#point-set-topology
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wanna see mine
are you aware of the simplex algo?
nope
there was an assignment in part B that we had to solve
usig simplex
1 page forming the inequalities
algo for solving linear optimization problems with linear inequality constraints
to solve it you make tables and look at the possible optimization opportunities
if you find one, you take it and repeat
which underneath is a gaussinan elemination type thing with some checks
so we had to compute a 4Γ11 matrix for each table
and we had to make 6 fucking tables
of 4Γ11
along with 4 extra cols total 15col
that's not the end
wait there's more
and it was a part of a 4 part problem where it was only the part 1
then you have to change some shit and do the whole fucking thing again
and the whole question carries 4 marks
means the process I just explained only gives you 1
out of 20
20 more to go

i would simply refuse to do that assignment
thats the only right choice
what an asshole of a prof
and gave 23hrs only
was he going to check them?
will deduce marks for plagiarism for sure
bcz who tf can solve all of them,
I copied some
obviously

can u not just apply the linear programming skills that you're learning and write a script that prints out the steps? or is it more complicated than that
there are programs that do it
but he has specifically mentioned the method
not just simplex but dual simplex/2phase simplex
don't think there are specific implementation to that
also I'm too lazy to make my own for an exam
FUCK IT
cry

next part of my problem is to prove that M is not a 2-manifold and idk how to do that
i give up
What is M?
from here
its a whole convoluted mess with the implicit function theorem and permuted graphs and shit and i dont care enough to try and get the points for this anymore lol. i cant see the motivation behind this example either

Oh once you have an image you can solve it
The way to use too pointiness is to compute derivative as you approach point
thats what one of the hints was saying but i do not really get it
L is a manifold
no ik
it is not a smooth manifold under like your usual embedding to R^2
Ok I mean in with the standard smooth structure
standard smooth structure
implying a smooth structure is there alr

yea you're looking at a immersed/embedded manifold
whats ur guy's preferred def of a manifold
You should tell yours lmao
Whatever my prof gave 
usually it's like
set + atlas 
hausdorff paracompact second countable and each point has a nbhd homeo to R^n
That's just topological manifold though
frantically opens wikipedia
yea
smooth manifold then transition maps need to be
smooth
u guys are speaking another language lmao
or meme
manifold is some LRS whose functions at some point is isomorphic to that of R^n
insert continuous/differentiable/smooth/analytic functions R^n
$M \subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ is a $C^r$ $k$-manifold without boundary provided that for each point $p\in M$ there is an open subset $U$ of $\mathbb{R}^k$, a relatively open neighborhood $V\ni p$ of $M$, and a map $\alpha\in C^r(U,V)$ with continuous inverse and rank of $D\alpha(x)=k$ for each $x\in U$.
c squared
uhhh
let M = ([0,infty) x {0}) U ({0} x [0,infty)). then consider the point p = (0,0). let U be an open subset of R and V a relatively open neighborhood of p, and let f be a C^1 map from U to V with continuous inverse and rank Df(x) = 1 for each x in U.
and ur saying to look at partial derivatives of f
Yes
M is union
Not product
Half x axis βͺ half y axis
Also L is a C^0 manifold
It's not a C^r manifold for r β₯ 1
a C^0 1 manifold?
I guess the definition you gave assumes that r β₯ 1
how is it a manifold if i cant take the derivative
$(M,\mathcal O_M)$ is a [adjective] manifold when the stalks are isomorphic to the stalks of $(\mbb R^n,\mathcal O)$ for some $n$ ($\mathcal O$ here ring of [adjective] functions)
ari δΊ²
Topological manifold, not differential manifold
there are non smooth manifolds
consider
Ari shut up
oh

graph of any continuous function
wot in the stonks
For topological manifolds you remove that last condition on derivatives
Then alpha just becomes a homeomorphism
yup
okay, cool
so uh
i feel like im not getting how to take the partial of f. like, Df(x) is a 2 by 1 column vector
Yes, you compute the partials at p by computing partials around p and using continuity
Should be 1x2 vector I think
But your definition has it the other way
Like both approaches will give the same result
But if you go the other way
You have an extra application of inverse function theorem or something
i dont think so, right?
To elaborate on this
Approach p along one of the axes
And you can actually compute one of the 2 partials on those points
how, i feel like everything is backwards
like, im just in some open subset U of R
am i supposed to be looking at f^{-1}
Yes
This may be assumed to be an interval without loss
coming in from the left
so just like, g(t) = (t,0) as t --> 0
and you look at f^{-1} o g
First gotta prove stuff about this map f
Do you see this
yes
So the point divides the interval into 2 parts
Prove that one part maps to the x axis under f
And the other to the y axis
f^{-1} : V \ {p} --> U\ {f^{-1}(p)} should be continuous
and injective
So a connected component maps to a connected component
oh fuck wait i didnt even realize
And we have exactly 2 of those in each space
I don't get it
wait nvm ignore me
So without loss (see how) we may assume that left part of interval is mapping to y axis and right part to x axis
This isn't too important to do
But now you can talk about partials of f on the left part
Can you say anything about them
they should be scalar multiples of each other because of the rank condition right?
