#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 258 of 1
If I wish to work just on the topology of the space, can I show that a different topology would turn the space into a manifold?
You can but it would be a nasty topology
Is any 1-d line on R2 closed? (or not open, I know it's no the same)
Only to show that it doesn't work specifically for the std topology
what if I map it to (-1,1) ? with identity chart. the preimage of any open set in (-1,1) will either be empty or a subset of [0,1), which is open.
Yup, this is a continuos map!
But not a homeomorphism
A homeomorphism needs to be bijective (in particular, there needs to be a continuous inverse map)
Ah, I forgot about the bijection thing
Guys, how to prove (b) the inverse implication? I tried to use (a) but with no success.
Ok
So, I tried a "simple" proof, please tell me if it's correct.
Suppose there is a bijection f: [0,1) -> (a,b)
if f(0) = a, the preimage of it's inverse will be [a,b), thus it's inverse is not continuous and f is not homeomorphism
if f(0) != a, then f(0) is not mapped into (a,b) and f is not bijective, contrary to the hypothesis.
Thus no bicontinuous bijection f can exist, [0,1) cannot be homeomorphic to an open set (a,b) in R, and [0,1) is thus not locally euclidean (can't be a manifold)
@stone cipher
—> if x is in int(A), then let (x_n) be a sequence converging to x. as int(A) is an open neighborhood of x, then by definition of convergence…..(finish)
<— if x is not in int(A), then x is in X \ int(A), which is a closed subset of X, that is, cl(X \ int(A)) = X \ int(A). now use part (a) (sort of. brian scott’s answer i assume uses the proof idea for part (a) in a sense to construct his sequence)
You say f maps into (a,b) but then consider the case where f(0) = a which cannot happen.
And for the case where f(0) ≠ a [which is the only possible case], why does that mean f(0) cannot be in (a,b)? Why can't it be some other point in the interval?
For <— I did as u said and didn't work. Check the link above.
hum, good point
yes, i saw. brian scott’s answer was kind of what i had in mind. although i think part of it is used to prove part (a). he just applied the same idea to a different problem
I tried so hard to use (a), but the existence of (x_n) notin int(A) converging to x doesn't help much.
why is it called pushforward and pullback
i grt it sorta
differential is covariant
the other one is contravariant somehow?
Can you be more specific about what you mean
what is a pullback from what I understand you take a smooth function from one manifold to another and then with pullbacks you consider the algebra homomorphisms of smooth functions between the manifolds right?
i guess the algebra homomorphisms part gets me tripped up
Pullbacks along f : A --> B transfer something from B to A
Pushforwards transfer something from A to B
That's why "push" and "pull"
something?
Yes
This is just a general notion
in what other contexts does it exist
You can phrase it precisely in terms of a diagram in any category
Geometry in general
Push! Pull!
meh
There’s usually a notion of functions on your thing and you usually define morphisms to be those that pull those back
Pushforwards of measures
This is basically how a map of Locally ringed spaces is defined
But if f is a map of manifolds, you can pull back differential forms and push forward tangent vectors in a natural way
So that's what "something" happens to mean in your case I'm guessing
If X subset Rn is convex union of open sets X_1,…,X_n such that X_i cap X_j cap X_k is nonempty, for all i,j,k Show that x is simply connected
right
The point is that the functor taking spaces X to the tangent bundle TX is covariant, so f : A --> B induces a pushforward df : TA --> TB, while the functor taking X to the cotangent bundle is contravariant
so I know these spaces are path connexted
my thinking is that I need to show how each triple of intersections is contractible to some point in their intersection
Or I can start with X_1,2,3
then show X_2,3,4 is contractible and so on
I would structure it as an inductive proof
If you remove an open set X_1, the resulting set is simply connected. Pick a basepoint in X_1, then any loop is either contained in X_1, or it passes outside of X_1 then back in. But the part that occurs outside of X_1 is in a simply connected space
huh you mean inductively adding X_is?
Yeah, induction on the number of sets in the union
If the loop exits through X_i and returns through X_j, by assumption the triple intersection is nonempty
So the loop is homotopic to one that enters and exits through the X_i \cap X_j, this gives a loop in the union of X_2 through X_n which we know contracts to a point
rip im confused
Isnt the goal to show that for X_i convex, X = U X_i is simply connected meaning given any loop in X there exist a homotopy to the constant loop?
Yes
And if we do induction
I have a picture in mind but I can't draw it for you
I meant for the inductive step
You have N sets in your union, so you remove one (say X_1) and now you have X_1 unioned with a simply connected set, by assumption
And I'm trying to argue that this new set must also be simply connected
Because any loop based at a point of X_1 is either contained in X_1, or it leaves X_1 then comes back into it
So for our inductive step we are assuming X_N-1 is simply connected
We use our inductive hypothesis to simplify the part of the loop that's outside of X_1
ohh
wait hold up
if it leaves X1 and goes back
It enters through some Xj
and we know that X_N-1 is simply connected
can we consider the loop starting at X1 as a loop in Xj?
since the triple intersection is nonempty
You could, but the loop still goes through X_1
We can only apply the inductive hypothesis if the loop goes through only N-1 of the sets
But if the loop exits X_1 through X_i and enters X_1 through X_j, pick a point x in the triple intersection
can we base point homotopy a loop based in X_1 not in X_N-1 to X_1 cap Xi cap Xj?
