#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 273 of 1
that feels like it
or one or the other. because if you delete one or the other endpoint the result is contractible
huh I think I was just using the wrong subspaces
like I was looking at H(SX,X) but I think you might actually want to do H(SX,CX)
The inclusion of the two points into SX should certainly be a "good pair" btw
or like
yeah
(SX, CX) is a good pair
etc
then excise the endpoint
oh wait is this just trivial induction?
like let C^n(X) be the union of n cones CX with bases identified
take H(C^nX,CX) and excise the endpoint and then that deformation retracts onto H(C^{n-1}X)
and then H(CX) has all trivial homology groups since it is retractable
although what does that really get you
i think you might have to put it into the long exact sequence to get more info
well I'm doing that and I'm not sure what info I get
since you get a LES where every third group is just 0
wait but this feels wrong then
since this also proves S^n is retractable 
or more likely I am just dumb
$$...\to H_n(CX) \to H_n(C^kX) \to H_n(C^kX,CX) \to H_{n-1}(CX) \to ...$$
Namington + mniip 2024
excise and you get
$$...\to H_n(CX) \to H_n(C^kX) \to H_n(C^{k-1}X) \to H{n-1}(CX) \to ...$$
Namington + mniip 2024
except that can't be right
I'm stuck in int(F)=empty set. Out of ideas.
Okay, so i can use a bit of help. I need to show that if h is homotopic to h' and k is homotopic to k', then h o k is homotopic to h' o k'.
My thought is to try to show that h is homotopic to h o k (although I cannot guarantee this is true off the bat). If I can do that, then the rest is pretty simple
If I can't do that, then I am not entirely sure what I should do instead.
this doesn't sound like it's formally possible
it's like
this doesn't type check right
have you drawn a picture?
i'ts not meaningful to say "h is homotopic to hk"
Yea, I had a hunch :(
Do you know that homotopy is transitive?
Yes, that's what I was trying to get to (if I could use it)
like if F1 is homotopic to F2 and F2 is homotopic to F3 then F1 is homotopic to F3
yeah.
ok so
prove hk is homotopic to hk'
and then prove hk' is homotopic to h'k'
Ah, I see what you are getting at. So how might I do the first one? Homotopies are still a bit new to me
try drawing a picture!
if your spaces are $X, Y, Z$, with $h, h' : X\to Y$ and $k : Y\to Z$
diligentClerk
pick some point in $X$
diligentClerk
the idea is to give a path $kh(x) \to kh'(x)$ in $Z$, which is assigned in a continuous way as a function of $x$
diligentClerk
and what you have is a path $h(x)\to h'(x)$ in $Y$ (from the homotopy $h\to h'$) and a continuous map $k : Y\to Z$
diligentClerk
how can you combine them?
Hatcher 2.1 problem 20
Okay, let's go back a bit to the picture. I have a good idea as to how to visualize path homotopies, but not homotopies themselves
yeah so just fix a single point in $x$ and think of it as a path homotopy from $khx$ to $kh'x$ and then think about the bigger picture after that
diligentClerk
if you solve the problem for a single point $x\in X$ it gives a path ${ x } \times I \to Z$
diligentClerk
then if you solve it for all points in $X$ it gives a map $X\times I\to Z$ as $X = \bigcup_x {x}$
diligentClerk

bruh does TeXit not work in threads
This is a lot to process 
yes math is hard
<@&286206848099549185>
I appreciate the help, but I am so lost right now
ok, I solved my problem.... 😐
great
let that be a lesson to the rest of you
when somebody yells at you for asking questions
just solve the question
what was the soltution?
and then it won't be an issue anymore
The set $F=\left{a_n::n\in\mathbb{N}\right}$ inherits the properties of local compactness and Hausdorff from $X$, because it's closed. So if none of $\left{a_n\right}$ is open, then $U_n=F\setminus\left{a_n\right}$ is open dense in $F$. Thus, by Baire theorem $\bigcap_n U_n$ is dense in $F$. But the intersection happens to be empty set.
RaD0N
gonna have to re-look up what baires theorem is
oh. this is a nice solution then
indeed. I was stuck because I didn't make use of this property. I was trying to work with the bigger one, the X.
baires theorem is op
Okay, back to the homotopy problem (I took a break).
So we definitely know that $h \simeq h'$, so then is the homotopy, $F$, for $k$ and $k'$ sufficient to show $k\circ h \simeq k \circ h'$?
dackid
Wait, actually, the map we are looking for is a function from XxI into Z, so my thought process clearly won't work :/
Actually, hold on a sec! $F: X\times I \to Y \times I$ given by $F(x,t)=(f(x),t)$ is continuous. And there is a function $G: Y\times I \to Z$ that is continuous. So $G\circ F$ is continuous.
bravo
dackid
Oh and this is the exact map we need to show k(h) is homotopic to k'(h)
So how about the other part. That k'(h) is homotopic to k'(h'), I don't think the same idea works for this.
dackid
Then transitivity gets the job done.
ye
Heck yea 🥳
Okay, next question: what is a simple way to describe a star shaped region in R^2?
wydm
Well, I need to find a star convex space in R^2 that is not convex, and the thing that jumps out at me is a star shaped region. Not only is it in the name, but it is not a convex region
this counterexample works.
are you writing this up
if you're not writing it up just find a simpler example.
HINT
idk there's lots of examples
here's one easy answer|| The union of the x and y axes. ||
Oh good heavens, that is super easy xp
Okay, so the next thing is to show is that star connected spaces are simply connected. So i have an idea of what to do.
Since any loop for x_0 can be represented as two separate paths: a path from x_0 to x_1, and a path from x_1, to x_0.
