#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 271 of 1
Yes same thing
okay then I have
So you know linear maps out of tensor product correspond to bilineat maps out of the cartesian product
Replace linear with continuous base point preserving and bilinear with base point preserving in each component
okay and the smash product will have this property?
ye okay you just said it lmao
ye okay I see that's nice
I see I see
ye
And maps(S1, Y) is the space of loops in Y b definition
Like pi_1 but not up to htpy
Makes sense?
ye like the weird omega right?
Yep
So Maps(X smash S1, Y) cong Maps(X, Maps(S1, Y))
That is
Maps(Suspension X, Y) cong Maps(X, Omega Y)
Take X = S^n and youll see why this is a big deal
wait I don't see it 
Whats suspension of S^n
oooh okay that's kind of cool
So quotient up to homotopy and you see that pi_(n+1) (X) cong pi_n(Omega X)
There are lots of other applications like commutativity of higher htpy groups
Yes
wait so you can prove it with this fact?
I can talk more abt it in like 20 minutes once im home but yeah
yeah okay, I think I will be asleep 20 minutes from now on tho lmao but thanks a lot! 
cool stuff
Sweden moment
@pearl holly if u wanna be really cool and swag
You should learn that thing which happens when you take AT and replace the T with a G
Corrupting the youth
What’s the big picture of stable infinity categories
Is it just, the ideal setting for doing stable homotopy theory
From what I’ve learned infinity categories seem to be good because they
Allow us to neatly package higher homotopical information
Can I ask a question about Morse theory here?
Yes
So the standard result in Morse theory is that when you pass a critical point of the Morse function, the homotopy type changes (i.e. you attach a cell whose dimension equals the index of that critical point)
But there's also the idea that you want to find a Morse function with the fewest possible critical points and want to cancel certain critical points in pairs. Is the idea that these critical points contain redundant information and that their cancellation doesn't affect the homotopy type of the smooth manifold? This is probably pretty obvious, but it wasn't to me and I was wondering if there's an intuitive argument for it
I think it’s not obvious that this does work out
If you draw some examples it’s “clear” it should workout
But I think this actually takes quite a bit of work to make sense of
Like for example if you do a homological treatment of Morse theory
Take the normal sphere
And take this deformed sphere
The Morse complex of these things will be different
The latter will have some degree 1 terms
But when you take the homology it cancels out
I only really know that, the Morse complex does not depend on the Morse function
- the homology of the Morse complex does not depend
The Morse complex certainly does
So this can be one way to show what you are asking
But perhaps not a]satisfying
I think maybe what you are looking for you might find in references on Cerf theory and “birth death singularities”
Please @ me if you reply I probably won’t see this until tomorrow
it's a better framework (compared to triangulated cats) for things that look like the stable homotopy category or the derived category of something
Okay this confuses me because it seemed we needed to talk about triangulated categories
To talk about stable infinity

Now maybe I just mixed up the motivation
yeah you dont need to mention triangulated cats at all
the homotopy cat of a stable infinity cat is triangulated
but being stable is just a property of an infinity cat
there are several advantages from what I could gather
- better cones
- being stable is a property, and not structure that you put on the cat
- theyre better when you have families of categories
for example, you can take limits and colimits of infinity categories in the infinity category of infinity categories
so it's a good setting for descent problems
if youre only interested in derived cats, I think you can get away with just working with dg-enhanced derived cats
I dont know this stuff very well, you might (will) get better answers in the AT server
You might have seen how cones in triangulated categories cause problems when you're trying to relate the derived category of the heart of a t-structure and the original triangulated cat. There's no obvious functor going either way. Similar issues turn up when youre trying to glue t-structures in an exact triple of triangulated categories.
also when you do have a functor from D(heart) --> C, it's only an equivalence when Ext is generated in degree one
or something like that
this is helpful when you're putting extra structures on you cat, such as a tensor product etc. The extra structure will usually be automatically compatible with the triangulated structure on the homotopy cat. You don't need to check compatibility because everything is canonical.
this sort of thing often turns up when you're studying things like the category of bundles over each open set of some space.
or something like U \mapsto D^b(Coh(U))
notions like "sheaves of categories" make sense in the infinity cat setting
idk if this is an advantage, but you dont have to deal with all the weird zig-zags that you see while dealing with model cats
DM'd
there's a good answer on this by Denis Nardin on MO
most of the things I said above are from that answer
lime_soup does
AT so they probably need it/will need it soon
I have to give a presentation on stable infinity categories
So in a very real sense
I
I need it
oh yeah lime soup you asked for an easier reference
gaitsgory-rozenblyum
I forgot about it yesterday
Yeah I think nobody mention that
I’m really enjoying this
I’ve seen spectra
Not until too much detail
And no on the derived/triangulated cats
[They don’t get enough vitamin C :(]
vitamin cone
Lmao
I think some of the problems in gelfand and manin ch4 are very good at pointing these out
all of the ones they point out comes from the non-functoriality of the cone
but yeah Cat being a bad cat is also an issue
model cats are hard to work with in families
that issue can be fixed using model cats
and a lot of people are perfectly happy working with them
the definition I read requires functorial factorizations
Quillen's original definition does not iirc
any quillen model cat?
ignoring size
interesting
idk
oh boy derivators
I was about to ask why the rationals aren't locally compact, but I figured it out. So thanks for the help. :p
It's interesting how local compactness does not carry over subspaces.
wild
problem: every net has a subnet that's a ultranet .
could u give some examples of nets that might give some idea of solving this
So on the topic, is local compactness not an invariant of homeomorphisms?