Now you can take a straight line homotopy from any path in X_i to one starting at x
And same for any path in X_j
Because they're convex
oh ok yea
you just straightline homotopy to some point in the triple intersection
But uh smol problem
The loops still passes through X1
So your loop based at p in X_1 is homotopic to one that goes p --> x --> (loop outside of X_1) --> x --> p
When I said "outside of X_1" I should have said "inside X_2 \cup ... \cup X_N"
As in, it can be considered as a loop in the smaller union
bad notation lol
But yeah if you can see the picture it's clear
We need the triple intersection condition to rule out something like an annulus made of a bunch of overlapping balls
Where only two balls intersect
clarift for a qhick second
So
p is where
oh lol
Loop starts at p in X1
Epic bus stop ipad art
then you are saying there is a loop that goes from p to x where x is in trippe intersection to (a loop outside of X_1) to x which can be contracted to a x since Xn-1 is simply connected by our assumption, and then back to p
So we pick an arbitrary loop (red) based at a point of X1
If it's not contained in X1, it exits through some Xi and enters again through some Xj
And you can homotope the parts in X_1 bit to the blue curve
ye
Now there's a loop based at x contained in the union of X_2 through X_n
By assumption, it is homotopic to a constant curve
and the loop from x exiting Xi entering Xj back to x homotopic to constant loop
and that new loop once homotopied is in X1 which is simply connected
Now that makes our path homotopic to (p --> x) * constant path at x * (x --> p)
Which is again homotopic to the constant path at p
You just have to justify each step formally now, and don't forget the base case
Sorta yeah
like what did we handwave?
Does it matter if i=j? Why can we homotope the red curve to the blue one? Etc
Just like, write it carefully
Mhm yea
I don't think we really handwaved anything though
If i=j same ish holds
If you can write it without any pictures and it still makes sense
Then I would say it's done
ok woo
rn im working on q that says construct explicit deformation retract of torus without a point onto a graph consisting of two circles intersecting in a point ,longitudinal and merdidinal circles of the torus
i get the intuition sorta
but explicit homotopy is wow
How explicit lol
If a sequence of pictures is explicit enough
Then you can do it
If they want like Cartesian coordinates for the graph at each time, that's kinda nutty
It might help to consider the torus as a quotient of [0,1] x [0,1], where the parallel edges are identified (so they go to the two S^1's in the quotient)
Yeah I see
cartesian coordinates cant be too hard right?
Like using fundementalnpolygon
and then removing point on it
and that should deformation retract onto boundary right?
Yes exactly
I mean like
Explicit enough to put into a computer and get a video out of it
lol
Of a torus embedded in R^3 retracting onto the wedge of circles
I t might be doable with cartesian coordinates?
It is doable, it's just tricky
but tbh idk how to check for continuity easily
We have S1 x S1 x I -> S1 V S1 is our goal
naming this map f
Oh, if you want a formula I'd recommend the fundamental polygon approach
Because you know how to write a formula for the deformation retract of a punctured square onto the boundary
sorta
like
lemme guess
I x I -p
f(x,y) =
idk wait a second
im trying to put points directly left of removed point to left boundary
(I don't think you need a formula though. Descriptive pictures are explicit enough here)
I should be able to write a formula
You can take the straight line homotopy
I can?
For each (x,y) in the square, there is a unique line (x,y) --> p
Follow that line to the boundary
oh true
hmm its kinda hard though
because there are two options
and you want the closest line to the boundary
then I would need to show its continuous and its a retraction
if i have the floor funciton on the lower limit topology (f: R_l -> Z), how do I show this is cts? Can I just say like for each x in the preimage of f(U), U in Z, make some set [x, x+1), and then their union is in the lower limit topology and contains any x so the preimage is open?
idk about this choice x+1
i think this works but i am Not sure
Inb4 I say it’s cuz the function is lower continuous I think
Anyway
What topology are you putting on Z?
@limpid leaf
@limpid leaf
its not givne
the previous question talks about some weird topology on the +ve integers
It’s kinda an issue if you don’t know what topology it has
The most natural topology is probably the discrete one
here is the context
In which case you only have to look at preimage a of points.
Yeah
okay so I dont need to do this union mess
No
Do you see why it suffices to look at points tho?
