#point-set-topology
1 messages Β· Page 272 of 1
again, it makes sense in the context of sets
oh i see if anything it is abuse of notation
cus u should really be writing A x B \ A x {.} if u want to mean what i meant
whatβs the abuse of notation?
what did u want it to mean?
moldi not βwhatβs abuse of notation?β lol
ig since i emded up here
walk me thru this a bit
say I want to take Tor(Z_3 x Z^2,Z_3)
first I have to find free resolution of Z3 x Z^2
which should be Z^3 -> Z^3 -> Z_3 x Z^2
The first one should be Z right?
is it because Z^2 free or something?
Kernel of next map is 3Z x 0 x 0
oh yeah thats kernel of next map
Assuming that the next map is (x,y,z) maps to (x mod 3, y, z)
oh so it is Z -> Z^3 -> Z3 x Z^2
ecahse you want kernel of Z^3-> Z3 x Z^2 to be equal to image of Z-> Z^3
ok yeah
then i forget what happens at this step lol
i tensor by
Z3
uh wait
oh
the sequence is exact and composing two maps is 0
so its a chain complex with boundaries being their original map tensor identity? i think
i forgot what boundary maps become after tensoring
yeah wtf
idk what it is explicitly
but if you have T:V to W
T tensor id_H: V tensor H to W tensor H
is explicitly im guessing
T tensor id( v tensor h) = Tv tensor h
so it acts linearly
yeah the thing is tensoring morphisms isnt something that makes sense in my head
im just viewing it as a notation thing
like i can understand tensoring sets
like say you have direct products right
f: X to Y and g: A to B
f x g: X x A to Y x B by f x g((x,a))= (f(x),g(a)) feels like a notational trick
so im guessing for tensors product it looks genuinely identical though
like f tensor g ( x tensor a) = fx tensor ga
You can also use the universal property to get this, that will feel more natural
so i see no difference in what happens to morphisms
Uni prop of products
isnt it like its initial or something
doesnt uni prop of tensor product have tensors as initial objects and isnt direct product have as final?
because for tensors iirc
its X x Y -> A has X x Y to X tensor Y , with X tensor Y to A uniqurly
idk tbh
in alg top class
i forget our motivation for doing tensors
wait
i remember
we were talking about total complex
and to understand better we need to know its relationship to crossed product
and all of this involves tensors, but i dont know why tor
something about UCT for homology
but i dont know why we need UCT for homology or what it does
i just know for UCT cohomology it is useful for proving equivalence of cohomology theories
so thats why we went over Ext, but its probably used so much more ways than i can imagine
Delta(P) is the simplicial complex obtained by taking {x_1<x_2<...<x_k} as simplices. For (b), I think this space is contractible, but i'm not sure how to go about showing this for n>3
I'd like a hint
Another question, I defined the poset $P$ (Doing this for 2 simplices but the general case is the same) on the product $\Delta_{k-1}^2$ by $(x_1,y_2)\leq (x_2,y_2) \iff (x_1 \leq y_1 \land x_2\leq y_2)$. Then $\Delta(P)$ is in bijection with $\Delta_{k-1}^2$, and clearly the simplicial maps of the projections $\Delta(P)\rightarrow \Delta_{k-1}$ induce a continuous bijection $\abs{\Delta(P)}\rightarrow \abs{\Delta_{k-1}} \times \abs{\Delta_{k-1}}$, but i'm not sure how to show this is a homeorphism. I'm not even sure how to exhibit its inverse directly (The inverse of the map of underlying spaces, that is).
ShiN
Wait
I can use continuous bijection from compact to hausdorff implies hausdorff right
so it's a homeorphism
Hello. Can you give a simple intuitive example of a subspace whose (covering) topological dimension is greater than that of the space containing it?
let $\partial: \pi_1(X,A,x_0) \rightarrow \pi_0(A,x_0)$ defined by $\partial ([f])=[f|\lbrace 0\rbrace]$ and $j_:\pi_1(X,x_0) \rightarrow \pi_1(X,A,x_0)$ the map induced by inclusion, how can i prove that $ker \partial \subset im j_$ ?
Or x1
Could I have some intuition for this?
Why consider the "abelianized" fundamental group at all?
This turns out to be isomorphic to the first homology group
Assuming X is path-connected
probably the last sentence there tells you why.
so for example, in complex analysis the value of an integral of a closed differential depends on the homotopy class of the loop its integrated over
so we have a homomorphism from pi_1 -> C
by sending the loop gamma to int_gamma d omega
and these are things we like studying, but ofcourse in reality we only need the abelianization of pi_1 (or homology group if you will)
Hey hey, just wondered if I could have a bit of help on a subject regarding topology ...
Sometimes, we need to take account of the fact that a set is countable or not. So I wondered if anyone had a general way of getting that proven, for any set. If there is not and it's as creative as convergence/divergence tests, would you mind if we talk about a few examples that would show what are different ways of getting to prove them. I keep thinking about ways to prove it, but unfortunately don't find a way to do it, and we didn't have like a list of ways that could prove it or anything. It's very much like the unknown here, and every idea falls into finding a counterexample in my own thoughts.
showing a surjection from/ injection into a set you already know to be countable
I don't think you have to show the countability of a set very often in point set topology though, I can only recall a couple theorems which would do that in an intro course
Mostly theorem statements just say stuff like "Let S be a countable set"
I have been asked to show that a set is countable with multiple restrictions on a non-countable set already
From memory, there was something like that, but I wouldn't be sure to be able to find it back at all
Completely forgot about this one ! Thanks a lot, so basically linking the set to a countable set with a surjective or an injective application
Got it !
ohh okay, cool. i'll think more about it but i understand it better ig
and so the induced map is the identity?
i'm new to this stuff lol
You can just make the map explicit by parametrizing the path
As in, parametrize by arclength, then send t in [0,1] to cx(t).
It's a singular simplex cause [0,1] is the 1-simplex
aren't we considering a 0-simplex here tho?