Yeah. Now that i think about it, that makes a lot of sense
Can anyone tell me what the setup of this question may be hinting at me to do?
I could use a bit of help with this. I have a bit of a difficult time understanding limit point compactness to be able to work with it effectively.
Does anyone know why "super" as in supersymmetry, superalgebra, and so on equips an object with a graded tensor structure? What's with the nomenclature.
I think it’s derived some sort of physics thing
Super symmetry or something in physics and it was Z/2Z graded and then it just stuck
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I dunno tho I’m just a chmonkey
I think I understand the hint part. For the {x_n} set, a limit point does not exist. If it did, then it would not be contained in the cover of X, which is the issue
Wait wait, that isn't quite it. If we were to look at a point x not in {x_n}, then there exists a k s.t. x is in U_k, which is disjoint from x_n when n>=k.
For the remaining elements, by the T_1 axiom, we can create a neighborhood around each x_n that does not meet x.
So {x_n} has no limit point
im trying to work through this one with you lol. i havent ever seen this result
I think I got the 2nd direction down (I'll share in a sec). I would like help on the first direction (if you can).
Here is the 2nd direction. Ignore the picture, I thought it'd be useful xp
Mine?
Oh, yeah i dont mind
There
Thank you
Okay, back to the issue at hand. I understand the main idea. If we let A be a subset of X with no limit points, we show that A must be finite.
I know how to do it for compactness, but not with a countable cover...
Here is the proof when X is compact. Maybe this will help someone
i think closed subsets of countably compact spaces are countably compact
that would fix the proof ps
Almost. The cover we were taking in this proof is not necessarily countable
yea, but it would be now
But yes, you are right. A should be countably compact
Why?
The cover we did in this proof was take neighborhoods of A. Their union is a cover, but it is not necessarily countable
Yea, so that isnt quite it.
so we just gotta find a countably compact open cover of A
Yep, that is somehow built by the elements of A
okay
lets see how this turns out
Suppose $X$ is not limit point compact. Then, without loss of generality, there is a countably infinite subset $V$ of $X$ with no limit point in $X$. Since the set of limit points of $V$ is empty, then $V$ is closed, so $X\setminus V$ is open. For each $v\in V$, there is a neighborhood $U_v\ni v$ such that $(U_v\setminus{v})\cap V=\emptyset$. Then ${U_v\subseteq X:v\in V}\cup{X\setminus V}$ is a countable open cover of $X$.
c squared
No finite sub-cover of this covering can exist, because each U_v only contains one point from V, which would mean that V is finite
contradiction
so X is not countably compact
Ah, you did the contrapositive again here too
And you just chose a set that is countably infinite to do something similar to what the compact->limit compactness proof did
Yea, I think T_1 is only necessary for the other direction.
yea pretty similar to that one
im still looking over the proof you gave for the other direction cus i couldnt get it, so i guess we both gave each other one direction of the proof lol
For sure! Thanks for the help c^2
yw! was fun
I got another one I need to bite into if you are interested
yea fs
Yes it is
oh thats cool lol
A good book, but dang is it challenging
So before we get to this new one, why can you assume a countably infinite set has no limit point.
What if only uncountable sets had no limit point?
because every infinite set contains a countably infinite subset (assuming some stuff about dedikind infinite stuff and AoC)
AoC?
Okay, so I am starting to process the hint a bit more.
So I think the x_n's are supposed to be a compact set.
Then by EVT, we know it attains its bounds, so we just need to 1) ensure that the infinimum of d(x_n,x_m) is non-zero and the x_(n+1)=f(x_n) doesnt produce repeats
surjectivity is the hardest part here
Okay, I understand where the hint is leading (and why this question is in this section).
Since X is compact, it is sequentially compact, so it has a convergent subsequence. But all convergent sequences are Cauchy, so there is an N, so that d(x_n_,x_m)<e when n,m>=N.
There is the contradiction
i think the other parts are pretty easy: injectivity (immediate), continuity (almost immediate), and continuity of inverse if it exists (pretty much almost immediate)
ah
i was trying to look at the sum of d(x_n,x_{n+1}) for some reason
but d(x_n,x{n+1}) = d(x_1,x_2) for all natural numbers n
so it didnt work
Lol, let me save you time :p.
On the other hand, I need to show that e is an upper bound of d(x_n,x_m)
Ah, I see why.