Actually since this is continuous for the discrete topology the topology on Z is irrelevant

If preimages of points are open no matter what you’re gonna be continuous
right
So when the points are open you’ll need to show the preimage a of the points are open anyway
So save yourself the trouble and only check those
it is true in general that continuity only needs preimage of a point open right?
or is it only in the case when the point in the target is open
I mean this will guarantee it
It’s not needed
But if you know it’s true
Then regardless of the topology
You can write any open as a union of points
Then the preimage is the union of the preimages of the points
What’s really going on is
If T and T’ are topologies on Y and T’ is finer than T
Any map f: X -> Y continuous for the topology by T’
Is also continuous for T
Cuz any open set in T is gonna be open in T’
yes
So you already know that its preimage is open
oh and discrete is the finest topology
Yah
oh very pog
The statement holds for the domain too but it’s reversed
If T,T’ are topologies for X
T’ finer than T
Then f:X -> Y continuous for T is also continuous for T’
More open sets on domain = easier to be cts, more open sets on codomain = harder to be cts

hey
Is this correct folks:
standard topology on R:
open sets: (a, b), empty set, R
closed sets: [a, b], [a, b), (a, b], singletons, empty set, R
are you trying to write all the open sets? if so, you have missed many
or just a basis
i am trying to find the interior and closure of (-1, 1) U {2} 😄
singletons are closed i believe
like that {2} is [2]
singletons are closed because $\mathbb{R} \setminus {x} = (-\infty, x) \cup (x, \infty)$ is a union of intervals, hence open
Kogasa
$[a,b)$ is not closed, because its complement $\mathbb{R} \setminus [a,b) = (-\infty, a) \cup [b, \infty)$ is not open
Kogasa
since there's no open interval containing b, which is contained in [b, infinity)
int is just (-1, 1) i think!
yes
there's many ways to compute the interior so i'm not sure which you did
a point $x \in (-1,1) \cup {2}$ is interior if there is a basic open set $(a,b)$ with $x \in (a,b) \subset (-1,1) \cup {2}$, so you just need to ask "which points can I put an interval around without leaving the set?"
Kogasa
that is true
like, you know the interior is the union of all open sets contained in the set
yes
so you should argue that each point in (-1,1) comes from an open subset
each point in (-1, 1) is contained in (-1, 1) U {2}
but (-1, 1) U {2} is not an open subset of itself (in the topology of R)
otherwise, 2 would also be in the interior
but but the set sandwiched by the interior and closure dont have to be open i reckon
it can be any set
but I mean to say that (-1, 1) is the interior of (-1, 1) U {2}, you need to say that every element of (-1,1) is contained in an open subset of (-1, 1) U {2}
and also that those are the only such points
(i.e., 2 is not in any open subset of (-1, 1) U {2})
To say (-1, 1) is the interior of (-1, 1) U {2}, every element of (-1, 1), and only such elements, are contained in an open subset of (-1, 1) U {2}
yes
the question? 
int(A) = (x, 0) and cl(A) = [x, 0]?
oh!
R^2!
uh
let's see
instead of traditional sets we used open balls
to work with R2 in the past
those are the basic open sets of R^2, like the intervals (a,b) were for R
A is made up of many points
every point that has the form (x,0) for some x in R is in A
so it's the x axis
word
well
Every element of some open subset of the x axis on R^2, and only those elements, must be contained in the x axis
that subset sure sounds like it must be the x axis itself 😮
but if the x axis were closed, then i would be incorrect.
open subsets of R^2 are unions of balls
the x axis doesn't contain any balls
so the interior is empty
oh my
it is closed 🙂
which means
the closure is itself
WOOO
ohh wait
so say we have
X = {a, b, c}
and T = {empty set, {a}, {a, b}, X}
empty set, {a}, {a, b}, X are open
and {b, c}, {c}, X, and empty set are closed
but sets like
{a, c}, for example, are not open or closed
right
but kogasa
so
because no open subsets can be contained in x axis in R^2
is it right for me to assume that it is closed
I guess it's complement would be open
so i guess it is closed!
it is closed, right, but it's not because its interior is empty
it's because the complement is open like you said
Your awesome
may I add you as friend to DM you or
is that not how u operate
(respectfully)
i don't really do that, but there's a good chance you can find me or others here to help
do u ever privately tutor ppl? just curi
nope

Its from torus minus point to boundary
1 donut

but this is explicit
kind of yeah
wtf is this shit
I feel like you're tryna like
expand a hole
but then it disappears
but shouldn't there be like two rectangles now

naw dawg
it's a homotopy
a deformation retract
I believe now
I wasn't sure if this is a gaytopy of a punctured square or a homiemorphism

You should say “suck up the rectangle into the edge with respect to time”
yes, if i were being serious i would include some description
That will give them the great visual
probably nobody would actually want formulas, although you can get one pretty easily here
Topologists avoided the notation hell of differential geometers by just not writing anything down

topologists avoided the notation hell by making it literally impossible to write this shit down
topology was meant to be wiggly
don't try to chain it down with coordinates bwo
third option: merely expand brain
2 busy expanding dong
2 expand brain
No you supposed to suck up the rectangle
Into the edge
Slurp it up
Yummy
well it's supposed to be for a torus, so you might have to ask if that fucks with the gluing
Sadge
but again, no need for formulas at all
You should do it the other way
Take S^1
And then just
Like
Shell method
Body of rotation
I don’t know
Chmonkey forbidden art, run away

no weyl
c. doesn't make sense imo
The point (0:1:1) goes to (0,1/2,0)
under the parametrization
And (0,1/2,0) is not in U
(0,0,0) right?
fixed
We know that S is not a manifold
So it doesn't make sense to ask if the point is a critical point does it?
