#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 269 of 1
go off the first thing
@gritty widget would something like this be around the right path?
(i 100% made up the whole pi_* v stuff)
i still dont see how one could set the coefficients for dp_i to zero
ill look at it when i get home
the coefficients of dp_i vanish because pi_*(d/dp_i) = 0
i dont even have anything thats d/dp_i :/
a tangent vector to $T^*M$ should be a linear combination of both the $\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right|\alpha$'s and the $\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial p_j}\right|\alpha$'s
TTerra
so your v should have some more terms
riiiiiiiiiight
TTerra
so you want to prove that a_i = p_i and b^j = 0 in your chart
TTerra
yeah with the correct basis for the vector it works much better
note that the d/dx^i's here are tangent vectors to T^*M, not to M as the notation might suggest. be careful when you're plugging things in
so do i need some basis for the tangent vectors to M, such as y^i => d/dy^i stuff?
because i have d/dx^i |_alpha and d/dx_i |_q
now that i look at it at the top i have stuff evaluated at a covector
and at the bottom at a point
although by construction thats okay?
what's wrong with that? your covector lies over a point
yeah it's fine
good computation
this tiny problem sheet took me waaaay too long to do
i need to get better in the next weeks if i wanna get an A in the class
that's plenty of time
if it were the only thing yeah, but there are other classes that could also use a boost
has your problem sheet talked about -dθ?
-d\theta is (up to a plus or minus, i like to take a minus here) called the canonical symplectic form
since you're in physics it might be cool to know a bit of symplectic stuff
i saw it come up a lot
when i was looking at the one-form stuff
but its still quite beyond my level
there is a big jump between normie physics and the stuff that the wiki page talked about
Let f be a loop at a point x, and c be the constant loop at x. I am trying to show that cf (the concatenation of the two loops) is homotopy equivalent to f. Define the function h(s, t) = f(s/(0.5(1+t))) for s in [0, 0.5*(1+t)] and h(s, t) = c(s) for s in [0.5*(1+t), 1]. Is h a homotopy from c*f to f?
I ask because I haven't been able to prove it yet with the definition of T_pS as above
I am struggling to produce the curve c
this is a correct guess!
to show that every element of T_pS is orthogonal to p, take a tangent vector c'(0) and try differentiating <c(t), c(t)> = 1
for the other direction, you could either appeal to some linear algebra (something like they're both two dimensional and there's an inclusion so they have to be equal), or try to explicitly construct a curve. if you want to construct a curve, it might be easiest to assume something like p = north pole, and then work from there (since then you can probably give an easy description of curves corresponding to tangent vectors here)
ok i'll think and get back!
this direction is fine
just differentiated <c(t), c(t)> = 1 and put t = 0
i have difficulty constructing the curve here, could you help
if you start the curve at the north pole
and you fix a direction
parallel to the xy plane
you can just move linearly in that direction, and choose z so that the curve still lies on the sphere
ah yeah wait i think i got this
Hausdorff
This means I can't start at the north pole and do what you suggested
this fixes c'(0), but we want c'(0) = v
By hypothesis c'(0) is perpendicular to (0,0,1) right?
Hausdorff
intuitively this is clear but how do you justify?
are you saying that if the curve is c as above, i should consider Ac where A is a rotation matrix?
ah yeah makes sense
But yes rotating R^3 is a diffeomorphism
ok so then p = (0,0,1)
So take (ta, tb, sqrt(1 - (ta)^2 - (tb)^2)) where v = (a,b,0)
Last coordinate is sqrt (1 - t^2|v|^2) which has derivative 0 at t=0
excellent, this works! thanks
nYaminoid
Can someone tell me what the notation in the domain of phi means?
Its the intersection number of two curves, which should tell you how many times the curves intersect
for riemann surfaces there is a nice way to compute these
But how do you know if its positive or negative
Also how do you make it well defined
basically you can associate to each curve a harmonic one form, and then the intersection number is the innerproduct of these two forms (inner product of two forms is like, int_X omega \wedge star omega' )
right so forster defined it in this way
yeah hold on lemme look it up
19
oh 19 doesnt actually do the curve stuff
In mathematics, differential forms on a Riemann surface are an important special case of the general theory of differential forms on smooth manifolds, distinguished by the fact that the conformal structure on the Riemann surface intrinsically defines a Hodge star operator on 1-forms (or differentials) without specifying a Riemannian metric. Thi...
19 should help provide the context for this^
yeah, so actually if u read the previous section on the wiki then you should have all the context
I still recc 19 tho, its extremely cool (uses hodge star stuff and an inner product on the space of one-forms)
[a1 : ... : an] is the equivalence class of (a1, ... , an)
you're good at topology too?!
I know some 
moldilocks is a genius
rice is my best friend
Heir to Ultra's Throne
is anyone able to help me with this examples sheet on manifolds?
it's not worth anything, just for my learning and it doesn't have answers so I'm a bit stuck
just ask
yeah, that's right. i made a typo
well this is what I'm given and I'm not quite sure where to start
projecting a sphere onto a plane
the graph would be an ellipse with y-intercepts 1,-1 and x-intercepts -sqrtA and sqrtA
I think
so Un is the ellipse without the point (0,1)?
and Us is the ellipse without (0,-1)
do I need something like a straight line
how does stereographic projection work?
not quite sure
well that's where you ought to start
I understand that the projection points should be disincluded
well
we want that for Un y =/ 1 right
and Us y =/ -1
if you pick a point p on the ellipse that isn't the north pole n = (0, 1), and you draw a line through p and n, then the intersection with the real line is what stereographic projection from the north pole would give you
yeah
so i want a line from (0,1) to p
for Un
it's of the form (1-t)(0,1) + tp right
for some t
so phiN = x/1-y and phiS = x/1+y ?
or have I made a mistake
as long as you know what stereographic projection should do, it shouldn't be hard to figure out an expression for it
i always forget the formula for it
Imagine writing the formula down explicitly
The virgin writing down the formula explicitly vs the chad proof by picture
Okay so the map marked by red is the "fiber bundle map" induced by the projection $\pi: Y \times X \to Y$ and it has fiber $X$ by a theorem. What I don't understand in this picture is the text marked in blue, why is $X$ embedded in this quotient? Is it maybe because $Y/G$ is now a point and so the fiber over this point is homeomorphic to $X$? Is that what they mean?
Tokidoki ✓
and $X, Y$ are $G$-spaces and $Y \times_G X = (Y \times X)/G$ so the orbit space when $G$ acts diagonally on $X$ and $Y$
Tokidoki ✓
like what map embeds X into that quotient?
omg the bot has a checkmark✓ in the beginning of the name lmao 
✓ 
Lebesgue number lemma states that for a compact metric space M and an open cover C of it,
there exists a real delta > 0 such that any subset of M having diameter less than delta must be
fully contained in some member of C.