Yeah but two n-simplexes are homologous if they are the boundary of an (n+1)-simplex
so how can c_x be a 0-singular simplex?
c_x is a 1-singular simplex
oh yeah lol
Which has the two 0-singular simplices you're interested in as boundaries
Namely x and f(x)
ah yeah right
Bump. First message is this but all of them are relevant
Gonna go ahead and bump an old question of mine too while I'm here
For a), isn't delta P just an n-simplex?
I think b) is an n-simplex x [0,1] as well
Hmmm not sure though
I'm about 80% confident of this
And 20% confident of this
It's not quite n-simplex x [0,1] but I think it's not far from it
It's like you've got two n-simplices
And you draw attach new k-simplices to connect those two by choosing one vertex in one simplex and creating an n-simplex with it and k vertices from the second simplex
It's possible to prove both are spheres by induction
(homologically)
I'm about 90% sure I've got a valid proof, but you said you just wanted a hint so I'll leave it at that and I can share it later if you want?
Yes a is easy
So you're saying that it has the Homotopy type of a sphere or that it's homologically a sphere?
Or a product of sobers
Spheres*
Not exactly sure what you mean
I mean I see what you mean about how it's constructed
Say for n=3 it ends up being like a triangular prism with almost all vertices connected to each other
how is tensor 3 x 3 tensor times 3x 1 vector a vector?
so like a tensor b times v a vector
ok
so physics weird ig?
they define angular momentum as a vector
but its angular interia times angular velocity
this might be wrong channel mb
probability more suited to #diff-geo-diff-top
as a kinda basic answer tensors can be described as elements of a tensor space
and that can include linear functionals on a vector space
Inertia tensor is a rank 2 tensor
and so the inertia tensor here is taking a 3-vector and giving you back a 3-vector
yeah
(m,n) rank here should be m copies of a vector space and n copies of the dual
if you've seen that definition
okay I'm coming back to this now
and now I think that my confusion lies in $\nabla$. How exactly is it defined? Hatcher says "There is an inclusion $\mathbb{R}P^\infty \times X \to \Gamma X$ as the quotient of the diagonal embedding $S^\infty \times X \to S^\infty \times X \wedge X$" and I was overlooking it, thinking that it wasn't important. But now I think think that this plays a huge role but I don't understand what the quotient of the diagonal embedding means
Tokidoki β
and I just set everything to p=2
and I forgot to say in this post that $\mathbb{Z}2$ acts on $X \wedge X$ by the map $T[x_1, \ldots x_p] = [x_p, x_1, \ldots, x{p-1}]$
Tokidoki β
if you have two projection maps, and f sends the kernel of one to the kernel of the other, it induces a map on the quotient spaces
so I'm thinking that maybe when Hatcher says "quotient of the diagonal embedding" he means some sort of quotient with some relation involving T
wait so Hatcher uses this here?
that's just what the quotient of a map is
oh lmao
wait could you elaborate? How is the induced map defined?
if you want a map X --> Y to induce a map X/~ --> Y/~, there's a natural definition
send [x] --> [f(x)]
am I doing that with nabla?
with the diagonal map (s,x) --> (s,x,x)
i should have said "fiber," not kernel, but it's essentially the same as with groups
if you want [x] --> [f(x)] to make sense, you must show that if you pick a different representative of [x], you get another representative of [f(x)]
i.e., $\pi_1^{-1}(x)$ gets sent into $\pi_2^{-1}(f(x))$
Kogasa
that is the necessary and sufficient condition for a map $X \to Y$ to descend to a quotient $X/\pi_1 \to Y/\pi_2$
Kogasa
Homotopy type of a sphere I think
||You can prove it by induction by using that an n-sphere is two (n-1)-discs attached at their boundaries||
(I think)
I'm really sorry but I don't see how I get nabla from the diagonal map with this quotient thing
you have the diagonal map $\Delta : S^\infty \times X \to S^\infty \times X^{\wedge 2}$ given by $(s,x) \mapsto (s,x,x)$. You quotient $S^\infty$ by the action of $\mathbb{Z}_2$ to get $L^\infty = \mathbb{RP}^\infty$. On the domain of $\Delta$, you quotient just on the left, getting $L^\infty \times X$. On the right, $\mathbb{Z}_2$ acts on both $S^\infty$ and $X^p$, so you quotient by the diagonal action to get $\Gamma X$
Kogasa
i asked because a physics student was trying to explain angular momentum to me
but from context i shouldve known it was a (3,0) tensor
acting on a 3 dim vector
(a tensor b tensor c )(v)= (av,bv,cv)
let $\pi_1 : S^\infty \times X \to L^\infty \times X$ and $\pi_2 : S^\infty \times X^2 \to \Gamma X$ be the two quotient maps. then $\Delta$ sends $\pi_1^{-1}(x) \to \pi_2^{-1}(x)$, since $\pi_1^{-1}([s], x) = (\pi^{-1}([s]), x) \mapsto (\pi^{-1}([s]), x, x) \mapsto ([s], [x, x])$
Kogasa
where $\pi$ is the quotient $S^\infty \to L^\infty$
Kogasa
lol what in the etale is this
so $\Delta$ descends to a map $L^\infty \times X \to \Gamma X$, and then you take the quotient $\Gamma X \to \Lambda X$ to get $\nabla : L^\infty \times X \to \Lambda X$
Kogasa
to be clear, the action of $\mathbb{Z}_2$ on $X \wedge X$ is just cyclic permutation, $(x,y) \mapsto (y,x)$. which fixes the diagonal
Kogasa
okay wait let me process this a little more
Oh I didn't remember this. I think that might work. Not sure I see where the induction helps tho
okay so in this case the map here is given by [x] --> [f(x)]
yes
how about here tho? Here I have products and stuff?