Can someone verify if I'm correct or if differential geometry has just fried my brain?
I'm sure it wants us to consider the map P: RP^n --> U \intersect S or P: RP^n --> S because every point is a critical point if we consider the map P: RP^n --> R^3 because of degree considerations
It can't be P:RP^n --> U because (0,1/2,0) is not in U
Thus, it must mean the map P: RP^n --> S
But asking about critical points of this map makes no sense
Because S is not a manifold
Is this an acceptable answer for c?
Yeetus
which implication are you having trouble with?
so let's say that you have a simplex $\sigma:[v_0, v_1, v_2] \to X$. The boundary of it will be $\partial \sigma = \sigma_{[v_1, v_2]} - \sigma_{[v_0, v_2]} + \sigma_{[v_0, v_1]}$ . Is it correct to say that $\sigma_{[v_0, v_2]} = \sigma_{[v_0, v_1]} + \sigma_{[v_1, v_2]}$? So if you draw a triangle with these sides with the correct orientation, going $\sigma_{[v_0, v_2]}$ with its orientation will just be going $\sigma_{[v_0, v_1]} + \sigma_{[v_1, v_2]}$, kind of like in a commutative diagram but I don't know if this is actually true
Tokidoki ✓
and here the boundary (\partial) goes from C_2(X) --> C_1(X) where C_2(X) is free abelian with generators the singular 2-simplicies and the same goes with C_1(X), so adding simplicies makes sense
you will have a dsigma on the left
These are formal sums, and don't just depend on end points
you could also have a sum of 1-cells whose end points don't meet in which case that interpretation doesn't make sense
ah yeah I see. I could have like 2\sigma_v0, v1 and I can't really interpret this, right?
also, what is dsigma? 
oh nvm lmao
right so this doesn't work?
nope
unless d sigma is 0 😌
Okay thank you so much! 
Okay so I'm trying to show that if I regard a cochain $\varphi \in C^1(X; G)$ as a function from paths in $X$ to $G$ then $\varphi(f \cdot g) = \varphi(f) + \varphi(g)$ if $\varphi$ is a cocycle. Here $\cdot$ means "concatenation". This should be really easy but I just can't figure it out. I think that I'm supposed to construct some sort of 2-simplex and look at its boundary but I don't really know how. Can I just construct like a 2-simplex such that the third side equals the concatenation of the other two in some weird way?
Tokidoki ✓
i think this should be false in general
If by concatenation of two paths you mean the reparameterized path which is f from 0 to 0.5 and then g from 0.5 to 1
then technically you have the distinction between the sum of two generators and a single generator, so they won't be the same element
However if phi is a cocycle then the result should hold.
ye phi is a cocycle here
I tried doing this lmao but it's wrong
Ok. Yeah. Well, consider the continuous function from the 2-simplex to the 1-simplex which sends 0 to 0, 1 to 0.5, and 2 to 1, and is linear elsewhere
sorry for the typo
wait i need to think about this for a minute
yeah.
Since cocycle means coboundary is 0
right
So consider the 2-simplex which has edges f,g,f•g
Apply coboundary of phi on this
It should be 0
so compose the function I mentioned with f \cdot g : I -> X
Then you have exactly what you asked about earlier toki, but with d sigma = 0
yeah I thought of this but isn't it weird to construct a simplex with third of its side equal to f*g?
Not hard to prove such a 2-simplex exists
oh
yeah okay then I got it
I just thought that it was weird to do so lmao
okay well thank you both! 
degenerate simplices have a lot of uses. one cool one is that the product of degenerate simplices is not necessarily degenerate. so you can think of degenerate simplices as just waiting to be multiplied by another simplex to become nondegenerate
I'll give an example
Consider the singular 3-simplex in the unit interval $ \sigma : \Delta^3 \to I$ which sends $w_0$ to $0$, $w_1$ to $0$, $w_2$ to $0$, $w_3$ to 1, and the rest is by linearity. Similarly let $\tau : \Delta^3 \to \Delta^2$ which sends $w_0$ to $v_0$, $w_1$ to $v_1$, $w_2$ to $v_2$, $w_3$ to $v_2$, and the rest by linearity. Then the product $(\sigma, \tau) : \Delta^3\to \Delta^2\times I$ sends $(w_0,\dots, w_3)$ to $((0,v_0),(0,v_1),(0,v_2),(1,v_2))$. But this is injective!
diligentClerk
someday I will figure out what the exact keywords are that trigger a clerk exposition 😌
simpl*
toki are you reading hatcher
ok lol. i was just gonna say that hatcher makes what IMO is a pretty good pedagogical choice, which is to teach simplicial homology using delta complexes. but delta complexes have one problem which is that from the delta complex structure of X and Y alone it's not obvious how to give a delta complex structure on the product X x Y. you would have to do it 'manually' just by triangulating each product of simplices... i'm speaking informally here but to make be more precise about what i'm trying to say, there is a category of 'delta sets', where a delta set is a combinatorial schema that encodes the data of a delta complex (kind of like an Abstract Simplicial Complex, there's an exposition of these in John Lees' book on topological manifolds), and a morphism of delta sets is a bunch of maps satisfying coherence conditions that encode the data of a simplicial map between delta complexes)
The category of delta sets does have products in the categorical sense but this product doesn't at all reflect the geometry of the delta sets. In other words the geometric realization of the product of delta sets doesn't agree at all with the product of the geometric realization of delta sets.