Though I am not sure how this helps us get to creare a path homotopy with the trivial loop
ok this is a good exercise and worth doing
so i'm going to bounce and let you think about it
Oh wait, any path from a star convex point to any other point is path homotopic to a straight line between them
Then you can shrink that line to a single point.
i dont think there is a fact about homeomorphisms fixing 0 that im forgetting so I guess I'm asking if removing 0 is actually important
sry let me type this so its readable lol
jesse
Oh okay so I could just compose it and be fine
yes this makes sense
right yeah thanks very silly

Thanks. I figured out what the answer should be and then just stated that adding the three things up gives us that. Hopefully my professor doesn't look too closely at the computation
Okay. I am not too sure how to use the assumption of a space being star convex to show a loop is in the trivial class...
I don't see a workable connection
Actually, I think this is just a straight-line homotopy
All points can be mapped to the star convex point by a straight line
Let a_0 be the star convex point, and f be a loop centered at a_0.
Then, F(s,t)=(1-s)f(t)+a_0 s is the straight line homotopy between f and the trivial loop.
Alright, having a bit of trouble with this one.
In case that notation is not standard, here is the definition for a hat.
So if I understand the problem correctly, the goal is to show that if $\pi_1(X,x_0)$ is abelian, then $\hat{\alpha} \simeq_p \hat{\beta}$.
dackid
I believe that is what the equality represents here.
consider the loop alpha * beta^{-1}
That concatenated with beta* alpha^-1 gives you the identity loop
But that doesn't tell us much :/
I'm catching on to that, just not sure how to approach it differently.
Truth be told, this needs to be path homotopic to the identity loop to get what we are looking for.
sorry to pop in but
so you should think about it like
[alpha bar] * [f] * [alpha] = [beta bar] * [f] * [beta] if and only if...
Yea, that's what we are trying to get to. I understand that
Btw, when you say beta^-1, do you mean beta bar?
Ohhh, we should star f with alpha*beta bar
That gives you this
Well, that doesn't quite seem like what we are looking for 🤦♂️
So this approach seems like a dead end
Namington + mniip 2024
Namington + mniip 2024
Namington + mniip 2024
Namington + mniip 2024
oh whoops typo with the subscript there
and hopefully whatever technique you use would generalize nicely to spaces where you identify more cones
This idea is pretty close but the best way to do it is to identify SX with CX/X = (CX, X)
then just use the LES for relative homology
with X -> CX -> (CX, X)
cone is contractible so it dies and you just get isos
What do u mean identifying more than 2 cones
look at the problem
I mean CX/X only gives SX, not 3 cones with the bases identified
the two cones are given by X x [0, 1/2] /X x {0} and X x [1/2, 1]/ X x {1}
unless it's a trick and all the spaces are homotopic to SX
wait what exactly do you mean
The question is asking you to define an iso on homologyt
you can use the fact that H_n(CX, X) cong H_n(CX/X) cong H_n(Sigma(X))
What is your definition of the suspension
X times I with the ends identified
Right
X x I/(X x {0} U X x {1})
CX = X x I/(X x {1})
so
identify X in CX with X x {0}
and kill
what I'm asking is for
compute the reduced homology groups of the union of any finite number of cones CX with their bases identified
Oh i see
So you mean like disjoint union of cones with X x {0} in each quotiented together?
yeah the other part is clear with the "identify CX/X with SX" idea
yeah
or like
this
just read the last bit of the problem
I see
Same principle id think
let Y be our final space
its given by disjoint union of CX quotiented by disjoint union of the X x {0}
so apply LES
it's the end where you're not quotienting
Ok this is pretty hurbed, its not disjoint union of CX quotiented by the X x {0}
Uhhh hmmm id probably use CW homology or something
theres not a nice representation of this as a quotient by a subspace
afaict
it feels like there should be some kind of induction you could do
but I'm not immediately seeing it and am also probably going to bed now since it is late
Ok solution: let Y be the disjoint union of the cones with the bases identified. Then Y/X x {0} cong wedge sum of suspensions
right
what is X x {0} here
The base of each cone
is that the end where you have the "point" or not
No, the base
ok right
Sorry if its a bit ambiguous : p
so this identification makes sense?
yeah that's a wedge sum of k suspensions if you had k cones
Right
So we apply LES
we get
$\ldots \to H_n(X \times {0}) \cong H_n(X) \to H_n(Y) \to H_n(\bigvee SX) \to \ldots$
when the yass pills hit
well H_n(X\times {0}) isn't iso to H_n(X) though right?
it's iso to k copies of H_n(X)
Uh remember that we're working in Y, so the X x {0} are all already identified
this is a quotient of Y by X x {0}
not of the disjoint union
Ya so we have that the $H_n(\bigvee SX) \cong \bigoplus H_{n-1}(X)$
when the yass pills hit
since $H_n(X) \to H_n(Y)$ is the zero map
Namington + mniip 2024
Yea similar, just for a general # of cones
by induction?
or
no wait
by the first part
Uh we factor through the wedge sum to get direct sum
Yeah
And then apply the first part
yeah right I see that
when the yass pills hit
Ur correct that H_n(X) -> H_n(Y) will be the 0 map
right
hence H_n(Y) -> bigoplus is injective
(kernel = image of last map = 0)
so basically you need to compute the kernel of the map bigoplus_k Hn(X) -> X
that will be the image of H_n(Y) -> bigoplus_k Hn(X)
hence isomorphic to H_n(Y)
and what is that kernel exactly?
well like, we have all these cones sharing a base X x {0}
yeah
Uh im not going to prove this exactly but I think its not unreasonable to see that if f: Delta^n -> X generates the nth homology of X then the generator for each cone is going to be like Cf: C Delta^n = Delta^n+1 -> CX
which kinda makes sense intuitively i think
I think I might be getting too tired to follow
Yea thats fair
before u sleep the intuition is basically that the generator for each component of our bigoplus_k
they all share a boundary, the generator for X
so that all but one of them dies
ok but like
Hence the kernel is going to be bigoplus_k-1 H_n(X)
right so that's the image of Y?