since $\pi_1$ is just acting on the first component, $\pi_1(s, x) = (\pi(s), x)$, an equivalence class is written $([s], x)$
Kogasa
and $\pi_2(s, x, y) = [(s,x,y)] = ([s], [x, y])$
Kogasa
since $\Delta$ sends $([s], x) = {(s, x), (-s, x)} \mapsto ([s], [x,x]) = {(s, x, x), (-s, x, x)}$, it's well defined on the quotient
Kogasa
daim okay I see
But thank you so much for typing all of that out! It feels good to break things up in these baby steps sometimes, there was just too much detail Hatcher skipped for a noobie like me to understand lmao
np
||If you prove it for i = 1,...,n, you can prove that the case i=1,...,n+1 is two copies of a sphere attached at the sphere from the n case||
||Basically just add a point to the one of the two simplices and prove that you end up with a "contraction" of the sphere you used to have, ie a disc. You then add a point to the other simplex and the same thing happens. They are attached at the n-sphere you started with. Thus, it's an (n+1)-sphere.||
Haven't opened the 2nd one, but Isn't it 2 balls? Like at each end is gonna be a full n-simplex which is an b-ball
n-ball*
Yeah it's two contractions of a sphere, ie a disc, ie a ball
Disc is a 2-dimensional ball and I have a bad habit of using the term to mean ball
Ping me if you'd like a drawing about this or sth
will do thanks
I have a question about this example.
Here, the set B is said to have a limit point because the superset [a_0, b] has a limit point. But I don't follow. In general if a set has a limit point, does it imply that every subset has a limit point as well?
Couldn't there exist a limit point in [a_0, b] that is not a limit point of B?
what is the preceding theorem
Compactness implies limit point compactness, but not conversely.
no it's not true in general that every subset has a limit point etc
it's something about this specific construction
[a_0, b] should be the topological closure of B
i think
maybe if b is the LEAST upper bound?
oh
which exists, because S_omega is well-ordered, right?
yeah i read "least upper bound" even tho as you say it's not there
but
i think if you do least upper bound this proof works
Because then b is a limit point of B? what if b has an immediate predecessor though
saying a function/map is closed and saying that the graph of the function is closed are the same thing right?
not really
For any continuous map f: X -> Y where Y is Hausdorff, the graph of f is closed in X x Y
Even if f isn't closed
(and there are continuous map that aren't closed)
Like e^{-x} works I think
oh yeah right, tx.
I'd appreciate a drawing, I have trouble visualising this kind astuff
Hello. Can you give a simple intuitive example of a subspace whose (covering) topological dimension is greater than that of the space containing it?
Okay I'm yet again fucking back at this. I'm sorry for rambling about this for days now but I still don't understand one thing. I could've asked this yesterday but it was getting late so I decided to sleep. I know that when I restrict $\nabla$ to $x_0 \times X$ I get a map $x_0 \times X \to x_0 \times (X \wedge X)$, which I could view as a map (1) $X \to X \wedge X$ which sends $x$ to $[x, x]$. Now the domains and codomains match up with $\alpha \otimes \alpha$ which I could identify with $\alpha \times \alpha$. So now $(\alpha \times \alpha) \nabla$ is the cup product on $\tilde{H}^i(X \wedge X)$. We can assume that $i \geq 1$ and so I can see this as the cup product on $H^i(X \times X)$. Now if the degree of $\alpha$ coincides with $i$ then I get that $Sq^i(\alpha) = \alpha \smile \alpha$ and everything is fine. But I don't understand one thing, it's (1). That steps seems really "handwavy" to me. It feels like I just make a completely new map when I do this restriction and before the restriction I can't compose $(\alpha \cross \alpha) \nabla$. But at the same time I don't lose much information when doing this restriction since $\nabla$ is just the identity on that one component that I'm taking away
Tokidoki β
something is wrong here wait
nvm I'm brain dead I get it
The left part is the case where n=3
Let's add a_41
For every cell you had before in the sphere before adding a_41, you now have a new cell which is the same cell but with a_41 included
Hopefully with the drawing it becomes clear how this is sort of like shrinking the figure on the left towards a point (in this case, a_41)
Now, we're supposing by induction that the figure on the left is a sphere
And a contraction of a sphere to a point is a ball
So the figure in the diagram is a ball with boundary, where the boundary is the sphere we started with
Now we add a_42
This is again a ball, and it happens to be attached to the previous ball at the sphere we started with
So we in fact have two balls attached at the boundary
So this is actually a sphere of one more dimension
The case n=1 is the 0-sphere (since it's just two disconnected points), so the induction works
anybody know about the space S_omega, the "minimal uncountable well-ordered set"?
i'm looking at a proof for why it is limit point compact, and i don't quite get it
I'm guessing given an infinite set S you'd want to take s = least element such that there are only finitely many elements of S greater than it, and prove that s is a limit point
No that won't work
You can assume we have a countable subset of S_omega, since if we find a limit point there, any subset of S_omega has a limit point.
It can be made to work by taking a countably infinite subset of S
Ye
And then s is well defined
Take an open set containing s. It's of the form (a,b). Then there are infinitely many elements of S larger than a, but only finite many larger than b
So there must be elements of S in between
β
there are only finitely many elements larger than b in S?
Yes because b > s and by definition of s, there are only finitely many elements of S greater than s
s is the least element of S, right?
No
This
s = least element of S_omega?
No
Least element of S_Omega such that only finitely many elements of S are greater than it
inf { x β S_Ξ© | only finitely many elements of S are greater than x }
Can write min instead of inf
might this set be empty?
No because S is assumed to be countably infinite
So it is bounded above
In S_Onega
Limit point compact
could it be that s has an immediate predecessor? and then, the open set (s-1, s+1) contains s
It won't
Because it has only finitely many things larger than it
Its predecessor would have infinitely many things larger than it
But there can only be 1 thing in between
pretty sure i get it now. i think. thanks!
Can I just invoke the constant rank level set theorem to prove that Ker(F) is an embedded subbundle of E, where F:E->E' is a vector bundle homomorphism over a manifold M and F has constant rank?
Is this differential topology 
Actually now that you draw it out, it's pretty clear this.is a suspension. And suspension of an n-sphere is homeo to n+1-sphere. At least it's easier for me to think of it like this And you can also derive the homology like that. Thanks a lot!
