#point-set-topology
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I have many small blocks of information but can't fit it all together. Top spaces, metric spaces, convergence, completeness, Hausdorff... it'll take me a while to completely understand and separate this concepts
Right, will help to just look at a bunch of examples and non examples of each
Thank you mate. I'll come back later with more questions (smarter ones I hope) ahaha

Ah, again on the integers.... the positive integer line is Hausdorff? Because if x=2 and y=3, I don't see how I can get 2 disjoint open sets containing them both
Balls of radius half are open
And they are just singletons
Like if you just look at definition of ball of radius r
It doesn't say there needs to be a point at all possible distances less than r
I'm not using the standard topology
based on balls
I'm trying to think of open sets in the topology, without using the ball definition
But, yeah, then I didn't define the topology for the space I'm dealing with
The metric topology is defined by balls ๐
Forget the metric for a while
ah
So what's the topology that you are taking on the integers?
Hausdorffness depends on the topology
Let's suppose the discrete topology to start with
Then {x}, {y} form a separation of x and y by disjoint open sets
even if x and y differ by one?
Yes, discrete topology means everything is open
well, if all sets are open, then {x} is open and so is {y} and they are disjoint. ok
then the definition that a single point in a hausdorff space being closed is contradictory
If we just understood the integers to compose a Hausdorff space
Since any 2 points have a disjoint open around them
open doesn't mean not closed if that is the confusion

So... in the discrete topology, all sets are also closed?
Yep
Yes
Now I get why this topology is useless hahaha
ok, gotta get back here, thank you again
(its not useless for the record)
Please, elaborate further
There are many spaces for which the discrete topology is the most natural one
It is also an important formal thing in category theory of top
A lot of counter-examples of uniform spaces are just discrete spaces with neatly chosen uniformities
anyone familiar with lax pairs?
yooo monikernel long time no see
why is it that in the metric topology, if x_0 \in U where U is some open subset, then there exists some ball centered at x_0 contained in U
in metric topology open balls form basis
In particular if x_0 is in U then there's some open ball it belongs to
then find such ball centred at x_0, contained in U
oh i forgot the traditional definition of basis
i was thinking a set U is open if it is expressible as a countable union of basis elements
but the other (equivalent) definition makes this obvious
thanks
this is almost true. The union doesn't have to be countable
oh arbitrary unions?
For example taking R with discrete topology, sets of the form {x} form a basis and any uncountable set is uncountable union of basis elements
I see
Another stupid question: this \ {0} means "excluding zero" ?
Yes
How do I show the second condition of this being a basis? For $f \in C([0,1]$ and $\varepsilon >0$, let $U(f, \varepsilon) = {g \in C([0, 1]) \colon \int_0^1 |f(x) - g(x)| < \varepsilon}$. Then the collection of $U(f, \varepsilon)$ is a basis for a topology on $C([0,1])$. I was sort of able to do something like
let $h \in U(f, \varepsilon_1) \cap U(g, \varepsilon_2) \Rightarrow \int_0^1 |[f(x) + g(x) - h(x)] - h(x)|$ and let $k = f(x) + g(x) - h(x)$, $h(x) \in U(k, \varepsilon_1 + \varepsilon_2)$, but I'm not sure if that's the right choice for $k$
jesse

well assuming I did what I did so far right. I think I've shown that there is a thing that contains stuff in teh intersection
is that all
i feel like I missed something
Oh, I'm pretty sure I did this exercise in Dugundji book
I was getting constantly stuck just like you
Iโm guessing you havenโt proved there is a metric on C[0, 1]? Because the proof of this is the same in every metric space
Yeah I figure this is a metric but no we haven't discussed metric spaces
sorry it was a different exercise but similar 
well, since it's a metric space like kxrider said, you can just take k = h and epsilon small enough
Yes sir
Thank you!
Context: New to proof based math | really struggling in topology course | will be in here constantly =[
Problem
So, I get that: for the plane to be open in R^2, there must be a ball centered at each point in the plane, where each ball is also entirely contained inside the plane
Something I'd do is find the length of a given point from the line Ax + By = C
Do you see why that'd help geometrically?
let me try and see sir
The easiest way for me to show this would be to show that the complement is closed
oooo
and I'd do this using that a set in a metric space is closed if for any converging sequence from it, the limit is also in that set
This is beyond my knowledge atm
I have never written a proof without assistance :/
I am very new
Hard for me to take your guy's advice and put it into work
Well it's the distance from the line that matters actually
But what I did above hopefully helps
Which is a in your example
the distance, a :o?
Ye
So the idea is if you have an open ball radius, say, a
That'll be contained in the open half plane too
The case for general A B and C is basically the same
:)
wdym?
I just set B and C to zero to make it visually simple
ooo okay
By rotations etc
You can also define f(x, y) = Ax + By - C and observe that your set is the preimage of (-inf, 0), which is open, so it is open
Now, by 'the proof', i don't know how to do the proof
I have been stuck on this problem for hours
Nice
I'm sorta surprised you're doing topology if you're not used to proofs - are you studying another subject out of interest?
