Couldn't find a member matching gm to est!
#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 259 of 1
okay wait lemme google
No results found at:
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/search?query=3pm+gmt
today I hesrd about this
lmao why is this so hard 
Search results for geometric realization
From https://ncatlab.org/nlab/search?query=geometric+realization
Direct page found at: geometric realization
4 results where query appeared in title.
238 results where query appeared in body. (Page 1/21)
ye 10 am
hmm well maybe we can just talk and stuff after your class?
idk
we will see I guess
Toki muthafuckin doki
Groups act on spaces
Do groupoids act on spaces?
I know the defintion of a groupoid in terms of
A groupoid is a category where all the morphisms are isos
And I can see this generalized a group because a group is
One object
And only isos
Partial function being
I cannot multiple everything
Okay for example
S^2 has an action of S^1
And also has an action of Z/2Z
Is there a way two thing about
Ah yes
We can make the cat with two objects
By it isn’t connected
You mean the actions aren’t
So we can just take the two groups and create their product category
Yeah
Yeah yeah okay
I though this but then doubted myself
So then
The groupoid will be connected when there is an interplay between the actions
Object in the groupoid X
Yeah okay
Sorry
Yeah
The object x in some groupoid
Not the whole groupoid
I’m trying to think of some example of an interplay of actions
I was going to ask
Is there then for any space T
Some universal groupoid
That has all the actions one could put on T
You can always just take a bunch of groups and call it a groupoid
Also, you know a group action is just a homomorphism G --> End(X)
As in, a nice (homomorphism) way to define, for each g in G, the endomorphism "multiplication by g : X --> X"
So you're looking for two groups G, H acting on X that don't "commute," so like g(h(x)) != h(g(x))
For example, let X be an n-gon, and fix an axis of reflection
The reflection generates a group of size 2
Ah yes thank you!
And there's also a rotation by 360/n degrees that generates Z/nZ
We have an action of Z/2Z and an action of Z/nZ, and yes exactly
Ah thank you you very much
This defines an action of the semidirect product of Z/2Z and Z/nZ over that nontrivial morphism
This semidirect product is just the dihedral group D_(2n)
Is there any other simple example that isn’t
Just a group
As in with this example we could squish these two points together
(They are isomorphic I think)
Squish how?
We could have the same information in
A one object category
Oh
By definition
All the objects have to be isomorphism
Wait so
Every connected groupoid
Is just a group
If by connected you mean like, the underlying diagram of the category is connected as a graph, yes
Eh, actually
It can be a collection of isomorphic groups
The skeleton is a group
For example the fundamental groupoid of a path connected space is made up of all the groups $\pi_1(X, x)$ for all $x \in X$
Ah yeah so
Kogasa
If we had multiple copies of the same group
We might get some problem with having multiply identity elements?
Possibly, you can have issues anywhere isomorphism isn't the same as equality
That is how it's defined yeah
So the main thing is really that
It's equivalent to a group
Groupoids are a nicer way of organizing things ?
But there are reasons that you'd not want to treat it as such
Nicer way of organizing groupoids
(In the contexts that they are used)
The fundamental groupoid is not always so simple
Yeah the fundamental groupoid of the circle is just Z at each object connect by all these isomorphisms
If you just treat it as a group you lose information
And now tell me this
Can't use van kampen for example
And you can sometimes express theorems about "the" fundamental group in terms of the groupoid and now they work on non path connected spaces
Van Kampen is an example, you can tweak it to work with the fundamental groupoid
Take the “homotopy”? Category
Van kampen for groupoids is more powerful even with connected spaces

And make all isomorphic objects equal
Sorry very rude of me I have to run off
I’ll read back over this tomorrow
Thanks !
You mean the skeleton category, and that's essentially what you do when you refer to "the" fundamental group of a (path connected) space
Bye 
I mean one of the conditions for the classical version is the intersection is path connected, using the groupoid relaxes this
But of course this makes it more powerful for (covers of) even path connected spaces
You can probably strengthen it more tbh, any time you're secretly looking at a diagram in Set there's hella theorems
SvK/Meyer Vietoris, while obviously related directly through the abelianization functor, can also both be derived from finding a suitable functor from Set, and applying it to the diagram defining "union" (or intersection)
For SvK it's a bit tricky, you need to figure out how to translate the set theoretic conditions into a quotient of Top
But you can phrase lots of "union" and "intersection" flavored stuff like this
Brb I'm gonna go look for who asked
theres some post on mathflow but i dont want to try it cuz it looks cancer
So unless my intuition is wrong, shouldn't this end up being the entire space?
If not, how do I need to change my thought process.
can you explain your thought process?
Well, I guess for starters, for any x in R^w, x,0,0,0,... is a sequence that is in R^inf
But since that's true for any x, wouldn't R^w=R^inf?
Clearly my thinking is flawed somewhere, I am just not sure how exactly
x is an infinite sequence right?