If you star by beta on the left and beta bar on the right I think you get something nice
(only took me banging my head against a wall for 2 days and then having the solution be the one thing I didn't think to try)
yeah that was very helpful thanks
this is my first real problem set for homology
simplicial homology is an evil demon from hell
isn't this singular homology?
Singular too
simplicial homology is just like combinatorial
Yea
you don't have these uncountably infinite chain groups
oh wait I have one more question
that's what I thought. It was just funny to get that problem in like 30 seconds after spending hours on the previous one
Lol yeah thats usually how it is with homology
the geometry is the hard part
the algebra is very very nice
well it seems like here it's just a question of what subspaces to quotient by
Usually anyway...
and I just got bamboozled since it turns out the trick was to not actually look at the subspace whose homology you were trying to compute
Day one of algebraic topology: haha loops are so cute
day 500: my E_14 page hasnt degenerated yet
and just incidentally form it as a quotient so it was in the right place in the LES
E_14?
Spectral sequence meme
that's like a homology thing right?
Uh its certainly related
well like a tool for computing homology
Yes it is
how far into alg top are you Moth?
Loaded question 
Idk
I think on the threshold of transitioning into more advanced stuff
Probably not all of the appendices but i think all of the main content yeah
idk yeah I realize this is a weird question
since progression isn't really linear
Once you finish hatcher i highly highly highly recommend finding some source that treats homotopy theory in a less... schizophrenic for lack of a better word?? way
a lot of very intro AT stuff is illuminated by some basic categorical relations
In a way that will make the transition so much less painful
my instructor is giving me some of that
oh I don't know that stuff
They are very very nice
what is the duality between loop and suspension
basically Maps(X, Omega Y) cong Maps(Sigma X, Y)
oh wait I think I have done this
This happens because Omega Y = Maps(S1, Y) and Sigma X = X smash S1 and smash products are tensors in the category of pointed spaces 
Theres just nice things like
my advisor for my reading course is so funny
I'll like ask him a question and he'll go on a 30 minute long tangent using math I barely know
Theres a certain kind of space called an H space (you have probably seen them) where like Maps(X, Y) has a natural group structure when Y is an H space
and a dual notion called coH space where X coH -> Maps(X, Y) has a natural group structure
And basically suspensions are always H spaces and loops are always coH spaces and a lot of intro pi_n homotopy theory falls out of this really fast
yeah this seems like exactly the kind of thing he'd go on about
and also the kind of thing I would be very interested in hearing more about if I wasn't so tired
I want to say something more about my reading course instructor but it might be a bit of a self dox idk
oh a fun consequence of this: pi_2(X) = Maps(S^2, X) = Maps(Sigma Sigma S^0, X) = Maps(Sigma S^0, Omega X). you get two group structures on pi_2(X) then, one from Sigma S^0 being an H space and another from Omega X being a coH space. there are certain theorems (eckmann hilton) that say that when 2 group structures exist under certian conditions theyre the same and always commutative
not really since it mostly just reveals what school I go to
so this is a cute way to show commutativity of higher htpy groups
which I think I've said in the past
but it was like a while back
anyway you should sleep! the math will be waiting in the morning
indeed. My Goldwater scholarship application will also be waiting in the morning 
*applcation

lmao typo that made it seem like I actually won it
when I very much did not
and almost certainly will not
since I am starting the application late and have no idea how to write a research essay
well good luck regardless 
i am also going to go to sleep now since i have school in the morning

oh yeah you're still in highschool 
Pain 
what are you even going to do for college Moth
like you know a good deal more than is taught in the average math major already
Vibe
Idk take a bunch of cool courses and stuff hopefully
Maybe i will jsut drop out and then live in a hole in the ground like a hobbit
r/nonbinarylivingspace
ok i am going to sleep for real, good night 
Let $E$ and $E'$ two normed Vector Spaces. $\ f:A\subset E \to E' \ \lim_{x\to a}f(x) = b \iff \forall V$ neighborhood of $b$ in $E'$, $\exists U$ neighborhood of $a$ in $E$, such that: $f(U \cap A) \subset V$. i didn't get it honestly.
Salah
I could use a little help with 3).
So if I understand this correctly, the goal is to show B has k homeomorphic copies in E.
Although I am not too sure how to show that.
since B is connected, maybe you can do a "clopen set proof" with {b \in B: p^{-1}(b) has k elements}
Well, since B is connected, we can take an open neighborhood of b_0 that contains some b. Then the pre image of this has k homeomorphic copies, and since p^-(b) is contained in this nbhd, we have k elements
Actually no, not sure that works. But since B is connected, maybe we can show that B is evenly covered by p
teppa is suggesting take the set of all elements with fibre having k elements and proving that this set is clopen
Why would that be effective?
what's a clopen set in a connected space
Ah, the space itself or the empty set
and you know this one's non-empty
But we already know it is not empty
bingo
0kay, interesting. So how can we use the connectedness of B to show that our set is clopen?
🤨
Sorry, let me rephrase
for showing it's clopen i'd probably play around with the definition of a covering map
this i have not done
Well this is the definition I have to work with.

