#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 248 of 1
lmao
love the latex thing
the partial would be a germ, so it takes in functions and spits out values in R
so, Im saying: take the partial derivative of the function x_*
the function is the "pushfoward", and the pushfoward function takes in the chart x as an input
Partial over partial thing is an element of T_p M to me
x^j is a map from M to R.
Never mind let’s wait someone else to answer
Which page are you reading?
page of what?
Oh never mind I thought it came from the book you mentioned, differential geometry written by loring W. Tu
no
it comes from "Introduction to Manifolds"- Tu
I was looking at something
a theorem and lemma, or whatever
and then I was like, well thats cringe- he didnt prove it fully.
So I tried to prove what he just skimmed
and then it led me to here
where is it in that book? I can maybe try to take a look
Again, the problem I made isn't an exercise, it's just trying to fill in the gaps for something he said in the book.
It also would be nice to prove, like I said: the exterior derivative version simply has d(df)=0, by definition. The pushfoward is something else though, which can be proved to be connected to the differential- if you use a function/0-form (f). And this pushfoward doesnt have D(pushforward(f))=0 in its definition.
^what I mean by connection is that: $(f)_ {*, p} (X_p) = (df)_p(X_p)d/dt$
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Okay so this is the exercise that I'm working with: Show that $H_0(X, A) = 0$ iff $A$ meets every path component of $X$. I think that I managed to prove the implication $H_0(X, A) = 0\implies A$ meets every path component, but I'm stuck on the converse. The long exact sequence tells me that
[\begin{tikzcd}
{H_0(A)} & {H_0(X)} & {H_0(X, A)} & 0
\arrow["{i_}", from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["{j_}", from=1-2, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=1-3, to=1-4]
\end{tikzcd}]
and to show that $H_0(X, A) = 0$ I can try to prove that $i_*$ (homomorphism induced by the inclusion) is surjective. But I don't know how to do that. I also know that $H_0(X)$ is generated by the path components and the same goes with $H_0(A)$ but I don't know how to use this fact.
Tokidoki ✓
there is probably something very stupid that I'm missing here lmao
You can represent relative homology as a direct sum of relative homologies of the path components
And what do you know about rel. Homology of a path connected space?
Relative to a nonempty subset
hmm I'm not sure
Specifically H_0
it's trivial right?
Yep
wait so X is path connected?
No
or is A path connected?
lmao I didn't even know that I could decompose it like that with relative homology
okay but how am I decomposing H_(X, A)? Into path components in A or in X?
In X
Nobody
anyone knows of good video lectures on projective geometry? bonus if it follows nigel hitchin book
Key point in the explicit way is the assumption that A meets every path component
hmm yeah but I don't see how I can use that fact in any way at all
so you know that $H_0(X)$ is free abelian and is generated by the classes of some element from every path component (In fact every element in the same path component is in the same class)
ShiN
Similarly you can show that $H_0(A)$ is free abelian of the same rank, and you wanna show that $i_*$ is surjective, that is, it maps generators to generators
ShiN
Wait how, I thought H^0 was always of rank 1 in the path-connected case
Like H^0(X,A)=H^0(X/A) is still the homology of something connected, right?
Or do I get H^0(X/A,{A}) and that is something different?
(Just learning about relative homology)
it's not always the case that H_0(X,A)=H_0(X/A)
H_0(X,A) is always trivial in the path connected case
H_0(X) is always of rank 1 in the path connected case
Hm, X/A might suddenly become connected for starters, right?
I'm not far enough in to know a solid counterexample but rotman said that this only really happens in 'nice' cases
Good to know I have to be careful.
hmm I'm looking at $H_0(X, A) = \oplus_\alpha H_0(X_\alpha)$ where $X_\alpha$ are the path components of $X$ and to show that the left hand side is trivial, I have to show that every $H_0(X_\alpha)$ is trivial, which seems weird I guess
Tokidoki ✓
Probably A\cap X_\alpha
Nobody
yup
you gotta make sure the subspace is inside your space
note that $A\cap X_{\alpha}$ are exactly the path components of $A$ by assumption
ShiN
yeah okay and then by a thing you mentioned before, this is trivial right?
Like homology relative to a path connected space is trivial
I think you said that but idk
yup
as long as the subset is nonempty
that's where the assumption comes in in my solution
bruh it feels like I missed like a whole fricking page in Hatcher lmao
he doesn't talk about these stuff
that sucks
okay so now I have to prove these fact lmao
1 implication turned into like 3 exercises 
Try following the proof of the analogous fact for regular homology
yeah okay, will do that. Thank you all for the help!
Look at tom Dieck if you have a bit of patience
For me the exposition to rel. Cohomology was much clearer there
cohomology 
I meant homology
For me homology only exists to introduce cohomology lmao
But in all seriousness, you have most of the long exact sequences in cohomology as well because you just build it on the opposite category, so lots of things map 1:1
Lmao I even switched to superscripts without noticing
Yea that confused me
btw rotman proves what we talked about for CW complexes and subcomplexes
or more specifically that
$H_n(X,Y)\cong \tilde{H_n}(\sfrac{X}{Y})$
ShiN
yeah Hatcher does prove that too but doesn't (X, Y) need to be a good pair for that?
idk it's in chapter 8 lmao
rotman lays all the groundwork for homology before exploring different theories
rn i'm in the chapter on excision
hatcher proved the invariance of dimension using the excision theorem lmao
that's kind of cool
owo what's that?
if nonempty open sets U subset R^m and V subset R^n are homeomorphic then m=n
that's what Hatcher writes
ah
cool
haven't done that yet
probably in this chapter then
since it's 'excision and uses'
man the proof of the excision theorem 
about to prove the homology of the sphere and consequently brouwer's theorem too (Even though we proved it in chapter 0 just without knowing what homology is)
it does not seem fun
yea, he said 'assuming we have such and such facts about homology functors, let's see why this is useful'
yes
I Know for compact sets (Or maybe it's for polyhedra, i'm not sure), the extremal points of a convex set span it (In the sense of convex combinations). Is this true for unbounded compact sets?
@raw sedge after thinking about it I think you're right btw
I think that would work
Is there a canonical way to make a topological space hausdorff?
For T₀ we can quotient out by the „indistinguishable points“ equivalence relation (i.e, the Kolmogorov Quotient), and for T₁ we can take the quotient which identifies connected components in the specialization preorder.
Yes 
inb4 „collapse everything to a point“
You quotient by a slightly more annoying relation, let me find
youg get the same universal property as the kolmogorov quotient
but with different category
with „the same“ you mean that the canonical morphim X → Haus(X) is a reflector, right?