Which is what I am having a hard time with
well, d(x_n,x_m) = (n-m+1)d(x_1,x_2) > d(x_1,x_2) > e
since a = x_1 is not in f(X) and x_2 = f(a) is
Where did the n-m+1 come in?
ah shit
Isnt d(x_n,x_m) just equal to d(x_1,x_2)?
no its only for consecutive n,m
but this still feels like crankery
and also doesnt help with the upper bound
lol my b
So, can we show d(a,x_{m-n+1})>d(a,f(a))?
yea
Actually, no need.
We know d(a,x_{n-n+1}) is at least epsilon away because x_{m-n+1} is in f(X)
yea. also, thats true for any index bigger than 1, doesnt need to be x_{m-n+1}
Yes, but if we let m>n, we can simply d(x_n,x_m) to that
okay, got it
And that's our ticket
And of course, since we have surjectivity and we are mapping X onto X, injectivity is immediate
okay. so just to put it all together. we assumed that f wasnt surjective.
we got a sequence of points x_n that had a convergent sub-sequence of x_n.
but we just showed that the distance between any two points of the sequence was at least epsilon
so the sub-sequence of x_n cant be convergent, since its not cauchy any more, which is a contradiciton
Yep, bingo!
cool. for continuity of the inverse,~~ it suffices to show that f is a closed map~~
actually. u can do it differently too, using the isometry condition
use the isometry assumptions and Lipschitz continuity. its pretty nice how it works out
Oh yeah, continuity is pretty automatic :p
Heck yeah! Solid finish
nice!
So I am pretty sure I understand 4.
Question, does uniform mean the box topology?
Oh no, it is much worse than that
I think that's a good sign to stop for the day xp
Thanks for the help c squared. I feel like I have a much better understanding of limit compactness now.
just one quick check, i think there exists such an epsilon because f is a closed map, in particular, f(X) is closed
oh and yea yw. me too
i think uniform topology stuff is on page 124
Yea, I saw. I may have to deal with that beast tomorrow. It seems rough
yea i have to look at the definitions again for R^omega and local compactness. it do seem rough
In regards to 3), I understand the issue is that an open neighborhood of x may not be open in f(X). But I am having a hard time coming up with a counter example
Question. Can we find a continuous map from R to Q?
suppose you had one
Damn, not a good start
what is one thing that you know is topologically different from R than from Q
Oh good lord... Q isnt connected
Okay, so that wont cut it
Why are counter examples such a pain to find sometimes
I always suck at finding counter examples. Its the bane of my mathematical existence.
The bane of my uniqueness is a whole nother issue that we wont get into
lol
the set {1/n : n in N} is not locally compact
i think near zero you get issues?
lemme check
No, I am pretty sure it is
You had me excited for a moment.
me too haha
For starters, compactness implies local compactness, so we need two non-compact spaces to get anywhere
Wait.....
God we are silly
how so?
Q is countable, so perhaps we can find a continuous map from N to Q
any function from N to Q is continuous
Well then we're done
Care to share why?
It is not obvious to me
what do you know about discrete spaces and their open sets
All sets are open
yea
oh shit u right lol
N is locally compact, but Q is not
i was about to bust out such a nasty ce
Haha. And if f is an open map, it does work, since U in C means f(U) in f(C) where f(U) is open
okay, awesome
wait. so quick run through if f is continuous and open
let y be a point in f(X), so y = f(x) for some x in X
X is locally compact, so there is a compact set C containing an open neighborhood U of x
f(U) subseteq f(C) and f(U) is open and f(C) is compact
nice
Yep, that's all there is to it. :D
lmao all sequences are continuous
that just doesnt feel right to me for some reason ig lol
Hello. Why is there no function $f\colon \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ that is continuous precisely on a countable dense subset of $\mathbb{R}$?
MathPhysics
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1809.06453.pdf
@true garden
if you let f be uniformly continuous, then the proof is a bit easier
Hello folks
Anyone here know how to prove that f: R^2 - {0} --> S^1 x (0, infinity) with f(rcostheta, rsintheta) = (costheta, signtheta, r) has an inverse f^-1 that is also continuous? [big boy problem]
is R^2{0} suppose to be R^2 without the origin?
oh yeah
meant to have the \ in there
yeah
without the origin
im trying to prove this
:[]
have you had any ideas for the inverse?
well, that's where im confused
couldn't inverse literally just be
f^-1(costheta, signtheta, r) = (rcostheta, rsintheta)
thats right
yuh
theres a few ways to prove continuity
easiest is prob composition of continuous functions
well
i was told that since this function maps product spaces
that I can prove that all the components, say, costheta, sintheta, and r, that if they are all continuous then the entire function is
something to do with analysis
yuh
is that this?
no
if f : X --> Y and g : Y --> Z continuous, then g o f : X --> Z continuous
this is true if p = g o f, but its stronger than what we need
i forgot about component functions. if you can show that the component functions
f_1(r cos(t), r sin(t)) = (cos(t), sin(t))
f_2(r cos(t), r sin(t)) = r
are all continuous then ur good
so as in
f(rcos(t), rsin(t)) = (cos(t), sin(t), r) was my original function
and so
f_1(r cos(t), r sin(t)) = cos(t)
f_2(r cos(t), r sin(t)) = sin(t)
f_3(r cos(t), r sin(t)) = r
then I show that function is homeomorphic?