Okay, I guess the best way to extend this is to take an evenly covered nbhd for each b in our set and take the pre image of the union
Not sure honestly. It just seems like in order to use our definition, we need a nbhd that is evenly covered to make much use of it.
surely
pick a point with m points in its fibre, show that is has a neighbourhood in which every point has m points in the fibre (hint: ||evenly covered neighbourhood||)
apply this with m = k and m \neq k and you get both open and closed
dammit sniped

Oh good lord...that's easy 🤦♂️
Thanks guys, that makes a lot of sense. Fair warning: I am gonna need a bit of help today. Algebraic topology is a bit difficult for me
I haven’t done any topology whatsoever in like a week now 
Sometimes I wish I could say the same. It is very interesting, but also quite difficult
Ye it do be hard 
Okay, so now I need to show that Example 3 is a covering map. Then I need to generalize and show that p(z)=z^n is a covering map of S^1
One thing I am noticing is that this is an n-fold covering of B, since there are exactly n values of z s.t. p(z)=z^n
hint: small enough basic open sets are evenly covered
actually remove the "small enough"
Yea, it doesn't actually matter. The only relevant thing is the nbhds are disjoint.
oh is this the second part of Munkres?
Sure is 
oof I see, I haven't read the second part tho
Okay, so I think the main issue is to show that p(z) is continuous
Then the rest is rather straightforward.

Doing it with epsilon delta sounds like hell tbh
ye don't
Is there a nicer way to do it?
yes
Show me da wae
multiplication C x C to C is continuous 
if you have to prove that too
all the best
you are on your own
Okay easy. Multiplication CxC to C is continuous, and since p(z) is just restricted multiplication, it is also continuous
😌
it is composition of the diagonal map S^1 → S^1 x S^1 and the multiplication map S^1 x S^1 → S^1
Wait, ya lost me on the diagonal map part
diagonal maps are always continuous, in fact homeomorphisms onto their images
diagonal map is x maps to (x,x)
Oh, we are still talking z^2 here.
ye
But I do see how this generalizes to n rather easily
😌
Okay, lastly, since we want disjoint neighborhoods, we take an open nbhd with a difference in argument of pi/n
Then the preimages will be disjoint.
They should be disjoint even without that
as long as the neighbourhood is not the whole circle
I wanna play it safe, because I am not so sure
Okay, I need help on 6b.
Actually hold up
oh boi I remember spending a lot of time on this one 
I almost have it. My only issue is to ensure that the preimage of the image of a finite subcover is an evenly covered neighborhood
If I can do that, then I am set.
That doesn't sound semantically true, because preimage of anything is in E and the evenly covered neighbourhoods are subsets of B
Because if you take a cover of evenly covered neighborhoods of B, you can take a finite subcover, say U_1,..., U_n. Then the preimage of this cover definitely gives finitely many open sets that cover E.
But of course, we need to start with an arbitrary open cover of E.
And that is where my issue is.
yep
You get a cover of B from an arbitrary cover of E by taking all the evenly covered neighbourhoods of B whose preimages are contained in a finite union of elements of the cover
With this, the only thing left to show is that this is an open cover of B
edited the claim
Now 1) how would you do that, and 2) why is that the last step?
Ah, I understand 2) now
Nice
Here's how you can prove 1. Take an element b of B. Let F be its fiber. Because C is a cover and F is finite, there are finitely many open sets in C such that their union contains F. Try to prove that this union contains the preimage of an even covered neighbourhood.
I haven't the foggiest :/
And here I thought this one was not gonna be too bad
Looks like someone has been waiting to use that emoji for a while
lol this one took both Saketh and me hours each when we were taking the topology course
and we came up with different solutions
I could also send you his after this
So have you seen the tube lemma yet?
Yes?
Nice, you should notice that the statement here is very similar
You have a cover of a set F, and you need to show that this actually covers a neighbourhood of F of "uniform width"
Does that make sense?
Somewhat. I do understand that description w/ the tube lemma
Nice. So this is actually a consequence of tube lemma itself
But if you are not able to see that immediately, you can try and mimic the proof of tube lemma for this
Oh, look at ExB
I don't think that would work
The compact space here would be a finite discrete set, with cardinality that of F
So here is one useful way of viewing covering spaces
A map p: E → B is a covering map iff for each b in B, there is a neighbourhood U of b, such that p restricted to preimage of U looks like projection from U x F to U where F is a discrete set
The idea is that disjoint union of a space a bunch of times is the same as taking product of that space with a discrete space
You're starting to lose me :/
oof ye
Let me try something with less definitions
So here's what we want to prove
Given an open subset V of E containing F (the preimage of a point b, finite), there is an evenly covered neighbourhood of b, U, such that preimage of U is also contained in V
Wait... the definition of our cover is that the pre image of the evenly covered nbhd is contained in finitely many sets
That is what we are looking at here.
Yes, but the union of finitely many sets is also an open set
No questions there
And finite union of finite unions of open sets is again a finite union
so we may replace the cover C with this cover of finite unions if we want
ie C' = { finite unions of elements of C }
so we may assume that C is closed under finite unions without loss of generality
Are we calling C the cover for B?
C was the cover of E, D the cover of B
Oh goodness, okay sure. I have U as my cover for E and V the potential cover for B.
So how does any of this show that V, or D, is an open cover of B?
For any point b, we are able to find a neighbourhood of it whose preimage is contained in a finite union of elements of U
So there is a neighbourhood of b contained in V
But I'm not sure we've shown there is a nbhd for each point in b.
ye that is what we need to prove
I would suggest going through the rest of the proof first and seeing if everything seems fine
Wait. E is a covering map. So we know there is an evenly covered nbhd around each b, and the pre image is contained in finitely many elements of our cover, since the fiber is contained in finitely many elements of the cover.
The last bit of reasoning does not seem fine to me
The fiber of b is smaller
The preimage of the neighbourhood may very well end up too large to fit in finitely many elements of the cover
Ugh. When you're right, you're right

ye so the reason I am suggesting this is that this last part can be a bit annoying and it will be easy to get lost in the words
it would be better if you can clear up any doubts regarding the rest of the proof first
This is what we have so far: I have no issues with it
I dont think replacing the cover is helpful, since we arent showing the original cover has a finite subcover
The claim is that C' has a finite subcover iff C does
This is fairly easy to see from finite union of finite unions being finite unions
Oh I see, it is just to condense things
ye
It is just to make it easier to say what the cover of B is
instead of finite union we may just say a single element
Gotcha. I am following
Cool
So there are a couple ways of proving the claim: either we realise that this is an instance of the tube lemma and apply that, or just do it in a hands on way
Which ever way is more efficient
I would definitely recommend the former because it will be a more useful view in the long term
and yes more efficient too
So first notice that a disjoint union of X with itself |F| many times is homeomorphic to X x F where F is given the discrete topology
What is |F|?