but thats not whats important from what we just showed
i wanna say one should be zero
so from the left part of U, the first partial is zero
This isn't true actually
Perfect
So the same on the other side
How wonky
like super wonky like the derivative wont be continuous wonky
Lol
lol
It can be continuous
But approaching from one side said first entry is 0
From other side second entry is 0
So rank 0
Yes
so Df(x) should have rank one in some neighborhood of p always
shit. wait. so Df(x) = [Df_1(x) Df_2(x)]^T
Yes
and we just saw that Df_1(x) = 0 on left
Because f is CΒΉ
Df_2(x) = 0 on right
Yep
where did we start zooming in on p
and we can find Df(p) as the limit of partials
Yes

just realised there's a small issue with my solution. the qn only assumes that Y is connected, but the result of 7-5 requires that Y be path-connected
have not struggled like that in a minute
. appreciate you walking me through that
We want to show that given [f], equivalence class of a loop at x, [Ff] = [Gf]. You can do this by showing that Ff is path homotopic to g Ff g', where ' denotes the inverse path, and g is the loop at F(x) given by g(t) = H(x, t), H a homotopy from F to G, and use the fact that pi_1(Y) is abelian to get g Ff g' β Ff
Might have to take H from G to F instead, I think this is right but you'll know once you work it out
ah nice
Thx!
Indeed the lemma 7.45 kills the problem
is it hard to extend continous functions from subspaces to continous functions from the whole space in general
I can only see it in some pretty specific instances but can't really find an example where it's impossible
well I just thought of an example actually where it's impossible
the only continuous functions from R with standard topoogy to R with lower limit toplogy are constant
but the subspace (-infinity,-1]U[1,infinity) continuously maps to R with lower limit toplogy in a non constant way
and that couldn't possibly be extended
I'm also assuming is a closed subspace, cause I could do R{0} to R where negatives map to -1 and positives mao to 1
and since 0 is in the closure it's sort of getting an unfair deal
my real reason for wondering this is to work with continuous functions from compact hausdorff spaces to C
which seems like it should be super easy ππ
when the subset is a retract of the whole space I think I can do it by taking a deformation retract of the image of the boundary down to a point
If you are in a normal space, then all functions from a closed subset to R (or a closed interval in R) extend to the whole space by Tietze extension theorem, and all compact hausdorff spaces are normal
and then making some dyadic filtration on the domain
yeah I was thinking normal for my dyadic filtration idea
You should be able to infer the same for functions to C, by viewing C as RxR then breaking functions apart
yup
well I didn't know tietze extension theroem π
I would still like to do without that
I just need to somehow drop the requirement that the subspace is a retract
The retraction thing isn't needed for Tietze, unless I am misinterpreting what you are saying
no, I'm just placing stronger conditions than the tietze theorem
I can extend maps as long as the domain is a retract of a normal space
like subspace
so you want to weaken this hypothesis? Removing this would prove Tietze extension for compact Hausdorff, that can't be too much weaker than the whole theorem itself 
well the retract thing still works for normal spaces
but my end goal is compact hausdorff spaces

also I can assume it's connected but I don't see how that would help
oh right my dyadic filtration idea I forgot
basically my idea is
take the boundary of the subspace and watch where it maps in R
then do a little deformation retract in R down to a point
and put a nice little dyadic filtration of increasing neighborhoods around the subspace in the domain
like let's say the neighborhoods are U_d for dyadic rationals D
dyadic filtration meaning increasing sequence of open interval with rational endpoints having powers of 2 in the denominators?
wait
ye idk what it is
so I can assign a real number to every point in X based on the inf d such that x in U_d, and I can map U_d\(U_(lower d) to the image of the deformation of the boundary at time d
I'm saying it in a really weird way
the thing is
let's say at time 1/2 or whatever, my boundary has been contracted down to [0,1] in R
and I have my thin "circle" of points that correspond to the real number 1/2
circle in the domain
I don't know how to distribute the points in the circle along the interval [0,1]
I can just say that I want them all to map there
so it doesn't help π
you are taking pre image here?
I don't see why the image of the boundary is connected in R
That's not necessary
yeah I was just giving an example where it's [0,1]
either way you can deform it down to a point
and I'm using my dyadic filtration to get a continuous function from X to R such that on my subspace it's 0 and it gradually gets up to 1 as you move out
very similar to urysohn lemma
If you already know urysohn why not just use tietze 
cause idk tietze π
tietze is easy from urysohn
It is a bit tricky, but the proof is very short
ok so I have some wild function from subspace to R
and all urysohn gives me is a map where the subspace is 0
and some other closed subset that I don't care about maps to 1
Hint is, given a function f: X β [-1,1], find a function X β [-1/3,1/3] that is always within 2/3 of f
just compose it with the shrinky right?