You're welcome π
btw the other delta P is actually a ball
Think I accidentally said it was a sphere
Oh yea I knew it was tho since it's just the standard n simplex which is contractible so np
Can someone tell me what is wrong with this. We know the real projective plane has euler characteristic 1, and can be obtained by gluing the mobius strip with a closed disk. However, the Euler characteristic of that is \chi(Mobius) + \chi(Closed Disk) - \chi(their intersection, which is an interval) = 0 + 1 - 1 = 0
isn't the intersection a circle ?
^
How is the intersection a circle? We only glue along 1 edge of the mobius strip, so isnt that a closed interval?
How many edges does a mobius strip have 
A mobius strip has 3 edges
nvm, I was looking at the square diagram of the mobius
So I am a bit confused... this is a diagram of a mobius strip. so two edges are idenitfied the same
So in general, if I have a surface that can represented as a 2n-gon with pair edges identified like this, only the "paired" edges are edges of the surface?
wrong channel, I guess π¦
I think you should make a mobius band irl
no the paired edges are no longer edges
well
rather, they're not boundaries of the band
and you glue the boundary of the disk to the boundary of the mobius band
not on some inside edge
yea, i see now
the a and c edges make up the band's boundary
when you walk on a and reach a corner you will seemlessly transition to walking on c
and after you're done walking on c you are back at a
they make a circle
Wow geom x top gang is so fractured
Hey. I have a nested sequence of compact nonempty sets with diameter being greater than some c. I should prove that their intersection has the diameter greater than c
What keeps me away from making a case when their intersection is a singleton set
what do you mean βwhat keeps you away from making a case that their intersection is a singleton setβ?
the sets [-1/n,1/n] all have diameter greater than c = 0 and their intersection is the set containing zero.
Let's say c is 5 but I still get a singleton set as the intersection
im not going to address this point because it can't happen in a metric space and im going to ignore it (lmao i just don't know how to proceed from here). if the sequence of nested compact sets is (E_n), you should try and pick, for each natural number n, points x_n and y_n in E_n such that d(x_n,y_n) = diam(E_n) (note that this can be done due to compactness).
assume, for now, wlog, that the sequence x_n and y_n converge
then see what you can say
after you have (hopefully) reached the conclusion, see if you can justify why we can assume, wlog, that the sequences x_n and y_n converge
Yeah I know haha
I've done that as well
But this example bugs me
Probably a singleton set then is impossible
one way i was trying to go about this was to show that
$$\text{diam}\left(\bigcap_{i\in\mathbb{N}}E_i\right)=\inf{\text{diam}(E_i):i\in\mathbb{N}}$$ and the right hand side is clearly larger that $c$. it would kind of get rid of the "example" you have implicitly
c squared
but showing that was kinda hard for me
yes its definitely impossible if c is strictly positive, just approaching the proof by contradiction from here seems difficult, and also not helpful. you would then only be able to say that the diameter of the intersection is positive, which... just doesnt help you prove the rest of the theorem
this is wrong without any hypothesis on the E_i (I don't have the context)
you only have <=
Like for example E_0 = (0,1) and E_i = (1,2) for i >= 1
RHS is 1, LHS is 0
yea of course u have to assume they are nested, this used the assumptions to the problem that Craed0x had
nah ur good
do u know how to get >= ?
because i could only get <=
I'm thinking about it, but yeah >= seems to be the hard part. I'm trying to use the fact that the E_i's are compact so that I can extract converging subsequences when I want
if u get anything, ping me. iβd be interested to see it
Ok got it I think
@rancid umbra
I should probably latex it 
give me a sec
\newcommand{\diam}{\mathrm{diam}}
Here's a proof when they're nested:\
Let $E = \bigcap_{j}{E_j}$.\
For each $i$, you have $\diam(E) \leq \diam(E_i)$, so you can take the inf on that $i$, and we get $\diam(E) <= \inf_i \diam(E_i)$.\
Now let's pick $x_n, y_n \in E_n$ such that $|d(x_n, y_n) - \diam(E_n)| \leq \frac{1}{n}$.\
We get $d(x_k, y_k) \geq \diam(E_n) - \frac{1}{n}$.\
Now two "tricks":\
First, since $x_k$ lies in $E_1$, we can extract a converging subsequence $x_{\varphi(k)}$, say converging to $x$.\
And similarly, we can extract a converging subsequence from $y_{\varphi(n)}$, say $y_{\gamma(\varphi(n))}$, converging to $y$.\
Since $x_{\gamma(\varphi(n))}$ is a subsequence of $x_{\varphi(n)}$, it also converges to $x$.\
Let's say $x'k = x{\gamma(\varphi(k))}$ and $y'k = y{\gamma(\phi(k))}$ to make it readable.\
The inequality we had becomes $$d(x'_k, y'k) \geq \diam(E{\gamma(\varphi(k))} - \frac{1}{\gamma(\varphi(n))}$$.\
By taking the limit, we get $d(x, y) \geq inf_i \diam(E_i)$.\
One last thing remains to be proved, the fact that $x$ and $y$ lies in $E$.\
To see that, the second trick: We just need to observe that, except maybe to the first n terms, each term of the two sequences lies in $E_n$, and since $E_n$ is compact, so closed, the limit must lie in $E_n$, so each limit lie in each $E_n$, so in the intersection.
This isn't really well written but it should be readable
lol, to save some trouble and for readability, just assume the sequences converge
Shika
I think it should be readable since it's latexed now
def
(there's still a few latex typos like an <= instead of a \leq at the beginning but let's ignore it, I'm too lazy to actually fix everything
)
lol
Anyway basically the idea is "build sequences x_n, y_n such that d(x_n, y_n) > diam(E_n) - 1/n and since you're working with compacts, the two sequences converge, and better, the limits are in the intersection"
okay, cool
And since the limit of the RHS is precisely "inf_j diam(E_j)", we're good
nice
although i think ur argument and this outline accomplish the same thing, and because of the way the inequalities work out, you only need one direction of inequality (>=)
it just happens that u can show their equal
oh I didn't read that part 
that's the second time
but yeah
this is pretty much the same thing
dude i need more ppl active in this channel so i can procrastinate my other hw
i can start knotposting if you want
ok i lied i actually have nothing particularly interesting to say
i have some questions but i'm pretty sure they're too specific to be answered
darn
please do knot post
yes

if anyone knows anything about the steenrod square on khovanov homology then i will knotpost
Bruh one of my friends is doing a homological reading course at UNC and I think the guy teaching it either invented khovanov homology or like was co-creating it or some shit and theyβre just doing khovanov homology and heβs like wtf is happening
Hello. Can you give a simple intuitive example of a subspace whose (covering) topological dimension is greater than that of the space containing it?