or simply that f is continuous
you show that the two functions above are continuous
since those are the component functions of f
there should only be two. lemme fix it rq
the first component function is from R^2 - {0} to S^1 and the second component function is from R^2 - {0} to (0, infty)
You can break the S¹ component further into 2 components
Checking continuity into S¹ and into R² is the same when S¹ has subspace top
f_1(r cos(t), r sin(t)) = cos(t)
f_2(r cos(t), r sin(t)) = sin(t)
f_3(r cos(t), r sin(t)) = r
^ proving these continuous proves R^2 - {0} to S^1 and the second component function is from R^2 - {0} to (0, infty) to be continuous?
Yes
So (cos t, sin t, r) really is more like
((cos t, sin t), r)
Where (cos t, sin t) is a point of S¹
Because then it's a pair, a point in S¹ and a point in (0, infty)
So you have to check continuity of 2 coordinate functions
But the continuity of the first coordinate function breaks apart as checking continuity of 2 coordinate functions again
By same reasoning
Because you can think of S¹ as sitting inside R x R
ngl im hella confused but gonna shleep and wake up and look at this
but okay and so
i essentially prove that f: R^2 - {0} --> S^1 x (0, infinity) with f(rcostheta, rsintheta) = (costheta, signtheta, r) is continous
how do i prove inverse is cont.
Yeah I'm really struggling with explaining this. We are also implicitly using the fact that the punctured plane is homeomorphic to a quotient of (0,infty) x [0, 2pi] but that's too much work and there should be a simpler way to do this
no ur good im just super novice

Will be in the middle of my exam 
F
i guess i use plan B
plan B: stay up all night and go to sleep when moldilocks offline
Lol just sleep, there should be some analysis brains 🤡 around here that can figure out nice proof
🤡
I just don't want to think about it because it looks so annoying 
yeah wait me neither
Thanks.
Nobody
Just a small nitpick but your f is a function from RxR but we need a g from S^1 x R. i guess from f =g circ q, where q:RxR -> S^1 x R is the quotient map, it follows that g is continuous as well
cant think of an easier way without using a quotient map
Does anyone know where I can find a proof of homotopy of simplicial maps induces chain homotopy on the induced homomorphisms? My prof didn't wanna get into the details but I wanna find a rigorous treatment for my notes.
Lmao I’ve been thinking about learning sum AG but I have to do some more AT first
Yeah but have you considered homotopying the T into a G and learning that instead?
Like rn
At this very moment
Yeah okay sure I will think about it but AG might even be too hardcore for me
Haven’t you been like mucking around with shitty CW complexes for a month now
Like I have no idea what it is like
Ye but AG might be completely different
You expand commutstibe rings
In a way they couldn’t before
The geometry let’s you glue affine schemes to make new schemes
But an affine scheme is just a commutative ring
So you get to glue commutative rings along geometric lines which the ring itself doesn’t originally seem to have
It’s so cracked
And bro like a sheaf dude 🤯
Yoo okay that sounds cool
Oh no not bundles 
My memes are supreme tho
And toki loves me
They backed me up on the Kanga thing
Before anyone else did
Anyway
Point is I love commutative rings
And AG let’s you like do even more epicer stuff
Like bro the tensor product is so cool
And a fibered product is like a mega tensor product
It’s like brooooo
It’s like a tensor product of these omega rings (a scheme)
And then it’s like bro this shit makes no sense wtf is going on
Then it makes sense and you’re like brooooo
It’s like bro all rings are rings of functions bro
It’s like yo dude if you’re not zero at a point you’re not zero on a nbd bro that’s why the support is closed bro (oh wait this is kinda backwards)
Okay, so the way I need to do this is to take a ball around x and I need to show it's closure is not compact.
But I am having trouble finding a cover that fails
Wtf is the uniform topology
Here is the definition
Yes, point set topology
Maybe you want to look at some fucked up ooint like
(1/n) in the n-th spot
And something goes wrong
I dunno
I think the ball itself will matter less than the point it’s centered on
Why would that be
Idk
Any sufficiently small ball should do
I mean an epsilon ball and an epsilon/2 ball are basically the same thing so
This is just my intuition
My chmonkey intuition
I think you are right. But I think the issue is going to be near the endpoints.
That’s why I was thinking
1/n in the n-th spot
It’s kinda near the edge
But in a cool mysterious way
Lol, I got you at a very strange time
Is a set where in one coordinate, there is an x,y s.t d(x,y)>=e and for all other coordinates, the distance is strictly smaller.
Is that something that could be open here?
Actually, I think this will work. Let U be an e nbhd of 0 and consider it's closure. Then for the coordinate y_i s.t. d(0,y_i)=e, create a ball of radius epsilon around (0,...,y_i,...). These balls+ B(0,e/2) cover the nbhd of U.
But the moment you remove 1, then you are missing (0,...,y_i...) or 0, which is in the closure.