Ummm, sure
The reason that this is useful is that the preimage of an evenly covered neighbourhood U of B is homeomorphic to the product U x F then
where F is the fiber of any point in U (we know all fibers of points in U have the same cardinality)
And p restricted to the preimage of U really looks like the projection U x F → U
And this is the other definition of covering maps that can be useful if you have theorems about product spaces but not for disjoint unions
Applying tube lemma to this instantly gives us what we need in our case since F is finite (therefore compact) and we get a tube around b whose preimage is contained in a finite union of elements of the cover of E
How is this contained in finitely many elements of E?
Let me know if this is overwhelming, I can tell a hands on solution too
U x F technically isn't, but we are identifying it with a subset of E via a homeomorphism
Not sure what you mean
I understand everything except how this relates to the cover E
The preimage of U is a disjoint union of open subsets of E, each of which are homeomorphic to U via p
And this disjoint union is then homeomorphic to U x F
There is a subtlety here because we have to check the commutativity of a certain diagram
Oh goodness.... E isnt the cover, it's the space 🤦♂️
But okay, I still do not understand how we get a finitely many elements of the cover containing our nbhd
The union of finitely many elements of the cover contains the preimage of b, therefore by the tube lemma contains a tube around the preimage of b
That's it
I think we are still running into the issue that we dont know this is true for every b
b was taken to be arbitrary in the beginning
Oh okay, sure. So how does the tube lemma help us here?
Because we have a projection U x F → U, and we are taking a point b in the image and saying that the preimage of b (which is a vertical line) is contained in an open set and therefore a tube around this vertical line is contained in this open set
The last part coming from the tube lemma
And how does this translate over to the cover?
This seems like there's a lot going on here, but really all of the work is in recognising this alternate definition of a covering map
this is what we have proven
Okay, I have one last question. I really think I just need to move on to that one for now. We can come back to this after. This is a lot
Okay, I need to do 4). I have never really worked with functoriality before, so I am not sure how to translate the continuous map to the homomorphism r_star is surjective.
if f: A → B and g: B → A are maps of sets, and fg is identity, then f is surjective and g is injective
r being a retraction really means that ri = identity where i is the inclusion of A into X (which is omitted in the above statement)
I assume you mean the identity of A
Hold on. J is injective, sure. But does that mean j_star is injective?
$r\circ j =id_A \Rightarrow r_{\star}\circ j_{\star}=id_{A_{\star}}$
dackid
⭐
Should just be pi_1(A,a_0)
It is supposed to be a map
Well, it is the identity map of that
yes
Now apply this
Surjectiveness I get, but I may need a bit of convincing as to why j_star is injective
if a and a' map to the same image under j_star, they map to the same image under r_star j_star
so they map to the same image under identity
Ah and since it is the identity map, a=a'
I'm gonna stop there. The hw is due soon, but I need a lot more time to process 6b. So I'll take the L and I'll go over it with you more later.
Thank you so much for the help Moldilocks
You nearly melted my brain today
I'd prefer to talk about it after class. Otherwise, I'd pretty much be copy pasting the problem, and I don't feel right about that
Plus, I'm not ready to think about it right now. Brain needs to simmer down xp
sure, feel free to ping (though I may fall asleep at any point now)
It might not be today, but I'll try to remember to ask about it over the weekend.
Is neighbourhood of every point on an unit circle homeomorphic to R?
I had to explain why this is true on exam
But I'm not even sure if it's true
lol
How do you define neighborhood?
If it's just an open set that contains the point, then the answer is no
There is an epsilon for which every ball of radius smaller than epsilon is homeomorphic to R in the circle, though, if that's what you're looking for
Metaquestion for the regulars here: how is point-set topology advanced mathematics?
(not that the division of topics is necessarily wrong, but I'm curious cause my guess is this is probably country-dependent)
its a course thats mainly taken by mathematics students (and some physicists)
thats where we put the cutoff
roughly speaking
Hmm
I'd argue that relates more to applicability outside mathematics than actual complexity of a subject
i mean, are you in a country where point-set topology is done in first year?
No, but that's just Calculus+Linear Algebra+Discrete Math
It is a third semester course, though
right, and #calculus , #linear-algebra , #discrete-math are all in the early uni section
Just as probability, for which you need Calculus II!
the lines are vaguely defined, but the idea is that the Advanced channels are the ones where you can expect students to be at least a bit mathematically mature
ODEs are fourth semester, though, and you could also just never take a course on PDEs here and get a PhD
like, responding to a long question with "take equivalence classes under [relation]" or "induct on k" would often be sufficient here
expecting the reader to be mature enough to fill in the gaps
which you cant expect in the early uni channels
Hmm I guess point-set topology might be a weird in between then, at least in my mind
I feel like that was a transitional course for me in that regard
point set topology is typically taken after a first analysis course in the US
not always but typically
Analysis course as in some calculus or as in measure theory?
proof-based calculus, so like baby rudin
Two analysis courses are a pre-req for topology here
to be clear, this server isnt using "advanced" to mean "graduate level"
99% of this servers audience is well, well below that
"advanced" is a relative classifier
Oh, yeah, I do have that in mind
wait topology is a 3rd semester course and has 2 semesters of analysis as a prerequisite?