Is this not true for any real delta? I know something is not quite right with the following, but I cannot
spot the error:
Let C be an open cover of the compact metric space M.
Take any real delta > 0 and suppose A is a subset of M such that diam(A) < delta.
Since A is a subset of M, it is a subset of C. C is a union of open sets, so therefore
A must be fully contained in some member of C.
The last step doesn't follow. {1,2} is a subset of the union of {1} and {2} but not contained in either
@empty grove Oh drat, right, I confused it with intersections. thank you
Say A is a deformation retract of X. Say moreover A is simply connected. Is X also simply connected?
We know S^2 is a strong deformation retract of R^3 \ {0}. Why and how does this imply R^3 \ {0} must be simply connected?
I know S^2 is simply connected and I know retracts of simply connected spaces are also simply connected.
But I don't see how it readily must follow
deformation retractions are homotopy equivalences so induce isomorphisms between the fundamental groups
Yes true, but the result I quoted appears before the result that homotopy equivalent spaces have isomorphic fundamental groups. It is from Lee topological manifolds p201:
So somehow it must follow, without having to invoke homotopy invariance. I fail to see how
Take a loop in the punctured space. We may assume that the basepoint lies on the sphere. This loop is homotopic to its radial projection on the sphere via a straight line homotopy, and its projection on the sphere is based homotopic to the constant path.
Hm I am sure that works, but it seems like a detour from Proposition 7.37.
I am suspecting Corollary 7.38. is immediately implied by Proposition 7.37.
proof by intuition 
what book is this from?
So, the quotient of the partition would consist of all the open sets of the partition?
hehehehehehe
@gritty widget can i ask u question
Okay --> my professor gave this definition of quotient topology:
And so in this question:
Am I to assume that the quotient topology of the partition is comprised of all the open sets in the partition, and that the partition is the collection of those equivalence relations?
we were in a call together the other day
well im not home right now unfortunately, but if no one's answered ya by the time i return ill take a look
thank you!
the quotient map here is to map ordered pairs of real numbers (a,b) to their equivalence classes in the quotient space R^2/~, [(a,b)], so its given by the map p : R^2 --> R^2/~, p(a,b) = [(a,b)].
open sets in R^2/~ are exactly the subsets U of R^2/~ such that p^{-1}(U) is open in R^2.
one such open set would be U = (R^2/~) \ {[(1,1)]}, since the preimage of this set under p is all the points (a,b) in R^2 except the ones satisfying a + b - (1 + 1) = 0, which is an open set in R^2.
likewise, the set C = {[(0,0)], [(1,1)], [(1,0)]} is a closed set in R^2/~ since p^{-1}(C) is the set of affine lines
y = -x + (0 + 0), y = -x + (1 + 1), and y = -x + (1 + 0), which is a closed set in R^2.
given (a,b) in R^2, its equivalence class is the affine line y = -x + (a + b)
you can give a simple description of the quotient space in terms of affine lines now
can someone help me?
I haave to prove these in a proper math form
so I have intuition/ideas how to do it,but maybe it's not precise enough
(i) follows from definition
this is what I thought too
but i'm pretty confused
cause to show this is a continuous map,we woul need to argue that the thing they define as collection of sets is a topology
0,X are clearly in it
but i'm not sure how to prove finite intersection and arbitrary union property
idk why preim of intersection is intersection of preimages and why union of preimages is preimage of unions
thus the preimage of every open set is open
and hence continuous
but so far we don't know the family they defined are open sets
no, you just need to show that the preimage of every open set in X/~ is open in X
right
but we don't know what open sets on X/~ are
we should prove that the thing they defined is a topology imo
so far it's just a collection of sets obeying preimage of them is open in X
I mean I intuitively see/agree,but i'd like to do it formally
well, you need to show that the quotient topology is indeed a topology on X/~
yes,this is what i'm trying to prove in detail
i can't see why the other 2 axioms are satisfied
0,X/~ are in it,that I see
but idk how to do preimage of unions and intersections
it is pretty intuitive that preim(union)=union preim(), but idk formal proof
that is a formal proof
how can I motitate preim(union)=union preim()?
brute force it
Let $x \in f^{-1}(\bigcup_{a \in A}E_a)$. Then .... Thus $x \in \bigcup_{a \in A}f^{-1}(E_a)$. And the other way too.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
preimage also commutes with intersection and complement
ohh you mean just writing out in words what itmeans to be in union?
x in f^{-1}( Union E_a) =>f(x) in union E_a=>f(x) in E_1 or f(x) in E_2 or f(x) in E_3 ... or f(x) in E_n
=> x in f^{-1} E_1 or x in f^{-1} E_2 ... or x in f^{-1} E_3
i.e. x in f^{-1} E_1 union f^{-1} E_2 ... nion f^{-1} E_n
makes sense?
and now prove it conversely
Well $A$ is not necessarily the natural numbers, it can be any set. You should write $f(x) \in \bigcup_{a \in A}E_a \implies f(x) \in E_{a_0}$ for some $a_0 \in A$. Then $x \in f^{-1}(E_{a_0})$, hence $x \in \bigcup_{a \in A}f^{-1}(E_{a})$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
The notation $\bigcup_{a \in A}E_a := {x : x \in E_a \text{ for some } a \in A}$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Hausdorff
the quotient map here is to map ordered pairs of real numbers (a,b) to their equivalence classes in the quotient space R^2/~, [(a,b)], so its given by the map p : R^2 --> R^2/~, p(a,b) = [(a,b)].
open sets in R^2/~ are exactly the subsets U of R^2/~ such that p^{-1}(U) is open in R^2.
one such open set would be U = (R^2/~) \ {[(1,1)]}, since the preimage of this set under p is all the points (a,b) in R^2 except the ones satisfying a + b - (1 + 1) = 0, which is an open set in R^2.
likewise, the set C = {[(0,0)], [(1,1)], [(1,0)]} is a closed set in R^2/~ since p^{-1}(C) is the set of affine lines
y = -x + (0 + 0), y = -x + (1 + 1), and y = -x + (1 + 0), which is a closed set in R^2.
given (a,b) in R^2, its equivalence class is the affine line y = -x + (a + b)
Also why is this called the "boundary operator"?