I am majoring in applied math
ive done a ton of calculus
and some linear algebra
Ah, fair yeah makes sense
never any proofs
i wanted to see how a proof-based class would be
and boy
do i regret that
this aint nothing like what ive done
It will be worth it
totally blowing my mind
ive already learned a lot, but as i said, i need to be walked through every proof before i can get the hang of it
I would compensate you for more in-depth tutoring... I've tried so many resources
Chegg, Discords, Stack Exchange
The textbook
im desperate lol
down bad rn
I'm definitely not the one who should be tutoring lol, nor do i have time unfortunately oop
Sorry
But yeah best of luck :)
do u know any good resources :p?
Like
I just straight up dont know how to do this proof
How do I learn?
It sounds like you'd like smth just for general proof writing/strategies?
I'd recommend looking at any uni's intro to proofs / intro to uni math(s) courses if possible i guess
@limpid leaf did you ever figure out your problem?
no, i have something else to do but ill prob return to it in an hour or so
aight you can ping me if you want a hint or something
literally just started reading guillemin and pollack
why does he not mention smoothness of transition maps in the definition of a smooth manifold?
what's their definition of a smooth manifold
subset of R^n such that every point has a coordinate neighborhood in the subspace topology
To my understanding this is also assuming that all smooth manifolds embed in euclidean space
Take me back to Tu 
Oh and a smooth function on a set is defined as a function that can be extended to a smooth function on an open set containing the set in the embedding space R^n, in which case smoothness js defined in terms of partials
smoothness of the transition maps might follow from their definition
i remember something similar in spivak's com
cant wait to relearn basic manifold stuff with slightly different defs 
I will think about this
Is there a classic example of a function which is only finitely differentiable?
something like x^2 sin(1/x) for x != 0 and 0 for x = 0?
if you wanted to find a function with k derivatives but not k + 1 derivatives, you could keep taking antiderivatives of something like the absolute value function
Ah I see. That weird oscillating boy, of course
related: there are smooth (infinitely differentiable) functions which are not analytic (locally equal to a Taylor series) anywhere https://www.chebfun.org/examples/stats/Smoothies.html
(for a less extreme but simpler example, every derivative of e^(-1/x) approaches 0 as x --> 0, so extending it by 0 for x <= 0 gives a smooth function whose Taylor series at x=0 is 0)
This holds in the usual definition by the Whitney embedding theorem, although not necessarily in an obvious way (an n-dimensional manifold might embed into R^n or R^(2n), or anywhere in between)
the fact that the Whitney embedding is smooth is required to transfer the smooth structure of R^(2n) to the n-dimensional manifold
by definition, an embedding M --> R^(2m) is an isomorphism from M onto its image in the subspace topology, so it makes sense to say "each point has a coordinate neighborhood in the subspace topology"
finally, an embedding induces an injective linear map on the tangent space at each point, so the coordinate neighborhood at a point pulls back to a coordinate neighborhood in M
if read carefully, each of these is an equivalence, so that definition is equivalent to the standard one
is every n-simplex simply connected?
Let X be a topological space with an equivalence relation ~. Let Y be a subspace of X and let ~^* be the induced equiv relation on Y. Prove that Y/~^* is homeomorphic to Y/~ where Y/~ is given the subspace topology
i think that it is
Using universal properties
if anyone can help me understand this part
"As LN is connected (it is homeomorphic with [0,1]), we conclude that LnโU."
how do we conclude Ln is in U?
more than that, it's homeomorphic to an n-dimensional ball
Ln is connected, and we know Ln \cap U \cap V = \emptyset and Ln C U \cup V
So either Ln C U or Ln C V, because Ln is connected
Now since a point of Ln is in U
And that Ln \cap U \cap V = \emptyset
That point can't be in V
So Ln must be included in U
Is this clearer ?
Yep thank you
Manifolds are of course locally eyclidean by definition. Does this local homeomorphism property imply the existence of a chart on the manifold?
I'm a dunce I originally wrote locally homeomorphic instead of locally euclidean
Rats I said that wrong and have tried to fix what I wrong.
I mean manifolds are locally euclidean. Does this locally euclidean property imply the existence of charts on a manifold?
Sorry if this is confusing
Exactly what you said previously
It seems like it is exactly the same but I want to be sure
Okay thank you
i would like this hint now xd
Define $d(f,g) = \int_0^1 |f(x)-g(x)| , dx$ for any $f,g \in C[0,1]$. If $h \in U(f, \epsilon_1) \cap U(g, \epsilon_2) $, we gotta show there is $\delta > 0$ such that if $d(h,k) < \delta$ then $d(k, f) < \epsilon_1$ and $d(k,g) < \epsilon_2$, right
kxrider

yes
yes okay i see what you are saying
wait dont tell em anymore this is good hint
thank u
haven't said much of anything yet but np ig 
ah okay
Given a chart (U,f) of some point on a manifold M on dimension k , is U uncountable?
I know an open set in R^k is uncountable and feel as though the homeomorphism transfers this but can't quite say.
if U is in bijection with an open subset of euclidean space, is U uncountable?
homeomorphisms are in fact bijections
okay maybe i need another push
I cant figure out the choice of k
I thought it would just be like h(x) + min(e1,e2)/2? or something
oh we aren't choosing k
only thing we get to choose is delta. shoulda made taht clear mb
oh okay
the idea is that we want U(h, delta) \subset U(f, epsilon_1)\cap U(g, epsilon_2).