Uni degrees are far more specialized here than in the US, I think
the goal of these channels is basically to isolate the "serious math talk" from the chaffe
are they?
like the regulars
You sign up for a BSc in Mathematics from the get-go and mostly just do math
you know, the kind of stuff that a math grad student might actively want to discuss
yes.
what do you define as "graduate level"
vague
like does Hatcher count?
Some of the stuff that gets asked here is graduate level imo
because it seems like a lot of people here know Hatcher
your exposure is very very biased
I mean the regulars
not the people who just come to ask for help
How many graduate students are there in this server? (sorry if I'm derailing the channel btw)
I think quite a number, but still very much a minority
Nami, nG, Moth
thats probably a high estimate
grad student
how many profs do we have
How
mniip is an undergrad
icy, buncho, ashura have phds
mniip is an undergrad? wow
probably someone im forgetting
you can't fool me Nami
knows a lot of proof assistant stuff for a UG
he is
or wait am I dumb
hes a physics undergrad
and confusing mniip and gomez
How does that prove its homeomorphic to R :/
Ah
You want the homeomorphism between R^n and a ball in R^n?
ngl I think it's best if I leave that as an exercise
Take unit circle in R2, take some point on it, prove it has neighbourhood homeomorphic to R
You can just write an explicit map
construct homeomorphisms ℝ → (0, 1) → part of a circle
^
btw while we're on the topic, are there any graduate students here who're going down the road of specializing in differential (geometry/topology)/relativity/geometric analysis?
probably better to ask in #discussion
is any (topological) n-manifold compactly generated?
every locally compact Hausdorff space is
since n-manifolds are locally compact Hausdorff separable, they are compactly generated. thx
There's a few high schoolers in this server that know a LOT too
TLDR there's a lot of math nerds on this server
working half time right now
Shocking
I was totally expecting this to be a server filled with athletes.
mathletes
how can i prove that $\pi_n(RP^k)=0$ when $n<k$?
Or x1
Use that $\mathbb{R} P^k$ is a quotient of $S^k$ by a finite group, and that $\pi_n(S^k) = 0$
polikuj2
thanks
specifically use that S^k is the universal cover of RP^k
Can someone help with this?
I was recommended to ask here when I got no responces
hopefully that's cool
Specifically I don't understand why: x in int K
definition of neighbourhood. K is a neighbourhood of x, so a subset of K is an open set containing x, hence x must be in K's interior
why the two sets at the end are disjoint.
set theory
U and V are disjoint
Prove that if $\phi : B^n \to X$ is a characteristic map for an n-cell $c^n$ in a
Hausdorff space $X$, then $\bar{c}^n = \phi(B^n)$ is the closure of the open cell $c^n = \phi(int(B^n))$
in $X$.
intersecting U with the interior of K means that its elements must be in both U and int K (hence in K)
亜城木 夢叶
unioning V with (X \ K) means its elements are either in V (hence not in U since U, V are disjoint) or in X but not in K (hence not in int K)
so elements of both U and intK cant be in V or in (X \ K), and vice versa
so these sets are disjoint
Does that make sense? @dusky vault
pick a point $x\in\bar{c}^n$, and let $U$ be its neighborhood, how do i show that $U\cap c^n\neq\emptyset$
亜城木 夢叶
Hello Just got back to this chat
Hey your arguments make sense
The definition I have for neighborhood of x is that it is an open set containing x
I don't they are using that here
thats fine, rephrase the argument to use "Let K be a compact set containing a neighbourhood of X"
x is still in intK and K is still closed
which is all you need
Ah ok thank you, nice reference btw
are integral homology groups always Z-modules?
this feels like a really obvious question
for me, a Z-module is equivalent to an Abelian group
and integral homology groups are defined as a kernel/im in a diagram of abelian groups
you can prove that taking kernels and quotients in the category of abelian groups always gives abelian groups again
it's closed under all these notions
there's not too many operations i can think of on abelian groups that gives a non-abelian group other than like, the automorphism group
Forget to Set and take free group 
yes well if the definition of the operation involves "leave the category of abelian groups" then indeed you will leave the category of abelian groups
ok so say I send the outer part of S2 to R^2\{0,0} trivially, where should I send the inside part of S^3?
is this a T/F question?
you cannot possibly have a homeomorphism, sorry thats what i was thinking
using rough terminology here
yes but we are asked to find a onto mapping not bijective so it's fine
homeomorphism isn't possible that I can understand
nvm that wont work
yeah
can we map R^2 - S^1 to R - {0} in the same fashion?
|r| will work here
|r|?

what value of r in R^2 - S^1 is there for which |r| < 0?
oh yeah lol
oh it's R^2-S1 now, u changed it, now my answer is outdated and stupid
i think for R^2 - S^1, you wanna send the inner part to the negative half of the real line and the outer part to the positive half of the real line, both in a continuous manner
my bad, i typed the wrong thing the first time
we should be able to generalize this idea
like we can try to map |r|>1 to R+ and |r|<1 to R-
the continuity is still bugging me
bro... what is |r| ?
x^2+y^2
??
the outside of S1 to +ve reals and inside of S1 to -ve reals
since it have to continuous, there are limited choice
lol okay. i thought you were using a function i wasnt familiar with. you keep writing |r| < 0
think you meant |r| <1
lol x^2+y^2 is too long to type
yeah already edited it
the problem kinda reduces to finding a continuous surjection from R^2 to R
does it?