Bump
it's probably worth writing down yourself to make sure you understand the definition of a simplicial homotopy
He didn't really explain simplicial homotopy, he just said we're taking a homotopy between the 2 induced maps on the underlying spaces and triangulating the product space with some triangulation preserving the top and bottom
when you say simplicial maps
do you mean just in the sense of simplicial homology, a map from a standard simplex into X? or the generalization in terms of simplicial sets
Maps between simplicial complexes that preserve simplices
And induce.continuous maps on the underlying spaces
oh ok
Anyone know how to do a?
Ty will do
how to begin this
look at your favorite definition of continuity and try to show that it holds here
alright TT
i want to show that the preimage of x + y is open in R^2
or wait
(that said it might be easiest to do this with epsilon delta)
i would have to show that the preimage of every open in R is open in R^2
so if you wanted to use the definition of continuity involving preimages, it'd be enough to check that the preimage of any open interval (a, b) is open
@finite heath
that may simplify the process
oh word okay
For starters, is it true that int(AuB) is a subset of Int(A)UInt(B)?
If so, the answer to your question comes automatically (the closure contains the interior)
Had the same idea but was too scared of a potential counterexample
Ah, it is the other way around
are the box topology and product topologies on R infinity the same?
No. They are only the same on R^n
No but quit distracting from my interesting question
sorry lol
Okay then, here is a question. Is the only reason Int(A)Uint(B) a subset of int(AuB) because of the intersecting limit points?
- Int(A∪B) ⊆ C(A)∪Int(B)?
If so, can it be further weakened to - Int(A∪B) ⊆ A∪Int(B)?
For instance, $(0,1)^{\omega}$ is open in the box topology of $R^{\omega}$ but not in the product topology.
dackid
im talking about r infinity not r omega
Uhh they're the same?
They are the same. Countably infinite
r infinity is a subset of r omega. all eventually 0 sequences

Euler, if this is the main issue for these two not being equal, then I think you can arrive at your answer.
i think that inclusion is because int(A) is an open set contained in A and thus contained in AuB and thus contained in int(AuB), and same for B
why are they the same?
I'm more interested in why it is not an equality. Not necessarily a counter example, but a reason as to why.
i think its because int(AuB) can contain points that are on the boundary of both A and B, but int(A) u int(B) doesn't
The counter example euler brought up is because of the limit points they share
keyword can
Yes, I think so too. Then if that is the case, the Cl(A)UInt(B) definitely contains int(AuB) because the limit points are included in the former.
hmm
Actually yeah, that is the reason why it is not an equality. So this holds
I have been reading about some properties of interior and closure operator.
I came across the fact that For any topological space $X$ and $A$ and $B$ $\subseteq X$.It is not true in general $i(A ...
it might answer your question
is the function from r infinity to r infinity defined by f(x) = 2x continuous in either topology?
operads are hard
Shamelessly stealing these as exercises for myself. Nice questions.
Int(A∪B) ⊆ C(A)∪Int(B)
Proof:
If Int(A∪B) is empty we are done
Therefore let x belong to Int(A∪B).
If x belongs to C(A) we are done.
So let x belongs to B but not C(A)
Since x is in Int(A∪B)nC(A)^c
Which is an open set inside B. This x is in the interior of B
They’re really nice questions. Inspired by trying to invent modal topological logic
I need the first statement to be true as it’s the modal K axiom in disguise
why is int(AuB)nC(A)^c contained in B?
- Int(A∪B) ⊆ C(A)∪Int(B) is true.
Conjecture: - Int(A∪B) ⊆ A∪Int(B) is false
It was taking me a minute, but no. An open set in the product topology would look like $U_1\times \dots \times U_k\times \R \times \R \dots$.
Of course, order does not matter, but this suffices. We can bound the open sets so that none of them contain 0.
In contrast, the box topology has open sets that bound the coordinates after the $k^th$ one, where the product topology does not.
dackid
- No, it holds. Using int(A\cup B) \subseteq int(A)\cup int(B) and then int(A) \subseteq A, this follows.
- Is false. Take (0,1) and [1,2].
LHS is (0,2) RHS is (0,1)U(1,2)
So the box topology is a finer in R infinity than the product topology
It’s so delicate
nobody can do point set today
Hey! I did just fine 😆
point, set, lose (nah this doesn't work)
A = [0,1), B=[1,2] is a counterexample to 2.