It gives you the (oriented) sum of the faces of the simplex, and while sum isn't the same as union, you can still think of this as giving you the boundary of the simplex
Hmm, I'm not fully convinced, but it does make sense
Just posted this (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4295264/proof-and-intuition-for-partial-q-1-circ-partial-q-0-for-q-ge-2). If anyone has intuition for the boundary relation above, let me know! (Ah, it was a pain to TeX that proof up.)
usually what happens is that every term in $\partial_{q-1} \circ \partial_q$ appears twice with opposite orientations
Kogasa
It is enough to look at the double boundary of an n-simplex, because if the double boundary of this is 0, then the double boundary of everything else is too because boundary is defined by linearly extending the boundary on the simplices. For now consider a 3-simplex but the argument works in any dimension.
The double boundary of the 3-simplex will be a linear combination of 1-simplices in it (ie the edges of the tetrahedron). We just need to check what coefficient each of them gets. Let e be an edge and f and g the 2 faces incident on e. Now when you take boundaries of f and g, e has opposite orientations in both
"Opposite orientations" here means that you get +e and -e lul
if you take a simplex, say a 2-simplex (with boundary and corners and all) and divide it into two smaller simplices, that induces an orientation on the subdivided complex
such that the above always happens
actually i don't think that observation is relevant
It is relevant for intuition, that the boundary map is made in such a way that subdividing into simplices and keeping the same orientations doesn't change the boundary
And the faces of a simplex all get oriented the same way when you get them as the boundary of the simplex so their boundaries should cancel
Actually yeah you're right. The fact that this cancellation happens should reflect the goodness of the definition of a simplicial complex (with orientation)
And that's part of it
Like if you take an open square and add a single edge, the geometric "boundary" is just that edge, and its "boundary" is the endpoints
So it would be good to ask what in the definition of a simplicial complex rules out such a thing
(besides the fact that this isn't like, a simplex)
does anyone have (or know where I can find) a concrete example of a derivative map of a smooth function between manifolds? Asking because the definition i'm working with $(df)p = d\psi\beta^{-1} \circ d(\psi_\beta f \phi_\alpha^{-1}) \circ d\phi_\alpha$ uses $d\phi_\alpha$ and I'm not totally sure how to find the derivative of a chart $\phi_\alpha$
ProfLayton
ahh okay. i'll think some more. idk what double boundary is btw?
Boundary map applied twice lol
Do you already know that R/Z ≈ S¹?
Homeomorphism lol
Like you take R and identify things that differ by an integer
And you also get a circle
R/Z = O(S^1)
Asymptomatic domination
Bruh
It's a joke


I'm not taking this abuse... It was a good joke regarding R/Z being approximately equal to S^1 and I bet you it would have landed in #advanced-analysis .
😇
Not necessarily 
oh ok
Makes sense
R → R+
Given by
x ↦ 2^x
is a homeomorphism which preserves the equivalence relation, so the 2 quotients are homeomorphic
if x ~ y in R, then x = n + y
So 2^x = 2^n 2^y
So f(x) ~ f(y)
The converse follows similarly using log base 2
It’s from a random pdf I found 
I wouldn’t consider it a book, it’s just a couple page long pdf
So, I was thinking, since I have been teaching myself stuff. Let V be a vector space and a vector function f(t) be in V. Is any f(t) a homeomorphism under V. This might take a while to answer for me :)
Hello does anyone know discrete morse theory?
I am wondering if anyone knows if there is a result like this:
Given a simplicial complex K and a dimension d, is there always a morse function with b_d critical simplices of dimension d?
where b_d is the d'th betti number of K
if there is none is there a bound on m_d-b_d where m_d is the minimum number of critical simplices of dimension d over all morse functions?
Sorry to ask another question without the prev. being answered - but this one should be a quick one. In a metric space do epsilon balls always contain at least one element that isn't the element it centers on?
no, think of something like the discrete metric
right right that's what I was thinking
Can you clarify the question? Is f a linear map V --> V?
quick dumb question: if f and g are continuous maps then is f^* = g^* if and only if f and g are homotopic? I know that if f and g are homotopic then this is true but the reverse implication is also true, right?
f^* are induced maps on cohomology
Not true, f and g and be mapping the same simplex to different simplices, and an element of C^n could then be mapping the 2 different simplices to different group elements. The pullback of this element of C^n along the 2 maps is not the same
frick
I forgot to open with "quick dumb answer"
dangit
okay then I have a long dumb question coming up 
right so I'm trying to understand how the homotopy between $i^{\otimes p}$ and $i^{\otimes p}T$ is constructed. I understand everything up to the "this conclusion also holds when p=2". Why is that true?
So many symbols 
Tokidoki ✓
ye I know lmao
so $K_n^{\wedge p} = K(\mathbb{Z}_p, n) \wedge K(\mathbb{Z}_p, n)$ p times
Tokidoki ✓
and $i^{\otimes p}$ is just a continuous map $K_n^{\wedge p} \to K_{pn}$
Tokidoki ✓
so $T([x_1, \ldots x_p]) = T([x_p, x_1, \ldots x_{p-1}])$ and this is cellular so it maps $n$ cells to $n$ cells. So restricting this I get a map $T': S^{pn} \to S^{pn}$ since the $pn$-skeleton of $K_n^{\wedge p}$ is by definition $S^{pn}$. So the degree of $T'^p$ is just $1$ and so for odd $p$ the degree is $1$. For $p = 2$ the degree is plus or minus 1. So when the degree is -1, what happens then?
Tokidoki ✓
so if we restrict $i^{\otimes p}$ then we have a map $S^{2n} \to K_{2n}$ and now Hatcher says that the sign is irrelevant since $\pi_{2n}(K_{2n}) = \mathbb{Z}_2$ so I have to look at induced maps I guess but that doesn't give me any info about the actual map, right?
Tokidoki ✓
sorry to disturb this conversation with this low tech question,but i can't see it and been trying for a while
ii), how do I prove that if f is continuous,so is f tilde?
I proved if f tilde is continuous,f is
I could use a little help on number 5. I am not entirely sure where compactness comes in here.
Correct
f = f bar ∘ π
so
f inv (U) = f bar inv (π inv (U))
For any set U
First try to prove this for a point and a compact set, then for 2 compact sets
I have no issue with the firsr part: we did that proof in class
The same idea works for the second part. Separate each point of A from the entire set B, find finite subcover, intersect
Ah, I see. It's just a little denser
Okay, there is one more I wanna discuss. If Y is compact then the image of the X projection on XxY is a closed map
So if I'm not mistaken, what this means is that AxB closed means A is closed.
i don't see how this helps
Sounds right
So then the question I have is, if A is open and B is closed, why is AxB not closed?