pretty sure. both inner and outer parts are homeomorphic to R^2
yeah
but you can map inner or outer to R+ or R-, because they are connected
so there isn't any cont mapping from inner/outer to whole R (surjective)
um. okay
so like inner has to go to R+ or R- and to be surjective outer must go to R- or R+
project R^2 - S^1 onto R
just take the first component function
this is a continuous surjection
oh dude i got it
take R^3 - S^2 to R^2
then use R^2 to R^2 - {(0,0)} via polar coordinates
then compose the two maps
polar: (0, 0) \maps to (0, 0) 
nah, dont include (0,0)
no this should be really close i feel like
yea, you can just map R^2 to (0,infty) x R and then use polar
so, p : R^3 - S^2 --> R^2 given by p(x,y,z) = (x,y) is a continuous surjection
then take f : R^2 --> (0,infty) x R by f(x,y) = (e^x, y). continuous bijection
then use g : (0,infty) x R --> R^2 - {(0,0)} by g(r,t) = (r sin(t), r cos(t)). continuous surjection
then you do g o f o p : R^3 - S^2 --> R^2 - {(0,0)}
gofop
gofop is fs the way to go here lmao

I guess I'm trying to lift a path intro a covering space
more specifically, given $p : E \to B$ a cover, given a path from $x$ to $y \in B$, I'm trying to define a "canonical" map $p^{-1}(x) \to p^{-1}(y)$
mniip
I can kinda intuit what's going on, but I'm struggling with the technical details
the definition of a covering space gives us for each $x \in B$ a neighborhood $U_x$ such that $p^{-1}(U_x)$ is composed of some disjoint opens that are homeomorphic to $U_x$
mniip
so if we have a path between $y, z \in U_x$, given a choice of $p^{-1}(y)$ we can lift it to a path in $E$ (in the respective part of $p^{-1}(U)$)
mniip
If the path doesn't "fit" in one U_x, I figure I gotta use the compactness of the interval somehow? Find a finite cover of the path by sets of the form U_x
However there's a problem: how do I know that the lifting is coherent on the overlaps?
if I have path in $U_x \cap U_w$, how do I know that the "$x$ lift" coincides with the "$w$ lift"
mniip
I guess that's just contravariance of p^-1?
Really what the covering space is saying is that for every $x$ there exists $U_x \ni x$ open, a cardinal $\kappa_x$, a family ${V_{x,\alpha}}{\alpha \in \kappa_x}$ of opens, such that $\bigcup{\alpha \in \kappa_x} V_{x,\alpha} = p^{-1}(U_x)$, and such that $\left.p\right|{V{x,\alpha}}$ is a homeo with $U_x$. And the opens are disjoint, meaning there is a map $h_x : \left(\bigcup_{\alpha \in \kappa_x} V_{x,\alpha}\right) \to \kappa$ such that $e \in V_{x,\alpha} \iff \alpha = h_x(e)$
mniip
actually does this help
just do gofop and it works @coarse night
connectedness of the interval gotta play a role too
ok yeah
If I have a connected space $Y \subset U_x \cap U_w$ with $y \in Y$ and a choice of $e \in p^{-1}(y)$, that fixes $h_x(e)$ and $h_w(e)$. I claim that $p^{-1}(Y) \cap V_{x,h_x(e)}$ (a homeomorphic image of $Y$ in $E$) lies within $V_{w,h_w(e)}$ and vice versa
mniip
even though it's not necessary that $V_{x,h_x(e)} = V_{w,h_w(e)}$
mniip
wait this suddenly got very sheafy
I mean
etale space
it shouldn't be too surprising that covering space theory is sheafy
ok so how the fuck do I glue things
I can kinda see how to lift a path
but how do you lift a square?
mniip i think hatcher's argument is pretty readable
for the homotopy lifting property of covering space maps
jesus i thought you were talking to me
i was like "Damn that was a heavy dose of sarcasm"
what are the pre-requisites to learn algebraic topology? i don't know if pre requisite questions are allowed here sorry if it is the case
you need to know point set topology well, you could read munkres or take a course in real analysis
beyond the topology that's in a good real analysis book, you need to know about identification spaces and the quotient topology
and connectedness
you need to know basic algebra, group theory, you need to know what a group is and how to do computations in a group
for homology you need some basic facts about abelian groups like the fundamental structure theorem for abelian groups, the fact that a subgroup of a free Abelian group is free, and the fact that finitely generated free groups have a well defined "rank"
you'll need to know more algebra later on, but that's enough to get you started.
eventually you'll need to know about rings and modules, the tensor product, graded rings and modules, exterior algebra... etc but i guess you can learn that when you get to it
the first few chapters of munkres, to be clear :D
so what course should i do? i am doing abstract algebra,but i dont know if real analysis is necessary
besides algebra, the best course would be a course in point set topology
which will most likely include the fundamental group at some point
you could get by with only reading (selected portions of) the first few chapters of munkres and diving right into homology
does algebraic topology have other applications in computer science ,instead of only distributed computing that i have found
certainly
one example i happen to be aware of is using sheaf theory as a model for data fusion problems
sheaves are a topological object that describe "local data" and "gluing local data to see a bigger picture," so you can use them to describe e.g. a network of sensors, each one seeing a local picture, and gluing that data together into one big picture
then you can interpret results from sheaf theory in that practical context
there's something called topological data analysis as well
i thinking about doing my undergraduate final assignment about applications of abstract algebra or other math topic i want to learn in cs ,because i want to learn more math topics and also get some applications from it
i am gonna check this
No the discrete topology is not very interesting from the point of view of topology.
you can sometimes assume that your discrete data is sampled from a continuous distribution
i deleted it wasnt a good question
do you have a good source on this? It sounds pretty interesting
see "hunting for foxes with sheaves" for a more fun introduction

Theres more to it than it seems
Why is this lift independent of the finite subcover chosen?
Not just the subcover, you're choosing some points too
How do you show that homotopic paths lift to homotopic paths? You meed to lift a square. Lifting a square is even more complicated wrt the choice of an open cover and the points at which you choose to glue
When lifting a path all you care about is staying connected. When lifting a square you care about simply connectedness
did you look in hatcher
Nope sorry
hmmmm
✓ 
Yeah Hatcher does have a proof of this exact fact
Also mniip how do you know category theory but not the homotopy lifting property
I like to call a proof a "just do it" proof to intimidate people.