Yea, that is eventually 0
in R^\omega we don't necessarily need that to be the case
it's just an infinite sequence of real numbers
How is what you said different from what I said? 🤔
you said x is eventually 0
i said it is not necessarily eventually 0
because it is an arbitrary element of R^\omega, not R^\infty
But isn't that how R^inf is defined?
x is an arbitrary element of R^\omega, not R^\infty
"Consists of all sequences that are eventually 0"
$\mathbb{R}^\omega$, not $\mathbb{R}^\infty$
Kogasa
Yes, but the sequence x,0,0,0... is certainly in R^inf
x is an infinite sequence
For any x in R^omega
Oh, there must be some confusion then. x is just some element in R omega and x,0,0,0... is the sequence I am constructing
It satisfies the definition of R^inf
What about this sequence is problematic? I fail to understand
x is an infinite sequence of real numbers
you've written "(x_0, x_1, x_2, ...), 0, 0, 0"
I agree with this
backwards
Ah yes
R^\infty is not "sequences of elements of R^\omega"
it is a subset of R^\omega, consisting of sequences of real numbers
so like (1, 2, 3, 0, 0, 0, ...) would be in R^\infty
It just says consists of all sequences, not consists of all sequences of real numbers.
it says it's a subset of R^\omega
But the R^inf you are talking about is far more interesting
I am talking about exactly what they've defined in your book
Okay sure
Hmmm, so how might one go about this completely different subset than that one I was thinking of.
I did not realize sequences were elements of R^omega, so that Is where my mistake was
So if we were to look one dimension at a time, so we restrict the N where it is eventually 0, then this consists of an N-1 dimensional plane
Or an N-1 dimensional slice of R^omega if that is preferred
that N would depend on the particular sequence
you want to find the sequences which are always "epsilon-close" to something in R^\infty
so that they are contained in every open neighborhood of R^\infty
So I guess the question of interest is what happens if we examine an element x which is not in R^inf
the question is when such an x is "always epsilon-close to something in R^\infty"
Yes, for sure
Ah, but in order for this to happen for some (x_1,....,), then d(x_n,0)<epsilon for all n
Well, at least for some tail of the sequence
But if that holds, then x must be in R^inf, since this needs to happen for every epsilon ball.
So I believe the answer is that the closure of R^inf is itself
not exactly, but along the right lines
Where is my mistake
But if that holds, then x must be in R^inf, since this needs to happen for every epsilon ball.
Do we agree w/ this?
Again, for some tail
So I guess I'm struggling a small bit.
I am understanding the conclusion needs to be the set of all sequences that converge to 0.
But I am not sure how to show a rho ball around (x_n)->0 meets R^inf
you need to use the definition of a sequence converging to 0
I guess my issue is we are taking the Supremum of the distance of each coordinate
Well, as long as it's smaller than 1
Oh, I see. For each N, (x_1,...,x_n,...)'s the rho ball of radius epsilon will meet (x_1,...,x_(N-1),0,0...)
Ty for the help. If I realized that elements in R^omega were sequences from the beginning, this probably would have been a lot smoother
pls someone tell me a sensible way to answer htis 
Oh i did this exercise
I dont think theres a nice easy solution
u just have to cooompute
how is this a good problem
because you know you're about to use it for some good shit
have you defined "chain homotopy" yet
it's not complicated, but you will use this problem for singular homology if/when you talk about it
we are doing alg top for the entire month of november but i dont think chain homotopy is on the list
if homology is on there, then you will
Fr Nov 5 Homotopy equivalence and algebraic topology Munkres 9.51, 9.58.
We Nov 10 Path components Munkres 2.25.
Fr Nov 12 The fundamental group Munkres 9.52.
We Nov 17 The fundamental group of the circle Munkres 9.53, 9.54.
Fr Nov 19 Brouwer fixed point theorem Munkres 9.55, 9.57.
We Nov 24 Fundamental theorem of algebra Munkres 9.56.
Fr Nov 26 Seifert-van Kampen and some knot theory Munkres 9.70.
is not
F
yooo seifert-van kampen and some knot theory is hype tho
tsomamerman js gna win a fields medal u know
jesse is a butcher?
what is this
given two chain complexes, if you can find a map h between them that anti-commutes with the differential, it induces the 0 map on homology
the differential of the chain complex

chain complex is a tuple containing a sequence of maps and objects C_n
either way, it's just a map of chain complexes that is trivial with respect to (co)homology
oh boundary
the maps of a chain complex are what i meant by differential
but differential is probably for cochain complex
oh you were talking about cohomology?
i'm talking about both, or either
im gonna need big help understanding parts of homology
So what are C_n called?
each C_n
1-(co)chains
a cochain group 1?
or the group of 1-(co)chains
ok why are they called chains? and what does each contain?
i barely remember
but for singular
would probably help to fix a (co)homology theory
they contain singular simplcies
for simplicial homology, an n-chain is just a formal sum of n-simplices
with coefficients in Z or Z/2Z or whatever
the boundary is an alternating sum
fuckkk
oh wait
i remember this
the n chain is a formal sum of eini
ei ni
where ei is in Z and ni is a sigma?
ye
but uh
i need to break this down further
why is ei Z and ni sigma and why do we define those to be elements of a n-chain
what does it represent is a better question ig
i would recommend reading about simplicial homology
ok yes ill have to reeeed
i skimmed and attended lectures
but reading probably helps solidify
i do have questions about a lot of things
like for defining a standard n simplex why do wr need orientation on the verticies
if you don't pick an orientation the definition of the boundary doesn't make sense
the fact that the simplices are oriented, and these orientation descends to a coherent orientation of the faces, is what makes the boundary operation (and homology groups) meaningful
so you can do stuff like, given a line a --> b --> c, the boundary is +c - a, and it's made up of components a --> b and b --> c, with boundaries +b - a and +c - b, and their sum is +c - a
i know how to compute boundary too
yeah
wait
the ith boundary is sum of sigmas restricted to i’th point removed from a simplex
alternating*
I need to read you are right
but reading feels like a rush compared to before
I feel really pressured to get it done super quickly
@dull goblet
So we say for a topological space $X$ that it is Hausdorff if for any $x, y \in X$, we can find open sets $U, V$ such that $x \in U, y \in V$ and $U \cap V = \emptyset$
Shika
And a topological space $X$ is said to be compact if for any open covering $(O_i){i \in I}$, we can extract a finite subfamily $O{i_1}, \cdots, O_{i_k}$ that is also an open cover
Shika
quasi compact
lol
Where a family of subsets of a topological space is an open cover if each of the subset is open and that the union of the family is the whole space
(basically that you're covering every point of your space with open sets)

right so quasi compact is usually just compact
(disclaimer: the defn of a compact set without any example and a few theorems about them usually makes no intuitive sense 🐒)
in topology, we say compact and hausdorff separately
open covering of X?