Need to check that f bar is continuous. Take a set U. Inverse image along f bar is open iff its inverse image along π is open, but inverse image along π of inverse image along f bar of U is the inverse image of U along f, which is open by continuity of f
Like you want counterexamples?
Well, this needs to be generally true for this to be a closed map
Because otherwise the image would be closed, but A is open, and A is the image of AxB
Gosh dangit.... you're right 🤦♂️
first iff why?
Let's pretend this isnt my second year in topology so I can get away with that mistake
That's the definition of open sets in the quotient topology
Okay, I think it's safe to say I am struggling with this one
i'm not sure how you conclude this
the definition given on the sheet says other def.
U is open in X iff its inverse image is
yeah
but preim of U under f tilde is in Y
In X/~
We say x is in the equivalence class of y when f(x)=f(y) (map to the same point on the quotient map f).
These equivalence classes are points in the quotient topology, and union of equivalence classes are basic sets in the topology.
Yea, that's what I meant. Thought that was implied
Was clarifying, because not all sets of equivalence classes are basic
So might be a bit confusing
Wait, no. I am saying a union of equivalence classes is a basic open set
Okay, back to the question at hand. So the projection is a continuous map, so we only need to show that closed sets in XxY map to closed sets in X
I'm just not really sure how :/
I feel like X should be hausdorff 
Sadly not a requirement
But maybe this can be proved without that
So here's where I am at: AxB closed means (AxB)^C=(XxB^C)U(A^CxY) is open
Y is compact
ok took me some time,but understood the proof
can seomeone help me understand why the quotient topology is unique?
Tube lemma is where my mind is going, just not sure how
Same thought lol but there you'd want to start with a cover
The way it is defined it is obviously unique 
What definition are you using
Consider the zero map R^n --> R^n. Certainly not a homeomorphism (in the standard topology). You'd want your map to be invertible at least. But all linear maps are continuous, and the inverse of a linear map is continuous. so a linear map is a homeomorphism iff it is invertible
Any finer, and 1 wouldn't hold. Any coarser, and 2 wouldn't hold
Try proving that
finer,coarser in mathematical terms=?
More, less open sets
Todd Male (#talks Nov 6)
so I can show that any other topology(larger), which makes pi continuous is contained in the quotient topology
but this doesn't tell me they are the same
Ye so that's proving that for 1 to hold, your topology is contained in the quotient top
Wait, how is that neighborhood disjoint from X-pi(K) if x is in X-pi(K)?
now I should prove the quotient topo is contained in any other topo for 2 to hold
but idk how to do that
To prove that your topology contains the quotient top, a hint is to take f = π
And Y = X/~ with quotient top
ok,sec,i'll give it a try
Oh, actually I think that'll do it. If K is a closed subset of XxY, then K^C is an open set of XxY, which has a point x in it (if K is not XxY). Then by the tube lemma, there is a tube WxY about x x Y which is an open neighborhood of X.
However, how do I know this W is disjoint from pi(K)?
hm if f=pi, that means identity must be continuous?
wtf
if f=pi, then f bar must be the identity
yes
Now put the 2 different topologies on the 2 copies of X/~ you have in your diagram 
Ohhhh, I am following
i don't see how this would lead to o' subset o_tilde
f bar in the opposite direction
why is what I wrote wrong?
or is it not wrong,but not useful?
ohh,because I assume the topology to be O' this time,not the one I used before
my bad
so what I wrote is wrong(not only useless)
Yes
No it's not wrong though
Like the maps are still like that
O tilde is known to have the property
You're just proving that nothing else can
So it's not useful to consider that property for O tilde
Which is what you've done
Yes, but in the last line you should use brackets with the implications lol
what do you mean brackets
The middle 2 things should be in brackets together
what does that mean?
or why is that different?
why do brackets matter
ah cause f is continuous is equivalent to a in o tilde implies a in o'
right
(f bar is continuous iff A is open in the quotient topology) implies A open in other top
Is not the same
Ye
thanks for patience @empty grove 

i'm trying to solve this exercise. If I understand well,the first step is to realize where is the differential of the given map surjective
do I understand it right?
yes you will want to prove that the differential at every orthonormal k-frame is surjective
so how do I compute the differential of this map?
to see surjectivity
I think it should be the jacobian,right?
yeah it's pretty much a map between euclidean spaces so the differential is just the jacobian
how can I find out when it is surjective?
this seems like a monster
so big matrix
(nxk)x(1/2k(k+1)
i don't know. there might be a cleaner way to do it, but i couldn't tell you right now
i remember doing this exercise in lee and it having a particularly clean and simple solution.
but im not at my computer to check
If you have an orthonormal frame $(v_i){1 \le i \le k}$, then it maps to 0. So we want to show $V_k(\mathbb R^n)$ is the preimage of 0, and that the differential is surjective on this preimage. At a point $p = (v_i){1 \le i \le k} \in \phi^{-1}(0)$, there are $n \times k$ tangent directions, given by differentiating along the curve $p + te_i^j$, where $e_i^j$ is the tuple whose $j$th coordinate is the $i$th standard basis vector for $\mathbb R^n$
Kogasa
it's an orthonormal frame, so any two distinct vectors are orthogonal
if $i=j$ then it's 1
Kogasa
sorry,can you tell me which condition tells me they are distinct?
I think it could be either 0 or 1, both
$v_i \cdot v_j = \delta_i^j$, so if we index $\mathbb R^{kC2}$ as lexicographically, as (1,1), (1,2), ... (1, k), (2,2), (2,3), ..., (2,k), ..., (k, k) then the vector should be (1, 0, ..., 0, 1, 0, ..., 0, 1)
Kogasa
in other words, it is the preimage of $(\delta_i^j)_{1 \le i \le j \le k}$
Kogasa
where $\delta_i^j$ is the kronecker delta
Kogasa
ok,so this is intuitive
differentiating along the curve $p + te_i^j$ should be relatively simple
Kogasa
but I don't see why delta ^i,j is in R^{1/2 k(k+1)}
it's a vector with kC2 components
the i and j here are kind of artificial
it's really just a Euclidean space R^m
but you're defining the map by taking pairs (i,j) of elements $1 \le i \le j \le k$
Kogasa
the number of possible pairs $(i,j)$ like that is the dimension m
Kogasa
and now we need to prove that the differential of the map given is surjective at the stiefel manifold
I don't see how to compute the differential of the map
at the point $p = (v_i)_{1 \le i \le k}$, differentiate along the curve $p + te_i^j$
idk how you got here
Kogasa
why along this?
by computing $\frac{1}{t}(\phi(p + te_i^j) - \phi(p))$ and taking the limit
Kogasa
what is the map I have explicitly?
because this is a curve through $p$ in an arbitrary one of the $n \times k$ tangent directions
Kogasa
I need the differential of the map,not the point,right?