Like, to me it's so simple i can't even understand how to describe breaking it into smaller parts
you just do it
you prove it
you proceed to understanding in one single, atomic, indivisible step
Blakers-massey is a good example of a "just do it" style proof
I started doing cat theory when I was 16 or so
mniip was the high school category theorist all along
What do those reactions mean 
\begin{tikzcd}
~ \arrow[d] & ~ \arrow[l] \
~ \arrow[ru] &
\end{tikzcd}
mniip

ah yes, the supercommutative diagram
but why is toki caling you bald 
Oohh shit lmao
I didn’t see that the emote was a bald person sorry lmao
I just wanted to emote with a “general person”
Mniip is bald from all the categories
that's the problem, I understand the statement intuitively, but I am not satisfied with the technicalities
I ❤️ Spanier
however it is encyclopedic to a fault lmao
i got so bogged down in the homology chapters
i really spent like a year and a half of my life on the chapters on homology and cohomology
and i didn't even get that far into the chapter on duality in manifolds
just the first few sections
i honestly had like
moments of existential crisis
where i was just staring out the window going
is this how i spend my 20s
reading Spanier

Hi, my friend and I disagree on this statement, can someone help clarify for us?
For any continuous map f: X -> Y, and for any compact subspace K \subseteq Y, the inverse image f^{-1}(K) is compact
Is this statement true or false?
I think it is false because I believe the statement is only true for closed maps, am I right in my reasoning?
this is the definition of a proper map
Take both spaces discrete, X infinite, Y finite, f any map X → Y, K = Y
or i guess, this says that every continuous map is proper
which is not true in general
I have not heard the term proper map before, is there a specific definition you would recommend?
a map is proper if the preimage of a compact set is compact
I see, and this would make it not-compact
Is there a term for not-compact btw, or is it just called not-compact
Ahahhaha
mpact
Reminds me of back in linear algebra
Where we had a whole definition for linear independence as "a span of vectors that was not linearly dependent"
do you mean set instead of span
another nice/visual example imo. let pi_1 : R^2 —> R be the first component projection. this is continuous. look at the pre-image of [-1,1]
Need a bit of explanation for this one, sorry. Subspaces of R^n are compact iff they are closed and bounded, yes? So what would the inverse image of this be? I imagine that it could be open along the second component projection and so not compact? Does that make sense?
its unbounded
your preimage is {(x, y) | x in [-1, 1], y in R}
this is obviously unbounded, its an infinite vertical rectangle
so the continuous preimage of compact set [-1,1] is not bounded, ie not compact
Maybe im missing something obvious but I'm not really sure where to go from here with this exercise
like hurewicz will get you that X is n-1 simply connected sure and that pi_n(X) cong H_n(X) cong Z
So i see why "take the spheroid f: S^n -> X representing the generator" is possible
but i dont see why it should induce isos on pi_n+k for k > 0
I guess to add on i know that X is homotopy equivalent to a CW complex with one vertex and no cells of dim 1 to n-1, and that pi_n(X) cong Z has a system of generators given by n cells and of relations given by n+1 cells
But i dont think thats particularly useful here bc ofc there are lots of different CW structures that will get you pi_n(X) cong Z lol
somehow the fact that the higher H_i are 0 has to be useful ehre
Hmmm maybe i can use cellular homology here somehow
Okay, so on the first part, I had to try and sketch a graph of this path.
I just wanna know if this path is okay (it took some thinking to sketch out).
Note: dotted path means out of view and normal path is in view
I also have no idea how to go about finding a lift for this, so I can certainly use help with that
It looks funky, but really the path is just wrapping around like a candy cane stripe
taurus
Whoops
do you know what p and/or pxp looks like in coordinates?
-_-, I flipped the order, didn't I?
?
I treated the first coordinate that represents the angle about the larger circle, and the second coordinate the angle w.r.t. the circle made by the first coordinate.
But I think it is flipped
that's hardly important
Okay, then I will just say no as I am not sure
from the fig it looks like the first coordinate is the small circle
Yea, that's how it should be, but I did the opposite
also that's not where f(1) is
Oh sorry, that was f(1/2)
but like ok, do you know p in coordinates?
When you say p, do you mean polar coordinates? If not, then no
you have a map p in your exercise
right
now what is p^-1(a, b)
supposing (a, b) lies on the circle
supposing it has the form (cos 2pi t, sin 2pi t)
(2pi t, 2pi t)x(4pi t,4pi t)?
Wait, that does not make sense
the question is, for which x is it true that p(x) = (cos 2pi t, sin 2pi t)
Sorry, I have to eat. This is gonna have to be put on pause. I will be thinking about the answer to your question
To answer your question, it should be an element of the quotient group R/Z
Prove that if $(X,C)$ is a CW complex, then the zero-skeleton $X^0$ is discrete.
亜城木 夢叶
starts from weak topology $X_w$, pick $A\in X^0$, we have $A\cap F$ is closed where $F$ is an element of $X_w$. i don't see how this gives me $X^0$ is discrete
亜城木 夢叶
nails
So I think I understand the lift portion. If I am not mistaken, it is just a straight line
Of course, the endpoints are a bit more particular than that, but the path itself is just a straight line segment. I know what they are, it is just hairy to explain
is it true that any uncountable subset of R must have a rational limit point? the original question - "is there a perfect set of R¹ that contains no rational number"?
can u just shift the usual middle thirds cantor set over to the interval [e,pi] or something?
how can I be sure that there are no rational numbers? cantor contains a rational number,
yea but everything in the shifted set is like (e+pi) times a rational number with denominator a power of 3
oh do we not know that e + pi is irrational or not?
nope
uhhh
am i reading this correctly