I was just unpacking what this means
yeah
when k > 0 :^)
you're probably familiar with the triangle inequality on the reals, right? Think about how you could apply it to the integral of the absolute value of the difference of two functions. That'll help you get upper bounds for d(k,f) and d(k,g).
right yeah I figured it would be something like int(|f - k|) = int(|f - h + h - k|) \leq int(|f - h|) + int(|h - k|)?
Why do you write it like d(k, f)? I know it's symmetric but it seems you are meaning something else
because i don't want to write out the integral every time
oh, okay, no particular reason.
and yes
okay i figured as much
if I do this i get int(|f - k|) < e_1 + d? I am doing something wrong maybe
yep, thats right
But that doesn't mean k \in U(f, e_1) I thought?
unless delta is <= 0
maybe for this case you could get a delta that works but idk how it would also work for int(|g - k|)
well okay so the idea is really that
d(f,k) <= d(f,h) + d
if you bound by epsilon youve gone too far
like if you had d = min(e_1, e_2) - d(f, h) then you could have e_1 + min(e_1, e_2) - int(|f - h|) < e_1 + min(e_1, e_2) - e_1 \leq e_1?
oh

note we can define delta in terms of d(f,h) since d(f,h) is independent of our choice of k
so is what I said on the right track? or
ur close but what you have written d = min(e_1, e_2) - d(f, h) doesn't quite work. I don't think we can guarantee this is > 0
oh maybe like d(f, h)/2 would work?
well that would give d(f,k) <= 3e_1/2 at best
we want d(f,k) <= d(f,h) + d < e_1 and d(g,k) <= d(g,h) + d < e_2
yes
|| solve for d||
this works because d(f,h) < e_1 so e_1 - d(f, h) > 0
right
so whats our choice of delta?
we just want both of these inequalities
d(f,k) <= d(f,h) + d_1 < e_1 and d(g,k) <= d(g,h) + d_2 < e_2
to work out. The standard trick is to take d = min(d_1, d_2).
oh so you're saying d = min(e_1 - d(f,h), e_2 - d(g, h))?
right yes that works of course
nice
okay and so then d(f, k) < e_1 and d(g, k) < e_2 and so k \in d(f, k) cap d(g, k) and we are done?
Okay I just want to make sure of one thing which is that we are assuming d(h, k) < d right?
or does this follow from the definition of h and delta somehow
d(h,k) < d iff k is in U(h, d)
right sorry my confusion was with the fact that we have U(h, d) being an element of the basis but I now see this is clear
okay awesome
thank u so much
you rock
ye npnp.
Let M be a manifold and G a lie group acting smoothly on M
Let V be a vector bundle on M
is there a "canonical" way to lift the action on M to an action on V
so we could define g*(x,v) by (gx,v)
or we could define g*(x,v) by (gx, gv) and chose some representation
how can I go on to show that if $(X,D)$ is an anti-metric space (same as a metric space, the only difference is that it has the opposite triangle inequality) where $X$ is a set and $D:X\times X \to \mathbb{R}$ is a function then $X$ cannot have prime number of elements?
notsushY
okay well you have D(x, x) = 0 right? Now try to use the opposite triangle inequality
If you see cl(A) as the set of all accumulation points of A, would you not expect them to be in cl(A\cup B)?
yes, but how does it show that our X cannot contain prime elements?
the result is even stronger than that
oh wait
you mean "can not have prime cardinality"?
I think so, it just said prove that X cannot have a prime number of elements
okay then take this as a hint
On a topological manifold with a chart (U,f) is U necessarily uncountable by virtue of being homeomorphic to an open euclidean set?
homeomorphisms are bijections, so yes
I haven't read a single page since last meeting 
I don't really understand this. It feels like Hatcher claims that $C^n(\coprod_\alpha X_\alpha) = C^n(\oplus_\alpha X_\alpha)$ and then uses the fact that $C^n(\oplus_\alpha X_\alpha) = \prod_\alpha C^n(X_\alpha)$. But how then is $\oplus$ defined on spaces? I must be missing something
Tokidoki โ
lmao it's okay, you have a lot of other stuff to do
I think A_alpha are groups not spaces
ye right but what is the argument then?
Universal property of direct sums 
So maps out of direct sums are the same as a collection of maps, one from each factor
Same in the sense that there's a unique correspondence again
You can try proving this it shouldn't be too hard
This says that the direct sum is the coproduct in the category of ab groups
yeah okay I know that but I don't really understand how Hatcher uses this to prove (3)
oh to prove 3 
So like when I read "which implies that the cochain complex of a disjoint union..."
oh
Ye he isn't doing โ X_a
He's taking chain complexes of each X_a and then taking direct sum
And disjoint union takes direct sum of your chain complexes
Because you can just write a chain in the union as a finite sum of chains in each X_a
wait what do you mean by this?
Whoops I can't read
But he says
Direct product of the cochain complexes of the individual X_a
So he's not doing โ X_a
He's taking cochain complexes first
Then everything is abelian group so it makes sense to take direct product
okay wait let me think lmao
I still don't really see where the โ X_a comes in tho
maybe we can just take this on our next meeting where we can draw some stuff?
wait is $\text{Hom}(C_n( \coprod_\alpha X_\alpha), G) = \text{Hom}(\oplus_\alpha C_n(X_\alpha), G)$?