because of the french, in commie alg we say quasi compact when compact but not hausdorff
and compact means compact + hausdorff
🥖
oh lol ok
so prime spectrum is already compact from what i did before
just gotta prove haussdorff
It usually isn't hausdorff, if you equip it with zariski topology 🤔
ye
Oh, ok, so yeah I can see why that makes it hausdorff I think 
Guys what are the prerequisites for topology?
set theory, but real analysis and metric spaces are extremely helpful
just the concept of a metric space?
and by set theory I mean naive set theory, you should know how unions intersections complements inclusions inverse images etc work
yeah you can make do without metric spaces, the benefit is that results and examples of metric spaces motivate topology
which introductory topology book uses just set theory and introduces real anal concepts?
Munkres is standard for topology but I don't think it does too much real analysis
idk any topology books that start with real ana
okay thanks
does it have problems at the end of a chapter?
yes
just "topology munkres solutions"?
yeah
I prefer topology by simmons (topology and modern analysis)
when even the name satisfies the separability axiom
Can any algebraic geometry people describe to me the pictures in their head that they see for schemes and affine schemes
So in diff geom I know my pace is locally modeled by Euclidean space
So I can imagine globally I may have some potatoe blobule
But locally I know all it’s properties
I’m really not sure how to do picture this in alg geom
Even if we step back and go to “classical” varieties
Where we have the zero set of some polynomial
This doesn’t feel like something that is made by glueing together smaller pieces
Or at least
I don’t know what the property of coming from the zero of a polynomial looks locally
I'm currently doing my first assignment on general topology, but I'm stuck at the second problem. Could I get a hint to get me started?
Let $(X,\tau_X),(Y,\tau_Y)$ be topological spaces. Let $f:X\to Y$ be a continuous map, with image $Z=f(X)\subset Y$. Factor $f=i\circ p$ where $p$ is the surjective mapping $p:X\to Z$ and $i:Z\to Y$ the inclusion map. Let $\tau_1$ denote the quotient topology on $Z$ induced by $p$, and let $\tau_2$ denote the subspace topology on $Z$ inherited from $Y$. How can I show that $\tau_1$ is finer or equal to $\tau_2$?
notsushY
The identity set map j is continuous 
Equality is not true, hint is T_1 is the finest topology such that p is continuous (definition of/theorem about quotient topology) ||but p remains continuous if you make T_1 coarser||
The zero set of z^2 + w^2 - 1 in C^2, thought of as R^4, is a 2-manifold, right?
What is it like?
I'd also like to know whether the general case is easy. I mean suppose we have an entire map f : R^n --> R. If I'm not mistaken, we can extend this to a map F from C^n to C. Then if 0 is a regular value of f, then it is also a regular value of F, and we can get an analytic manifold (?) of complex dimension n, so of real dimension 2n. How is it related to f^-1(0)?
Consider the projectivization of $z^2 + w^2 - 1$ living in $\mathbb{CP}^2$, $z^2 + w^2 - \zeta^2$
Kogasa
each element $[z, w, \zeta]$ of the zero set with $\zeta \ne 0$ corresponds to a unique element $(z/\zeta, w/\zeta)$ of your zero set, but you have more points at $\zeta = 0$: the equation becomes $z^2 + w^2 = 0$, which means $(z/w)^2 = -1$, $z/w = \pm i$. this gives two points of $\mathbb{CP}^2$, $[i, 1, 0]$ and $[-i, 1, 0]$.
Kogasa
so your zero set, plus two extra points, forms a closed subset of the compact space $\mathbb{CP}^2$
Kogasa
I see!
Any idea how does it look like?
I'm pretty sure it can only be one of a small number of things
but I forget exactly what it is
equality true if f injective
wow im late
thats a cool topology question
No, you can have S = {1,2} with the discrete top mapping via identity to S with the indiscrete top
Then the quotient top is also discrete
subspace top is indiscrete
oh yea im forgetting its a map between topologies
i was just saying that f = i o p is true if f injective
not that the topologies are equivalent
wait thats always true isnt it
Well, is it a submanifold?

wait no it's a sphere 
so it should just be a sphere minus two points 
it might be more helpful to just construct the riemann surface explicitly
ok very quick question: Hom(Z³, Z) is just Z³ right?
I just need this to be verified lmao
in case I do something horribly wrong
yes
ok thank you so much! 
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1552627/riemann-surface-of-w2-sqrt1-z2
you can see the "disk with two points removed" from here too but this is more "complex analysis"-y
how did you mean to extend the map to C^n? you would need twice as many variables in general, although polynomials on R^n do extend to polynomials in C^n
Hom is additive so direct sums in the first component become direct sums on the outside (direct sum’s universal property is just so that this is so)
Then if you know Hom_Z(Z,G) = G
You get your answer

Oh man, my head's spinning on this one (6 part (a))
the distance from x to y in the uniform metric is the supremum of the distances of each component right?