Yeah that works too
Yep. Once again, it comes down to the limit points
There must be a good axiomatic way to see it
Kuratowski wouldn't be proud of us at the moment
this doesn't make any sense to me lol
idk what bound means
There isn’t one I bet, else modal logic wouldn’t need it as an additional axiom too
Bound may not be the right word, but every coordinate after the k^th one is free to go anywhere in the product topology, but not the box topology (your open sets are not necessarily R)
Nobody
I’m gonna prove it from the axioms
can someone plz help I'm so stupid
like has someone read about the construction of steenrod operations on space level?
from Hathcer or something
there's so much notation everywhere that I don't want to type out
PLZ
:c
pls
Tried it for a bit then gave up on it. glhf if you're still on it
so Hatcher is trying to prove that $Sq^i(\alpha) = \alpha \smile \alpha$ when $\alpha \in H^i(X; \mathbb{Z}_2)$ and I don't understand the argument. I know that if you restrict $\lambda(\alpha)$ to $X \wedge X$ then you get $\alpha \otimes \alpha$ which by an isomorphism can be represented as $\alpha \times \alpha$, the cross product. So I'm guessing that $\nabla^(\lambda(\alpha)) = \Delta^(\lambda(\alpha))$, $\Delta$ being the diagonal map. The problem I see is that $\Delta$ and $\nabla$ have completely different domains and codomains. Also you can't just compose $(\alpha \cross \alpha) \nabla$ the image of nabla is different from the domain of the cross product so I assume that you restrict the image of nabla somehow but I don't see it
Tokidoki ✓
most of the notation is unnecessary to understand what's going on here I think
so like $\Lambda X$ has $X \wedge X$ embedded in it so I can restrict $\lambda(\alpha): \Lambda X \to K(\mathbb{Z}_2, 2n)$ to $X \wedge X$
Tokidoki ✓
so $L^\infty = S^\infty/\mathbb{Z}_2$ is the infinite real projective plane. $\Gamma X = (S^\infty \times (X \wedge X))/\mathbb{Z}_2$. $\Lambda X$ is the quotient of $\Gamma X$ with $S^\infty/\mathbb{Z}_2$
Tokidoki ✓
and I'm stuck at the very end of the picture I sent btw
and the fact that $\lambda (\alpha)$ restricts to $\alpha \otimes \alpha$ is just something that Hatcher showed before
Tokidoki ✓
so my confusion lies in the fact that like sure, I know that $\lambda(\alpha)$ restricts to $\alpha \times \alpha: X \times X \to K(\mathbb{Z}_2, 2n)$ and I know that I have to use this fact to show the property, but the composition $(\alpha \times \alpha) \nabla$ doesn't make sense and even if I changed the codomain of $\nabla$ to be like $X \wedge X$ which is close enough I guess then I would just get a weird map $\mathbb{R}P^\infty \to K(\mathbb{Z}_2, 2n)$ and I don't see how this is the cup product
Tokidoki ✓
plz help
Woah actually yes
omg
but where did you read it from? Hatcher?
do you maybe recommend some other sources?
No, basically just papers and personal correspondence
ah okay I see
I'll see if I can answer your question but the setup is a bit new to me
I'm only used to the axiomatic characterization and a spectrum level construction for a different homology theory
Oh yeah okay I see. Sorry that I didn’t respond lmao I took a quick shower
Why is the union of lines of form
y = -x + b
in R^2
where b in some interval (c, d)
open in R^2 :D?
i cant figure it out cause i know individual line in R2 is closed
Cheeky answer: after rotation by 45 degrees which is a homeomorphism, the set becomes a product of two open sets
are u responding to me hehe
Yes
i dont understand =[
=[
=[
Ok, so it is true that $\nabla^(a \otimes a) = a \smile a$, when $a \otimes a$ is identified with an element of $H(\Lambda X)$ via the cross-product isomorphism. You don't want to say $\nabla^ \lambda = \Delta^* \lambda$ in general, since like you said the domains don't even make sense
Kogasa
It may be necessary to just stare at the definition of $a \otimes a$ as an element of $H(\Lambda X)$
Kogasa
I'll see if I can write it out in a bit when I'm free
yeah okay I see, I will think through this tomorrow
but the fact that you took your time and read all of that is amazing lmao, thank you so much!
oh the name of the channel changed lmao
Point-set topology (topological spaces), algebraic topology (homotopy/homology/etc.), geometric topology anime where 
Can someone help me in voice chat with Provide a formula for a homeomorphism between R and the interval (—oo, a). I feel so silly.
play around with the exponential function
like scaling, shifting, and possibly reflecting it to fit the constraints
I would suggest doing (-oo,0) firsg
first
then you can compose with a translation or something to get the rest
yea thats pretty much the same idea
Yeah basically
there is a way to do this without using exponential functions as well
if stuck, you can try looking at the function (-infty,0) --> R given by || x - 1/x|| to get started
word okay
finding the right map from (-infty, a) to R is just a matter of finding a nice map from (-infty, a) to (-infty, 0)
then you can algebraically solve for the inverse
Rip, I'm gonna have to pick a topology channel to sit in because i cba checking all of them
Pick this channel 
@flint cove
A < AuB = (A-B)uB
C(A)<C((A-B)uB)=C(A-B)uC(B)
C(A)-C(B) < C(A-B)
C(A)nC(B)^ < C(AnB^)
C(AnB^)^ < [C(A)nC(B)^]^
i((AnB^)^) < C(A)^ u C(B)
i(A^uB) < i(A^)uC(B)
Let B=X and A^=Y
i(XuY)<C(X)ui(Y)
^ means compliment
based channel
Yo, I've been thinking a little about calculus on 0-manifolds
the largest distinction I can conceive of is connected vs. disconnected, and so maybe we'd take R with the discrete topology in the disconnected case
regardless
is there any sort of integration here
You gotta put backslashes before the *
I'm too lazy
Thanks for pinging me tho and gn
0-forms are smooth functions, and integration over an oriented 0-manifold (discrete set with orientations) is just summation (with a sign given by orientation).