Tokidoki โ
man that is so ugly lmao
I'm saying it doesn't 
There is no product of spaces at any stage
wtf so how do you prove it then?
Yes
oh okay then I see lmao
Because those things are isomorphic before you even apply the hom functor
yeee right okay now I see. Thank you so much! 

Are nontrivial open sets in Rn necessarily uncountable?
open balls do be uncountable tho ๐
Trueeeeee.
in the case X=S^1 v S^1 i think i can descompose T_f in the two S^1xI's under relation
then the intersection of the two S^1xI under relation is just the preimage of the basepoint right?
preimage under f
and i think that the fundamental group of each S^1xI under relation is Z^2 because it deformation retract onto torus, is this right?
Yeah in fact they are of size continuum. A lot of descriptive set theory is about proving "continuum hypothesis" for special subsets of, in particular, R^n. That is, they're countable or of size continuum.
For example closed and in general Borel sets of R^n
Math made me burnt out and I switched over to reading some physics so I never showed to any meeting even thought I told Toki I would ๐
Still am on 2.2 lmao
I got a little demotivated when I couldn't really do any problems well
I could ๐
Tho I think I should practice my proofing more?
I dunno I'm just shit at these problems
yeah solving exercises always good
Yeah
I mean they're fun when you actually solve them lmao
Also maybe I should start taking notes while reading
You wonโt get the same answer for every map f
So no this is not correct
I didnโt understand your argument either though
This sounds wrong
But I didnโt quite catch your meaning
Thank you! This is helpful
T_f is the quotient space (S^1 v S^1) x I/~ and S^1 v S^1 is the disjoint union of two circles identifying a point, then we can descompose T_f in two S^1 xI/~
why?
Consider the map that swaps the circles
in this case T_f is like a mobius band?
so, can i descompose $(S^1 \vee S^1) \times I/\sim$ in the two $S^1 \times I/\sim\cup (S^1 \vee S^1,0)$?
Or x1
What will you do next
apply van kampen
You can split S1vS1 x I into two cylinders but the mapping torus cannot necessarily be decomposed that way. For example, if we take the swap map from earlier, than the two cylinders are connected to eachother by ~
Indeed separating at the wedge point x I would give you one big torus not two separate things
but if we attach (S^1vS^1,0) to the cilynder then there are two separete things right?
Can you use more words
we can descompose the space $(S^1 \vee S^1) \times I/\sim$ in the two cilynders union the wedge which is in the base of the cilynder $S^1 \times I/\sim\cup \lbrace (a,0)| a \in S^1 \vee S^1 \rbrace$
Or x1
Yes I think I get your meaning now
You can do this to apply van kampen yes, although the interesection should be like
S1vS1vS1
Er
Hm
No thatโs wrong my bad
I donโt know if this approach will work sorry itโs a bit early for me.
Base of the cylinder?
they intersect at all of the wedge points
At a minimum
Because the maps preserve basepoint this will look like one copy of S1
The issue is that depending on how crazy f is
I think the intersection of the two@cylinders can be very different
for example, let f be the identity. Then we get two tori glued along a circle, basically
so the two cylinders only intersect in S^1
However, if I change the map to the swap map, then the two cylinders have a larger intersection because now one cylinder's base is the other cylinders top
so you get S^1vS^1vS^1 if I am visualizing properly
so if we consider the cilynders union the wedge which is in the base of the cilynder then the intersection is the wedge which is in the base of the cilynder and all the basepoints x I
I am struggling to understand what you are describing here. Let's make things as precise as possible. Call the two circles circles a and b. Let $x\in S^1\vee S^1$ be the basepoint of both circles and the wedge. Then let $f$ be as above. If we decompose $T_f$ into two cylinders, we have to think about what the intersection might be. One thing we know for certain is that $f(x)=x$ so that the two cylinders intersect in ${x}\times I/\sim=S^1$. But they might have more intersection. If $f=id$ then this is the only intersection as I said above, but if $f$ is the "swap" map sending a to b and b to a, then the intersection will contain ${x}\times I$ as well as both circles a and b, because $\sim$ glues a to b and vice versa.
SupremumJ
Does this make sense @shy moss
I actually do think I know how to solve this formally with van kampen now though (before I just knew from intuition)
yes
Do you want a hint? I think you are on the right path
yes
Hint one: you want to use SvK, but you will have to do casework
Hint two (better hint): ||there are only three possible cases up to homotopy, given by having both a and b in the intersection, neither, or just one of the two without loss of generality||
Thank you so much
Haha I apologize too, when I read your first comment on the problem I noticed the casework and thought "there is no way thats the right method" and then realized it was lol
Iโm trying to prove the double cross product formula using exterior algebra, but Iโm stuck on $a\times [b\times c] = \star (a\wedge\star(b\wedge c))$
BIGfoot496
How to distribute the Hodge star over wedge product?