wait that's sick
who's the professor
pretty sure khovanov was the guy who invented khovanov homology but there are a few other names that would be pretty epic
Wtf is khovanov homology?
any hints for this question? I'm guessing you explicitly construct a homotopy but I'm not sure how
a categorification of the jones polynomial
homology theory whose graded euler characteristic is said polynomial
but itself is an invariant of links
strictly stronger
Oof daim I see
Whatβs graded Euler characteristic?
Or maybe you can just refer me to some pdf
alternating sum of (graded) dimensions of the homology groups
Oh okay
Yo where can I read up on this? Sounds pretty cool with the steenrod squares on them and stuff
Bar-Natan's paper probably
if it's too terse, he has another paper that actually goes through more details https://arxiv.org/abs/math/0410495
if you want to talk more about it feel free to bug me, i'm supposed to know things about this anyway
Hausdorff
(ignore)
Hey so I'm trying to understand mobius transformations and I'm a bit confused form my professors notes. I was wondering if anyone could help explain them.
Also this is the actual problem itself we're doing. if it helps.
I think #real-complex-analysis would be more suited for this @haughty anvil
Somewhere in the proof of Hurewicz theorem. \gamma is a 1-cycle and it is homologous to zero ---> \gamma is the boundary of some 2-cycle. How?
Hausdorff
Hmm I think I'm making some mistake
what does it mean for an element to be zero in the first homology group?
It means it's the boundary of a 2-cycle π
The nth Homology group is ker boundary_n / im boundary n+1
B_1(X) = Im(boundary_2)
so \gamma in B_1(X) means that it's the boundary of a 2-chain
why is it the boundary of a 2-cycle, necessarily? @gentle lark
Because if it's 0 in the homology group, it belongs to what you quotiented by
And you quotiented by Im(Boundary)
Ah wait
Cycle =/= chain
Ok sorry π
i'm only able to deduce chain
What's a cycle?
i think we also have to use that gamma is a 1-cycle, somehow
Hausdorff
Ah, well that's the other part of the definition of Homology group
mhm?
This is basically because boundary of boundary is 0
The space you're quotienting
Is ker boundary_1
Hmm wait
this only gives
I'm tripping up here I think
Hausdorff
we're using all the other info
Hausdorff
Is this relative homology per chance?
Because I don't see how it makes sense for gamma to be the boundary of a 2-cycle
Since it'd have to be... empty?
But with relative homology it could kind of make sense if you allow cycles to have their boundary in the space by which you're relativizing(?)
can someone tell me if I understood this problem correctly?
Show that if X is a countable product of spaces having countable dense subsets, then X has a countable dense subset.
My solution:
Write $X = X_1 \times X_2 \times X_3 \times \cdots$. \
Let each $X_i$ have the countable dense subset $A_i$. \
Now $A = A_1 \times X_2 \times X_3 \times \cdots$ is a countable dense subset of $X$.
reking
nope
idk what that means so it's definitely not that
it's just singular homology
certainly there exists such a gamma' in C_2, we need to show that gamma' is in Z_2 \subset C_2
Can you provide the context?
The more I think about it the less sense it's making
A 2-cycle has no boundary by definition
So gamma could never be its boundary
Okay sure wait
All the context^
I am on Pg. 4, the "kernel" part. The goal is to show that the kernel of h is a subset of the commutator subgroup.
This part
@empty grove You might be able to help
Gaming time 
haha later is alright
exactly!!!
what's the doubt?
i think it's incorrectly stated, but i'm shocked because it's mit?
"gamma is a 1-cycle, and it is homologous to zero .... so gamma is the boundary of some 2-cycle"
@empty grove
this is certainly wrong lol
2-cycles have zero boundary
did they mean 2-chain instead?
probably yeah
ahh okay. i hope it doesn't affect the argument after this, lemme read
thanks!
umm their proof of kernel \subset commutator subgroup is very convoluted
do you have any other ideas?
I mean if you understand whats going on geometrically it isnt horrible
...what's going on geometrically
i'm afraid i don't understand the commutator subgroup geometrically
Hey, I have a topological subspace (0, 1) U [2, 3] of R. I'm trying to get why (0, 1) is closed there. I understand why it's closed with the help of it's complement, but I don't understand how for example sequence 1/n for n>=2, is in this space but it's limit is not
when the yass pills hit
Makes sense so far?
Since $\partial$ commutes with sums and multiplication by the $n_i$ we have $f = \partial(\sum n_i \sigma_i) = \sum n_i \partial(\sigma_i)$
when the yass pills hit
when the yass pills hit
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
your ambient space is (0,1) U [2,3]. so the sequence 1/n lives in this space, but it does not converge
when the yass pills hit
@vast estuary Does this make sense
OH I see
Thanks!
I was looking at convergence in R lol, π€£
yup np i was getting tripped up as well
Daim thatβs kind of trippy, yβall have the same gray pfp
I always just look at the pfp
I've got the following problem
grist bundle
\mathcal{T}
Take the union of the family of topologies
This may not itself be a topology but it must be contained in the one we want
It does however form a subbasis for a single topology
That topology is necessarily the smallest
Generate it and it's clearly unique qed
Is this reasoning fine?
Because any must necessarily contain the union
How haven't i said anything
Hmm
I could more explicitly show that
But i feel it's unnecessary
Like i can see another criticism
Like "maybe there's a smaller one than the one generated by completion of the union" in which case you just say "well it's then either not going to contain the union, or an elt of the completion of the union, show it's no longer a topology"
i may be misunderstanding this, but the union of all T_a certainly contains all of the T_a, so shouldn't the smallest topology containing all T_a actually be contained in the union of all of these?