Yes
kewl, did not expect that
You essentially make the diagonal closed
by identifying a and b if (a,b) lies on the closure of the diagonal
and I think you need to take transitive closure of this since its not an equivalence relation necessarilly
Without reading that my initial guess would be that we can identify points x, y if every neighborhood of one contains the other in its closure or something (the line with two origins being my intuition here; both origins would have to be identified) – but perhaps that's too weak

Oh right I always forget this „diagonal is closed“ classification
hold on writing abbout this one construction is enough for a bachelors thesis?
I should reevaluate the expectations I set for myself
Hmm can I assume that (S¹, A) where A is a finite set of points in S¹ is a good pair, i.e A is closed and there is an open set U containing A such that U deformation retracts onto A?
Yes
There are only finitely many distances between pairs of A. You can take a distance small enough so that the points of A "don't interfere with each other"
In the sense that if you take a distance r smaller than half the distance between any pair of A, then you can take the radius r ball around each point of A as a neighbourhood that deformation retracts to that point
The union of all these r-balls is the good neighborhood
yeah okay I see. I got kind of confused since this thing depends on the topology and the exercise doesn't mention what topology it has
because now with this fact, this exercise is kind of trivial right?
I think you know which exercise I'm doing lmao
S^1 always has the standard topology 
oh lmao 
is it exercise 17? 
yeah lmao
Why is it trivial 
wait maybe I'm dumb

isn't the homology group of (S^1, A) trivial for n greater than or equal to 1?
for n greater than 1 yes
because it is a 1 dimensional complex
but first homology group is Z when A is empty for example
because then its just H_1(S^1)
how tf am I supposed to help you moldi????
why is the subgroup of cycles also finitely generated?
Are subgroups of finitely generated abelian groups always finitely generated?
I know that that's not true for non abelian groups or modules in general
oh maybe structure theorem for finitely generated abelian groups will do it 
hmm yeah I don't know, I think that I didn't read that part in depth 
lol I don't see how to use this since a subgroup need not be a direct sum of its projections
Subgroups of Z^n would be finitely generated because its a free module 
So higher rank free modules can't inject into it because of determinant stuff
😵💫
This is true for modules in general yeah
wait determinant only says no isomorphism 
submodule of finitely generated module is finitely generated?
I found a stackexchange thing lmao
Every homomorphic image of a finitely generated module is finitely generated. In general, submodules of finitely generated modules need not be finitely generated. As an example, consider the ring R = Z[X1, X2, ...] of all polynomials in countably many variables. R itself is a finitely generated R-module (with {1} as generating set). Consider the submodule K consisting of all those polynomials with zero constant term. Since every polynomial contains only finitely many terms whose coefficients are non-zero, the R-module K is not finitely generated.
wikipedia 
Oh oof
apparently subgroups of an abelian finitely generated group is always finetly generated
oh lets go
should I post the thing here or do you want to try to prove it yourself? 
Isn't that a consequence of the theorem of modules over a PID?
You can prove it with SNF
Ye that's what I am trying to prove
Ah
Yeah ig it’s not true in general modules
oh I see
neat
Smith normal form is the way we proved it
Just black box it smh
I think that's standard
Oh shit I think we proved this in a course too 
That's neat
not worked with many noetherian modules though, haven't seen that theorem
If your linear algebra knowledge does not increase linearly over time, you're doing something wrong.
(Lie- and Homological algebra plus modules over PIDs counts as linear algebra, right?)
I just proved that cl(A)×cl(B) = cl(AxB) and I feel stupid for how long that took.
But I'm glad I could write that down cleanly.
wait
cl like closure?
using what definition of closured to show it?
oh of closure
oh i didnt write it lol
yeah smallest closed set containing A
A U limitpoints(A) is easiest definition for me to use
i always default to it
(A U A’) x (B U B’)= (A x B) U (A x B)’
I used the „smallest closed set“ definition and the equivalent characterization that x not in cl(A) iff x can be separated from A by an open set
And then I wrote:
Recall that A×B⋂U×V = A⋂U × B⋂V, which implies
that the intersection of two boxes is empty
iff the intersection of one of their sides is.
If (x₁,x₂) can be separated from A×B via U×V, i.e. their intersection is empty,
hence one of A⋂U or B⋂V is empty.
If the former is empty, we have that x₁ not in cl(A),
implying in particular that (x₁,x₂) not in cl(A)×cl(B).
If the latter is empty, x₂ is not in cl(B), providing the same conclusion.
In summary, the outside of A×B is contained in the outside of cl(A)×cl(B) (which is closed!),
and so cl(A)×cl(B) is contained in cl(A×B).
On the other hand, cl(A)×cl(B) is a closed set containing A×B,
implying that cl(A×B) is contained in the former.
Can't you say that cl(AxB) can't be smaller because each horizontal and vertical slice is homeomorphic to the projection and so the projections' closure is contained in this, and for the other inclusion prove that product of closed sets is closed (because the complement is union of A^c x Y and X x B^c)
Can yoy clarify first sentence using symbols. I think I know what you meant mr mold
mr mold
lux i like it it feels intuitive
For any $(a,b)\in \overline A \times \overline B$, ${a}\times B \subseteq \overline{A\times B}$ by looking at each vertical slice $X \times {y}$, which is homeomorphic to just $X$, and then $(a,b)\in \overline{{a}\times B}$ by the same argument
Coldilocks ✓
Oh wait so you mean I should show that cl(A×B) is in cl(A)×X₂ and in X₁×cl(B), hence in the intersection?
I've thought about it but haven't seen why the closure of the slice is the slice of the closure
each slice is homeomorphic to its projection on the correct axis
but why
so you can project, take closure, then invert projection
product with terminal object 
like by slice I mean slice of the whole product space
tbh examples would help
lux is literally writing latex without writing latex
Coldilocks ✓
So for any set in the product
For any slice of it
You take its closure within that slice
ie just along that axis
isnt this only for vertical slices
yes
pi_1 and pi_2 moment
And closure of any slice is contained in the closure of the projection
you lost be when you said by looking at each vertical slice and then gave a horizontal one
because closure is order preserving
I am learning from lux 
Second factor is the horizontal axis
strange
(jk
)
wait I might have misread and accidentally
'ed a wrong message 
so closure of a x B is closure of vertical slice which is contained in A x B and closure of horizontal slice A x b is contained in closure of A x B
oh I got it the projection π₁ is a retraction for any slice inclusion hence that's an embedding
I feel stupid
fundamental group moment
lol now I am confused
I am saying that if (a,b) is in the product of closures, then a x B is in the closure of the product by taking closure along each correct axis, and then (a,b) in in the closure of a x B
why didnt i just write cl
I don't use A x b 
oh ok
oh ye I see what you are saying now
I thought you were giving complete argument
(Bonus points to whoever jumps in and interprets this as a matrix-vector-product)
nada

toki
i have stopped reading at covering spaces chapter
i think imma pick up later today
Yeah so cl(AxB) > cl(A) x cl(B), but right side is already a closed set contained AxB
So this must be an equality
also since we are in topology i have question about homology
I don't quite get yet why {a}×B is in cl(A×B) when a is in cl(A) but that doesn't sound too hard. I'm gonna have to eat something first tho. 🙃
fix a y in B and check (a,y) along the slice A x y 
If you want a bunch of extra context here:#math-discussion message
My main question is just to get an understanding of the fundementals of the purpose of what homology is used for.