I vaguely remember it should be something like $\star(a\wedge b)=\frac{1}{2}\left(P_b(\star a)-P_a(\star b)\right)$
BIGfoot496
Where $P_a$ is some sort of projection parallel to a
BIGfoot496
But whether is it right and how to get a formula for it if it is, I have no clue
To be clear, this is only possible if the induced map f* is injective right? If f* = 0 the mapping torus is a cone, and if f*(a) = 0 but f*(b) != 0 then it's two circles attached to one
Injectivivity isnโt a big issue but I do think the trivial maps add cases indidnt think of
@shy moss
There are more cases
I mean the answer is completely uniform
But to apply SvK as usual you need some minor casework
The idea is like
f(a) is going to be contained either entirely in one circle or in two, then it matters which circle etc
i see
Injectivity of the induced map
I think I covered the case of f(a)=f(b)=a for example in my original
As that would be the single circle intersection case
Ok, I'm just not sure what these "cylinders" in T_f look like if f doesn't induce the identity map. If f* = 0 then the cylinders S1 x I in X x I are both (the same) circle {x_0} x I
In the quotient
And then there's the other few cases, if f* is identity, kills one generator, or swaps them
But if that doesn't seem to contradict anything that's been said then it's probably fine
Yes maybe your cylinders are secretly cones
In the cases where things are 0
This is a very messy solution to an elegant idea hahaha
It's not that bad, you can visualize the mapping torus in each case
It is messy relative to the intuition
in terms of having a handful of cases
its not so bad
Ok nevermind i think we both missed most of the cases
f* can send each generator to an arbitrary word in a,b
That is counted in my cases
Set theoretically that is just one or two of the circles
This suffices for van Kampen
Which then realized the correct relations
Realizes
I don't really know what your solution is
Are you saying your cylinders have boundary components (a neighborhood of a circle in X) and the image of that neighborhood?
So the intersection is homotopic to the cone over f(a) \cap f(b)
Sorry I keep having to go into classes lol, if you meant that by "cylinder" I think it works
If f*(a) = a^n and f*(b) = b^m for example then in SVK the fundamental groups are <a, c> and <b, c'>, and the generator [x0] for the intersection maps to c^n and (c')^m, which gives you the fundamental group for T_f
Amalgamating over the single relation c^n = (c')^m
I guess it is (homotopic to) a cylinder in the quotient, so I'm pretty sure this is what you meant
Hi this is my first time here so idk if I am doing this correctly
I'm a 4th year math major and I'm taking topology and was wondering if you guys had any tips for how to handle the class
Like important definitions to really get down or stuff like that
Its an intro topology class, I think its manifolds
Our book is introduction to topological manifolds by John Lee
Oh very different
Interesting
I think there are very few definitions not worth getting down ASAP
Pretty much everything in a class like that would be important
Assuming youโre interested in the material
Otherwise I donโt think the class would be all that different in terms of how you take it
Okay that makes sense, its a lot of set theory right now which isn't bad
Well
I'm just not used to using open sets to prove various things so the first homework is a bit rough
Thatโs the confusing part
If you class is on manifolds
Then it wonโt be too much of that
Esp if you are using Lee
Yeah I think it may just be the start
Point set is boring and a lot of definitions in say munkres arenโt that important
preimage has also been giving me some trouble because inverse and preimage use the same notation
I want to be a HS math teacher so im interested in this stuff because its math but other then that not really
Oh
I mean I doubt any of this would be relevant to high school mathematics but itโs cool stuff
Yeah for sure!
I'll probably be here a lot more often with various questions haha
@tough imp do you have a good intuition behind geometric points
like what makes them more "geometric" or something
what is a geometric point
Definition 2.1. A geometric point ฮพ\xi in SS is a morphism from the spectrum Spec(kยฏ)Spec(\overline{k}) to SS where kยฏ\overline{k} is an algebraic closure/separable closure of kk.
this?
So like
I guess the idea might be that Spec K -> X represents the K points in general
These are like the points that would show up as a variety
Then the geometry is more clear when K is like algebraically closed or something
Thereโs also a lot of properties about permanence of a property under field extension which you can check over just the algebraic closure or separable closure so maybe thatโs whatโs going on
I know thereโs theorems where you suppose that geometric fibres all have a certain property which is kind of like the fibre over these geometric points
And if those are well behaved then you have certain nice stuff but I donโt know enough specifics to give examples
maybe dumb question
but are there more points than geometric points
or is it just that assuming the domain is Spec of an algebraicly closed field is nice
Because obviously we can like take a point of an affine R->k and then compose with inclusion into kbar
and all this should be local right?
Second answer here gives some shit
Idk if you will understand any bit of it tho
There are points than even points over k
Any map from Spec of a field picks out a certain point
sure
Thereโs a stacks project thing about points of a scheme
Are these not determined by like an affine nbhd
Yeah
Well determined in what sense
Like
I think the answe is yes they are determined affine locally
this shows that for an affine scheme the points seen by all fields and seen by alg closed fields should be the same right
and a point of a scheme should be determined by like, an affine nbhd
Yeah sure
But geometric points are over a specific field
I think the k-points are gonna be in bijection with the geometric points by what you said
I see so you want to already be in like, the category of schemes over k or something?