wait did I mess up 
Wait 
what
you have 6 minutes
A is closed subset of X
and we have f: A β [-1,1]
and we want to approximate it by a function X β [-1/3,1/3]
which is within 2/3 of f on A
ok
just compose it with the shrink
yes
and I don't see where urysohn comes in
I just had a slight feeling that the techniques to prove urysohn might be useful again
you separate the preimages of [1/3,1] and [-1,-1/3]
This gives a function on X which is 1/3 wherever f is > 1/3
is -1/3 when f < -1/3
and somewhere in between when f somewhere in between
So it gives a global approximation of f
now you subtract this from f, you get a function f_1 to [-2/3,2/3]
do the same with dividing this into 3 parts
you get a sequence of function g_0, g_1, ...
where g_i is approximation of f_i
and their sum uniformly converges to a function g because its bounded by geometric series pointwise
and the limit is continuous because uniform convergence
will read after class
sure
class is out an hour early π
wait so are you saying to use ursyohn to separate those sets with values -1/3 and 1/3 as opposed to the usual 0 and 1
Less than and greater than those, not just those values
well I mean you're taking the subset of A that maps to >1/3 and <-1/3 and using urysohn on those, where you have a function that is constant 1/3 on the first set and constant -1/3 on the second?
yeah ok
I'm gonna draw this real quick
ok so
this seems a little strange
you have f:A->[0,1]
and you have your separation function U:X->[-1/3,1/3]
[-1,1] in this case
yes
So when you repeat this process with f-u to get u_2
And then u_3 and so on
Each time range is multiplied by constant less than 1
Range of f-summation u_i
So f-summation u_i converges to 0 uniformly
So summation u_i converge to f uniformly
On A
ok wait
And summation u_i is continuous because uniform limit of continuous functions
what do i do to get U2
You have f-u1 with codomain [-2/3, 2/3]. Now apply urysohn to β€ -2/9, β₯ 2/9
Splitting the range into 3 parts at each step
f - u1 - u2 then has range [-4/9, 4/9]
Each time, range becomes 2/3 of previous
I see it now
but idk how anyone on this planet thought of that
something just isn't clicking with me today
Lol yeah it's creative
But it is pretty short of you write it down, assuming you don't mess up like me lul
You just have to write this step for general n
it seems kind of genius
And then everything follows from geometric series and uniform limit being continuous
Yeah
like you're just using the special urysohn functions to approximate f
that's nice
and each one carries along the rest of x with it
Yep

I was doing all of this for an algebra problem 
ugh ew the only way I can see to extend this to R is really gross
basically I go back through all the details and show that if A originally mapped within (-1,1) then so will sum(U_n)
so basically the endpoints have no preimage
There is a very elegant way
in that case I just use homeomorphisms from R to (-1,1)
butttt

when you extend f
you get a function whose codomain is [-1,1]
and the boring part is showing it's range is actually within (-1,1)
I think that wasn't too bad
it's not
let me recall
in order for a point to map to 1, you need the error to always be maximum. in particular the error of f-U1 must be 2/3 at this point
and you can show that's impossible
wait nvm
I got that all wrong
cause the preimage will belong to X\A
so it's some point that belongs to the constant portion of every single urysohn map that you take

you definitely don't need to go through the proof again
oh you do apply urysohn again
they are disjoint
yeah sure
and the closed subset on which the original function was defined
separate them by continuous function that maps preimage of boundary to 0 and that original closed subset to 1
then multiply?
then multiply this separating function by the extension
much more annoying than I remembered 
I was thinking map S to 0 and boundary to some mystery number and then add the functions
but I was like
oh no there's nothing you can add to bring -1 and 1 closer together
oof
I'm not sure if it fucks the other points up though
like something that mapped to -0.8 preciously and then you subtract some more from it
we don't care what it does to other points
why not
extended it to a map from X to [-1,1]
using your application of urysohn, we are all good
ye but that 3 way separation should also work
using my application, the 3-way thing, some points might now be mapped to like -1.3
oh
like we added the map
I guess yours wins
what
things that now map to <-1
map them all to -1
and same on the other side
This is a continuous map on R
so this is fine
but then the codomain is [-1,1]
oh
I am very intelligent
yeahhhhhhh
very sarcastic 
hey you basically proved this all for me
My professor proved all this for you 
usually I actually think these proofs where you glue everything together and force it into the right place can be nice and fun and cute
but today with my sleep deprivation I just want everything to be perfect
AG has taught me that gluing is pain 
well we didn't actually do any gluing today
ye lol
but like you know the wieirstrass approximation theorem (might be spelling the name wrong)
eie 
π³π³
I thought that one had a fun proof
like cutting and pasting trying to mold stuff in the function algebra to your desired function
interesting
My probability course covered one probabilistic proof of it
maybe I'm mixing it up
polynomials can approximate any continuous function on R
but is that the one about function alwgebras that separate points
not on R
oh no I'm talking about the slightly more general one
oh yes
I know what you are talking about with the gluing
It is a neat proof
which is of |x|
you take polynomials in the actual functions to approximate their own absolute values
I haven't used this theorem in a long time but stood out to me as being nice
i always tell myself that algebra is more interesting than analysis
but like
analysis still warms my heart sometimes
people might see me bouncing around channels asking questions about stuff that I am very inexperienced with, as I have already been doing. it's cause I'm trying to give myself a month long math buffet
That is the way
I'm only on day 3 (since it's the 3rd of december) and it's already crazy fun
Is the computation of pi_n(S^3) made easier by the fact that S^3 is a group, as in this case multiplication is the same as the one inherited from the group structures? I am pretty sure the answer is no, but I'd like to know why.