Mr. Max said that it is used to tell when cycles are boundaries for graphs.
Mr. Zoph told me that H_n=Z_n/B_n=ker(d)/im(d)
How are do cycles and kernel of differential maps relate, same question for the image.
Looking at a graph what is the differential supposed to represent. I think I know that homology isnt used just for graphs, so are there other concrete examples that can be used?
(Both me and zoph identify as men)
mr mold
is Mrs for married men?

I’m also not married
Okay okay
So
I’m stuck in a car for an hour with nothing to do
So maybe I can help w the confusion
So, maybe a good starting place is to ask how many computations of homology you’ve done directly (not using long exact sequences)
0
Okay that is a problem for sure
But I will try to handwave a bit
Everything I am about to say is true up to choosing signs (or, if you prefer, exactly true over Z/2)
Picture a triangle that is not filled in, and give it the usual delta complex structure
Can you picture this?
(Let’s ignore orientations for now)
i only read a little bit but is delta complex structure when you give the edges a direction?
It’s when you have an almost-triangulation of your space
so like you have a simplex and each edge has a start and end point
So the delta structure I am talking about
Is 3 verities
And three edges connecting them
In terms of the chain complex, this will be 3 generators in degree 0, 3 generators in degree 1, and then no others
Does that make sense?
ok
Okay so
A cycle is a chain that is sent to 0 by the differential
Label the edges a b and c
Then when you apply the differential to an edge
You get two verticies with signs
ok
If you apply the differential to all three edges
With the right signs
Everything cancels
So in effect
d(a+b+c)=0
Im again ignoring sign issues
oh wait
So the sum of all three edges forms a cycle
In fact, any graph theoretic cycle will have this property if you choose the signs correctly
(A cycle being something in the kernel of the differential)
Is this the reason why d^2 =0?
No
you said differential of an edge gives two vertexes with signs
Yes
so does it work linearly
So just throw a plus/minus infront of everything I say and it will be less of a lie
Okay so
H1 is the kernel of d1 over the image of d2
But there are no generators in degree 2
So the image of d2 is 0
So H1 has one generator and it is a+b+c
So H1=Z and we see one “hole”
Namely the unfilled I’m triangle
ok
Now suppose we fill the triangle in and name the filled in part X
im following
Then
d(X)=a+b+c
So H1 becomes 0
Because we filled in the hole
That is like the basic intuition
But in order to actually understand homology
You just have to do a ton of computations
oh wait
i think i get what the differential does sort of
and how it relates to boundaries
lemme draw something
ill label edges by just putting them next to eachother
Okay
so like d(ac)=a+c?
Up to signs yes
and d(X)=ad+ac+dc
Yes
So then H_1=kerd1/imgd2?
Yes
but what is d1 now?
Wdym
You have a basis (namely the 5 edges)
And you can compute d1 on each
So you know the whole map by linearity
I think I have done as much as I can without you just having to get your hands dirty with computations
I’d be happy to help walk you through those, however
ok ty ill do more reading you cleared up the initial confusion
The real intuition
Is that homology detects parts of your space that can bound something, but don’t
Based on the dimensions of this hole and the potential boundary, that’s where it shows up
oh ok
i want to read about the connection between homology and homotopy because that was mentioned in hatcher's intro the the chapter
It is very deep and very complicated but there are good theorems about it in hatcher for sure!
Arguably the connection between homology and homotopy roughly describes a lot of what I study to this day
Quick question: if $f \times g$ is a quotient map, then $\pi_1 \circ f$ and $\pi_2 \circ g$ are quotient maps?
echoone
I believe quotient maps also map open sets to open sets.
I knew it. But the converse is not necessarily true at least in Top, right?
That is, if f and g are quotient then f x g is quotient.
In Conv, it turns out to be true. But the definition of quotient maps in Conv is pretty gnarly.
At least, at first sight.
I wish there some some giant reference with all this info.
The best I've been able to find is some abstract nonsense like "in Conv, final episinks are preserved by pullbacks along arbitrary morphisms".
There are regions of $R^n$ of different dimensionality. While (open) orthants like (+,-,-) etc are indeed important, how are $(0,+,-,+)$, $(+,0,-,-)$ called?
JohnDark
Are you asking if there's a term like "orthant" for them? If so I don't know it
it's an orthant of the 3d subspace where the first/second coordinate is zero
Given some set $K$ in $\mathbb R^n$, is there a nice way to characterise the points of $K$ lying on the boundary of its convex hull? In particular in my case $K$ is discrete
ShiN
I think this is a common problem in computational geometry
Not to characterize it, but to compute it
Wouldn't it just be the intersection of K with the boundary?
Ofc, but that's not very useful if you don't know what the boundary of the convex hull looks like
Which is also a problem
Even in R2 i'm not seeing a straightforward way to determine whether a point is sitting on the boundary or not
It's not straight forward. The boundary is a closed curve, so the Jordan curve theorem applies.
In my case it may be a bit simpler. I'm specifically looking at the convex hull of a lattice in the positive orthant. I was wondering if there was smth more general but maybe in this more special case there's smth you can say about the points on the boundary
For example I think it's true (Haven't tried proving it yet, might be smth well known) that every point on the boundary lies on some supporting hyperplane. In particular I think it's true that the supporting hyperplane will be the affine hyperplane orthogonal to the point
I'm not sure if the second part would generalise tho
You can prove that this shape is asymptotic to the axes, so intuitively this should be true since the angle between 2 lattice points on the boundary becomes duller as you keep going
Just want to double check, X is a compactifaction of Y if X is compact and Y is dense in X?
p(A,x) is the metric projection of $x$ onto $A$
ShiN
Why do we have that
$$\langle y-p(A,x), x-p(A,x)\rangle >0$$?