You can't exactly have a connected 0-manifold with more than 1 point, since by assumption it is discrete, so {x} and {X \ x} would be a separation
So in this case, then
insising
||Sorry for the ping @orchid forge||
you would need f(p) to be zero at all but countably many points, and the sum to converge
Understood c:
as far as i know there's no meaningful difference between integrating over a 0-manifold and just regular old addition of an arbitrary function, besides orientation
I want to talk about the little n-disks operad with somebody but idk who
each point in the set gets labelled with a + or -
when you integrate a function f over a point p, you get f(p) or -f(p) depending on the orientation
orientation for 0-manifolds is really boring (tm)
Is it like an abstraction/de-algebraization of the order structure on R or am I being too concrete/silly
0-manifolds are generally rather boring
Figures. 0-manifolds are boring
yeah
lol
orientation is a thing for manifolds in general
ye
pretty important to making sense of integration
orientation has to do with your charts matching up in a nice way
for example, why is the integral over [a,b] equal to F(b) - F(a) and not F(a) - F(b)
there are two orientations on a connected manifold
Right
just knowing the points in the set [a,b] isn't quite enough
Mfw the connected 0-manifolds are of literally 0 interest
to formalize integration to a level suitable for abstraction
there are only two of them lol
they are both very important manifolds, but not exactly complicated
the empty set
Oh sure
although maybe your definition of manifold excludes it
Nah, just never really cared to think about \varnothing in topological contexts
it's still pretty counterintuitive to me, to think of things like functions into or out of it
as far as i know there's really nothing interesting you can say about the empty set topologically
Mhm lmao
Anyway, I've been trying to learn about cool calculus shit about manifolds n whatnot but I'm still lil dummy boi
I'm a freshman so crap like differential k-forms are a bit much atm
Should questions about differential topology go here or in the other channel?
Seems like a bit of an in-between area
0-manifolds aren't interesting but I don't specifically care about them. Just been thinking about classifications
other channel
might be worthwhile to learn about differential forms and integration in R^n from baby rudin before tackling differential forms on manifolds
Right, I'll go crack it open
again, sorry for the specific ping
you just answered my previous question so I figured you'd be invested enough to answer again
much appreciated
rudin
If the diff top question overlaps heavily with alg top do I ask it here or the other channel still?
Sounds like something you can ask here, since they talk to each other
(I don't have any specific question in mind, but atm I'm reading up on the cup product and Poincaré duality and it feels like questions about these things could potentially go in either, so that's why I'm asking)
When I think of those terms, I specifically think of algebraic topology, so go ahead and ask here. If it's too differential topology, someone will direct you to #diff-geo-diff-top if they care enough; no problem.
so quick question
we had already done this
does set minus work on finite direct products in the expected "piece-wise" way?
No
Consider R x R and subtract the set (R\R- x R\R-), which is subtracting positive reals x positive reals
What you end up with is the plane minus the first quadrant
But what you get if you do R- x R- is only the third quadrant
do you mean everything but the third quadrant?
No
Negative numbers times negative numbers is third quadrant
But if you did R x R ( R\R- x R\R-) you only excised the first quadrant
thought u we’re doing R x R minus that set
No
I was showing why the formula on this isn’t true
I set U1 = U2 = R-
The LHS is all but 1st quadrant and the RHS is only 3rd quadrant
um. i agree with the formula (in the picture) tho
But didn’t I show it’s false?
it’s true in this case
How?
hes saying if i do it the way I wanted i get R- x R- which is Q3, but what we'd get from my operation is R- x R-= Q1,2,4
Yuh
i still think the idea is right
oh gotcha gotcha
i need a different set operation
What are you trying to show?
this
That the product of open sets is open?
yep
Fucking hurbed
Rip
If you’re doing like general point set
The product topology is generated by a basis of products of opens
So to me this problem seems literally definitional
What’s your definition for the product topology?
I kinda feel the same way
Is it like in terms of open balls?
Yuh
in (X,d) A subset X is open if X\A is closed
Bruhhhhhh
Wtf is a closed set then?!