That, but we are finding the supremum of the bounded metric. So min{1, d(x,y)}
so if $\mathbf{x}, \mathbf{y} \in \mathbb{R}^\omega$ such that $\sup_n \bar \rho(x_n, y_n) < \epsilon$, that means there is a real number $\delta := \sup_n \bar\rho(x_n, y_n)$ so that all the components are $\delta$-close
Kogasa
Yes, I agree with that
what do you think about the claim $(0, 1/2, 3/4, 7/8, 15/16, ...) \in B_{\bar \rho}(0, 1)$?
Kogasa
Oh, the supremum of those distances is 1, so it is not in that ball
drew
drew?
true
So there is the big issue. If we take an element two elements x,y so that the supremum to be equal to epsilon, than y would be in U(x,e) but not the ball.
if the supremum equals epsilon, it's not in the ball
To be more precise, the supremum equal to epsilon when the maximum is undefined
remember the ball is the set of points with distance less than epsilon
oh
nevermind sorry you are right
if the supremum is epsilon but all the individual distances are strictly less than epsilon, it's in $U(\mathbf{x},\epsilon)$
Kogasa
Thats a better way to say it
So, if i'm not mistaken, U(x,e) is the closure of the rho epsilon ball around x
I think that's true
So to show that this set is not open, we take a point y, along the boundary of U(x,e) show we cannot find an open neighborhood of ycontained in U(x,e)
seems reasonable
This is munkres right?
Ok nice, I'm currently going through it and I recognized the type/paper look/notation
Admittedly i wasnt sure lol
Definitely seems like a good resource. I've had to scratch my brain a few million times
I am trying to use the triangle inequality here, but I seem to be a little stuck.
so by assumption we can make $\bar \rho(x_n, y_n)$ as close as we want to $\epsilon$ by picking large enough $n$
Kogasa
if $z$ is in the $\delta$-ball around $y$, can we make $\bar\rho(z, x) \ge \epsilon$?
Kogasa
the triangle inequality says that the biggest we can possibly make that distance is $\bar\rho(x,y) + \bar\rho(y,z) = \epsilon + \bar\rho(y,z)$ which is certainly greater than epsilon
Kogasa
but can you actually achieve that distance? how should you pick $z$ to be as far from $x$ as possible
Kogasa
Well, on a metric like the norms (just as a visual aid), we can make e+rho(y,z) be the length of the line segment
But of course, we aren't in the norms, so it isn't that obvious
you mean like, take a line segment going from x to y
then just follow that line outwards
for some distance delta
that is a point with distance delta from y, which has maximal distance from x
that is the idea, for any $0 < \delta' < \delta$ we can pick $z \in B_{\bar \rho}(y, \delta)$ having distance exactly $\bar\rho(x, y) + \bar\rho(y,z) = \epsilon + \delta'$
Kogasa
now by assumption, eventually $|y_n - x_n| > \epsilon - \delta'$
Kogasa
Does it suffice to show any ball centered at y is not contained in U(x,e)?
yes
Oh really? Why don't I have to choose an arbitrary ball that has y?
Yea. But here you chose a ball specifically centered at y
Kogasa
so it suffices to show this
Oh okay, that's good to know
you should think about how to prove that
there is a geometric picture here though
your "boundary element" y is just a sequence of reals in (x-epsilon, x+epsilon) that converges to one of the endpoints
a delta-neighborhood of y consists of all the sequences that are always close to y
but for any delta, if y_n --> x + epsilon, then (y_n + \delta/2) --> x + epsilon + delta/2
Yea, I can agree to that
that's a delta-close sequence to y which is not contained in (x - epsilon, x + epsilon), and delta was arbitrary, so there is no open neighborhood of y contained in B(x, epsilon)
Where did the delta/2 come from?
y is converging to x + epsilon from the left, and i wanted to make it leave the interval, so i shifted it to the right a bit
by a distance smaller than delta
if y --> x - epsilon then i would shift it to the left by delta/2
to be more precise, since x is a sequence it's not necessarily the case that y is a convergent sequence at all
but (y_n - x_n) does converge to 0
so really, $y \in \partial U(x, \epsilon) \leftrightarrow$ the sequence $(y_n - x_n) \in (-\epsilon, \epsilon)$ converges to $\pm \epsilon$
Kogasa
and $z \in U_{\bar \rho}(y, \delta) \leftrightarrow$ the sequence $(z_n - y_n) \in [-\delta', \delta'] \subset (-\delta, \delta)$
A lot's happening right now. I'm gonna need a minute to process this
Kogasa
Let $X=V(S) $ be an algebraic variety. Suppose the coordinate ring $A(X)$ is a field. Then for all $f \in K[x_1,...,x_n]$ exist $g \in K[x_1,...,x_n]$ such that $(f+I(X))(g+I(X))=1+I(X)$, this implies that $f(x)g(x)=1$ for all $x \in X$. Now let $p \in S$ and $a \in X=V(S)$ then $p(a)=0$ but $p(a)$ is also unit. Are there something wrong with this?
Or x1
This implies that X is a point?
yes
more directly, remember the coordinate ring is a quotient of a polynomial ring
when a quotient is a field, the thing you're quotienting by is a maximal ideal
and maximal ideals correspond to points
why?
think first about the case where K is algebraically closed
you just identify the point p with the ideal of polynomials vanishing at p
all of them have a factor of (x-p), which generates a maximal ideal, so we have identified p with the ideal (x-p)
if k is not algebraically closed, then the maximal ideals of the polynomial ring aren't necessarily of the form (x-a)
i guess in your proof it was necessary to state that f and g are both nonzero (or that I(X) is proper)
I was meaning to use CA stuff. If we have a function which is analytic on all R, we can analytically continue it to C, right?