ShiN
Maybe I just don't understand how the hyperplane through p(A,x), orthogonal to x-p(A,x) is parametrised
Also doesn't $\overline{y} \notin (p(A,x),y]$ imply $\overline{y}=p(A,x)$ or am I missing smth??
ShiN
Like, I understand this would be the case were E the orthogonal complement of x-p(A,x), but in general it would be an affine hyperplane no? So shouldn't the inequality be greater than some constant that is not necessarily 0?
why tho? that's my problem. In the general case E would be an affine hyperplane so shouldn't it be defined by an equality of the form $\langle \cdot, x-p(A,x)\rangle = \beta$?
ShiN
Maybe they're implicitly shifting the setup such that p(A,x) is 0?
Even so weird that it's not even mentioned
Guys, just a quick question. But suppose that M is a symplectic manifold and N is an isotropic submanifold. Then, is it true that there always exist a lagrangian submanifold that contains N?
is this the channel to ask question about algebraic geometry?
Please share your question. Though I just started reading algebraic geometry, meeting varieties of questions is always nice.
oh i just started reading Perrin's book. I was confused by this statement. "The affine algebraic subsets of a line is the line and finite sets."
Where the affine space is one dimensional
In which page btw?
page 9
Oh I see so first the line k itself is an algebraic set (k=V({0}) )therefore we need to check the other half
That is when S doesn’t equal {0} then V(S) is a finite subset of k
Notice that V(S) equals V(<S>) where <S> is the ideal generated by elements of S
Since S doesn’t equal {0} therefore <S> is a non-zero ideal of k[x]
WLOG We assume that S=<S> is a non-zero ideal of k[x]. First if S doesn’t equal k[x] then since k[x] is noetherian, S is finitely generated. Let’s say S=Σ{k[x]P_i 1<=i <=n} then V(S) =V({P_i :1<=i <=n}
Therefore V(S) is the set of common roots of those P_i therefore a finite subset since any non-zero polynomial in k[x] has at most finite number of roots in k
If S=k[x] then V(S) is empty. Done
For k algebraically closed the topology on MaxSpec(k[t]) (the set of maximal ideals of k[t], with the Zariski topology) is the cofinite topology.
this is more or less equivalent to what is above
I'm not sure what affine algebraic subsets of a line mean. i know what an affine algebraic set defined by S means. Would an affine algebraic subset of S mean affine algeebraic set of subsets of S?
Meaning an affine algebraic set in terms of k[x] which is also a subset of the affine algebraic set k=V({0})
Ah, okay, I think i understand. k is an algebraic set because it is V({0}). Then the other algebraic sets are finite sets because polynomials have finite roots.
Yes . And affine line / plane is just a name. Affine line is V({0}) in terms of k[x], affine plane is V({0}) in terms of k[x_1,x_2]
Ah, that makes more sense.
In the Affine plane, other than the empty sets and the plane, "curves in the form V(F)" are algebraic sets. Curves here should mean algebraic curves right?
Curve actually means that it’s dimension is 1
In the affine case V(S) is a curve in k^n means that the Krull dimension of k[x_1,...,x_n]/P=1 for any P which is a prime ideal that is minimal among prime ideals that contain <S>
I vaguely remember Krull dimension
Commutative algebra is needed I think, in order to read algebraic geometry
what are y'alls thoughts on this kind of final for an intro to topology class
went on for 3 pages of this
very dumb
I like it
I wouldn't mind like 2 questions like that. But 3 pages? 
it gets into some really pathological examples
and munkres also doesn't cover all the properties of all these spaces
Don't really mind it, looks like free marks 
I thought it was easy points, but actually I don't know what lindelof means
Neither do I remember the metrization theorems
Every open cover has countable subcover
This is big oof, imo
Could at least have asked you to prove it
Is this test real though?
Can't use a Ouija board lmaooo
lol
Is oujia stuff real?

If it can help you with this test, then it’s as real as it gonna get
I bet your next test won't tell you not to use one, so try it out
the exam for a good point-set topology class should be anything but point-set topology
just like how the class should be anything but point-set topology
ive seen lines like that a lot
theyre intentionally ridiculous to draw attention to them
and if students are like
"okay i know i cant use [x] but can i use [y] as long as i dont post a question?" or things like that
it sort of preemptively answers them through hyperbole
"you cant use ANYTHING i didnt explicitly allow, including ridiculous stuff"
Ah, that makes sense but still amuses me. I've never seen it.
Is there any book that’s specifically about Mandelbrot set? I want to find the reason of many properties about it.
This is the laziest exam I've ever seen
So I don't fully understand how this works
When Hatcher says we modified the sequence does he mean that we extended it?
Like after the 0 in the first sequence we added the Z?
And then because there's still a 0 before the Z, the reduced homology becomes the same as the normal one
Tbh I didn't get that part either but the fact that the reduced relative homology is the same as relative homology follows from definition. You have chains
$$\cdots \to C_n(X) \to \cdots \to \mathbb{Z} \to 0$$ and
$$\cdots \to C_n(A) \to \cdots \to \mathbb{Z} \to 0$$
then by definition, you define the relative reduced homology as the homology group of the chain complexes "divided" by each other. But since $\mathbb {Z}/\mathbb{Z}$ is trivial, you get the original chain for the non-reduced relative homology groups.
Tokidoki ✓
maybe that doesn't help you at all lmao, but I didn't understand that part too so I just skipped it once I saw this
Lol
Yeah I guess you could look at it this way
I just dunno if you can divide it that way 
why wouldn't you? That's the definition of relative homology
but maybe this is completely wrong idk
Nah you're right toki. The reduced chain complex for relative homology is the same as the regular one
So you can divide two chains that way
so that the Zs also factor to 0?
Yea
Guys, at the end of the semester I will have to give a talk on some topic in symplectic geometry.
And I think I will try to talk about Floer Homology
I would like to ask someone who is more experienced in symplectic geometry / topology some references on Floer Homology. Some of its applications in low dim topology, surgery theory, its influence on the Arnold's Conjecture, how it is related to morse theory and etc.
It seems such a powerful tool, I just don't know exactly about what exactly to talk about it.
Some ideas and references would be good
reduced homology is neat
one might call it... based
Nobody
what do you mean by this?
like what do you mean by "correct"
if we grant that HZ represents ordinary cohomology with Z coefficients then this is an immediate consequence of S-duality
This book is an introduction to modern methods of symplectic topology. It is devoted to explaining the solution of an important problem originating from classical mechanics: the 'Arnold conjecture', w
you know where to find a copy
Yeah, I have checked this one out already. Just wanted to know if anyone here had some more interesting references and stuff 
thanks again TTerra
This diagram commutes, so we can identify the 2 groups at the top with the 2 at the bottom which are isomorphic to Z. Then the map f* at the top becomes multiplication by an integer. Wouldn't it be the same integer as the f* at the bottom by commutativity of the diagram?