Yeah
The definition has a fixed base field
But then i could just take k alg closed to start right
does it matter
The reason i am asking is that this comes up in the defn of a smooth morphism of schemes (over k)
oh
For a concrete example of a non geometric point, consider maps from specC to spec(C[x]) basically these correspond to maps from C[x] to C, so the preimage of the ideal 0 must be some maximal ideal (x-a)
Like you might be finite type
Then fail to be finite type
Like if you want to go from k to k-bar
I see
You should really be pulling back your scheme along that map
Or errโฆ
Yeah this is right
Itโs like taking a k algebra and tensoring with k-bar
Thatโs the new object you should probably be considering
Also I think the map does go the wrong way
You donโt have a map Spec k -> Spec k-bad it goes the other way
yeah
So you canโt go from schemes over k to schemes over k-bar by just a composition
Youโll need to take a pullback
Right okay
Which makes sense why we call that base change haha
maybe i just need to do some exercises related to the stuff i need to learn
This is a side point to me, but like
Not covered in a standard first year AG thing I think
in motivic stuff you really want to consider smooth schemes
motivic
and i have been struggling to get intuition for smooth schemes
Plsssssss
Oh yeah
Smooth schemes are a little fucked
When itโs a proper variety itโs easier (I mean proper not as in the technical term, I mean like โan actual varietyโ)
Because itโs the same as being regular
But in general smoothness is a lot trickier to define
If u wait till
Fall qtr is done
I should know a lot more about them
Since Alperโs class is covering this sort of stuff
รtale, smooth, flat stuff
I wanna take that class smh
ยฏ_(ใ)_/ยฏ
Oh well, I can take my time with this stuff and blackbox this
Im taking AG this year
You could ask brofib
should be fine
Heโd probably know this stuff better
Altho you might get memed on too hard idk
I know he was doing motivic shit
meme'd on?
Like
Yeah he wrote it for his reu paper
thats fine
Just ask him to try to dumb it down
i dont think that will be super necessary idk
ยฏ_(ใ)_/ยฏ
I at the very least didnโt understand a single word he said about what motivic cohomology is
motivation for cohomology
a lot of this stuff is emulating AT memes
@tight agate send me ur reu paper
โค๏ธ
I guess i can read it once its on peters website anyway
can someone just clarify what this is asking for me. am i supposed to show that T_B = T_usual? whrer Tb is the topology given by open recntalge basis
Yes
k thx
(it suffices to show that the given stuff is a basis for T_usual)
so i show that the union of basis elements are equal to T_usual?
no because that is what i originally asked
im rly confused by this definition
yeah i dont understand what you're saying actually max
it says that the image of a boundary chart cannot intersect the boundary of H
but then it says that a boundary point of M
is a point which is sent to the boundary of H under a boundary chart
just show that it is a basis for T_usual
using the basis axioms
bases generate a unique topology
so if something is a basis for one topology and another topology, those two topologies are the same
i tihnk i am just confused by the terminology "a basis for T_usual" because when i look at the defn of a basis in munkres it doesn't actually mention the topology, just the underlying set. Is B a basis for a topology T when we have that for any U in T, if x \in U then there is some b \in B st x \in b and b \subset U?
theres like 4 different ways of phrasing this idea i think and i clearly do not have them straight in my head yet
bc Munkres calls this a "topology T generated by B"?
i think this is what you are saying.
This is a definition yes
Given a topology T, a basis B for T is as you described
But pls never use lower case b for a set ever again
I thought the basis axioms were cover + in every intersection of basis is another basis containing x

its B \in \mathcal{B} but u know
Munkres might give weird defns
That is what normal people would call a sub basis
A sub basis is sufficient to generate a topology
A basis is more useful
what is a subbasis?
.
wtf
One sec let me make sure Iโm being sane
munkres says a subbasis is a colln of subsets of X whos union equals X
subbasis for a topology on X
๐
This is basis
This is sub basis
Whatever you described
Is useless
Wikipedia has the good definitions as far as I can tell
wikipedia says the same thing as munkres
- The elements of B cover X, i.e., every element of X belongs to some element in B.
- Given elements B1, B2 of B, for every x in B1 โฉ B2 there is an element B3 in B containing x and such that B3 is a subset of B1 โฉ B2.

Yes okay if this is what munkres says it is fine
The collection B here
Generates a topology T uniquely
In particular if I start with a topology T
And take a collection of open sets in T
That satisfy
This
Then it will also satisfy
This
okay and that collection of open sets is called a basis for T
Yes
Defining a basis not relative to a topology first
Is insane to me
I forgot munkres did that
So to solve your exercise
It suffices to show that the basis described satisfies
okay so if i am given this open rational square basis (say B) i want to just show that for any U in T_usual, if x \in U then there is some S \in B such that x \in S and S \subset U
Yes
okay and if i theoretically did not know this was a basis I would use the basis axioms (cover and intersection) to show that it was before I showed that it generates T_usual
If this is true and you know B subset T then you already know itโs a basis (exercise) in the Wikipedia sense
right this is a theorem
Ofc if B is not a subset of T this makes no sense to begin with
Okay one last thing
this has straightened things out
To maybe help
If you are wanting to build a topology by asserting a basis and taking the topology forced upon you, then the Wikipedia definition is good.