(I know very little CA)
you can, provided that there is a taylor series that converges everywhere
like 1/(1 + x^2) is analytic everywhere but the taylor series at x=0 only converges in |x| < 1
but there is no hope of a nice relationship like you said
because there's no relationship between the real roots of a given analytic function and its complex roots
if you restrict to a class of functions that have such a relationship then you might be able to say something
Oh, right. What about the multivariate case?
i'm supposed to be leading a calc review session on zoom rn and they didn't make me a host so i can't start the meeting 
multiple complex variables makes things a bit tricky
1 variable complex functions be like
"i'm 0 on a single convergent sequence? then i'm 0 everywhere, fucker"
multiple variables don't give a single FUCK unless you're in codimension 1
First of all, If x is in cl(A) and y is in bd(B), why is (x, y) in bd(A x B)?
(x, y) in cl(A x B) because x is in cl(A) and y is in cl(B), and therefore (x, y) in cl(A) x cl(B) = cl(A x B).
(x, y) in cl((A x B)^c) because x is in cl(A) and y is in cl(B^c), so (x, y) is in cl(A x B^c) which is a subset of cl((A x B)^c). (note that A x B^c is disjoint from A x B to see this).
so therefore (x, y) in bd(A x B), and cl(A) x bd(B) is a subset of bd(A x B). By a symmetric argument, bd(A) x cl(B) is a subset of bd(A x B).
this is one direction of the proof.
for the other direction, we need to show that any point in bd(A x B) is in either cl(A) x bd(B) or bd(A) x cl(B).
ryc this is graded homework 
well being in bd(A x B) means you're in cl(A x B), so you're in cl(A) x cl(B), and therefore we just need to check that EITHER x in bd(A) or y in bd(B).
what are you proving anyway
he's showing this
yeah 
Is X also second countable?
no
the assignment was pretty good honestly
so fucking rip
this question just sucks
anyways i still havent solved the fucking cube question
🧊
We know (x, y) in bd(A x B), so (x, y) in cl((A x B)^c). We can write (A x B)^c as a union, A^c x Y union A x B^c. Check this. If (x, y) in cl(A^c x Y), then x in cl(A^c), but we know x in cl(A), so then x in bd(A).
If (x, y) in cl(A x B^c), then we know y in cl(B^c), but we also know y in cl(B), so y in bd(B).
therefore bd(A x B) is a subset of (bd(A) x cl(B)) union (cl(A) x bd(B))
end proof
the left side is also not symmetric in A and B 
wut
A x B is not the same as B x A 
I mean
sure but they did the < direction already
so if the right is symmetric in A and B
wait
omega think
maybe ur right
i mean why do you say second countability implies the rhs is not symmetric in A and B
lol
no you're right
I was thinking if A and B are both subsets of a second countable space
you'd only need to show that one of bd(A) x cl(B) < bd(A x B)
but you're right the right hand side isn't symmetric
so it don't work
:(
or something like that idfk
I just want to always prove something once then get the others 4 free
well
you kind of can
we know that $\partial(A \times B) \subset cl(A \times B) = cl(A) \times cl(B)$, so automatically both coordinates are in $cl(A) \times cl(B)$
Kogasa
so the equation says the boundary of $(A \times B)$ is all the points $(a,b)$ where $a \in \partial A$ or $b \in \partial B$
Kogasa
if not, then both $a$ and $b$ are in the interior of their respective sets... so $(a,b) \in int(A \times B)$
Kogasa
it was done before you proved it too
chmonkey just wanted to prove it in one step, which is possible
thats nice
u ok?
im sorry, im just mad at jesse for asking me to do this problem for him if it was already done lol
Wut
if there is actually a way to do it in one step that is nice is what i meant
ive never proved this

Copium
you told me to stop talking about a problem because you solved it
a problem out of an ancient textbook that every math student ever has or will read
you can just google a proof

How would you phrase the solution to this?
For example if I write $\frac{\partial f}{\partial r}|_{r_0,\theta_0}$, does it mean I am evaluating the derivative at the point $(r_0\cos{\theta_0},r_0\sin{\theta_0}$ or at the point $(r_0,\theta_0)$?
Finitely Many Bananas
The notation is kinda sucky and I don't wanna lose points because of it
I would read that as evaluating at the point (r_0, \theta_0) in polar coordinates
which is (r_0 cos(\theta_0), r_0 sin(\theta_0)) in cartesian coordinates
i would phrase the solution by stating x = r cos(theta), y = r sin(theta), compute $\frac{\partial x}{\partial \theta}$ and $\frac{\partial y}{\partial \theta}$, then use the chain rule to write $\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} = \frac{\partial x}{\partial \theta} \frac{\partial}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial y}{\partial \theta} \frac{\partial}{\partial y}$
Kogasa
Can you read through my solution?
maybe 
How does it look?
correct but maybe could be more concise 
Maybe so
Can someone verify if my solution for this is correct? It seems to follow from the definitions pretty much
Assuming proposition 2 is applied correctly it seems fine
Cool! Incidentally, that's homotopy equivalent to S^1, the set of real zeros. Coincidence?