I need to evaluave the differential of this map,then evaluate it at p
yes, i'm saying to compute the differential at p on an arbitrary tangent vector v by using a curve through p with initial velocity v
why can I do this?
instead of taking jacobian of the map and then evaluate?
why are these 2 equiv?
Given a tangent vector $v \in T_pM$, there is always a curve $\gamma$ with $\gamma(0) = p$ and $\gamma'(0) = v$, and vice versa. The map $f : M \to N$ induces a curve in $N$, given by $f \circ \gamma$, and so it acts on the tangent space by sending $\gamma'(0) = v \mapsto (f \circ \gamma)'(0) \in T_{f(p)}N$
Kogasa
this is essentially just the definition of the differential (the natural induced map on tangent spaces) but phrased in terms of curves
this one I know frmo manifold theory
but how can I connect this to our case? :yikes:
of course,the differential is the pushforward from diffgeo
so, to compute the derivative at p, we evaluate it on a basis $e_i^j$ for $T_p((\mathbb R^n)^k)$ by taking the derivative along the curve $t \mapsto p + te_i^j$
Kogasa
yes
so I compute the pushforward of this map
ah
i see
now I need to see te following
why do we take the derivatite along t->p+te^j_i
first,I need to take a curve,which passes through p and has velocity v
how does this curve have velocity v?
it has velocity e_i^j
right
this is a basis element for the tangent space
if I compute the differential,though, it will be e^j_i
why does this tell me this is surjective?
right?
I wanna get the hang of the basis vectors of a tangent space and the dual basis vector of the cotangent space. They look similar too according to John lees notation ${\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}|_p}$ and ${d(x_i)|_p}$. I see derivative stuff and feel these are similar. What exactly is the difference between a partial derivative and a total derivative? Here $x_i$ are the coordinate functions of a local chart
fajitas
the $\partial/\partial x_i$ form a basis for $T_pM$ and $dx_i$ are the dual basis for $T_pM^*$
Kogasa
Correct. I mean what exactly is a differential then. I guess I don't know basic multivariate calculus lol
given a smooth map $f : M \to N$, it induces a linear map of tangent spaces $df : T_pM \to T_{f(p)}N$, which is called the differential of f
Kogasa
if you regard the coordinates $x_i$ as functions $M \to \mathbb R$ , their differentials (induced maps) $dx_i : T_pM \to T_q\mathbb R \cong \mathbb R$ form a basis for the cotangent space
Kogasa
might be helpful to note that these are different kinds of derivative. $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$ is a linear functional, sending a function to its partial derivative. $df$ is the derivative of a specific map f, and it acts on tangent vectors
Kogasa
Ahhh yess that last part is what I was missing. Like how the type of derivative acts. As in the input and output of the derivatives.
Is the output of the differential is a scalar then?
for $f : M \to N$ the differential $df$ sends tangent vectors (in M) to tangent vectors (in N)
Kogasa
tangent vectors $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}$ send functions to scalars, $f \mapsto \text{the derivative of }f\text{ in the direction }x^i$
True trueee. I guess the coordinate differentials do map into scalars
Kogasa
I found this in Lee,which is very similar to what you said @orchid forge
but what's the difference in my case?
this is for O(n),not Stiefel
i.e. what's the difference between the Stiefel manifold and O(n)?
is the Stiefel manifold O(n) for n=k?
yes
if you represent $v \in (\mathbb R^n)^k$ as an $n \times k$ matrix, when $k = n$ an orthonormal frame is just an orthogonal matrix
Kogasa
how could I compute phi(p+ e^j_i)?
p + e^j_i differs from p only in the (i,j) coordinate
so $\phi(p + e^j_i) = \left((p + te^j_i)a \cdot (p + te^j_i)b\right){1 \le a \le b \le k}$ differs from $\phi(p) = (p_a \cdot p_b){1 \le a \le b \le k}$ only when $a=j$ or $b=j$
yes
woops yeah
Kogasa
if $a = b = j$, we have $(p + te_i^j)j \cdot (p + te_i^j)j = (p_j + te_i) \cdot (p_j + te_i) = (p_j \cdot p_j) + 2t(p_j \cdot e_i) + t^2 = 1 + 2tp{i,j} + t^2$. the derivative at t=0 is just $2p{i,j}$
Kogasa
yes
and there are other cases if a=j, b neq j or b=j,a neq j
i can compute those,no problem
the question is,how do i use this info to find out that the differential is surjective
once you have the matrix, you just need to find $k(k+1)/2$ distinct tangent vectors in the image
Kogasa
ugh
would probably be clear if you wrote out exactly what the differential is
yeah,give me 5minutes
i'll work it out explicitly
brb
the differential is 2p_{i,j} if a=b=j, and p_{i,j} if a=j or b=j
right?
and 0 otherwise
but i don't see how this will help me to identify the k(k+1)/2 tangent vectors
Kogasa
how did you get to this conclusion?
well $d\phi(e_i^j) = (p_{a,j})_{1 \le a \le j \le k}$ when $i < j$
ah
Kogasa
the map is different though
i don't see how otherwise one can get A+A^{t}
if I just know the differential being p or 2p
and we don't need the differential evaluated at delta,rather evaluated at the Stiefel manifold,right?
at the preimage of delta
I am thinking of $d\phi$ as taking values in the upper triangular $k \times k$ matrices, where the $1 \le i \le j \le k$ component is the $(i,j)$ entry of the matrix
Kogasa
actually i don't think the A+A^T thing will be helpful here
I was just thinking, you've got this upper triangular matrix where the diagonal is doubled
if you take an upper triangular matrix $A$ and symmetrize it by $A \mapsto A + A^T$, that has the effect of doubling the diagonal
Kogasa
but i don't see how we got an upper triangular matrix
I just see the computed differential so far
this
So I did #5 and I do have the right idea. However, I think my wording is a bit off, so I could use some help optimizing it.
Sorry if the picture is confusing, but that image is the idea I was going for.
Hatcher exercise. I need to show that given a polynomial f:C->C that the extension to S2 ->S2 via one point compactification has same notion of degree
So degree of polynomial corresponds to degree of the extension, so degree of maps between Sn which corresponds to H_2(S^2) in this case
My problem is that I have no clue besides local homology
Which is that the local degrees of $f_*:H_2(U_i,U_i-{x_i}) -> H_2(V,V-{y})$
mMahael
the domain and codomain are isomorphic to Z by some isomorphism F and local degree at x_i becomes F(1)
And sum of local degrees is supposed to give degree of f:S2->S2
but that doesnt give us a connection to degree of the polynomial
So my question is what is the connection?