This problem can be solved by changing the definition of delta set so that degenerate simplices are permitted, simplices that in some sense only exist in the combinatorial level but get squashed down to nothing in the geometric realization
oohh okay I see, I was away for a bit so I couldn't read it immediately lmao
but yeah okay I see, thank you so much!

do you want me to tell you what a delta set is? maybe later would be good as i'm probably at risk of overstaying my welcome rn by turning this brief answer to your question into an extended monologue.
it involves some amount of technical detail but i find that having a precise definition makes it just a hair easier to extend what hatcher is trying to do
ask me sometime if you're curious lol
ye I think that I will ask later today if I can because my next lecture starts soon 👀
well i should ask first if you like category theory or you think it would make things unnecessarily confusing
I haven't read this.
i really like it
Definitely when someone opens a book titled "A categorical approach" they might be worried that the authors are like, annoying category theory zealots. this seems like a good way to clarify that, by makig the first sentence in your book a lawvere quote
i have read nothing from riehl and had vry little other cat theory exposure outside the minimal amount contained in my ab alg courses
so this book had the most i had seen
idk if other stuff is better
serge lang: basic mathematics: a categorical approach
is that a sarcastic nice or a sincere nice 

i can only talk about category theory writing in a weird superposition of sarcastic and sincere as I find category theorists obnoxious but I myself am a category theorist.
I think the characterization of the CH spaces as precisely the algebras of the ultrafilter monad is extremely fascinating but I am a little bit unsettled about how they were so desperate to blurt this out that they just said it without explaining what a monad is or what an algebra is, before they have talked about adjunctions or even limits or colimits. I also think it's a bit memey for the primary citations to be of other extremely popular and well known category theorists who get tons of media attention like Riehl and Leinster. It makes me feel these guys just all cite each other, and this is reinforced by the Lawvere quote at the beginning, sometimes I wonder if these guys think that they're the only ones who have figured out that mathematics is isomorphism-invariant.
maybe they just think it's so obvious that it's only really necessary to cite the other people who publicly think it is obvious
If this seems unjustified, it probably is, i'm bringing in lots of bias in the trunk, i see enough of category theorists who essentially just don't understand set theory at all and make bizarre claims about what set theorists believe. or they think modern set theorists fiercely defend views that were popular among set theorists in like 1930 and so they're just arguing with a strawman
or maybe they dont know anyone else :^)
the book looks fine. it's surprising how short it is but i guess a point set topology book doesn't have to be that long
i guess it is appropriate for books on point set to be modernized to prepare the student for CG spaces in alg top
I certainly never learned about CG spaces in any undergraduate class
ye same, but my whole undergrad was without any cat thy
like even my algebraic geometry elective 
My hot take is that even introductory algebraic geometry should be taught using sheaves
maybe not for undergrads but like, a first course at the graduate level should
That's what is happening in this year alg geo course 
And I have talked to my advisor to let me retake it
(My first course in AG was at the grad level and didn't use sheaves, which annoyed me)
i believe sheaves are basic in geometry
but there's a lot of fear around them. i don't think this is justified. you can use them for deep things or simple things. it's not a lot of technical baggage in my opinion
a space without a sheaf is ... naked
My institute underwent major policy change this year because there were too many issues and complaints with postdocs teaching many of the elective courses so now they are taught by a postdoc and a prof together and they are so much better 😌 we went from having 2 decent electives/sem to like 5
nice.
by decent I mean good quality and stuff I am interested in 
🙂
Question, if you take the set difference between an open ball and a closed ball inside it, would that be open w.r.t the metric topology?
I'm not sure you can express that as a union of basis sets (open balls)
Open set minus closed set is always open
Oh duh! Thanks!
Well it doesn’t matter I guess but I am still noob at cat theory so idk lol
But a cat theory seminar is about to start so I will come back soon
I will come back in 2 hours if that’s fine
category theory is incredibly based
it's pretty different from anything you're likely to have done beforehand
yea but all my proofs feel incredibly sloppy
and the basic notions are pretty sophisticated
idk when this will change
it takes time
i literally could not read bott & tu, and barely could read hatcher, but after just kind of struggling through it for a while it all fell into place
);
i don't even know when it happened, but looking back it must have happened at some point
because now i can read them
I am understanding homology easier
I dont understand his first section of book well and the exercises are sometimes confusing
like this one
always so wordy
Rn im stuck on showing converse of the iff statement
So [f],[g] conjugate means [f] = [h][f][h^-1] for some [h] in pi_1(X)
I dont precisely know what phi is
natural map sounds silly
cus how i see it
phi takes homotopy classes of loops in X to homotopy classes of functions S^1 to X
and thats sorta natural because we can consider F:I x I -> X as F':S^1 x I \to X since F(0,t)=F(1,t)
So we know that that So we have that there is a homotopy $G:I\times I\to X$ with $G(s,0) = f$ and $G(s,1) = hgh^-1$ and $G(0,t)=G(1,t)=x_0.$
Millionaire
exactly yes
But from here im not sure how to put this through phi to get that \phi[f]=\phi[g]
it's taking "loops up to basepoint preserving homotopy" to "loops up to homotopy"
so phi is kind of like an inclusion map
you can view a loop as a continuos function from S^1 to X
yea I wrote that in for the first part
but it's not necessarily injective: you can have two loops which are homotopic, but only if you can move the basepoint in the homotopy
yea lots of places I looked up called them a free homotopy
there's also a lot more stuff in [S^1, X] because you have loops based at any point
wait a second
is it true that phi(x)=phi(\beta_h(x)) where \beta_h is basepoint homomorphism
a basepoint preserving homotopy?