If you already have a topology and want to find a basis, the definition I gave is better
If you have a topology T and a collection of open sets B that satisfy the wiki axioms
Then B will generate T for you
Showing that these are all sensible definitions
right
I would almost call the definition relative to a given topology the like, real definition, and a basis that doesnโt have a topology yet some sort of formal basis almost
Itโs similar to taking a vector space and finding a spanning basis versus taking a set and freely generating a vector space
You will eventually become so intuitive about it that you will stumble over yourself explaining it to someone else like I just did
lmao
are the homotopy groups of a kan complex X equal to the homotopy groups of the realization of X?
thanks
Up to weak equivalence or homotopy depending on whether you say space or CW
It isnโt true up to homeomorphism
This is the so called homotopy hypothesis
i have remember that the realization is a cw complex
Even when restricted to CW the statement is false if you want homeomorphisms
Oh this role prevents me from seeing the discussion channels
it is exteriorly imposed self control
from the distractions and terrible content therein
I am a PhD student in topology, yes
how specific are you comfortable getting? i am as well, just curious
that is pretty specific
(I go by MaxJ on the server this name was a meme)
well cool, if your research is along the lines of his then I don't know anything about it
It is similar
(that was always the most likely scenario since I don't know much about anything)
I am interested at the moment mostly in like
computational obstructions to non-computational results if that makes sense
like
using down-to-earth if messy computations to prove that certain nice results are impossible
and things like that
that sounds good, i'm kind of trying to do something like that right now
obviously the "nice results" are completely different, but poking around for counterexamples with some software and basic reasoning
Cool, can I ask what kinds of things you study
I'm currently reading about link homology
Oh cool
There is something called a massey product which is related to what I study very heavily
If it turns out a half decent paper I might commit to it as a research area but for now it's preliminary
nope
the idea is that its like a triple-product that can detect things the cup product cant
so like, the cup product can see linked circles
but the borromean rings are a triplet of rings all linked as a triple, but no two rings are linked
so cup product can't see that
but the massey product can
(in particular the massey product can only be defined when the cup product fails)
I see, this is cool
Hi, I need help seeing why X = (two circles intersecting at two points) is homotopy equivalent to S^1 v S^1 v S^1.
Just drawing
Hopefully the formula wouldn't be too complicated
thats a full fledged proof as far as im concerned
Makes sense
I think I don't have an intuitive grasp yet of what "deformations" I can do
You can basically always choose a contractible subspace
and shrink it to a point
most of the transformations are gonna be of this form
you can also just move stuff around and stretch it however
I see!
be careful though
you have to do this one at a time
for example i could choose both edges of the inner venn diagram thing
and try to shrink both
and get the wrong answer
But it seems hard to me to figure how do the points near the subspace change
Well everything else sort of just follows the thing you shrink
but you shouldn't collapse or identify or glue anything extra
Do you have an example of something confusing
upper intersection?
do you mean like the x at the top intersection point
@marsh forge The upper blue point in the left space
i see
This would change nothing really
you'd have the point near the intersection go into the intersection
but everything else would stretch with them
and keep the same shape
Umm
So it would seem like the new inner circle has its vertex on the upper right area
By "vertex" I mean its intersection with the outer circle
Oh, I think I'm seeing it now!
Haha okay I am glad bc i was lost
Just to be sure, I tried to draw it as a graph
Is my reasoning correct? Here the green lines represent "auxiliary vertices"
The red lines represent the "new" edges that will result from the identification
ikr!
sorry I am not sure i get
what you are contracting
can you highlight it on the original image or smth
So we have an edge from each green vertex to its neighboring blue point
It will be replaced by the red edge
okay so in this example
I start with the space
i highlight a contractible subspace
and then i turn that subspace into a point
can you make a similar diagram for me
(in particular you don't need any arrows)
Yeah, but I thought thinking of it as a graph will make the argument more convincing.
Just a sec
Hopefully this is a bit better

So slim's idea is to identify v2 and u and v1
well
slim shrinks an entire subspace
not just 3 points
you need to shrink the entire line
I know, and they aren't there. It's just that we had an edge [w2, v2] and then it becomes [w2, u], after the identification is carried out.
I thought of it as a map defined on the vertices of a simplicial complex and then extended. The result will be the same, right?
I would not think about this simplicially honestly
But you diagram looks okay
now that I understand it
I think I shouldn't, but I just love how we can describe all this "finitely"
There was one which I found too hard to try: Wedge sum of two circles is htpy eq. to the punctured 2-torus
that one you won't be able to do simplicially hahaha
Also, removing a point is the same as removing a small, closed disk, right? As in, the results are homeomorphic
I was thinking about manifolds, yeah
Ugh
Can't I think of a triangulation with the point in one triangle and then remove that triangle?
^ good animation
It is good!
Good
Yes
I was kidding at first but now that I think of it, I have no other way of answering this question for, say, the Klein bottle
the triangles are always unecessary
In the polygon I'm imagining, we don't tell how we glue the edges
Actually we glue more than the edges
Munkres' algebraic topology book 
Are you doing pi_1 stuff?