Is it important that the arrows aren't going directly from the bottom groups to the ones at the top? But I think that in a square
A → B
↓ ↓
C → D
if the 2 vertical maps are isomorphisms then this square commutes iff the square with these 2 replaced with their inverses commutes
ah the middle line doesn't exactly split the square into 2 squares with that property
isit jus me or does the puppe sequence intuitively feel like it's in the wrong direction
my intuition is like
a "(co)fibre sequence" is "approximately like 0->F->X->Y->0 is exact except we dont have the 0-> and ->0 actually" so Hom(A,-) or Hom(-,A) should be left exact
Depends on if you’re talking about the exact puppe sequence or the coexact puppe sequence
In some sense the exact puppe sequence goes the wrong direction yes
Since you’re taking the fibration dual to the mapping cone
It’s just that in practice the coexact one is harder to use
hm the coexact puppe sequence is also "flipped" unless im directionally impaired again right cuz you start with
X -> Y -> C(f)
and get
... -> [C(f),B] -> [Y,B] -> [X,B]
Ah okay I see what you mean
perhaps this is why cohomology is more "natural" whole homology you need to like wedge then take hom
i always thought of the puppe as "derived functors" and i just realized it is flipped lol

Yea so I mean cohomology is a lot more natural in the sense that you’re just taking homs
Homology requires the smash product and that’s a pain
yeah 


These two things are monoidally dual, but setting this up is definitely a pain in its own right
So I mean smash product gives Ho(Spectra) monoidal structure, and you get a smash/hom adjunction as you would with the usual tensor product for example
So any time you have cohomology you can dualize in this sense to get homology
ahhhh right thats true
The problem is just that setting up a good smash product of spectra is a really nontrivial ordeal; it doesn’t work for sequential spectra for instance
yea 


Okay so Hatcher wants to prove that the homomorphism induced by the inclusion $i_*: H_k(X^n) \to H_k(X)$ is an iso if $k < n$. He writes "From the long exact sequence of the pair $(X, X^n)$ it suffices to show $H_k(X, X^n) = 0$ for $k \leq n$. Since $H_k(X, X^n) \cong \tilde{H_k}(X/X^n)$, this reduces the problem to showing $\tilde{H_k}(X) = 0$ for $k \leq n$ if the $n$-skeleton of $X$ is a point". I don't get the last part. Why is that sufficient? If the $n$-skeleton is just a point, shouldn't it just be the 0-skeleton or at least a subset of it?
Tokidoki ✓
oh and $X$ is a CW complex and $X^n$ is the $n$-skeleton of it
Tokidoki ✓
I think that the n-skeleton of X being equal to a point means that any cell of X has dimension greater than n, so X is not necessarily a 0-skeleton
({*}=X^0=X^1=…=X^n<=X^(n+1)<=X^(n+2)<=…)
Sorry , any cell except one cell of dimension 0 that maps to {*} in this case * is the image of X^n under v:X—>X/X^n
oh okay I see. But I still don't see why showing that tilde H_k(X) = 0 is sufficient for k <= n if the n-skeleton of X is a point
I don’t get it. X/X^n is a CW complex whose n-skeleton is a point so if you proved that tilde H_k(Y)=0 where Y is any CW complex whose n-skeleton is a point then you have your original statement: H_k(X^n) is isomorphic to H_k(X) using long exact sequence
oohh lmao yeah I see now. Thank you so much for the help!

oohhh I thought that Hatcher used the same X in both lines smh
Does anyone know how to prove the following plucker equation? $\kappa ^* =3d(d-2)-6\delta -8\kappa$
Felix_
I can prove it for the non-singular case when $\kappa^*=3d(d-2)$, but am a bit stuck on the singular case
Felix_
I want to show that given a symplectic vector space $(V, \Omega)$ an a collection of lagrangian subspaces $W_{1}, \cdots, W_{k}$ of $V$, then there's a lagrangian subspace $L$ such that $L \cap W_{i} = {0}$, $\forall i \in {1, \cdots, k}$.
\
\
I have already proven, using the fact that every lagrangian subspace admits a lagrangian symplectic complement, that there always exists an isotropic subspace, let's call it $L' \subset V$ such that this property is satisfied.
\
\
My idea then, is to consider the collection,
\
\
$\mathcal{C} = { L' \subset V , \vert , \text{L' is isotropic and} , L' \cap W_{i} = 0, \forall i = 1, \cdots, k , }$
\
\
As we have seen, this set is non-empty.
\
\
And I want to use Zorn's lemma somehow to prove that this set indeed has a maximal element, and that this maximal element is in fact a lagrangian subspace that satisfies the property I am looking for.
MisterSystem
The problem is that I am bit stuck and I am not able to use Zorn's Lemma to prove this
The professor gave a hint to use reduction spaces and all
But yeah, I am still not able to figure out if this is the way to go or not
This idea came to me basically because lagrangian subspaces are maximal isotropic, and maybe by finding a maximal element in C I may be able to somehow deduce that it is lagrangian too.
does a dimensional argument work?
think about the space of all lagrangian subspaces of V; the condition of nontrivial intersection cuts out some positive codimension spaces, so you'll always be able to find another lagrangian subspace that has trivial intersection with any finite collection?
Oh yeah, you are thinking about a proof using the lagrangian grassmanian
ya
I know one that uses some topological properties of the lagrangian grassmanian
But I want to use something more elementary
look at the hint the professor gave to this bonus problem
It must be easier than this lmao
unless im crazy; the hint (using problem 2) is exactly proving that the nontrivial intersection property cuts out positive codimension in the lagrangian grassmanian
seems kinda natural; to me, using zorn's lemma would be more complicated lol
Why is every function in hom(X,S) continuous for X any topology and S trivial topology?
with S being a two point set
All this means is given any function f, I need to show f^-1(S) is open in X
and f^-1 empty is open in X
Do you understand now?
