonical ordering of the faces by saying the n-th face is the one opposite to the n-th vertex
not sure if thats what you want
oh cool
"opposite of nth vertex" is formalized as the unique face not including the nth-vertex as any of its vertices
So would the ordering say of the edges on the {0,1,3} face be [{1,3},{0,3},{0,1}]
yes
ok thanks
Has anyone here read and understood May's book Concise Course in Algebraic Topology?
I have a question from p117 of the PDF
This part
I don't understand how to prove the corollary
I want to show that a certain diagram commutes, where there are two maps d
Clearly I am supposed to use the fact that d: E_q(X,A) -> E_{q-1}(A) is a natural transformation
For that I would want to find a map (X,A) -> (CA, A) that induces the composition of the topological differential d_star and Sigma^-1 when applied homology functor E
And I want the map to be identity on A
But I can't find any such map, and I doubt if one even exists
Or maybe I'm looking at it the wrong way.
Since this is generalized homology, all we know about the boundary map is that if f: (X,A) -> (Y,B) is a map of pairs of spaces, the following diagram commutes
Any help is appreciated
@wooden falcon@cedar pebble@pearl holly@quartz edge@flint cove
I pinged the above people because they claimed to have read the book or recommended it to others
@tight agate
Yes we have a sequence A -> X -> Ci -> SA -> SX -> SCi -> ...
I don't think that's relevant here
We only care about the boundary map X/A -> Ci -> SA here
I have been absent from this server for months I'm amazed that anybody remembers me
reads backlog
I just searched for people who talked about the book and found you
it's alright lol was a pleasant surprise
can't promise to be helpful tho because I didn't even manage to get a good intuition for what a cofibration is
@hexed holly I'm afraid you will have to help me. What's the โtopological boundary mapโ X/AโฮฃX? The reduced suspension is only defined for pointed spaces, right? so what's the base point of X here
Ah, given at the end of p108
Ohhh I cannot read, we map into the suspension of A
@wooden falconDo you actually know how to prove it or was it just a guess? If the former, could you be more specific about what I need to use from that chapter?
I think this is described here https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/mapping+cone#HomologyExactSequencesAndFiberSequences but I barely know whatโs going on lmao sorry
Yeah this is not helpful at all
The proof is supposed to be a "trivial diagram chase"
I just want to see it
hi friends
i am going to ask very basic questions about pointset in here
pls forgive me
wait
no oops
wrong channle
where is the normal one
wtf
oh wait
it says point set is ok here
ok

ok here we go
Let $X$ be a topological space. Suppose that $A$ and $B$ are open subsets of $X$ with $\overline{A} = X = \overline{B}$. Prove that $\overline{A\cap B} = X$.
Kanga Gang Yakuza Yung cofe
idk how to think about this tbh
i know that X is closed so that the closure of A cap B is going to be contained in X
that's fine
but the other direction 
brain not working...
hmm a point in X is going to be a point in A closure and also in B closure
means that every open set containing x intersects nontrivially with A and also intersects nontrivially with B
oh
ok
thats it
wait where am i supposed to use the hypothesis that A and B are open
๐คจ
im doing something wrong
you don't quite get it from that
just because N cap A and N cap B are nonempty doesn't mean that N cap A cap B is nonempty
if you drop the open requirement you can actually get a counterexample
oh
so intersection of the neighborhood containing x with A need not actually contain x
same with B
and so it's possible for the N cap A cap B to be empty
but i need to find out how A and B being open make it nonempty
mhm
if U is a nonempty open set, then it intersects A, thus U \cap A is a nonempty open set, thus it intersects B, so U \cap A \cap B is nonempty
hmm sure it might be nonempty but can i choose U so that the resulting intersection contains an arbitrary element x of X
i see how you are using the openness to get nonempty
wait
let me think
oh
yeah i see
ok
hmm
but is x in U cap A
aghh im very confused
so our goal is just to get U cap A cap B nonempty, we don't need it to have x
icosahedron referred to a little lemma that if B is dense, then B cap V is nonempty for any nonempty open set V
right
im not totally convinced on this but we don't need to worry about arbitary elements x in X because U is arbitrary?
take U to be an open neighborhood of x, then U cap A is a non empty open set, but it need not contain x
right
oh
ohhh
i see
it doesn't matter
what icosahedron said is indeed enough
it just has to intersect
because then U cap A is another nonempty open set, which will then intersect nontrivially with B since B is dense
so then overall any U containing x will intersect nontrivially with A cap B
so x is in the closure of A cap B
is this right
yep!
so im thinking for the closure of {1} it is Z_+ because there are no other closed sets containing 1, right? Similarly also for the closure of {2} the only closed sets containing 2 are those where its of the form Z_+ - {odd numbers and their divisors} and of course also Z_+
so for {2} its closure is the set of even numbers?
yes
ok ty
does anyone know of a nice problem/ theorem whos proof uses induction on the CW complex
I forget what kind of properties carryover in these pushout squares
The cellular approximation theorem
and another question
what do we actually mean when we write something like $H^{*+1}(X)$
lime_soup
what I am particular confused about is, the cohomology ring $H^(X)$ always has a module structure over $H^(\text{pt})$
lime_soup
what is pt?
a point
X ---> pt induces a map of rings H(pt) ----> H(X)
is there any place where i can get a lot of practice and exposure to different types of topological groups/rings
a book on lie theory will tell you something about some topological groups
sorry i meant
i am confused because
what happens to this module structure when we hvae
H^*+1(X)
i assume H^+1(pt) to H^+1(X) is the module structure
Nobody
this is correct in general
My question is, is $H^{+1}(X)$ a module over $H^{+1}(pt)$ or $H^{*}(pt)$
lime_soup
I think it should be $H^{*+1}(pt)$
lime_soup
i think however that this is just spelling
this out
@wooden falconhi can you answer my question?
or @tight agate, you said you've read the book
If you don't know the answer that's ok too
To the person who reacted with "just ask", I already asked the question
Nobody has given me a hint to look at cofiber sequences, but I don't know if it's just a guess or if he knows how to do it
If the latter, I would really like him to show me
It's supposed to be an "easy diagram chase". If they've read the book and understood it, it shouldn't be hard to answer
I'm a noob so I can't see it
p117 of the PDF
I would really appreciate it if you showed me the proof
@wooden falconare you there?
Nobody is there 
yooo I'm so confused lmfao. D^n is just an n-cell, right? So the only chain group that is nontrivial is C_n(D^n),= Z, but that would imply that H_n(D^n) = Z
I literally don't see the mistake
The n-cell has to be glued to something.
oh daim okay
for example, the most common way to represent D^2 is
two points (north and south pole), two line segments connecting them (left side and right side)
and then one 2-cell in the middle
you can also do it with one point (north pole), one 1-cell making a loop, and then one 2-cell filling it in.
right right I see
so if I instead have like, say, S^n and I attach D^2n to it someway or another, woudl the cohomology in degree 2n be trivial?
i'm not quite sure how you're doing the attaching
and the answer would be no
I think what you really want to do is attach D^n to S^(n-1)
how would I show that it's nontrivial tho?
waht do you mean
when I say attach I mean that I have a map from the boundary of D^2n to S^n and I identify a point with its image btw
i guess it doesnt really matter what the attaching map is
so after I glued my disk to my sphere in this way, how would I know that the homology in degree 2n is nontrivial?
for n > 1 look at the chainc omplex
use your exact argument from before
you have a Z in degree 2n
and nothing in degrees 2n+1 or 2n-1
the issue with your first argument
this completely screwed me over lmfao