why this made easier the calculation?
if you have an H-group then the multiplication in the H-group is the same as the multiplication in homotopy groups
this holds also for H-spaces and S^3 is an H-space
have you studied the construction of the product of two schemes yet
it's simplices all the way down
wat
Squash S^2 down to (-1, 1) by projecting onto the z axis, and then wrap (-1, 1) around in a circle (with some overlap) to cover S^1
The map looks like f(x, y, z) = (cos(2 pi z), sin(2 pi z))
oh,
I agree that going the other way is hard
it can be done in any dim right? like S^n+1 to S^n
u guys are op at this stuff
Yes, my question was why this fact does not simplify the computation of the homotopy groups.
Like pi_1 of an H-space is always commutative for example
There are also larger technical reasons that this is nice
(an equivalent definition of an H-space X is that homotopy classes of maps [Y, X] for any Y have natural group structures)
(this equips pi_n(S^n) = [S^n, X] with multiple group structures on it)
(which has some technical importance)
But like there aren't some super strong general results on H-spaces that nuke pi_n(X) or anything and make it easy to compute
I can come up with other examples as to why the H-space structure is nice if u want
Makes sense, the iterated loop spaces are also H-spaces
Like if you've heard of the hopf fibration, there exist hopf fibrations S^n - S^m with fibers S^0, S^1, S^3, and S^7 and this is related to the fact that these are the only spheres with H-space structures
But I was thinking maybe the group structure of S^3 in particular can be useful. For example if we could prove that all "spheroids" are homotopic to maps whose images lie in some conjugacy class, or whatever
Tbh im not really sure what exactly you're looking for
I only knew n = 3, m = 2 but that makes sense
Like the fact that S^3 is an H-space is useful in a lot of ways but like... pi_n(S^3) isnt known for all n or anything like that
Yeah, that's what I thought. What I was looking is why is that's the case?
I mean for example one might guess that we could represent homotopy classes by maps that are related to the group structure somehow
So like
As i mentioned earlier X being an H-space furnishes [S^n, X] = pi_n(X) with a natural group structure for all n
and it coincides with the usual one on pi_n(X)
But that doesnt mean that this group structure is trivially known or easy to compute
Yeah
H-spaces will give you some useful extra structure on things like the hopf construction for making a fibration or (if you've seen it) the pontryagin product giving homology a ring structure
But in general theyre not going to just like, determine everything instantly
I know it doesn't mean so (because the loop spaces L are H-spaces, and pi_n(X) = pi_1(L^(n - 1) X)).
Its a condition furnishing extra structure on [Y, X] not a condition restricting narrowly what that structure is if that makes sense
we're not saying something like contractibility where we are demanding that elements of [Y, X] obey a very specific property
Maybe I wasn't clear, but my point is not just that X is an H-space. It is an H-space like we understand.
For example I know that LS^2 is complicated H-space
But we completely understand S^3
if X is an h-space then the induced structure is given by using the fact that like, we have u: X x X -> X which will induce maps [Y, X x X] -> [Y, X] by composing
and the former is equal to [Y, X] x [Y, X]
I also know that we don't understand the homotopy groups of S^3 better, and thought that S^3 is a group was going to help. Since it doesn't, maybe I misunderstand where the difficulty comes from in homotopy groups.
makes sense right
Yeah
But the thing is like, just because u is explicitly defined doesnt mean that u*(f, g) is going to be easy to compute for arbitrary f, g
if that makes sense
Like we still need to understand things about [Y, X] to say useful things here
Of course, but that only proves that the computation shouldn't be trivial
are you just like
Why is this not possible?
broadly asking why pi_n(X) isnt easy to compute in general
sorry if im not giving a satisfactory answer lol its a bit hard for me to say anything other than just "If it is we dont know how to do it and the machinery is extremely complicated"
That makes sense to me, given how something like the Hopf fibration exists
I just realized that I don't know whether we can describe [X, S^1] or not!
Oh ok i might be able to answer something in a satisfactory way then
So like
Basically you want to see a non trivial element of pi_4(S^3) for example
Like to see explicitly why these things can be ugly
even when they have H space structures
Can we suspend the Hopf fibration?
Yea exactly
In general the non trivial generator of pi_n+1(S^n) is given by suspension the hopf map
Okay, I guess I can explain myself better now. It's not that the maps should be obvious (the fact that it's a group structure shouldn't help)
And i guess more broadly the way homotopy behaves with respect to suspension means that non-trivialities in lower homotopy groups of spheres carry over under suspensions
It's more like, having two spheriods a, b, we can represent them by canonical forms a', b' in a way that simplifies the question "Are a and b equivalent"?