certainly, because phi is defined on basepoint preserving homotopy classes
this is just the claim that phi is a well defined map
what are basepoint preserving homotopy classes?
when i said basepoint homomorphism I meant change of basepoint
oh, conjugation by (homotopy classes of) a path x_0 --> y_0?
yea
"basepoint preserving homotopy classes" are just equivalence classes of paths which differ by a basepoint preserving homotopy
base point preserving homotopy is the keyword qq
as in, a continuous map H(x,t) : S^1 x [0,1] --> X so that H(0, t) = x_0
oh ok yea
What is difference between basepoint preserving homotopy and the homotopies found between elements of equivlanece classes of fundemental groups
if [x] and [y] are conjugate then phi([x]) = phi([y])?
the basepoint preserving homotopy classes are the elements of the fundamental group
but whats the point of writing H:I x I\to X, H(0,t)=H(1,t)=x_0
i get its the same
as opposed to what
but do I need to show an equivalence of definitions or something or do you think that is too tedious?
as the definition with S^1 instead of another copy of I?
ye
if you have never done it before, you should maybe do it once
then there's no need IMO
ok
it depends on the grader/professor though
true true
So I get that [f] =[hgh^-1] implies there is a homotopy between the two, f and hgh^-1
from here I want to apply phi, but not exactly sure how
remember that phi just forgets about the basepoint
so to say phi([f]) = phi([hgh^{-1}]) you just need to find a homotopy (not necessarily basepoint-fixing) between f and hgh^{-1}
you know there's no basepoint preserving one in general, since that would mean [f] = [hgh^{-1}] in the fundamental group
we have that X is path connected though
I guess for this line, doesnt [f],[g] conjugate imply [f]=[hgh^{-1}] implying there exists a homotopy between the two?
or do I have some crazy fatal flaw?
there is a homotopy between f and hgh^{-1} that preserves the basepoint
yes
since X is path connected dont we have that change of basepoint homomorphism is an isomorphism?
yes
im still thinking in terms of basepoints though
i dont know how phi explicitly removes talking about the basepoint tbh
phi takes "a loop based at x_0" to "loops"
ya
the image of phi is still "loops based at x_0" but we no longer use that basepoint information when thinking about the maps between loops
so two "loops based at x_0" that are not equivalent in the fundamental group might now be equivalent through a homotopy which moves the basepoint
So yea
Im thinking about the change of basepoint map from P:pi_1(X,x_0)\to pi_1(X,x_1)
and im wondering does this mean that for any path between x0 and x1
we have \phi[x] = \phi(P[x])
im thinking from what you just said yes
but im not sure how to show explicitly
because using this fact I would just show that \phi[f] = \phi([hgh^{-1}] = \phi(P[hgh^-1])=\phi[g]
one issue is that paths with distinct endpoints are always homotopic to a constant path
but paths with the same endpoint (loops) are not
if you have a path from x_0 --> x_1 where x_0 and x_1 are different, then the change of basepoint map is an isomorphism
how does this problem come up? arent f and hgh^-1 and g loops?
they are
it does
it takes equivalence classes of loops to loops
loops based at x_0 to loops
yes, both equivalence classes under two kinds of homotopy
Oh boom
I can just quote the question
boom
like youve said too
it has no conditions of basepoint
so i can just change basepoint with basepoint homomorphism and all is good
how do you know that [f] [hfh^{-1}] are homotopic
we assume [f],[g] are conjugates
that's what we want to show
im thinking yea for path connected
you should construct a homotopy explicitly
yes
well uh
we want F:I x I \to X F(s,0) = f F(s,1) = hfh^-1 , and we dont care about the basepoint begin preserved ig
and we want this cts
um
Naturally id try something like F(s,t) = f(s)*(1-t) +hfh^-1(s)*(t)
but this isnt it me thinks
it is continuous but is it contained in X?
like is f(.5)(.5) + hfh^-1(.5)(.5) in X?