Np
@abstract pagoda if you havent yet, as an exercise prove that if X has the discrete topology and Y is any space, then every function X->Y is cont.
any preimage of any set in Y, open or not, is going to be open in X
because every subset of X open in discrete topology
yep!
i was asking this because i read article about sierpenski topology
tbh idk why it matters, but they said something about category theory that i didnt get to
it is a category theory thing
you have basically shown that the forgetful functor of Top has both a left and right adjoint
also mr max ty for helping me understand homology earlier
i was reading a bunch of intuitional srticles about it but havent done many exercises, so i think its time for me to hit the books
is a homotopy literally just a path between paths, because in cubical type theory, thats essentially how they lay it out, to allow the construction of higher cubes?
especially with the univalence axiom
iirc that's only true if the domain of the functions between which the homotopy lies (domain of domain of homotopy
) is compactly generated
like this definition of a homotopy in homotopy type theory is just a path between paths
eg, these proofs are equivalent
Do you know anything about the spaces 
i'm coming at this from a type theory direction, so my way of thinking about spaces is just a type or like a domain
like simplfied
i dont know much maths :/
Idk type theory so can't help 
:/ welp iz all good
this definition on the hott wikipedia page should explain to you the deal with type theory
it explained to me the base idea in homotopy theory
No
That is an example of a homotopy
but the general notion is far larger
I am not sure what you meant by this tbh
X x Y → Z is naturally isomorphic to X → Z^Y when all spaces are compactly generated
Or when Y is locally compact I think?
Sure but that isn't a path between paths
A homotopy very much can be thought of as a path between maps
or rather a path within a mapping space
I don't think they ever mentioned doing that
Lol
Not all homotopies are fundamental groups 🙂
Wait so in path between paths Y is locally compact already so it works
Wait did I assume that
Well, I thought maybe you forgot that we often care about the case where only Y is I
not X
Ah yeah
But when only Y is I
Then it's not really a path between functions right?
You get X → Z^I
You can think of a homotopy between f and g as a path from f to g in the mapping space between X and Y
But I → Z^X need not be nice?
Up to potentially replacing all spaces with nicer ones
I am not sure what hypotheses you need in general, but replacing everything with a weakly equivalent CW complex should suffice
at the very least intuitively one should think of homotopies and paths in a mapping space as the same thing
Yeah I see
(And in fact this generalizes to the notion of right and left homotopy in a model category)
@surreal flax btw if that was all unhelpful feel free to ping me
(In type theory of groupoids, calling a homotopy a path between paths makes sense in light of the fundamental groupoid)
ohh
c.g. hausdorff spaces also Cartesian closed 
Idk what k-ify means 
I see, that's neat
heyy
yo
mm nvm i was going to ask a question but i think it's ill formed. will come back later once i've thought this through
Given some point $z \in \mathbb R^n$, what would you call the hyperplane $z + z^{\perp}$
ShiN
I wanna call it 'tangent' but then the question is 'tangent to what'
I guess yea
I see people talking about a tangent hyperplane at a boundary point of a convex set
and I think this is what they mean
but i'm not sure
and I can't find a proper definition
no idea
would this have to be the case if M is piecewise linear?
Can you give a counterexample?
oh well I guess it wouldn't have to be at the vertices
but what about not at the vertices
right
Maybe they mean supporting hyperplane? As in supporting hyperplane theorem
they are talking about situations in which the supporting hyperplane coincides with the tangent hyperplane
I don't think there's a general formula for the tangent hyperplane in this case then
anyone know if the 28 bitangents of a quartic includes tangents to hyperflexes?
okay, so n dimensional real projective space is effectively defined by identifying antipodal points in the n-sphere. Am I correct with the intuition that thisw is equivalent to identifying the antipodal points in the (n-1 dimensional) boundary of the closed n-ball?
so, for example, I'm imagining it in the case of n = 2 by identifying the closed 2-ball with the lower half of the 2-sphere, and ignoring half the points here in some sense accounts for identifying them with their antipodal points (which are in the closed 2-ball), and then the remaining identifications are just the identifications of antipodal boundary points
how? the circle is the 1-sphere, and the closed 1-ball is a closed interval
wouldn't both quotients here form the circle again?
I'm confused
so the closed 1-ball is a 1-manifold with boundary
the boundary does consist of 2 discrete points
and identifying them, we get a circle
isn't this exactly what we want?
[a,b]/a~b is a figure 8?
ohhh
okay
that's not intuitive to me
S^1 doesn't have a boundary
we're not identifying two antipodal points
we're identifying all antipodal points with each other
I see how that would make an 8 shape
alright, thanks
I needed a sanity check for that

Or you're both insane
what if every mathematician is insane and no one else can tell because we're incomprehensible
Hey so I'm trying to work through the rigid definition of a manifold, and I had a quick notation question: does C^0 mean the set of continuous functions?
Honestly just super confused trying to understand this beast of a definition lmao
thank you
any suggestions for getting intuition into the concept of a coordinate neighborhood?
The definition here has no motivation and I'm kinda confused
ah ok! Though why does a one-to-one function that maps the given subset to an open set function this way?
sorry I think I phrased that poorly.
I mean I don't quite see how the definition captures that idea tbh
A set $U \subseteq M$ together with a one-to-one function $f: U -> \mathcal{R}^n$ such that $f(U)$ is open.
Benm
Where M is the set (manifold) in question
The motivation for it being a neighborhood and a sort of 'local' condition on the manifold is that you can rarely find a function that works properly on the entire manifold
for a sphere S^2, for example, you could define a function on the upper half and lower half to R^2
None explicitly stated lol
Just a handout my prof gave me
Later on he defines “c0 consistent” coordinate neighborhoods
Not explicitly
Ah ok that helps! Thanks
Ya lost me there ngl lol
Oh nvmind
Since they’re just in R^n? Lol
exactly
Oh wait a second, I think I finally get the idea behind whole definition! So basically we show that our manifold is made up of subsets that are isomorphic to open parts of R^n?
And we want to make sure each point on the manifold is mapped to one point on R^n
Ah oops lol
Ah ok!
Talking through this makes it so much clearer! Thanks so much!
Yeah ngl before this my idea of a manifold was just “some surface that looks relatively flat” lmao
I’m not scare of sheaves and schemes anymore
I want to try to become more aware of sheaves and schemes (without getting engulfed and becoming a goomer). I heard the red book is a nice intro, and I have been thinking of trying to read it at some point
The rising sea of algebraic geometry is a lifesaver
It throughly motivate every new object.