I think so
i dunno about homotopy equivalence, but you can see the circle inside it by gluing two slit CP^1's to form the riemann surface explicitly
the two removed points are the points at infinity in each copy of CP^1
and the set of real zeros is a circle around the middle
Fair enough
What would the "complex n-sphere" look like? It's not obvious to me how this method generalizes.
probably the one point compactification of C^n
It's this just S^{2n} ? 🤔
Oh yeah ofc sry 

physicists need to stop pretending "tensor is what transforms like a tensor" is a rigorous definition
these motherfuckers define manifold as "a locally euclidean space" and never talk about it again i have seen their fucking books
It's not compact. Also, the "complex 1-sphere" turned out to be a 2-sphere punctured twice.
when you say "complex sphere"
do you mean the zero set of the polynomial x_1^2 + ... + x_n^2 = 1
over the complex numbers?
Yes, except in C^n.
That's the "complex (n-1)-sphere"
that's not usually what we mean by "complex sphere," but i see what you're saying
Oh, I see
well, you can try constructing riemann surfaces again explicitly, or you can projectivize it and look at it inside CP^n
but now you'll have higher genus
for n=3 it'll be a closed genus 1 riemann surface
orientability
Orientability?
Aha
we usually say euler characteristic instead of genus as well, but it's mostly the same information
I see
It would be nice if it deformation retracts to the 2-sphere
wait no sorry, it's always genus 0
i dunno why i thought it was a degree 3 polynomial for n=3
so it should always compactify to a sphere
it has dimension (n-1)
complex dimension
and yes it's a submanifold of CP^n
the projectivization is x_0^2 + ... + x_n^2 - z^2 = 0, and the extra points you get in compactification come from solutions to x_0^2 + ... + x_n^2 = 0
What isn't?
The set of complex solutions of z^2 + w^2 = 1
No idea how to visualize that, but the idea is that the complex sphere is then the solutions of the projectivization minus the extra points?
Yeah, I didn't know that. I will denote it by G^n.
an issue now is that you're not dealing with surfaces
but codimension 1 (hyper)surfaces
I'd prefer a non-algebraic approach
I mean not relying on the fact that S^n is a variety
But as you said, it doesn't seem easy or even possible
GAGA moment 
I thought I could mess with the imaginary parts to make G^n retract onto S^n, but realized it was dumb
You can probably translate the necessary AG statements into things about the complex geometry but
Dunno enough about the higher dim things to say anything
I thought you could only translate "high-level stuff"
If AG can't describe basic analytic geometry we would probably have issues
Same
Relatable content
To describe the zero set to x_0^2 + ... + x_n^2 in CP^(n-1): one of the x_i must be nonzero, say x_0 so divide through and we get 1 + (x_1/x_0)^2 + ... + (x_n/x_0)^2 = 0. Multiply x_j/x_0 by i to get (i x_1/x_0)^2 + ... + (i x_n/x_0)^2 = 1. This is a transformed copy of G^(n-1). So the zero set is the union of n copies of G^(n-1). But each two of these intersect at a copy of G^(n-2) and so on
For n=2, the zero set is made of two transformations of x^2 = 1, namely [x, iy] and [ix, y] = [x, -iy] intersecting at a point (the origin), although this isn't actually an intersection in CP^1
Okay so I'm supposed to calculate the cohomology groups of the Klein bottle with Z coefficients directly from the definition. I already did H^0 and H^1 but now I'm stuck at calculating H^2.
So I'm interested in the image of the map $\partial^: \text{Hom}(\langle a, b, c \rangle, \mathbb{Z}) \to \text{Hom}(\langle U, L \rangle, \mathbb{Z})$. I know that $\partial^(\varphi) = \varphi(\partial)$ and now $\varphi(\partial(U)) = \varphi(a) +\varphi(b) - \varphi(c)$ and $\varphi(\partial(L)) = \varphi(b) - \varphi(a) - \varphi(c)$. But now what?
Tokidoki ✓
What is the kernel? So which linear combinations of U and L equal 0?
I got the kernel to be Z
Explicitly?
ye
I mean what is the generator
well I don't know I just used like a lot of presentations
You gotta keep track of the generators
Otherwise how will you compute quotients
A ~ Z and B ~ Z doesn't let you compute A/B
oh no
so if I have that A is isomorphic to Z^2 and that B is isomorphic to Z, then A/B is not Z?
So like H^0 is generated by the homology class <v>
Well we care about the kernel because it's part of the definition of the homology groups
shouldn't it be the image?
No, homology groups are "closed chains modulo boundary," closed chains are the kernel and boundary is the image
ye but I'm doing cohomology
It's the same
so I have 0 ---> <v> ---> <a, b> ---> <U, L> ---> 0 where by <a, b> I actually mean its dual group. So H^2 will be <U, L>/image of the third map or am I completely insane?
The cohomology of $\partial^$ is the kernel of $\partial^$ modulo the image
Kogasa
ye and I have the kernel since the last map is 0 so now I want the image
Yes
Reeee
I have a class starting rn
I can explain in an hour if nobody else does
okay great! Thank you so much! 

ye I think that we talked about this before moldi 
You gotta look at how these homomorphisms are related

a+b-c = (a-b+c) + 2(b-c)
So f(U) - f(L) = 2(b-c)
We're modding out by this relation
ah yeah right okay I see now. I will keep this in mind! 
but now I have to redo the earlier parts because of this 
it's so easy for me to miss this
it feels so true
actually never mind, I never used that fact
idk why I mentioned that wtf
let Y an affine variety, if i have an element f in the coordinate ring A(Y), what means that f(x)=0?