And what I expected was that "canonical" should be some property of the group
the H space structure will help you find the product of two such spheroids
For example, say that a'(x) is always in the center
But the situations of like, [Y, X] is trivial and [Y, X] is uncountable
are gonna look massively different
Obviously lol
well like, pi_1 of an H space is always abelian
and pi_n is in general abelian for n >1
So

Sure
Yea
Imagine for example that there is a group such that all spheriods a are homotopic to spheriods with a'(x) have order 2
Im not really sure what a'(x) means here, the notation seems to suggest you're looking at the image of a single element of S^n under a'
Since the group structures coincide, that does give some value information
Ohh, okay.
By spheriod b I mean a representative of an element in a (higher) homotopy group.
I write b' if [b] = [b']
do you just mean like every element of [S^n, X] has order 2
That's the conclusion, yes
But in my hypothetical example, we could prove it in a different way
Not by explicitly showing that the composition of the spheriod with itself is the identity, but rather because we can homotope the spheriod to another one in which all the values assumed are of order 2.
That's an extremely restrictive scenario, and I don't say that there is a useful realization of it. But my point is to use the group structure in such ways.
There are definitely some situations where an H space structure can facilitate computations
Like maybe if you have a fibration between H spaces thats compatible with the H space structures and then the leray spectral sequence is a seuqence of Hopf algebras and that might help
Im sure those words mean nothing to u but im using it to illustrate the point that like while this is definitely not a never say never type situation
In general
just possessing an H space structure, even an explicitly known one, is not like a super strong nuclear bomb
Well, the Hopf fibrations do arise from group structures
U can say some things for sure in certain cases but its not like, that particularly strong an argument
Uh here fibration between H spaces is not necessarily the hopf fibration between spheres
or other spaces
I know
I mean I get how it could facilitate computations
Although it seems reductive to say the Hopf fibration is a calculation haha
well the fibration itself isnt but you can use it to compute a lot of homotopy groups of spheres because of the homotopy LES of a fibration
I see! I should look up the definition of Hopf algebras (I know spectral sequences are daunting)
I mega do not recommend you try to reverse engineer spectral sequences here bc theres just so much machinery youd need to learn first but like
Yea
Cool stuff
Hopf algebra is kind of
but should not be inaccessible
Too cool, I have been studying nothing else for a long time

anyway idk if this explanation was very helpful? but i hope it was a little bit at least lol
I did learn more
The definition isn't, but it's essentially useless without examples
something something group ring something something
I saw the algebra/coalgebra thing
What are topics in classical stable homotopy theory versus modern
I know modern is spectra and browns represent ability
Im not even sure if spectra properly counts as modern on its own
I feel like without it you have like freudenthals suspension theorem and related results
idek if u can prove freudenthals for arbitrary n-1 connected CW complexes without spectra
maybe im thinking of "stable homotopy theory" as too narrow a category though
What I mean is
Itβs easy to see what the topics are in modern stable homotopy theory
But browns representatibilty is pretty crucial for any modern treatment
This came many years after fruendenthal suspension
So what were the topics in between
just to confirm, is it true that every connected nbhd of S^1 (that isn't S^1) is evenly covered under the exponential map R -> S^1?
yes
thanks
Consider the cell decomposition of S^n with two cells in each dimension, and let S^k denote the appropriate subcomplexes
Is S^n / S^k homotopy equivalent to something simple?
For example, according to Hatcher,we have S^2 / S^0 = S^1 v S^2
(note: R^n = 0)
I think it's S^(k + 1) v S^n.
If it holds for (k, n) and P denotes suspension, then
S^(n + 1) / S^(k + 1) = P(S^n / S^k) = P(S^(k + 1) v S^n) = S^(k + 2) v S^(n + 1),
and then one checks the "boundary cases" k = 0 and n = 0.
can every RβΏ fibre bundle be turned into a vector bundle
I can see how to do it for a certain wide range of spaces (even wider if I can use choice) but it doesn't seem like a nice thing that you can just do
I can do it when each connected component of the base space is Lindelof
nevermind, I can't even do that. you need to make some annoying extension that I only know how to make when B is compact and hausdorff ππππ
basically give a chart from UΓRβΏ you can put a vector space structure on each pi^{-1}(b) for b in U, but if you have another one for a neighborhood V, these vector spaces are not gonna match up on VcapU. I can change one chart to be compatible with the vector space structure of the other, but that only works on UcapV and can't see how to extend it to the entirety of either neighborhood
Let X = (I x {0}) u (A x I), where A is the set of all rationals of the form 1/n, including zero. Apparently it is "not hard" to show that I x I does not retract to X. Any hints?
what is I
Yes
okay, sorry for changing up my question on u. I is the unit interval
lol
This is equivalent to (I, A) not having the homotopy extension property.
I mean you probably want to start here
I think I got it
Look at the image of the top edge I x {1} under the retraction, that will give the contradiction
@long hornet
I can't see it
At first I thought its image is disconnected or something, but that's not obvious..?