Why are tangent vectors called contravariant vectors and cotangent vectors called covariant vectors?
Ignore the over all problem. I'm trying to figure out why the second part of this is true
Shouldn't (0, inf) have a non standard topology?
(a,b) and (a,b) - 1/n for the basis
Is the hint wrong?
Our am I misreading it?
boutta say
me too
I think that it is trying to say that (-inf, 0) and (0,inf) should be topologically equi. to their subspaces under R
Which I agree is the case for (-inf, 0)
but clearly (0, inf) has (0,1) - {1/n} since (0, inf) and (0,1) - {1/n} = (0, 1) - {1/n}
so it doesn't inherit the correct topology since that is open in (0, inf) sub R_k but not (0, inf) sub R
How doe, any (0, x) will have one of the 1/n
since there isn't a minimum 1/n
But then there's nowhere to start
I can see how K would be closed since 0 isn't in (0, inf)
but no matter when n you choose there's going to be another one between 0 and that 1/n
If (0,1) - 1/n is open in R then how do R and R_k have different topologies?
but what's interesting about that subset?
Gotcha
yep
okay it's coming back to me
thanks
any hints? i m still stuck proving surjectivith 
@final sonnet S is a surface in R^3?
I need to solve 8, but how does the projection map in part 7 help here?
Why is that what I need? I do not follow
I get that's what the hint wants me to do, but I do not understand why this implies f is continuous
Anyone here read Hatcher AT?
my university only offer one introductory topology(half point-set, half algebraic) in ug courses and topology in manifolds is taught in pg. Is this common?
@pearl holly Which chapter of Hatcher?
Idk I’ve been jumping back and fourth
I’m currently reading about the construction of the steenrod operations but I’m stuck lmao
Oh nice
Yeah I left of there
I read up to Kunnetg formula and read some stuff in PDFs I found and now I’m reading about the steenrod stuff
It’s a cohomology operation so it’s related to cohomology rings
So we are kind of at the same page lmao
oh
Do you have motivation for cohomology rings?
Or will I find it reading through Hatcher. Ive been skimming and attending lectures
Oof idk
I think of it just adding additional structure to your algebraic structure so you can tackle topology questions more easily
So like one motivating example of AT for me is how you can show that there’s no retraction from a disk to its boundary or that the torus and the sphere are not homeomirphic using like fundamental groups or something
But then when you want to show that a sphere with two handles isn’t homeomirphic or homotopy equivalent to the torus, then homology can’t capture that
So you want to add extra structure and it turns out that the cohomilgiy rings of these spaces are different so they can’t be homotopy equivalent
But I don’t have any geometrical intuition yet
Homology cant capture showing not homeomorphic?
Are you not able to do similar fundemental octogon argument
and delta complex of it
or does it not triangulate nicely
I mean S^2 v S^1 v S^1 is different from the torus even though they have the same homology groups
yea
So I like to think that the cohomology ring captures that difference instead of homology
Because you added extra structure
Okay so I have maps $f: S^{2n} \to K(\mathbb{Z}_2, 2n)$ and $T: S^{2n} \to S^{2n}$ with $\text{deg}(T) = \pm 1$. Why is $f$ homotopic to $fT$?
Tokidoki ✓
I think good intuition for it is that nth homology/cohomology in some sense captures "n dimensional data" and the cohomology ring captures the relations between dimensions
ye I see
S^2 V S^1 V S^1 has the same "number of holes" as the torus but the 2 dimensional structure is glued along the 1 dimensional structure differently
So the induced maps on homotopy are equal and that makes want to say that f and fT are homotopic but I can't draw that conclusion right away, right?
this was my question yesterday but without all the "notational mess"
you cannot
ye frick
Hatcher just says that this holds and moves on but I can't see why this is true
He says that the signs don't matter because pi_2n(K(Z_2, 2n)) = Z_2 but I can't look at induced maps
Counterexample: the constant map S^m x S^n -> S^m wedge S^n sending (x, y) to e wedge e vs the quotient map S^m x S^n -> S^m wedge S^n send (x, y) to x wedge y
ye I see
it feels like Hatcher is using some sort of theorem here that I'm not aware of
or I'm just stupid and can't see it lmao
I think that the keypoint here is that T is not nullhomotopic
nThembossing
lmao that Z tho
Wtf
lmfao
But yea the idea is $[f \circ T]$ can either be $[f]$ or one other element because $\mathbb{Z}_2$ has $2$ elements obviously
nThembossing
oooohh
nThembossing
Yea do u get it now
so if it is zero then it is nullhomotopic and so is f
Yep
right right
okay daim
Okay I see now. Thank you so much for the help, I was stuck on this for a while and couldn't proceed
but now I can move on 😌
and Eilenberg maclane spaces are path connected too right?
because they are locally path connected and connected?
ye sounds right
Quick question: what does it mean for a space to be "totally" disconnected?
What is an example
Okay, so I need to show that the Cantor set is totally disconected. If I am not mistaken, this isn't too difficult.
I am not exactly sure how to rigorously say it, but since there will always be a middle third deleted in a subspace, you can just take your separation w/ your endpoints there
Doesnt there mean there needs to be a seperation between any two open sets?
As long as they aren't single points, yes
As long as what arent single points?
The open sets
that implies discrete though
Single points are the only connected sets in a totally disconnected space
Ontopic
with cantor set
cant you take any two points inside
and have a small open neighborhood around each
that are disjoint
Yes, but it is possible that is not a spearation (could be points outside of those sets)
Nvm I guess the goal is to write the cantor set as a collection of disjoint open sets
totally disconnected doesn't imply discrete. the rationals are not discrete for example
i was refering to what he said, read context of his above message
It is possible for a space to have finitely many isolated points
finite topologies do
I don't think connected and locally path connected implies path comnected. If you take [0,1) x ω_2 in the dictionary order topology then this should still be a linear continuum so connected but not path connected because it's too long
some finite topologies*
I might be wrong I'm not sure
oh crap
I think I remember seeing that fact somehwer tho

but connected CW complexes being path connected seems reasonable tho I guess?
i need to make a topology infographic
Seems legit lol
CW complexes are path connected why?
CW complexes should be locally path connected in all cases anyway
ye right
Assuming connected
idk lol just take the circle
https://topology.jdabbs.com/theorems/T000095/converse
this website seems to think locally path connected and connected => path connected
it's path connected so every CW complex must be path connected 
I never thought of many examples of CW complexes that were pathological
Ok damn I guess my example doesn't work then
Woah woah woah. So this is how it defines the cantor set. However, why on earth is the union from k=0 to infinity?