The union is exactly all T_a
It's no larger
No smaller
Kk thank you
I agree if i was turning in a hw assignment i would be more explicit about why this works
okay... that doesnt answer my question
The smallest topology containing all T_a is at least as large as the union
The reason it might not be exactly the union is because the union might not itself be a topology
(consider if you had two topologies, T_1 and T_2. The union of them contains both but may not, for example, be closed under intersection so that it's a topology)
Imagine not having the checkmark on your keyboard β
Is there a symbol to denote the completion of a subbasis into a topology
WHAT
E.g. If S is a subbasis do i write \overline{S}
lmao I didnβt even know you could have that as a keyboard thing
It's there by default on gboard
I have never seen any notation for this so I'd say define one and use it
I'd probably use \mathcal T (S)
Ah! Nice
gee
Point set topology exam tomorrow 
I'm also upset because I need to wake up early for it 
Everyone be online at 4:30 am UTC tomorrow no reason 
When the quiet kid says 'come to school tomorrow' 
You're the bubbly kid tbh
yes it does
YOOOO daim man good luck!!!
you will do great! 
Is a compact subset of a locally compact Hausdorff space, a closed set?
compact subsets of hausdorff spaces are closed
aaahhh yes lol
is x^7+y^7<=30 a compact subset of R^2
iw anna say yes bc its closed and bounded is it not,,
i had a classmate tell me who is rly good at this stuff dont overdo it
which tells me to not overthink
topology is so bad man
well is it closed?
i hate iti
Do at then
so is this set closed and bounded?
i think one of these goes wrong
have you tried figuring out what the set looks like?
what have you tried?
hmm
i just put it in a graphing calc website
.
idk why i didnt do tht earlier π
a graphing calculator isn't really a proof, but it can help you formulate your answer
so what do you think?
Proof by graphical calculator
we cant tell you if you're overthinking it if you're not telling us what you're thinking
cuz ifeel like this was taught in high school
but
considering it goes to inifinty, its still bounded right
'_'
i dont think bounded by inifinity but idk how to say it
"it goes to infinity" is kinda vague, but that tells me it probably shouldnt be bounded
do you know what it means for a set to be bounded?
this is a subset of R^2, so saying it has an upper or lower bound doesn't make much sense
it needs upper & lower bounds to be bdd in my txtbook
& yea
thts wat i was thinking too
for a set in R^2 to be bounded, you just need to be able to stick it inside a ball
do you think you can fit this set inside a ball?
yknow a set like {x^2 + y^2 <= r^2}
How about deez nuts?
π€£
Sorry lmao
deez balls
no cuz the set is gonna keep going
'_'
i wish i could use the graph as a proof
π€£
π
yeah so your intuition says this set won't be bounded
so now you have to prove that, somehow
if you can do that, then you'll have shown that the set is not compact
one way to do it is to show that, given any ball, you can find points in the set outside of it. another way is to come up with a sequence of points in the set that shoots off to infinity
just starting it is always the worst part
the way my topology prof grades, a 50 counts as a C so you'd only need a 50 to pass π π π

Let $0\to C' \xrightarrow{f} C \xrightarrow{g} C'' \to 0$ be a short exact sequence of chain complexes. Write out the definition of the connecting homomorphisms and verify exactness of the long exact sequence.
δΊεζ¨ ε€’εΆ
Let $0\to C' \xrightarrow{f} C \xrightarrow{g} C'' \to 0$ be a short exact sequence of a chain complexes such that $f:C'\to C$ and $g:C\to C''$. Let $n\in\mathbb{Z}$, the group homomorphism $d_n:H_n(C'')\to H_{n-1}(C')$ is called connecting homomorphism is defined by
$$d_{n}(z+\text{im}(\partial_n^{''}))=x+\text{im}(\partial_{n-1}^{'})$$
where $z\in \ker(\partial_n^{''})$ and $x\in \ker(\partial_{n-1}^{'})$, and the corresponding long exact sequence is
$$H_n(C')\to H_{n}(C) \to H_n(C'')\xrightarrow{d_n} H_{n-1}(C')\to H_{n-1}(C)\to H_{n-1}(C'')$$
To verify $H_n(C'')\xrightarrow{d_n} H_{n-1}(C')\xrightarrow{f_{n-1}} H_{n-1}(C)$ is exact, we need to show $\text{im}(d_n)=\ker(f_{n-1})$ and $\text{im}(f_{n-1})=\ker(d_n)$.
δΊεζ¨ ε€’εΆ
am i doing it right
You have to say how to get x from z

ah yes, I love induced long exact sequence in homology. Big fan of induced long exact sequence in homology.
the wise man bowed his head solemnly and spoke: short exact sequences of chain complexes induce long exact sequences in homology.
- your defn of the connecting homomorphism is not sufficient (you havent related x to z in any way)
- exactness at H_{n-1}(C') just means that im(d_N) = ker(f_n-1), the other equality is not even defined
I need to show im = ker at each C
snake lemma?
Indeed I did 

Have to do it again for MSc
it is apparently a harder course because we will do van kampen at some point which we didn't do in BSc topology 
I got permission from instructor to not attend any class 
Have attended nothing since the beginning of sem
Here i dont need permission to do that 
but van kampen is alg top lol

I didn't need permission either but don't wanna get on bad side lul he is the model theory prof
ah i see
ooh do you wanna get a rec from him lol
Ye first half is point set
Second half AT
Not rec
But I want to TA model theory
ooh cool stuff
moldi best TA
What was your TAing stipend again


moldi catkinging his students
6k for entire sem
is that rupees??