This denotes the abstract simplicial complex whose proper faces are {a, b, c}, {a, d, e} etc
You don't need to triangulate stuff if you're doing pi_1 lol
Just take the space as is
He does more. I'm currently in the first chapter, which is about simplicial homology (the book doesn't touch homotopy)
I noticed why it's ~bad~ not optimal. He gives this exercise where you are supposed to compute the homology of n-fold sums of projective planes, but it's easier to see it as a polygon. To "convert" a fundamental polygon to a "triangulated" thing, I had to add too many vertices to keep track of stuff..
Hmmm..
Which book starts with homology and uses homological algebra to simplify things, but not too much hom alg as to be unreadable?
Starts with?
Probably no modern one
but Hatcher starts with pi1 and you can more or less skip it
I didn't know that - why?
Most books start with pi_1 for some reason
probably to be able to talk about hurewicz
Aha
He later treats singular homology and proves that it's isomorphic to simplicial homology
Hatcher does delta (an improvement of simplicial)
then cellular and singular
and proves them all equivalent
I think I'm not comfortable with how handwavy Hatcher can be, but that seems like a thing I can benefit from..
I do not think there are any legitimatley "handwavy" proofs in hatcher
outside of maybe ch0

I will consider it, thanks
Is a graph determined, up to homotopy equivalence, by its homology groups?
yes
Fair enough
note that up to homotopy
every graph is just a wedge of circles
so this is straightforward
(both facts are not too hard to prove)
I thought so but I had no idea how a proof (even handwavy) would go
Do you know much graph theory
Here I'll make it a guided exercise
Exercise 1: Given any graph G, it is possible to find a maximal sub-tree T, where by maximal I mean it touches every vertex
Exercise 2: Every graph is homotopy equivalent to a wedge of circles
Exercise 3: Every graph is, up to homotopy, determined by its first homology group
Hint, use this lemma somewhere
what about infinite graphs 
even in like the complete graph on countably many vertices?
I think that should be fine
(the theorem is true regardless, i am just not confident this proof works)
oh yeah nevermind, you could take like a horizontal axis and infinitely many parallel vertical axes (for a labeling of the vertices by NxN, but just the chain (n --> n+1) works for N)
I can vaguely see how every vertex not in T introduces as many "twists" as it has edges to T, or something..?
Like if v is joined to w1,..., w_r in T, then we contract [v, w1] to w1
Wait, maybe I got the definition of a tree wrong
no cycles
Yeah, I was actually doing 2
A vertex can be connected with many vertices on the tree, right?
Yes
So the idea is to shrink it to a point and see what happens
yes
By focusing my attention on the red vertex, it seems that it becomes homotopic to something like this..?
Ugh, that's not very helpful
@marsh forge Any hints?
are you trying to do an example of "contracting a maximal spanning tree" for some graph?
Why does S \cap U equal that?
Nevermind I didn't know centered at p means that the image of p is 0
what does basis for open sets mean?
is it like, any open set is contained in the union of the basis sets
or is there another condition too
any open set can be written as a union of basis elements, yes
just arbitrary.
Those conditions amount to saying "the set of all unions of these elements is a topology"
if you want to convince yourself yes
so bases are also supposed to be topologies?
wdym by "also?"
like i wanna show open sets are in the union of my base sets
is that second condition part of the definition
the first condition does not imply on its own that open sets are unions of basis elements
yes
ok
thanks all
when we have a covering of a topology set
would we also have equality?
since its just unioning stuff already in the topology set
in zariski topology atleast
if X = all primes
X < unioning of some primes
equality?
you mean a covering of a topological space X? Well if its a covering consisting of subsets of X, then yea, you would have equality. But sometimes we might cover a subspace of a topological space with open sets coming from the larger space
ah i see

also this ^


example of what I was talking about: let X = Spec R and Y = maxSpec R (subspace of maximal ideals of R). the sets X_f = X - V(f) are a basis of Spec R, so they cover X, and therefore cover Y, but since we need not have X = Y, {X_f} is a "cover" of Y that is larger than Y
but the sets X_f are also not technically open sets of Y, but the Y \cap X_f are
yea
Hey guys so if I ask for any help with geometry do I ask in this channel?
if it fits in
Higher geometry: topology, metric geometry, differential geometry, algebraic geometry, homotopy theory, anime, etc.
then it belongs in here
Alrighty
i want to find a presentation of the fundamental group of a simplicial complex X in terms of a spanning tree T of the 1-skeleton of X. First i need to chose a basepoint, say x_0. I think i can descompose X in subspaces A_{u,v}, where u,v are vertices in X and A_{u,v} is the space which consist in the unique line which joins u and v in T, the unique line which joins v and x_0 in T and all the n-simplexes such that one of his vertex is v. Then, is every A_{u,v} simply connected?
or what is the correct way to descompose X and then apply van kampen?
does anyone of you have some tips on how to get into clifford / geometric algebra?
Given a connected graph and a base point,why the rank of its fundamental group equals the first Betti number of the graph? And why this first Betti number equals the number of edges minus the number of vertices plus the number of connected components (which is 1 in this case)?
well for the first part, I assume that the fundamental group is free. If you abelianize then you get the free abelian group and this is the first homology group. The rank of it is the first Betti number and I think that the rank is preserved under this abelianization in this case?
Hatcher talks about this toki 
Also, multiposting 
talks about what?
Graphs
There's a nice thing they are h eq to
Wrong reply lol