Ah of course lol I see why it is the case
Pick an x, take C to be the set of all points that are connected to x via a path
By local path connectedness this is clopen
clopen 
So must be the whole space
You are deleting infinity 3rds. The process of removing middle thirds isnt finite
ah yeah nice
Yea, this doesnt seem right
here's full proof from the willard book
ye that's what moldi said 

Just the union from 0 to infinity. Does it go to infinity because the parts that aren't in [0,1] just don't matter?
this will give u the right cantor set. you have to do a bit of thinking to get the right upper bound for the index on the union. cutting out things that dont intersect [0,1] does no harm
So I could use a little help on d). I am not too sure how to go about this
goal is to show that each point in the cantor set is a limit point. pick a point x in C and let r > 0. choose N large so that t_N = 1/3^N < r. then x is in A_N. what can u say now? use part c
Ummm, what is t_n?
x is in the intersection of all the A_n's, so its surely in A_N
Oh duh. Well I know the idea is there is a point y s.t. d(x,y)=t_n which is smaller than r, so it is inside the ball B(r,x)
yea
Since we are in the reals, there is one on the left and right of x, and we know one of them is in C
yes
Okay, I need help on the 2nd part of #8. I need to show f continuous means G_f is closed
ah okay. do you know that the diagonal of Y is closed if and only if Y is hausdorff
Yep, I've done that proof a bit ago
define the map F : X x Y --> Y x Y by F(x, y) = (f(x), y)
Which just maps it to the diagonal of YxY
Ah, so the preimage of this is precisely G_f
doesnt send all points to the diagonal of Y x Y, but yea every point on the diagonal of Y x Y gets hit. so the preimage of the diagonal of Y x Y is the graph of f
Well G_f maps to the diagonal, that's what I meant
ye
Well $v \in T_p R^{n+1}$ is in $T_p S^n$ iff $v$ and $p$ are orthogonal wrt the euclidean metric. If you dont want to use this fact, using sphere symmetries or invoking a gradient should work
Brian485
However, are we sure every point on the diagonal gets hit by G_f? f may not be surjective
if a manifold is a level set of a function f then the gradient of f will always be normal to it
this is the quickest way to do it
nice catch, were not sure. still doesn't take away from the fact that the pre-image of the diagonal is the graph. my bad
Well, I am pretty sure that this tells us the G_f is a subset of the pre image
Oh, nevermind 🤦
no. they're equal
it automatically gives you that the graph of f is closed by continuity
i think there is another way to do this using neighborhoods as well, but this one is much nicer
I do like this better
Okay, I do have one more question. Hopefully it isnt too bad
If f:[a,b]->(a,b) is a continuous map, then we can use the EVT
I was thinking of just mapping (a,b) to itself and then a and b can just go... somewhere else
But I got to be a bit more specific then that
there wont necessarily be such a continuous map. take X = R for example. if f were continuous, then (a,b) would be compact
True, but EVT would be useful here (if it can work)
least upper bound property says every non-empty bounded above set has a supremum in X right?
Yep
Wait, I just realized EVT just says an upper bound exists, not that it is the smallest one
It's due soon (been a rough week) and I'm not sure what to do on the question. So I may have to take the L on this question. Thank you so much for the help!
this feels like it could get somewhere. Let $C$ be a non-empty, bounded above set with upper bound $u\in X$. as $C$ is non-empty, fix $c$ in $C$. Define $$C'=\bigcup_{c'\in C}{x\in C:x\leq c'}$$ Then $\text{cl}(C'\cap [c,u])$ is a closed interval
c squared
Let x in S, and M be an upper bound for S. If S has a maximum, then we're done (it is the LUB). Suppose S has no LUB. Cover [x,M] with open sets {[x, y) \cup (z, M] : y is not an upper bound of S, z is an upper bound of S}. This is a cover: if p in [x,M] is an upper bound, it is not the LUB, so it's contained in a (z,M], and if p is not an upper bound, there is an element y in S so that p is in [x, y). Take a finite subcover [x,M] = [x,y1) \cup (z1, M] \cup ... \cup [x, yn) \cup (zn, M] = [x, max{y1, ..., yn}) \cup (min(z1, ..., zn), M]. By assumption, max{y1, ..., yn} is not an upper bound and min{z1, ...., zn} is an upper bound, so either min{z1, ..., zn} is the LUB or we're missing a point of S.
Perhaps this is a stupid question, but how does an NxN matrix with integer coefficients define a map on the three torus?
This is a contradiction, since max(y1, ..., yn) is a point of [x, M] that's missing from the open cover
I think this does it. This attains its maximum, and that maximum is LUB of the interval
yea. i have no idea why tho. this just seemed like a good thing to do. like, collect all the stuff thats less than every element in C and then intersect it with [c,u]. like, intuitively, this just bumps closer and closer to the supremum of the set
Well, if it wasn't the supremum, then it wouldn't be a limit point of the set
for intuition behind my argument, the only point missed by {[x, y) \cup (y, M] : y an upper bound of S} would be the LUB
so if there's no LUB, this is an open cover, etc
I'm gonma have to take a look at your argument a bit more thoroughly after class. It's a bit much to process rn
i actually like your argument better, kogasa
what a fancy latex color lmao
there might be a mistake actually
oh no
Ummm, why is every element in S contained in [x,M]? x is not necessarily a lower bound
every element of S \cap [x,M] I guess, we know that if a LUB exists it'll be in [x,M] since x is in S and M is an upper bound
But the max is in (min,M], so we arent missing that point
So I dont think this does it, because we havent hit that contradiction after all
ok i fixed it
lemme actually tex it real quick so it's less horrible to read
Let $x \in S$, and $M$ be an upper bound for $S$. If $S$ has a maximum, then we're done (it is the LUB). Suppose $S$ has no LUB. Cover $[x,M]$ with open sets ${[x, y) \cup (z, M] : y\text{ is not an upper bound of }S, z \text{ is an upper bound of }S}$. This is a cover: if $p \in [x,M]$ is an upper bound, it is not the LUB, so it's contained in a $(z,M]$; and if $p$ is not an upper bound, there is an element $y \in S$ so that $p$ is in $[x, y)$. Take a finite subcover $[x,M] = [x,y_1) \cup (z_1, M] \cup ... \cup [x, y_n) \cup (zn, M] = [x, max{y_1, ..., y_n}) \cup (min{z_1, ..., z_n}, M]$. By assumption, $max{y_1, ..., y_n}$ is not an upper bound and $min{z_1, ...., z_n}$ is an upper bound, so we are missing a point of $S$, a contradiction.