The image will contain all the tips of the lines, the (1/n,1) points
and by the intermediate value theorem, it will also contain the bottom edge
Take a neighbourhood of (0,1), there should be a neighbourhood of this point in the top line which maps into this neighbourhood
use the intermediate value theorem now to get a contradiction
If there is such a neighborhood, I see why this will complete the proof. But I can't see why.
Let U be an open neighbourhood of (1,0) in A. By continuity of the retraction, there must exist a neighbourhood V of (0,1) in I x {1} which maps into U under it. Then V contains some point of the form (1/n, 1) which maps to itself. Applying the intermediate value theorem to the x coordinate of the retraction, there must be a point in V that maps to (x,0) for some x not of the form 1/n, but U may be taken to be small enough that it doesn't intersect the x axis, so this is a contradiction
Do you mean in X in the first line?
oh my bad yes
And (0, 1)?
Yeah, but I thought we were working on the top edge
Yes, but (1, 0) isn't, which is what is in the first line
Ohh, I get it now. Thanks!
An interval in the top edge around p = (0, 1) is connected, so it can only map to one strand
I mean it's mapped to only one strand
That's essentially the same idea (we require U to be small to force it to be disconnected)
Well it could map to multiple strands, just not infinitely many
Oh ok
I see what you mean
Actually the strand must be the left edge
So we have to get something like r(1/n, 1) = (0, x)
hiya
borrowing this from stack exchange:
I am struggling to find the equivalence between this and the axioms for topological spaces
the one that goes
A1: X and NULL are open
A2: intersection of two open subsets are open
A3: Arbitrary unions of open subsets are open
I think I proofed that N3 is equivalent to A2
and that N2 implies that X is open
but I am struggling to proof anything about the null set being open
or the arbitrary unions axiom
You will first have to define what "open" means from the neighborhoods definition
will that be from N4?
Yes with M = N
since there is a set M in N such that N is a neighborhood of all its point, then M must be an open set containing x
This is not true
M need not be open. Take the origin in R, M = [-1,1], N = R
oh yeah
x = 0
So define a set to be open if it is a neighborhood of every point it contains
oh, thats neat
I see
never considered that
how about NULL sets?
it's hard for me to proof anything about that because it feels like there is nothing about it in the axiom of neighborhoods
That is vacuously a neighborhood of every point it contains
oh
There are no counterexamples because there are no points
So I have the following space: Consider $[0,1]^3$ the cube with the following equivalence classes $(x,1,z) \sim (0,x,z), (x,1,z) \sim (1,x,z), (0,x,y) \sim (x,y,1)$. So faces are identified with these diagonal faces across the cube. I want to show that the fundamental group of such a space is not isom to $\mathbb{Z}^3$, but the equivalence classes make looking at the loops rather difficult and annoying. Is there a easy loop here that I am not seeing?
MasakaBakana
Intuitively it seems that the fundamental group is Z X Z/2Z since the adjacent faces were glued while the top and bottom are also glued, does this seem right?
Hi, have a simple question about proper maps, is the inclusion map a proper map?
Sorry clarification, the inclusion map of a LCH subspace of a LCH space
LCH is locally compact hausdorff?
Yes
are you sure that's the correct equivalence relation?
because you're identifying (x, 1, z) both to (0, x, z) and (1, x, z)
Yea, I realized that it was the adajance faces being identified, and the top and bottom faces. But is my intution that it looks like Z X Z/2Z ok?
I'm not sure what the equivalence relation is exactly, for example you're not even considering the (x, 0, z) face
Consider $[0,1]^3$ the cube with the following equivalence classes $(x,0,z) \sim (0,x,z), (x,1,z) \sim (1,x,z), (x,y,0) \sim (x,y,1)$. I made a type
MasakaBakana
This is much better, it should look like the 2 adj faces glued and the top and bottom glued
okay
So I thought it looks something like the real projective plane cross: Rp^2 X S^1 which is why I got that guess ofr the fundamental group
But im not sure if thats it
If you look at a slice for some z
you get S^2
So it seems like this space is something like S^2 x S^1
That is very bad for me... Because the questino I was asked was to show why that space is not homeomorhpic to the following:
$[0,1]^3$ with identification $(x,1,z) \sim (x,1,z), (0,y,z) \sim (1,y,z), (x,y,0) \sim (x,y,1)$ and that has fundamental group $Z^3$
MasakaBakana
I think I have a counterexample. Take N βͺ {β} in the order topology (or if you are familiar with ordinals then Ο+1). This is compact hausdorff. Take inclusion of N into this, and N is LCH, but not compact. Then the preimage of the whole set, which is compact, is a not compact set.
So if that was the idenitication, they have the same fundamental group
Yes... mb
If you also want the larger space to be non compact, then just embed this larger thing into the ordinal Οβ’2
But is it true that the second thing I had is Z^3? It is the product S1 X S1 X S1 looking at the slice
Hmmmm
I will think abou tthis
thanks
Yes
that's just R^3/Z^3
so the fundamental group is Z^3
Hmm, Im not seeing the S^2. I see the Z axis gets you the S_1, but noy why the xy axis looks like a S^2
nvm i see it
Hey
Could someone draw out A, U, and V for me?