I just wrote this
rip
this would hold true if I show that [f] homotopic to [hfh^-1] like you said
so here is the idea
to get a homotopy from hfh^{-1} to f
you have to move the basepoint along h
so at time t, the basepoint is at h(t)
ok
and the loop starts at h(t), finishes going around h, then goes around f, then goes around h^{-1} til it reaches h(t) again
um
so i need to do it in cases
no
So I want f(0)*(something) = h(t)
because you said i want the basepoint to move along h at the time t
i get the visualization for why they are homotopic
its literally this
but idk how to write out explicitly which is hardest part ig
How would I properly represent at time t, the basepoint is at h(t)
ig having a parameterization for hfh^-1 would be nice
so hfh^-1(s) =
{h for 0<s<=1/3,
f for 1/3<s<=2/3,
h^-1 for 2/3<s<=1
this is the picture
wtf
remember a homotopy is just a map [0,1] x [0,1] --> X
so we can visualize it in a square
ya
diagrams like this are very helpful
i did it backwards here, so at time t=0 the loop is f
and t=1 the loop is hfh^{-1}
ye ok
so at time t, the basepoint is at h(t), you move from h(t) --> x_0 along h, take f, then move from x_0 --> h(t) by h^{-1}
yes
so yea
writing that as an equation is confusing
also what are those black lines?
the basepoint x_0
let h_t(s) be the path that runs from h(t) to x_0 along h
then H_t(s) = h_t(s) * f * h_t(s)^{-1}
h_t(s) = h(s+t) for s from 0 to 1-t
then you just rescale that so it fits in the square, s should go from 0 to the line t = 3s
t=1/3s?
or no
3s
i sorta get what ya saying
H(s,t) = h(s+t) * f * \bar{h}(s+t)
but f depends on
if you want this to be a map from [0,1] x [0,1] --> X you need to scale s a bit
ya
so that the path h(s,t) runs from s=0 to s=t/3
and the second path h^{-1} runs from s=1 - t/3 to s=1
this should only take a minute to write down
so for understanding
say we fix t = .5
this means that the path h_.5(s) = h(2s) for s in[0,1]
like scaling t should control how far we traversed our path h
so h_.5(s) should shorten path in half
but i guess for the sake of the homotopy your way is probably better
$h_{0.5}(s)$ is the path running from $h(0.5) \to x_0$
Kogasa
yea
from $s=0$ to $s=\frac{0.5}{3}$
Kogasa
h(0) to h(0.5) is the path h(2s) no?
oh wait
i see
my way works also though if u just keep s in [0,1], no?
not sure what you mean
so say you have a path q from x_0 to x_1 with q(0) = x_0 and q(1) = x_1
If you want the path fro q(0) to q(0.5)
then q(2s) does the job for s in [0,1]
q(s/2)
we are trying to fit all three paths into [0,1]
so h_t(s) should run from s=0 to s=t/3
so would h_t(s) = h(ts/3) work?
wait lol
so we need to change bounds of s for this to work ):
so wait
then H(s,t) = h_t(s) * f(??) * h^-1_t(s)
we want at s = t/3 f(s) = 0
im thinking?
so we want a variable s' such that s'(0) = t and s'(t/3) = 1
there is a unique linear function s' satisfying this
with slope (1 - t)/(t/3) and y-intercept t
so s'(s) = t + s(1-t)/(t/3)
hey! reading free groups and graphs in algebraic topology. i have a question
what is a path in a graph
afaik its path of normal graphs
Hausdorff
i mean how do i expect this to be continuous
that's just the definition of a path in any topological space
graphs are just points
yea
you can show u continuous
ok my prof said that edges can be thought of as copies of intervals [0,1]
oh ok so if i have a graph with 3 vertices {a,b,c}
and i want a path a -- > b --- > c
can you help me write u explicitly?
mhm
you would have to move along the edges a --> b and b --> c
if you parametrize the edges, then you can write the path explicitly in terms of that parametrization
good question idk how to show that explicitly, but if graph is in cartesian coordinates you can use point slope formula
ig parametrizing edges
but how do you do that w/o embedded in Cartesian
i see. if the edge a ---> b is represented by a copy of [0,1], and same for b ---> c
what do i do specifically?
my guess is you have to define a parametrization for edges on a graph
is it okay to say that [a,b] is represented by [0,1], and [b,c] by [1,2]? then i just define u so that u traverses 0 to 2
yeah i'm confused because my prof said "copies of [0,1] for every edge"
or uh
god knows what that means
you can say there exist a parametrization for every edge
let $e_{a,b} : [0,1] \to \Gamma]$ parametrize the edge $a \to b$ and similarly for $e_{b,c}$, then define $\gamma(t) = \begin{cases} e_{a,b}(2t), & t \le 1/2 \ e_{b,c}(1/2(t - 1/2)) & t \ge 1/2 \end{cases}$
Kogasa
Im sure its okay to say for every edges [a,b] there exist a parametrization e_[a,b] from [0,1]
kogasa
@abstract pagoda so the function s'(s) = t + s(1-t)/(t/3) satisfies s'(0) = t and s'(t/3) = 1 and is increasing and continuous
now just let $h_s(t) = h\left(t + s\frac{1-t}{t/3}\right)$
Kogasa
lol
also in graph theory we say that a graph is connected when there exists a path between any two vertices
is the notion of "connectedness" different here
for the other copy of h, you want to go from h(1) at s = 3(1-t) to h(t) at s=1
when we say connected graph, are we viewing the graph as a topological space
it is the same notion
or are they equivalent
a graph is connected in the sense you said iff it is connected topologically
Its connectedness applied to graphs when graphs are viewed as topologies
ok got it!