(consider leaking class notes and problem sets for your model theory course)
Yes
wtf
At the end of summer I TAed 3 week review session for first years who are just getting into second year and made same amount of money
That is way easier
No grading to do either
Just take 3 tutorials
And you can make as much in 3h tutoring JEE weirdchamps
And I catpilled some of them at the end of one tutorial 
Hausdorff
lol sorry i kinda interrupted a fun conversation
Is pi tilde the abelianisation
yes
Hausdorff
is it because they're homeomorphic
It don't matter, (IxI, βI) is homeomorphic to (ΞΒ², βΞΒ²)
tau?
ahh cool! nice, so when they say singular n-simplices, i can take anything homeomorphic to the standard n-simplex in the domain
Ye, assuming they are triangulating that homeomorphic thing via the homeomorphism
why not
Because the boundary is not computed the same way
Like in the first case, you have a map from I x I but really you are just treating it as a map from ΞΒ²
By composing with homeomorphism
But here it's different
So from this case, you can prove the case for any 2 simplex
Take the 2 simplex you wanna prove for, embed that into I x I as one of the 2 triangles, define the map on the other triangle by saying constant along the (bottom left to top right) diagonal
This should work intuitively 
ooh okay cool! thanks
the 2-simplex i wanna prove for is arbitrary here right
like gamma is the boundary of SOME 2-simplex
More general than that, gamma is boundary of a 2 chain
But if boundaries of 2 simplices map to 0
So do those of 2 chains
Because they're sums of boundaries of 2 simplices
Because boundary is a homomorphism
Lul there might be something easier
Idk
yes agreed so it suffices to prove for a 2-simplex
ok for now i'm just gonna assume that it's ok to prove for I x I
and move on
Hello. Can you give a simple intuitive example of a subspace whose (covering) topological dimension is greater than that of the space containing it?
Hausdorff
Hausdorff
Oh yes this makes sense, I know how to prove it! Fundamental groups of finite products of spaces = direct sum of fundamental groups of individual spaces. YAY
Neat related fact: the (dimension of the) homology group of tori form Pascal's triangle
Intuitively, this is because you write out T^n as a product of circles, then pick k circles and that's an element of a basis for the k Homology (and, specifically, a T^k)
If I have a union that looks like this:
$$\bigcup_{ x \in U} { x , -x }$$
\{ \}
Khaled
Where U is open in S^n, visually I know that the union of {-x} is open, but can it be shown more formally?
Can you use that x -> -x is a homeomorphism?
(oh I see the channels have been renamed to separate topology and geometry, maybe this shall belong there, idk)
Moved π
Thanks!
Regarding the change of channels' names: shouldn't the roles from #get-advanced-access be tweaked accordingly?
Yeah we are working on that 
Hi, how would I express a connected sum of two torus, but glued at two places?
i would express it just like that
Section 16 Problem 5 in Munkres.
grist bundle
All that I can tell we know here is that X is in T' and Y is in U'. I'm not sure what the strategy is supposed to be for the problem
I see now
Diagrams help
Maybe compare the bases of topology by definition of product topology
Yeah
I had to get everything written out to be able to look at it plainly
It makes sense now
What does single set mean π΅βπ«
If X x Y and X' x Y' are different sets can you even talk about topologies being finer or coarser
I think "single" means that these are the same sets, but with different topologies, but of course this is the terrible notation
oh wow ok
Hello. Can you give a simple intuitive example of a subspace whose (covering) topological dimension is greater than that of the space containing it?
Yes.
were there no answers there?
if you found a partial or unsatisfactory answer online, maybe you could post it here to make your question more specific and therefore accessible
There may be some examples, but neither of them are simple and intuitive.
expectTheUnexpected
oh. no.
seems a tough ask for an intuitive example of an intuitively false statement
Does the Tietze extension theorem imply there is a unique extension? Or just that there is some extension?
very sad π¦
Why the sad face?
Topology would be incredibly boring if we had uniqueness here π
Yes onto its image
Hello, can anyone explain to me why any basepoint preserving closed loop in a torus is always homotopic to $aba^{-1}b^{-1}$, where $a$ and $b$ are the toroidal and poloidal loops intersecting the basepoint of the torus.
blackiris
I see, but what I'm seeing is that I only seem to need ab without the inverses.
Oh wait
Yes
I think moving once in the loop using the two generators isnt enough to deform into an arbitrary loop.
but if you place a loop inside of that square you can always deform it so that it touches the sides of the square
so any loop will be homotopic to the boundary of the torus
Yeah I think I can see it now
and the boundary is given by aba^-1b^-1, the inverses are there because you go the in the opposite direction
It was hard because I was drawing it with the edges of the inverses coinciding.
oh I see
Hi
Iβm not sure if I can ask this here
But Iβll post it
Can anyone please help me by checking them
Ping me too
tf this gotta do with topology
I like the smaller big OH tho π
It's always discrete π«
shame
Where can I ask this ?
Discrete?
the best channel is probably #discrete-math but honestly id recommend a cs/programming server.
But can yβall check it tho
no.
K

U want me to ask there?
Bruh moment
Nvmmm
Hey I'm looking at some proof and it claims something I don't get, Let $K=S \cap A$ where $ S \subseteq T = A \cup B $ and $ A, B $ are clopen sets that partition $T$. The author claims that for some point $ a \in A $ we can find a sequence from $ S $ that converges to $ a $. How?
CRAED0X
What is the significance of K in what you said? Did you mean a in K?
Okay
The thing was that S \subseteq T \subseteq \overline{S}
So yeah
Thanks for reading anyways !
Ah, np
i think it should say T2 is finer than T1 right?
i messed up in that Z+ should be Z because I need the basis elements to span R
but how would T2 be finer than T1 here?
it contains more open sets
why is orientation cover always oreintable?
the justification given in my class seems silly,
like no matter if the cover is over an unorientable manifold the cover is always orientable
what was the justification given in your class?
intuitively I would say the reason is that the orientation cover is created by looking at where orientability fails (so a transition map becomes orientation-reversing), and replacing one of those sets with a disjoint copy in the opposite orientation, "fixing" orientability
lots of notation but pretty much local homology of open sets of orientable cover are related by a chain of isomorphisms leading back to original manifold
ill post pic
but the precise details depend on how you construct the cover
prettt much H_n(~M|u_x) is supposed to be H_n(~M,~M-(x,u_x)) where u_x is generator of local orientation at x
and U(u_B) is defined to be the set of all local orientations that are compatible within an open ball around x in the manifold
we are using hatcher as source
this way of thinking about orientations is weird to me. because we say a manifold has orientation if there exist a function from x in manifold to u_x, a local orientation at x such that they are compatible with local orientations of points in open ball around x
Hello. Can you give a simple intuitive example of a subspace whose (covering) topological dimension is greater than that of the space containing it?