Kogasa
It's the same intuition, you're covering [x,M] by a bunch of intervals which all miss just the LUB (if it exists)
bruh this is so weird. im trying to see why maximum of the closure set is the sup of C. i see why its an upper bound for C. cannot see why its the least upper bound. like if there were another upper bound for C with u' < max, then what
oh. then u' is an upper bound for C' intersect [c,u] since its an upper bound for C'. so that we have to have max <= u'
okeh
How do you construct the inverse of the stereographic projection $\phi(x,y,z)=(\frac{x}{1-z},\frac{y}{1-z},0)$? I'm trying to come up with an arguement that'll be nice enough that I can reuse it as a chart for the punctured sphere ${(x,y,z)\in\mathbb{R}^3\mid x^2+y^2+z^2=1}\setminus(0,0,1)$
FYI I know it's going to end up something like $\psi^{-1}(X,Y)=(\frac{2X}{1+X^2+Y^2},\frac{2Y}{1+X^2+Y^2},\frac{1-X^2+Y^2}{1+X^2+Y^2})$
Manzareh
write a parametrization for the line from (0,0,1) to phi(x,y,z), then find the t where this line intersects the sphere (set the magnitude equal to 1)
Oh... now i get it, thanks
Is it possible for a CW complex with finitely many 2-cells and finitely many 1-cells to be homotopic to a complec with infinitely many 2-cells but still only finitely many 1-cells
If a 2d cube has 8 simplices, and a 3d cube has 48 simplices, what would be a good conjecture for an n-dimensional cube?
2^(n-1) * (number of edges) where n is the dimension seems like a naive guess
Let be $X$ a totally bounded metric space and $f:X\to X$ an isometry. Then $\overline{f(X)} = X$
galois.theory
can someone help me with that?
Does your definition of isometry not include an assumption that it’s bijective?
Bijection not included
I dunno how to prove this in the case it doesn’t, but I thought it’s normal to assume an isometry is bijective

yeah what's your definition of isometry
How is the taylor polynomial defined here?
I get that we can pass a function into its chart, but what is the taylor polynomial of a multivariable function?
a function $f:X\to Y$ such that $e(f(x),f(y)) = d(x,y)$. d is the metric of $X$ and e the metric of $Y$
galois.theory
yes
Isn’t this not true?
Like what if you took a one point space with the discrete metric
And a two point space with the discrete metric
And just mapped one point to another point
This is an isometry right?
And then the closure of the image is again still the point
the map is from X to itself
Ohhh
Right
I was just looking at the definition of isometry and saw a Y

This feels like it can be true again
But idk how lmao
I know it's freaky
I had a topology question, but now I want to think about this
for $f\colon\bR^n\to\bR$, the first order taylor polynomial at $p\in\bR^n$ is $$f(p) + \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^i}(p)(x^i - p^i)$$
TTerra
my teacher told me to "construct" (sorry i do not know the right word in english) a sequence
but she did not tell me how
what kind of sequence?
sequence of points in $f(X)$ i guess, and show that for every $x\in X$ there is a sequence in $f(X)$ that converge to $x$
galois.theory
xDDDDDD i did not read what i wrote xD
yeah ok
i have an example that could possibly help
let r be the rotation of the circle by 1 radian
and let p be (1,0)
X could be the set rⁿ(p) for n>=0
then rotating X by 1 radian will be an isometry that's not surjective
I just wanted an example that wasn't surjective
so like r is an isometry of X
now like my idea is to take e>0, and look at the image of the e ball of (1,0) by r
ok now look at the repeated images of this e-ball under r
you can use total boundedness to show that one of these balls contains (1,0)
I'm pretty sure
ok idk wbu i was talking too much in terms of my specific example but you can do the same in general
this is the part I'm iffy on
i kind of understand
and then if fⁿ(ball) contains your starting point for n>0, then f^(n-1)(ball) will be a set of points mapping e-closw to your starting point
Force needed to mold playdough to a curvature given by Ricci curvature tensor?
how do i attack this problem?
I am getting a bit of a finer idea now
I think you can start with the e/2 ball
since the space is totally bounded f^n(ball) has to intersect f^m(ball) for some different n and m
then let's say m>n, so basically after (m-n) iterations of f, points in the nth ball will be back close to their starting points
I really feel like I explained that in a weird way but I hope that makes sebse
i saw "ricci curvature" and got excited for a moment 
way to make molding play doh so serious
so like if f^(m-n) sends some points of fⁿ(ball) e/2-close to fⁿ(starting point), then just bring the whole set back by taking f^(-n), and you get f^(m-n) sends the e/2-ball around your starting point, to a ball that intersects it, meaning some image point is within e/2 of your starting point
ok now I see I don't need it to be e/2, e works 😐😐😐
oopsy
would you like me to draw something out @teal nova?
so you can always find some r with f^(m-n)(r) being within epsilon of s
and therefore f^(m-n-1)(r) is the point such that f carries that point close to s
and since epsilon is arbitrary you get that s is in the closure of f(X)
thank you a lot
of course
this was quite a fun problem
I have a topology question now for anyone out there
this problem has been killing me. I'm trying to consider the maps from SO3(R) to itself sending B to w(A,B) where w(a,b) is some element of the free group on a and b, and A is some fixed element of SO3. my goal is to show that if the map f:B->w(A,B) is not constant, then the preimage of the identity rotation has an empty interior in SO3.
I know it's a smooth map
and it's always given by a polynomial in the entries of B
but that sort of treats SO3 as a subset of R⁹ when I am really trying to treat it as a manifold all by itself
wow, you are a graduate student?
no
That is by design ig
the roles are meant to be pinged aren't they?
can someone tell me what im actually supposed to do for this question? very confusing

that looks...
weird
it sort of looks like you are giving it the discrete topology but like
idk
yeah its weird
i dont really understand what im trying to prove in the first place which is the issue lol
its ijn the context of showing that the proj map X x X -> Y sending closed to closed implies X compact, just part of the proof
what's Y
thats an error, should read X^\infty in screenshot
Y in this case is just "some space", but it's not relevant for this particular question
just check the axioms of a subbase hold?
What are they?
finite intersections of these sets form a basis
ah
maybe this is easy.
i was trying that but it didn't feel like it made much sense
i'll try to keep going in that direction
Does anyone know how to show the converse of a.?
More specifically, if f is a function such that f(p) = 0 and all the partial derivatives near p are 0, then f is in I_p^2
I.E. we can write it as a finite sum of things like h_i*g_i where h_i and g_i disappear at p
I don't think we're allowed to use this
prove it then