Suppose you have a, i've heard it call 'Euclidean complex', it's a complex of polytopes that behaves like a simplical complex (i.e. the faces of each polytope in it are also in it, each pair intersects in a lower dimensional face). Is there a construction similar to simplical homology you can do for this kind of object? And if not why not
Or what would you have to require
Trying to think how you'd construct the boundary operator in this case
I've made a short video trying to give some intuition about smooth manifolds. I will appreciate feedback if someone is interested in watching it. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_DxwjSBA0dQ
This is just a heuristic non-rigorous video about smooth manifolds.
sheaves are ... good
i am going to slowly go through this server and one by one pronounce my final judgement on every subject of math
|| spoiler alert: everything is good. math is beautiful||
this is a great question shin. idk the answer but i believe you have to have some kind of theory of polytopes to deal with poincare duality, poincare duality is a bit hard to express for simplicial complexes, it's easier to express for more general polytopes. take this with a grain of salt, i may be misinformed
so something like this must be somewhat developed
Interesting
I'll look into it but I may need some more experience with AT stuff
Thanks!
hmm i'm not sure how helpful this is but like
there must be a category of polytopes
whose only maps are like, injective linear face inclusions
i only bring this up because this is kind of the gluing data for a polyhedron
Wdym by 'there must be a category'
i just mean there is a category whose objects are polytopes and whose maps are linear face inclusions. that's all. this category has an inclusion functor into Top and there is perhaps some kind of nice systematic categorical way of gluing these things together along the face maps in a way that would give a general notion of polytope
Ah ok gotcha
Or x1
You can check injectivity, surjectivity, continuity and openness each on their own. Which one are you getting stuck on?
continuity
P/G has the quotient topology. The defining property of the quotient topology is that whenever we have a continuous map f from P to B which maps each orbit to a single element (or more generally if x ~ y → f(x) = f(y)) then f factors uniquely through the quotient map
And the maps in the factoring are of course continuous
So you can try proving this from just the definition of the quotient topology
If you need a hint to get started with this, just try writing the definition of the quotient topology. The condition about respecting orbits translates directly to inverse images of open sets of B being the inverse images of certain open sets of P/G under their respective maps. You should be able to just apply the definition from here.
x ~ y mean Gx=Gy?
Yes in this particular case
In general you can quotient by any equivalence relation so I was just mentioning that
And this property holds for P/~ in that case
thanks
here, how can $\sigma$ induce the identity map on the orbit space if the orbit spaces $P/G$ and $P/Q$ not need to be equal?
Or x1
a morphism of principal bundles is always an isomorphism
Is there a common name for the category of CW structures and cellular maps?
The category of „filtered spaces“ would probably be denoted Top(ℕ) following the Top(n)-convention, right?
Are you only allowing the obvious filtration by n skeletons
I want to have language and notation in order to clearly distinguish between „(relative) CW complex“ and „Pair equipped with a CW structure“
I am not sure I understand your meaning
I guess I myself am actually not clear on the distinction here
I'm a bit confused here as well (sorta new to the topic). I mean actually there's three kinds of „objects“ here:
- (X, (A, X₀,X₁, …), (φ_α)_α) where the φ are attachhment maps, the Xᵢ arise inductively from the attachment pushouts, and X is the colimit of the Xᵢ.
Since the Xᵢ are redundant data we may just write (A, X, (φ_α)_α). - General Filtered spaces (A, X₀, X₁, …)
- Pairs of spaces (X, A)
The first thing we could call „Pair with CW structure“
It gives rise to a filtered space in the obvious way, and arbitrary filtered spaces give rise to pairs in the obvious way
I just want notation to be able to say „these two steps are forgetful functors“
What is A here
A filtration which is of the isotype of the skeletal filtration of a CW structure could be called „CW filtration“
A pair which is of the isotype of the pair associated to a CW structure is called „CW complex“
At least that's my understanding, but I haven't seen it written down in a rigorous way like that (looked in tom Dieck and Hatcher)
A is an arbitrary topological space you fix to begin with, the thing to which you glue the 0-cells
Ah okay, right, A is what makes it a relative complex I guess
Ye, sorry for the potential confusion
So when people say CW complex they almost always assume A=\emptyset
Yep
Okay yes so I think the right way to think about this is like
or notate it
any time X is a CW complex, it has an implicit n-skeleton, and people rarely refer to attaching maps unless you are doing a like, computation that relies on them
So a CW complex is automatically filtered, and this filtration is cellular
The filtration on a space need not be by n-skeletons nor even cellular
So like, the category of CW complexes and the category of CW complexes along with their skeleta is the same category
(assuming all maps are cellular)
A pair of CW complexes is just a kind of different thing, although it does filter the original CW complex
Maybe im all over the place let me summarize my thoughts
- A CW complex is the same thing as a CW complex filtered by its n-skeleta since this filtration is unique, and when maps are ceullar they play nicely with this specific filtration
- When X is a space we normally want our filtrations to be cellular, and a filtered CW complex might have a filtration that differs from its skeletal filtration
- A pair of CW complexes can be thought of as a two-stage cellular filtration
I think this language should capture all of the stuff you were referencing idk if im helping @flint cove
(A space X that is homeomorphic to a CW complex might have several CW structures but usually when we call X a CW complex we fix some CW structure on it)
Well, I'm not quite sure whether people actually mean a CW complex to be „X such that a cellular filtration exists“ or „X equipped with a cellular filtration“
I can never really tell
Well again, there are cellular filtrations that are not the skeleton
I mean with everything homology-related it doesn't matter in the end, but still
when someone says let X be a CW complex they mean let X be a space X equipped with a CW structure
i.e. X along with instructions for how to build X cellularly
normally we don't actually care about how we build X so often times the actualy attaching maps or whatever are omitted
in the same way that we refer to a group by the name of its underlying set
the big exception is in doing certain computations, for example the homology of RPn
its amusing to me that tom Dieck has become the go-to book around here
Although he does not quite care about the precise attachment maps, just that Xₙ is obtained from Xₙ₋₁ by attaching n-cells
in what way? do I need to look out?
tbh ive never ever seen A\neq \emptyset in the wild
hmmm
but like if you see people talk about pairs of spaces
(X,A) is like the standardish notation
theres a lot of uses of cellular approximation of maps and spaces about when people talk about this stuff too
I don't quite see how this would be confusing tho, if (X,A) is a relative CW complex, (X, A) is also an object of Top(2) by forgetting the CW structure
You're definitely helpful, but I guess I have to wait a while until the thoughts have settled a bit 🙂
so thank you
What’s a cotopology
You normally want your filtration to be cellular
and A need not be Cellular
in the relative version
i.e. you want X to be a real CW complex and A a sub-CW-complex
Well what would go wrong? I'm not that familliar with the technical details yet
I essentially need all this to define (co-)homology relative to A
Well just let A be not a CW complex
Hello
do you know where I can find a proof of Stone-Weierstrass theorem?
Any book that I can read?
Rudin's Principle's of Mathematical Analysis (chapter 7) or Folland's Real Analysis (chapter 4) both have proofs
danke!
Hello!, What you think about this proposition?: "given two topological spaces $(X, \mathcal T_X)$, $(Y, \mathcal T_Y)$ and a topology in $X \times Y$. The preimage, via projection, of an open set, is always open"
don't think it's true, but I couldn't find a counterexample, so maybe it is(?