insert that lame facebook "definition of insanity" quote
lol
I was called "insane"?
which one is the topological dimension again
lebesgue covering dimension
is that question answered already? i see it everyday in this channel
To answer your question
No, I cannot a simple intuitive example of a subspace whose (covering) topological dimension is greater than that of the space containing it.
Im not even convinced this is possible, doesnt any cover of ply n restrict to one of ply less than or equal to n on a subspace
Maybe im misremembering the defn ot missing something though
if the subset is closed it's not possible but otherwise I don't know
Yeah i cant see a proof off the top of my head in the non closed case
Hmmm
This cant happen for finite simplicial complexes
Someone find a paracompact hausdorff space whose cohomological dimension is smaller than that of a paracompact hausdorff subspacr

bruh what are plys you mean sheets?
Hmm
I wonder what the covering dimension of the Vitali set is
I'm sure the answer is either very interesting or very trivial
Bit more involved than that
Take all possible open covers
And minimize [minimum n such that p belongs to at most n sets of the open cover, for all p in the space]
it is 1d in 2d
Hey, quick question, is the real projective space of n dimensions RP^n homeomorphic to S^n?
only for n=1
Right, and that's because of the equivalence relation that identifies antipodal points, right?
I don't know what you mean by "because of the equivalence relation"
Like that is the definition of RP1
but you can construct a homeomorphism using the universal property of quotients
is there a notion of one point being closer than another to some reference point in a topological space? I read that if two points x_0 and y_0 are contained in more open sets than the points x_0 and y_1 then y_0 is closer to x_0. Intuitively this does not seem to hold up when I think about R^n with the standard topology. I would expect the set of all open sets containing x_0 and y_0 to have the same cardinality as the sets containing x_0 and y_1. If this is true then every point would be equally close to every other point in R^n.
Youβre definitely right about cardinality not being a good test of comparative closeness.
It turns out that the topology doesnβt really specify thisβcloseness isnβt preserved by continuous maps. For example, you need your notion of βclosenessβ to define cauchy sequences and what it means for a metric space (or topological group) to be complete. However, completeness is not a topological property, since R is complete but (0,1) is not.
If you want to talk about this notion of βclosenessβ though, you can look into
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_space
Itβs a little bit technical, and at least for me Iβve only ever had to look at specific cases like metric spaces and topological groups (which are uniform spaces) instead of uniform spaces in general.
In the mathematical field of topology, a uniform space is a set with a uniform structure. Uniform spaces are topological spaces with additional structure that is used to define uniform properties such as completeness, uniform continuity and uniform convergence. Uniform spaces generalize metric spaces and topological groups, but the concept is de...
to summarize you are saying that we need to add additional structure in order to define comparative closeness? also could you go into more detail about βIt turns out that the topology doesnβt really specify thisβcloseness isnβt preserved by continuous maps.β
why would a property not being preserved by a continuous map imply that the topology doesnβt specify that property
topological spaces are really only up to homeomorphism
ohh i see that just helped me piece something together thanks
facts
umm quick question
does this ensure that V is connected too?
in other words, is every open subset of an open connected set also connected?
V is a disconnected open subset of the connected open set U

it's complex analysis lol
it's gonna be sheaf
etale space construction of riemann surfaces

$\emptyset \subset \mathcal{T}$ so $\bigcup \emptyset = \emptyset \in \mathcal{T}$ from part 2
certainly
oh my gods
I'm sorry
Is it wise to call the helpers for this problem?
Maybe someone is willing to go through this computation
No one is
do not underestimate the greens
<@&286206848099549185>
Hopefully I don't get banned for this
Though I would totally understand if I did
i honestly think it might be faster to write a python script to verify this than try to do it by hand
I don't really know how to do this in python
surely there is a way to not do this computation
Your prof is a bad person
Intepreting it literally in terms of cardinality isnt very helpful, but its a good intuitive heuristic for what open sets as an idea are designed to preserve
And this works in R^n
E.g epsilon delta
Theyre literally asking someone ti verify that the computation has no errors

TTerra
wait i deleted the source is it a ghost ping now 
Not if you ping them again 
is this differential topology or what is this?
I assume not because it would go in the other channel so what is this?
it's multivariable calculus
daim I will never touch multivariable calc then 
Trying to do this question, but I have no idea where L tensor L comes in exactly, can anyone give any advice?
<@&286206848099549185>
Hi, have a simple question on Hausdorff spaces - I know that in a Hausdorff space, all singletons are closed, but is the reverse true? If all singletons are closed in a space, is that space Hausdorff?
such a space is called a T_1 space, and it's not true that every T_1 space is hausdorff. an example is an infinite set with the cofinite topology
Thank you!
Have not learnt about T_1 spaces yet, though have seen that they exist via wikipedia
Heya, another question on Hausdorff spaces - If we have a relation ~ on a Hausdorff space X, then X/~ is not necessarily Hausdorff (I believe). But, for any space Y, if Y/~ is Hausdorff, does that mean Y is Hausdorff?
No I dont think so, cant you just make Y/~ into a point no matter what Y is?
I haven't thought about that before, but I guess so? By the relation that everything is related to reach other. But are spaces composed of only singletons Hausdorff?
Or rather is the space composed of only a single point Hausdorff?
Right, and so if there is only 1 point then it's automatically satisfied
yep
ok I'm struggling with exercise 20 in Hatcher 2.1
I've tried a number of different things and none of them seem to be working
Hmm mayer vietoris?
don't know that yet
ok.
is this the reduced suspension?
i don't remember what his convention is in this chapter
this is unreduced
which I guess follows from "thinking of SX as the union of two cones CX with their bases identified"
Well if you delete the two endpoints then what remains should deformation retract onto X.