I can't seem to figure out how to draw the picture as I don't see how this is possible
Show that the subspace $X$ of $R$, namely, $$X={0}\cup{1/n;n\in\mathbb{Z}}$$ is not a CW complex
δΊεζ¨ ε€’εΆ
i figured it out,
Any feedback on my proof guys?
I learned this other characterization theorem of proving that a topological space is connected, but I used the definition and did a proof by contradiction because it seemed most simple
Probably say why you care about the union of X \ P and X \ Q, since you are supposed to think about the union of P and Q. Also you should say P and Q are both non empty open, because otherwise the complement need not be finite (it would be the whole set)
he did say non empty tho
right, I was only looking at the next line
yes sir
if $f,g:X\to Y$ are homotopic rel $x$ then I understand that they define the same homomorphism from $\pi_1(X,x)$ to $\pi_1(Y,y)$ where $y=f(x)$. but is there any meaningful way to say this when $f$ and $g$ are just homotopic?
wren
the reason I'm saying this is that the homotopy classes of maps from the torus to itself are the 2Γ2 integer matrices, which are the same as endomorphisms of it's fundamental group. there is a nice way to see this if we pick a point on the torus and say we are only considering maps that are homotopic rel x but I can't see how to extend this reasoning
What do you mean by "say this"?
asking this*
the reason I asked this^
are you asking if theres a basepoint independent notion of induced homomorphisms on pi_1
yes I guess
Since pi_1(T^2) is abelian the answer is yes
In general if i have a space X and a path from points x to y, call it g, then we can turn loops at x into loops at y
that's what I was thinking π³ cause like the inner automorphisms are triviak
yeah exactly
Paths between the basepoint induce non canonical isomorphisms on pi_1
through conjugation by paths
unique base change :)
When pi_1 is abelian its canonical
ok here's the thing also
if we have maps f and g
and a path gamma:[0,1]->SΒΉΓSΒΉ
then like if we have a homotopy from f to g
at each time of the homotopy
the closed loops are gonna have different bases
so like to get paths from all f Base points to all g base points, do we just pick a path from f(gamma(0)) to g(gamma(0)) and then carry it through the homotopy?
ok if f and g are homotopic rel x then we have f(x)=g(x) and at all times of the homotopy we have the same thing
so now if they are just homotopic
we pick a path from f(x) to g(x) and we are all fine again
f is a map from the torus to itself
omg oops I forgot to say f and g are maps from the torus to itself
it was in my brain but I forgot to say it ππ
Oh I thought they were loops lol
yeah that made sense to assume π
What is an f base point exactly
ok so in the domain I'm fixing a base point and considering the fundamental group based at that point
f sends closed loops at x to closed loops at y, g sends closed loops at x to closed loops at z
Ah okay
so I pick a path from y to z
Yes
wait a sec I just realized
isn't there a canonical path we can take that's given by the homotopy from f to g?
yeah if we have H: T^2 x I -> S^1 with H(a, 0) = f(a) and H(a, 1) = g(a) then we can take H(x, t) with x fixed and t varying
well the path is not canonical unless the homotopy is somehow
oh you're right
but the induced map on pi_1 will be because pi_1(T^2) is abelian
ok I see
so if f and g are homotopic then it will not necessarily be the case that closed loops are still closed at all times of the homotopy
right
they will be closed at time 1
oh no cause H(s,t) is a continuous map still for each t
I don't know what I'm confused about honestly
sorry by closed loop do you mean like
we have a loop in pi_1(X)
we look at its image under f and g
and then take the homotopy between the images?
yeah I think
so we have like ell: I -> X with ell(0) = ell(1) and f(ell(0)) = x, g(ell(0) = y, and a homotopy H: T^2 x I -> T^2 inducing, with H(a, 0) = f(a), H(a, 1) = g(a)
So that if we take H(a, 0) as a ranges across the image of ell we get f circ ell
and similarly g circ ell
we know that these are loops
yes
Yea i think u pretty much got it lol
ell(0) = ell(1) so H(ell(0), t) = H(ell(1), t) for all t
not just t = 0 or t = 1
ok got it
and since H is continuous its restriction to the image of ell defines a continuous map I -> T^2 -> T^2
i guess more precisely H(a, t) for fixed t as a ranges across the image of ell is the restriction of H to Im ell x {t}
ok now the harder question is whether two maps are homotopic given that they define the same homomorphism between fundamental groups (assuming the codomain is abelian)
so we take ell: I -> T^2 and compose with the inclusion T^2 -> T^2 x I and then apply H
No not in general
just take any homomorphism between two spaces with trivial pi_1
but non trivial pi_n for some n > 1
oh yeah π
if the homomorphisms of every homotopy group are the same, are the maps homotopic?