Polux12
I'll need clarification on what you mean by "and a topology in X cross Y". You mean X cross Y considered in absolutely any topology? Or do you mean considered in the product topology?
This is certainly true in the product topology.
(And it is certainly false if I get to pick any topology)
At first, it refers to any topology, I have verified that it is true for the product topology, but with other topologies it is not so clear to me that it is false
Let X = Y be a discrete two point space, and consider X cross Y in the trivial topology.
What topology is being put on $X\times Y$?
Oatman
read the messages following the question
Oatman
And assume the spaces are bigger than a single point
@gilded coyote By the way, you may like to verify that the product topology has exactly and only the open sets necessary for this condition to hold.
This corresponds to the fact that a map into X cross Y in the product topology is continuous exactly when the maps resulting from projecting into X and Y are continuous, which corresponds to the intuition that movement in X cross Y is continuous precisely if your corresponding points in X and Y move continuously.
As an aside, the underlying set of a topological space tells us basically nothing about the topology, so one should never expect that a topological property should hold for any topology you could put on a set
this is why the product topology is the "right" topology on X cross Y
Thank you all, now many things make sense!
so uh I hope this goes here, but I'm curious how off the mark this meme is (like how much truth there is to it):
specifically the claim in the first panel
i mean it's true isnt it
we have an algorithm to prove or disprove any statement about euclidean geometry 
but is it realistically efficient 
does it even matter
why would i want to stare at a bunch of lines
idk what alg is it but would jus gröbner basis the IMO problems
an open problem would be a statement whose provability we don't know about 
but open problems could be uninteresting
yes
so we have uninteresting open problems in that case
Collatz Conjecture
algebraic geometry is when you map algebraic statements to euclidean statements to solve them
that's basically how they solved fermat's last theorem with elliptic curves 😎
Okay so let me get this straight: the cellular homology of some CW complex is always the same no matter what "cell structure" you give the space right? Because cellular homology is the same as singular homology and singular homology is always the same right?
I just need this to be verified
That seems legit 😌
yeah okay and so the Euler characteristic is well defined right?
Give me an hour 
Like it's the same no matter what cell structure you give it
the euler characteristic is just the alternating sum of the rank of the homology groups
or well, it turns out to be that way
oh wait found the definition of Euler Characteristic
Yeah it should be independent of cell structure
that's actually really cute lmao

yes to all of these questions
This is supposed to be $p(L)\cong \sfrac{L}{H\cap L}$
ShiN
Thinking maybe smth with 3rd iso? Since that works for topological groups
but idk how that would help
Are lattices discrete subgroups of R^n?
In that case you might be able to do something with the tube lemma
lattices are discrete cocompact subgroups of R^n
You can reduce to a case where H is compact because L should be finitely generated (?) so it should repeat after some finite distance or something idk how to say this
or equivalently isomorphic images of Z^n
Wdym H is compact, it's a subspace
L is free on n elements
Reduce to the case as in to produce a tube around H that doesn't intersect any points of L outside H, you can look at some finite part of H and produce a tube around it using tube lemma and compactness and that tube should work globally
And if you have a tube around H then you have a tube around p(H) such that p(L cap H) is a singleton in it
p(H) is always 0 tho
Which would prove that it is discrete
you want p(L) to be discrete
Yes
But you get an interval around it as well which contains no points of p(L)
I'm just not sure about the part where I'm applying the tube lemma because I'm just relying on intuition about lattices 
I don't see where we use the assumption that H cap L is a lattice here tho
that's supposed to be a necessary condition
Yeah idk then
I can't even think of a situation where it isn't because I cannot visualise the definition of a lattice that you gave in generality
Yeah that's what I'm imagining 
But if H is a vector subspace then it feels like intersection with H should always be a lattice?
You can engineer some line/plane such that the intersection with the lattice is not closed under addition
Oh is it because H need not pass through origin
no we're talking about subspaces
Nah, take for example span(v) where v has linearly independent coordinates over Q
this should be a subspace that doesn't produce a lattice when intersected with Z^n
Isn't the intersection just {0} because all coordinates can't be rational simultaneously for some cv
oh wait

shit you might be right
I can't remember the exact example rn
but believe me there's subspaces where that wouldn't work.
If a subspace is not rational then it will not be closed in the quotient R^n/L
Lol anyway all I can show is the path, traversing it is your own journey 
that I can tell you
I'm still not convinced, because this is supposed to be the key thing
Yeah I suspect that either what I said is nonsense or reducing H to the compact case is using it somehow
I'll think about this direction
thanks
Why can't you fuckin pin comments for yourself on discord
Maybe uh
i'm not sure that the tube will be sent to an interval by p
Isn't a tube defined as H x some interval
yea

Ok I think I see why it would be sent to an interval
then I still don't get what is going wrong here
actually
I think
I think maybe you can't put a tube around H
at least not always
like either you can prove that you can't ever put a tube around H such that there are no lattice points in it
or you can prove that H must be rational
rational meaning H cap L is a lttice
Yeah that's the part where I don't know how anything works 
I think maybe H being rational can imply that the lattice is not asymptotic to H
but I need to think about it a bit
lol
cuz for example were H to intersect the lattice trivially then we could prove that it was asymptotic to it
yea
So you can take its cosets and the quotient should also be a lattice maybe?
In which case its cosets should be discretely placed maybe idk 
the quotient needn't be discrete I think
wack
Actualyl
I think the quotient of 2 lattices is always finite (But can be arbitrarily large)
but also I think I was incorrect in saying that L/Hcap L \cong K
yea def incorrect
even as groups
K has more elements
This is cuz you can characterise the index by the number of lattice points inside a fundamental domain of H cap L
and this will always be finite
when you take a compact fundamental domain
specifically a parallelepiped
Isn't Z²/Z inside of R² infinite?
hol up
ok yea sorry
this only works if both lattices are freely generated by the same number of elements
my b
otherwise you can characterise it by the ratio of the covolumes
but this breaks down if one is lower dimensional
That makes sense
since that would be covolume 0
which ig could be taken as infinite index
so yea I think in this case the index would be countably infinite
but i'm not sure if the quotient group need be discrete
I haven't played around with the quotient groups much tbh
beyond finite index subgroups
Ok I think i'll keep thinking about this tmrw tho
Can't you say that the intersection of L with H will be finitely generated torsion free hence isomorphic to some Z^m hence a lattice
Anyone want to take a crack at a qual problem i can't think of a good solution to?
wdym. That's the assumption
I can't imagine the intersection not being a lattice lol
Like I'm thinking of counterexamples
oh