also is there a reference for this i can read?
where they have described how to view graphs as topological spaces
idk tbh
but i can help you come up with a definition later
like embedding a graph in R^n
and giving it subspace topology probably
no thats bad
because it doesnt give you all graphs
Lurker OP
you take a set of vertices
like my goal is to prove that the fundamental group of a connected graph is a free group
i was thinking something like skeleton of a simplicial complex but i havent thought about this enough
yeah its a 1d CW complex
so say your graph is G = (V,E)
You take the space to be disjoint union of V many points, p_v, corresponding to vertex v, and E many copies of the closed interval [0,1], q_e
Then for each edge e = (v,w), you glue q_e to p_v and p_w
ie you quotient by the equivalence relation: q(e)(0) ~ p_v and q(e)(1) ~ p_w
if you have a planar embedding of a graph, then the topology is the subspace topology. all the above is necessary because most graphs aren't planar, and the subspace topology would get fucky with edge crossings
like this red guy should be an open set, but in the subspace topology it's not, because open neighborhoods of the crossing point (which is not a vertex of the graph) are kind of + shaped
planar is only for R^2 though
$H(s,t) = h(t+\frac{3s(1-t)}{t}) * f(s-1/3???) * \bar{h}(t+\frac{3s(1-t)}{t})$
Millionaire
but take a planar embedding and now you're fine
It's fucky when you have like non second countable graphs
yeah that's why i said most graphs aren't planar
Yeah but millionaire talked about embedding in R^n
rip
You could have a graph with uncountably many edges
and this will be non second countable and non embeddable in R^n
I have that for X being set of n lines through the origin, I need to compute pi1(R^3-X)
i get the idea
R^3-0 homeomorphic to S^2
each line can be uniquely described with antipodal points of sphere
after here im a little iffy
homotopy equivalent
oh yea mb
there is a deformation retract between them
i think the idea is to quotient out the antipodal points as a way to identify them as lines
and then remove those n lines
quotienting out antipodal points of S^2 gives RP^2
once you establish the homotopy equivalence you can just compute the fundamental group of the 2n-punctured sphere
because this induces an isomorphism of fundamental groups
i know 2 punctured sphere is cylinder
but after that im a bit lost
thats why me thinks I should quotient by antipodal points and then remove n lines from RP^2
but idk what fundemental group of RP^2 is yet
so it doesnt even matter
maybe it would help to take one of those punctures and widen it up, flattening the 2n-punctured sphere into the (2n-1)-punctured plane
nah cant visualize it
and def cant write anything explicitly with time constraints ):
Cylinder is homotopy equivalent to punctured disk
this is what i get for doing it last minute ig
I think this is what kogasa is saying
tru
Don't think about the sphere now right
but how?
Like removing 2 points is punctured disk
ok
Removing 2 points from the sphere after that is same as removing 2 from the punctured disk
2n punctured sphere is h equiv to 2n-1 punctured disk
TC-OWTU-487.pdf
im losing itlol
Yeah that is correct
gonna read this, looks like a good intro to topologies on graphs
Bruh you wanna read a 260 page book on topological graphs?
and that corresponds to 2 more points in S^2-p1,p2,p3,p4
ah but uh
ig i have smol issue
Just read about CW complexes instead if you want definitions
idk fundemental group of that bullshit
no just the first chapter
maybe
right that's what i want
they become a bunch of circles
do i read Hatcher?
And Hatcher has some sections on computing the fundamental group, homology etc of graphs
Yes
o i think i know that they deformaiton retract to wedges prdocuts?
Yes

ill be back in like 1 hour prolly
Me back 😎
The lecturer talk about the universal property of quotients and fundamental groupoids 
yeah that's true, that's pretty true
this was so fricking nice tho
next time he will talk about hom functors so maybe he will mention something about cohomology or something too idk
assuming they haven't covered like, simplicial homology / de rham cohomology yet
the only thing i can think of is like hochschild homology
and i don't think they would be talking about that
ye that's true but he emailed and said that there will be stuff about algebraic topology
it's a seminar but it's really chill, we can basically choose what we want to learn kind of
we just email him like "yo talk about this"
and then he does lmao
there's like 4 people there including me
well idk, probably someone but there's no one from my class in that seminar
you mean me?
lmao that's too hardcore
why this is a covering space of S^1 v S^1?
When you identify the 2 points you get wedge of 4 circles
2 labelled a and 2 labelled b
You identify corresponding circles
Whenever you have a quotient, you can quotient in steps because isomorphism theorems
thanks
@pearl holly homology rocks
but my prof goes too fast for me
come back here at 9pm est so we can talk homology more
also maybe talk about computing some homology groups
and reduced singular homology, I think that has to do with augmentation thingy
nah
im just gonna be doing hw watching anime and make dinner
Imma go to sleep soon tho
in a couple of minutes
ye like there's no point in waiting I think
I will come back tomorrow at like 17:00 European time or some shit like that
3:00 PM GMT
,ti gm to est