Coordinate ring is k[x1,...,xn]/I(Y) right?
yes
f = [p(x1,...,xn)] for some polynomial p, and f(x) means p(x) (you can check this is well defined)
The idea of A(Y) is that it is the ring of polynomial functions on Y
But different polynomials can define the same function
That's why you quotient by I(Y), then each element corresponds to a unique polynomial function and vice versa
yes
okay it seems to be unoccupied
@sleek thicket you've seen like ramification in riemann surfaces right
nope. my understanding of ramification is a point which splits into too many points (or too few? like z -> z^2) and stops something from being a covering map
and also this is what primes splitting looks like in ANT
thats all u need really
Yes thats it exactly
wait
uhh ill be back in a few minutes
or less
lol
ok back
So basically if i have an map p: Y -> X of curves then being unramified in the algebraic sense at p of pB splitting into primes if and only if B/pB is an etale k(p)-algebra
I am going to need further elaboration here
First, are X = Spec A and Y = Spec B affine?
second I'm assuming the map p and the prime p are distinct
they should be affine normal but projective also works
Sorry this is kinda a mess cause i just had to change classes 
lol
yes uh lets do like f: Y -> X instead
basically the idea is that over C the closed points form Riemann surfaces, and f will define a holomorphism of Riemann surfaces
and if we have a closed point p in X then the splitting of its extension in Y is going to look like ramification in the sense that like
if p splits into q_1^e_1 ... q_n^e_n in the coordinate ring of Y
so we're taking some point p in X, this is a maximal ideal m of A
Yep
Yeah
You're talking about the pushforward factoring as a product of primes
Right
itll look like q_1^e_1 ... q_n e^n right, with the q_i prime
when the e_i are all 1 and it splits into distinct primes
um wdym
Here
Should it be q_n^e_n?
Oh yeah lol
okay so
Suppose the pushforward is a product of primes
Now further assume it's a product of distinct primes
product of primes is automatic in the normal case btw
because we're in dim 1 so thatll be dedekind
So is being a product of distinct primes unramified?
Right
Cool
and this is equivalent to B/pB being a finite etale algebra over the residue field of p
where B = coord ring of Y
So we have A -> B
Oh p is maximal
I see where the algebra structures comes from
κ(p) is just A/p
So what does it mean for an algebra to be etale?
I was told I would be etale pilled moth
lolz
Product as in direct product?
yep
finite product of finite separable extensions
it's the crt
right
And then you just need like
A theorem about comparing direct product decompositions
Which should be easy
yeah its not a hard proof
so like the idea here is that like, if i have a proper holomorphism of riemann surfaces
its gonna be ramified at only finitely many points
and everywhere else itll be a cover
Why does it only ramify at finitely many points?
complex analysis reasons, its just that the branch points end up being finite discrete and stuff
(sry for the delay im technically in class
)
That makes sense
i dont rly remember the complex analysis details tbh xd
This fits with my understanding of complex analysis
Poggies
We're looking for points where it's not a local homeomorphism right?
Yep
If the derivative is nonzero then it's gonna be locally invertible
(this is all happening in charts)
IVT stuff
Yes this sounds right
so like if we have a finite separable morphism Y -> X of affine curves (X integral blah blah)
its gonna end up being etale on a cofinie subset of X
Cool
so heres the cool part
u know how pi_1 can be thought of as like, sets with actions of pi_1 on it correspond to covers?
you can get a group pi_1^et that will do the same thing, but with etale covers instead of topological ones
π1(X) is like the automorphism group of the identity functor of π1(X)-set right?
In the classical case
Smth like that?
I think a fiber functor
what ends up happening is that like
each etale cover of X corresponds to a finite extension of the function field
just bc all finite maps above X will
(it will induce an injection on coord rings and stuff)
so like, if i take the compositum of all these extensions
its galois group will be the etale fundamental group
neat
and basically when u work over C u get this really nice relationship where like, if i pick some finite discrete subset S of X
then the profinite completion of pi_1(X - S, x) regarding X as a riemann surface will be the etale fundamental group

yep
i know! its weird
Did we end up getting it 
Linear algebra and vector spaces
linear algebra and vector spaces
it's worse than you think
this problem set is so long and so boring https://courses.cs.washington.edu/courses/cse446/21au/assignments/hw0.pdf

now you see why im trying to learn measure theoretic probability
i can technically say it's for my ML class
and it is
so much more interesting
this should be right. for every map of riemann surfaces f : X -> Y, given x in X there are coordinate charts U around x and V around y such that f is just f(z) = z^k for some k, f : U -> V. this fact really helps me to sort out my intuition about theorems about maps of riemann surfaces
makes sense
it's an extremely nice result
yeee boiii thank you for the help! 
i am taking a complex geometry class next quarter which should be fun
so it's ramified iff k is not one
good to know i remember enough complex analysis to muddle my way around
you should check out forster. i'm loving it. and he does a bunch of proofs with sheaf cohomology which has helped me to gain intuition for what sheaf cohomology is trying to do. i mean i think i get it but like, certainly divisors are easier to understand in the CA setting than just talking about abstract nonsense about schemes
i can't remember. did you say you were a masochist?
no nvm i'm thinking of chmonkey
my bad
lol
that sounds fun, I'll check it out
i expect the class to be about as far from AG as a complex geometry class can get
based on the professor (lee)
Lectures on Riemann Surfaces by forster?