Why are you defining a topology in terms of closed sets 😭😭
These definitions are WHACK
Holy shit this is so painful
bruh
just tell them what the open sets are holy shit lol
Lmao
The point is like
Open sets are ones where you can wiggle a little bit and stay inside the set
Like if x in U
There’s some ball around x which stays in U
This is like the picture you should have in mind
But you totally don’t see it with these definitions
RIP
well we have equivalently that for any a in A, there exists r>0 s.t. B(a,r) subset A
BRO
PLS SAY THAT
Kekw
Yes
This is what I wanted
Okay so this is easy to do now
lmao
thats technically a theorem though?
you first define closed sets
no that should be definitional
no this is usually what's taken as a definition
then use intrinsic defn for open
Yeah that is ass-backwards from how like everyone else does it
Hahahahah
But this is the definition of open you want
honestly I have no issue with it
no
BRUH WHAT
idk, it seems fairly natural to me to define it in this way
i’m gonna hurl
fuck

kindly, please burn the book
Okay I’m gonna tell you how to show product of open is open them I’m gonna gtfo cuz this is so crazy to me lmfao
You could not make things less intuitive than that, tbh, even if you actually tried
If x is in U1 x … x Un
Then like consider what happens when you project x down to the i-th coordinate
This lands inside of Ui
yea I know thats the typical way
So there’s some ri such that B(ri,xi) < Ui
but we havent talked about that yet so
Then take the minimum among all ri
Call this r
And B(r,x)
If you have y inside of this
Then you need that d(yi,xi) <= r
So that yi is inside of B(ri,xi) < Ui
So this shows that every component of y is inside of Ui
So that y is in U1 x … x Un
So B(r,x) < U1 x … x Un
So U1 x … x Un is open
:D
Open ball good
dude i still think this is right
Bro it totally isn’t
Compute my example
You’re doing R x R minus (positive numbers x positive numbers)
That’s 3 quadrants
either im also having an anyerism or theres no way that its true
The RHS is negative numbers x negative numbers
just replace R- as an arb. subset U and forget the open/closedness
wait
yea its way wrong
Like as an extreme extreme example do U1 is empty U2 is everything
You get R x R = R x empty set = empty
R\R- x R\R- is the 1st quadrant , so R x R\ (R\R- x R\R-) is Q 2,3,4 right
That’s what I’m getting
so you now get R\R- x R\R- = Q2,3,4 and R\R- x R\R- = Q1
Which is why I gave it as an example
contradiction

fuck why do some examples work and some don’t
not sure about that example

The other side is gonna just be R x empty = empty
X x null= null
Yeah
Looking at pairs where the second coordinate is in empty set
fuck i had the wrong pictures in my head
Doesn’t wxist
Lmao
wait what
Also hi Shika:3
R x R/ empty x R isnt R?
Yes cuz empty x R = empty
a topology?
Legit doesn’t matter
Ok I like where this is going
Yeah
ok yea
Yehhhhhhhhh
lol
im saying it happens to work for my false set subtraction thing
No?
You end up with R x R on the left
And empty set on the right
That’s what my computation outlined
where is theirs example?
this it?
(I like how often general topology questions end up being discussions about elementary set theory. It happens so often
)
true
this is for an analysis class 
I encourage you to work through U1 = R, U2 = empty
Oh I'll happily say that analysis sucks too 
And see how tremendously bad it goes
Based
ur example is empty set dud
No?
No that’s a different one
oh he means reals
Negative numbers or whatever
i see your point
Yes
using the proper defn ud be subtracting the emtpyset from R x R which is allowed and u get R x R
Yeah
yea
Well
It destroys things in products
And turns them into nothing
It’s like how multiplying by 0 gives 0
(Literally when you do cardinal arithmetic)
okay, so the way to go about showing this with ur wonky definitions. let x_n be a convergent sequence in R^N cut the product of the N “open” sets. if the limit x that it converges to is in the the product of the N open sets, then each of the component sequences of x_n are converge in their respective set. but that’s impossible because each of the component sequences were in R but not in U_i.
Idk what this means
You’re subtracting the empty set from R x R
Like the empty set is the empty set
You don’t have to think hard about this
can you subtract R from R x R?
No
I don’t
alright
The empty set is a subset of every set
I know
You’re doing
can you do (x,y) - x?
lmfao idk how to settle this loop
im saying your counter example was a good one because emtpy x R is well defined and R x R \ empty is well defined
so you dont need any other intuition to see its true
I mean… idk what there is about empty x R being well defined
It’s a product of sets
Idk
we have a definition for the direct product with the emtpy set
that we must satisfy
u can subtract R from R^2. it’s just R^2 again. R^2\R = R^2 since there are no elements of R in R^2
yes it is the empty set
and we have a definition for any set subtracting the emtpy set
Yeah so I don’t see how well-definedness comes into play at any point?
it doesnt
ig if u abuse notation then sure
what abuse of notation have i made lol
but if someone wrote R^2 - R id assume they are talking about removing a line of R2
whats the abuse?
nah
ive had it happen before
R^2 - R in this context would def be R^2\R
yea thats what i mean abuse of notation, you cant subtract not subsets usually
?
but its fine for intution stuffs
yes you can
what?
A \ B = A iff B is not a subset of A
this is totally fine
A \ B = {a in A | a not in B}
yes ig
nothing about this definition forces B to be a subset of A
and in fact, it would make a lot of topological definitions quite inconvenient if it did
yeah i should sleep
is my ezcuse
why are you guys not using -
so much better to use minus
well u got it confused with R^2 removing a line, whatever that means. not a jab at u, just proving a point as to why that notation is bad
cause its not regular subtraction
set minus