I believe you need them to be maps between CW complexes
moth is right but i just want to be extra careful and point out
that the precise statement is
there needs to be a map of spaces between the CW complexes
that induces the isomorphisms
i think moth implied this
Yeah there are spaces that have isomorphic homotopy groups but which are not homotopy equivalent
but if you didnβt know this you might have missed it
iirc S^2 x RP^3 and S^3 x RP^2
yeah that is the example that everyne goes to
because it even shows
itβs not because of
some strange pathological space
you couldnβt really ask for nicer spaces
I have this general but incredibly imprecise intuition that homotopy groups are basically bad at distinguishing products
of spaces that is
Speaking of which, out of idle curiosity, when do we have S^n = A x B for A, B nontrivial (i.e., have more than one point)?
One of them has to be a homotopy sphere, and the other a homotopy "point"
I think if we can transport the cellular structure to A and B, then maybe we can apply Whitehead's theorem somehow?
I saw a proof that this is impossible for n = 1, based on connectivity
Apparently "homotopy sphere" means something different. I just meant a space with the same homotopy groups.
I'm thinking about how H < ΟX the subgroups of the fundamental group of a space (with nice properties) correspond to classes of covers. Is there a meaningful correspondence to subsets Y of X with ΟY = H?
I saw a cool proof to generate a topoligical space with a given finitely generated fundamental group. the same procedure can be applied to arbitrary groups, but I'm not sure if the fundamental group of the space will still be the desired group. does anyone know if this happens to be true?
there is a way to generate a space with fundamental group G for any group G, even if it's not finitely generated.
theorem by eilenberg and maclane
Hatcher proves it in page 52. He takes the wedge of circles (with as many circles as are there generators) and attaches the 2-cells in the right way
Given an abelian group A, can we find an H-space X with pi_1(X) = A?
I like May's proof a lot more
What's the general idea?
He proves that a subgroup of a free group is free using Galois correspondence, then write the group G as F/H a quotient of free groups. Take a graph s with fundamental group F and the graph covering it corresponding to the subgroup H. Then the mapping cone of this has G as its fundamental group
It feels nicer because there's only one attaching happening, rather than attaching lots of 2 cells
I didn't expect the mapping cone to show up - I guess I need to refresh my memory about covering spaces
The mapping cone's fundamental group can be computed using svk on the cone part and the complement of the tip of the cone
Makes sense
It immediately comes out to be F/H
It is nicer
Do we also get a CW complex? I think we do
Because we glue along a cellular map or something
Yeah it should be CW, let me think
Isn't there a theorem that says that collapsing closed subcomplexes gives a CW complex
Yes
Ye that just inherits the structure
So first you make the mapping cylinder
Then collapse the top
And mapping cylinder is constructed by taking
A is domain
X is codomain
Then you taking A x I union X but you are gluing A x I along the edges
So for this I think you can argue cell by cell
For each 2-cell in A x I you are doing this gluing
The wedges with circles approach generalizes for abelian groups with n > 1 i think
not sure about the other one
Oh neat
its also kinda nice cause its similar to the construction for moore spaces 
I think pusbouts exist in the cellular category, or something
Seems legit, I'm willing to accept that as fact 
This is kinda dumb but if two spaces are homotopy equivalent, and one is H-space, so is the other, right?
I thought this was obvious (them being isomorphic in hTop), but the issue is that H-spaces are group objects in hTop*
So this is at least true when one is homogeneous
My motivation is as follows. If X is a K(A, 1), and we have an H-space G which is also that, then they are homotopy equivalent, and thus both are H-spaces.
So to prove that there is no H-space which is a K(A, 1), maybe we can just work with a specific construction, like Hatcher's or May's. But I don't have the sufficient machinery anyway, so this seems moot.
Another question is if we have two points x and x', do we have an isomorphism (X, x) ~ (X, x') in hTop*, the homotopy category of pointed spaces?
This is not true in Top* (of course, because not all spaces are homogeneous). The easy counterexample is X = (0, 1], but it doesn't work in hTop*.
is the cont image of a path connected space path connected?
Yes. Take a path joining two preimages and compose with your function.
Well, the image of (0, 1] under this function is path connected
yeah
I think no
When X isnβt path connected (X,x) doesnt need to be homotopy equivalent to (X,xβ)
yeah that's the construction but idek how to show it's fundamental group is the group
Yeah, I just found that Q u S^1 is a counterexample. But what if we have path connectedness?
if we have path connectedness and CW complex then (X,x) is homotopy equivalent to (X,xβ)
Oh, good point
One proves that attaching a 2-cell has the desired effect (i.e., introducing the correct relation). Lee has a detailed proof.
how often do yall apply alg top to things?
and i call using theorems/techniques as applying
and i mean applying to other fields
this is probably a dumb question but if I have $f^(\alpha) \in H^n(X; G)$ then I can view this as a map $f^(\alpha): X \to K(G, n)$. What will the induced homomorphism of $f^*(\alpha)$ then look like?
Tokidoki β
$(f^(\alpha))^ = f^* \alpha^*$ right?
Tokidoki β
plz say this is right
I just want to make sure I'm not brain dead lmao plz
BrokenPizzaDreams