yeah that's what i mean
also like, this isn't super surprising but complex analysis does require some analysis. obviously this is kind of just 'wtf' but for me it helped me to link the analysis to the AG. for example the theorem that every every compact riemann surface has finite genus is a consequence of some results of analysis, some very technical arguments that ultimately appeal to the Banach open mapping theorem
maybe you'd be able to get away with a completely different argument style
Sheaf cohomology measures obstructions to coherently gluing data 
I didn't see it this way until I looked at that application paper
About sheaves and data fusion problems
i sincerely don't know how people teach sheaf cohomology and don't teach people this intuition
how can that even be done
But it is straightforward to interpret what I said precisely as the definition of the cohomology group
I have no idea how people teach sheaf cohomology
ye me neither
The two times it's been introduced in classes we basically stated the definition then did computations
i mean maybe i'm just missing a crucial alternative interpretation of sheaf cohomology
So I'm glad I learned this shit prior
At least the basic ideas
I think it's because sheaf cohomology was only mentioned in passing in those classes though
maybe the gamer way would be to just teach people cech cohomology
and then say "okay and sheaf cohomology is then the abstract limit of this garbage but just think about cech"
That is what we did in the first class lmao
vewwy gud uwu
Except we defined sheaf cohomology, then only ever did computations with cech
Professor was feeling based that day
ye i guess that's the only way to do any explicit calculations anyway
uuuh unless you're doing more abstract things ofc
He stated some more abstract theorems and examples but didn't really expect us to do much with it ourselves
i've used it a bunch in my research 
okay nobody cares but i'm too giddy not to say it
you can calculate lie algebra cohomology of vector fields on a smooth manifold by doing it on smol open neighbourhoods (basically R^n) and then gluing things together via cech/sheaf cohomology
this is what people call gelfand-fuks cohomology and nobody understands it
you don't have to care but i did this and i'm very happy and it made me really appreciate cech/sheaf cohomology
This sounds cool
You should always be able to glue local cohomologies together like that right?
this is actually quite interesting, some cohomologies behave well with respect to this gluing and some become really nasty
But getting something nice would intuitively require a very particularly well behaved local cohomology
Like I would think this would usually be hard to compute
lie algebra cohomology of vector fields is actually rather nasty; but if you look at something like hochschild cohomology of smooth functions, that is a very local thing
i don't quite get why, but i'm actually quite in love with that whole cohomology business
i want to be the one person in the world who can tell you something about every cohomology theory
-- in any case, i think the right intuition is that cohomological things should generally not behave very nicely with respect to localization; after all, you can't see, say, the simplicial cohomology of a sphere by just looking at its small open sets; you somehow need global data
Yes
but by combining your cohomology with cech/sheaf cohomology, you can capture "how badly" the localization process fails
the sad part is that this will generally only give you something awful like a spectral sequence -- but better than nothing
that's oké, bye! thanks for listening to my cohomology stories
yo lartomato
if you're interested in this stuff i have a question for you.
this is really bugging me
do you know of any nice abstract or categorical constructions of the de Rham complex? i'm talking about like, the free widget generated by a blah blah blah in a symmetric monoidal category
like
if you wanted to rigorously and precisely define the de Rham complex (say in the category of sheaves of real vector spaces) what is the most efficient way to describe this
i think of free constructions as kind of 'induction principles', because they give you laws by which you can 'introduce' a diagram of a certain shape. i'm looking for an 'induction' principle which would allow me to construct the de Rham complex.
closely related to this is V(g), the Chevalley-Eilenberg complex associated to a Lie algebra
i think an answer for the case of V(g) could be easily translated into a case for the other
i came up with a satisfying answer in the case of the Koszul complex associated to a module equipped with a finite number of pairwise commuting endomorphisms. And the chevalley-eilenberg complex has the Koszul complex as the special case where g is an Abelian lie algebra
from googling around i've seen that you can think of the chevalley-eilenberg complex as a kind of deformed Koszul complex, which seems to make sense, but i have no idea how to use this information to give a nice general construction of the complex
something something Lie operads
that's an interesting question and i'm not sure if i have a satisfying answer, but i'll thonk about it for a moment
yeah it seems hard to me, it took me forever to come up with the answer for the Koszul case, but i also really know almost nothing about Lie algebras.
what is a fun construction of the de Rham complex is that it equals the continuous hochschild cohomology of the algebra of smooth functions lol
but that's not quite what you're asking i believe
i'm not sure i understand this line, do you have an example of such an induction principle?
well, it might, but is there a general construction for a 'bar resolution' type thing for hochschild co/homology of smooth functions which gives you the de Rham complex as a special case?
Yeah i'll tell you what i figured out for Koszul complexes.
let's work in like, the setting of a symmetric monoidal category.
i think that's really all i need here.
Let V and M be two objects in the category.
Suppose V acts on M by means of a morphism $h : V\otimes M\to M$.
diligentClerk
Suppose this action is "commutative" in the sense that this map iterated twice, $V\otimes V\otimes M \xrightarrow{id \otimes h}V\otimes M\xrightarrow{h}M$ commutes with the symmetry isomorphism $V\otimes V\otimes M\cong V\otimes V\otimes M\to V\otimes M\to M$.
diligentClerk
That's really all I want to assume here. It's a pretty simple setup.
ye i can see how this is koszuly
The case of this which is relevant in the definition of the Koszul complex is that like, $V$ would be the free $k$-module on symbols $x_1,\dots,x_n$, and each of the $x_i$ has an endomorphism of $M$ associated to it, and these commute pairwise. The action is extended to arbitrary elements of $V$ by linearity.
diligentClerk
So, the setup I have described freely generates a big monoidal subcategory of the monoidal category by taking the closure under the unit object $1$, the tensor product, adding in the symmetry isomorphisms, associativity isomorphisms... everything that can be built out of monoidal category operations (composition, identity, tensoring) and the distinguished constants $V, M$ and the morphisms i've explicitly suggested
diligentClerk
