#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 244 of 1
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I’m gonna see here if we’ve any trivial solution of this equation where δab doesn’t need to be the same than the metric tensor
Could I post a question here? 
yes lol
Yes post
Hmm when does a space $X$ have a simply connected covering? I've heard that the space must be path connected, locally path connected and semilocally path connected, but isn't semilocally path connected enough? Like if you have a covering $p: \tilde{X} \to X$ then every $x \in X$ has a nbh $U$ that is evenly covered by $p$. Each loop in $U$ lifts to a loop in $\tilde{U}$. Now if $pi_1(\tilde{X}) = 0$, then this lifted loop is nullhomotopic in $\tilde{X}$. So now just "project" this loop down to $U$ and this loop is now nullhomotpic in $X$. So if we want that $pi_1(\tilde{X}) = 0$, then the semilocally path connected criterion is only needed, right?
Tokidoki ✓
No problem
connected locally path connected semilocally simply connected is enough
theyre asking about the non locally path connected case
yeah I don't see why the path connected and the locally path connected things are needed in this case
@torpid geode Look at you private, I’ll send it to you
yea so if you drop any of these assumptions some not great things happen
its possible but without locally path connected its not guaranteed and without path connected you end up just picking a path component i think
so first of all, note that a path connected locally path connected space has a universal cover precisely if it's semilocally simply connected
ah okay, so that's "if and only if", right?
yes
if you remove the path connected assumption then it's not even clear what the definition of a universal cover should be
you can extend the definition to mean like, take universal covers for each of the path components and then take the disjoint union, then it's fine
yeah okay I see. Thank you so much! 
yea the main issue is just that some theorems kinda break, or at least have to be reformulated in the general situation. But you're right that the semilocally simply connected assumption here is really the important one
if you want an example to play around with try thinking about the cone of the hawaiian earring
it is semilocally simply connected but not locally path connected
The cone isnt?
ooh the cone

sure, although it's an example that doesn't have an interesting fundamental group no matter how you define it
the Hawaiian earring on its own is kinda fun because there are multiple things you could mean by the fundamental group here
wait it should not be hawaiian earring it should be the comb
the comb is not locally path connected but its cone is semilocally simply connected
oh right
Moth vs point set
deletes message about this being a good example
oh yeah, there was an exercise about the comb I think in this section
tokidoki to help you in coming up with examples: cones are locally path connected iff the space you are taking the cone of is
and they are always semilocally simply connected
Okay great! I will keep that in mind, thanks!
society if discord loaded images

I havent actually seen an example of a semilocally simply connected space with no universal cover though
well if it's locally path connected but not path connected things are still mostly okay
idk about the locally path connected assumption
So true
yeah i have not seen an example of a semilocally simply connected not locally path connected space with no universal cover
unbased
i cant believe no ones constructed one on MSE
yea I can never remember how all the shape theory stuff works lol
oh comb space works lol
Is there a proof it has no universal cover
I see
Theorem: Let E be any space and F be a metric space. Let K⊂E be compact, f:E→F be continuous, locally injective near every point p∈K, and (globally) injective on K. Then f is also injective on some open neighbourhood N of K.
Interesting
Okay time 2 shine
Gonna just start this chapter from scratch but reference my ramblings from the first n pages
Sloth King Daminark
So the action is transitive
Sloth King Daminark
And we have our Riemannian metric
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
So okay what's the differential of a Mobius element?
Sloth King Daminark
dami are you answering anyone or just talking to yourself?
i think you can talk about all this with homology too
like homologically locally connected
Talking to myself
ah ok, I just wanted to ask a question real quick
Sloth King Daminark
Dealing with the implication of equal degree meaning homotopic.
So 3.18 just says that 2 paths to S1 are path homotopic iff they have the same degree, 1.3 says that rotations are homotopic to the identity, and 1.6 gives equivalence between a map from S^n being nullhomotopic, being nullhomotopic relative to some basepoint and being able to be extended to the unit disc. Now I can clearly see using 3.18 and 1.3 I can show that the rotated paths are path homotopic, and that the non-rotated paths are (freely) homotopic, but I can't seem to find where 1.6 comes in (Even if I work with paths as maps from S^1), and either way how I can guarantee the homotopy is a closed path at any time t.
cuz even working with the equivalent definition of closed paths, nothing here is nullhomotopic unless the degree is 0
I mean you’re computing simplicial homology here
So presumably this comes up somewhere
it does kinda come up
but it never mentions what H_* is
i just dont understand @cedar pebble
ohh i understand now
so since S_* is how you derivative Z and B
we call H_* = Z _ * /B_ *
ae
u get it
xd
Yea so S is a semi simplicial set here, and you can Abelianize this to get a chain complex usually called C
Among C you have Z and among Z you have B
thanks :p
The process of linearizing a semi simplicial set to get a chain complex is part of the Dold Kan correspondence
:petngroupoid:
Ok so here's my solution which doesn't use 1.6 whatsoever which makes me think I did something wrong but whatever:
Equal degree implies homotopic: Suppose $f,g$ have equal degree, then by definition $\text{deg}(R\circ f)=\text{deg}(R' \circ g)$ Where $R,R'$ are the rotations by $-2\pi \alpha, -2\pi\beta$ radians (Where $a=e^{2\pi i \alpha}, b=e^{2\pi i \beta}$) respectively. Then by 3.18 we have some homotopy
$$F:R\circ f \simeq R' \circ g \text{ rel } {0,1}$$
From exercise $1.3$ we know that $R\simeq 1_{S^1}\simeq R'$, therefore there's some homotopy $G:R\simeq R'$. We define the function:
$$H:I\times I \rightarrow S^1, , H(x,t)=\frac{F(x,t)}{G(1,t)}$$
Then we shall show that this is the required homotopy between $f,g$:
First, we note that $R(t)=e^{-2i\pi\alpha}t$, therefore $R(f(x))=e^{-2i\pi\alpha}f(x)$ and $\frac{1}{R(1)}=e^{2i\pi\alpha}$, similarly for $R'$, we have:
$$H(x,0) = \frac{F(x,0)}{G(1,0)} = \frac{R\circ f(x)}{R(1)} = f(x)$$
And similarly $H(x,1)=g(x)$. Finally, we show that for each $t \in I$, the homotopy is a closed loop, and indeed, let $t \in I$, then (recall that $F$ is a homotopy rel ${0,1}$):
$$H(0,t)=\frac{F(0,t)}{G(1,t)}=\frac{1}{G(1,t)}$$
And similarly
$$H(1,t)=\frac{F(1,t)}{G(1,t)}=\frac{1}{G(1,t)}$$
Therefore $H(-,t)$ has the same start and endpoint and is therefore a closed path, so $H$ is indeed our required homotopy.
I did the other implication similarly so if this does work then i'm done
i'd be happy if someone could take a look
ShiN
Note that Rof, R'og are in particular paths based at 1 in S^1, therefore we have that F(1,t)=F(0,t)=1 for any t in I
Stupid question, but in a simply connected space, can we guarantee that there ia a pointed homotopy between a closed loop through a and the constant loop a?
Because trying to contract the „defect“, i.e. the path t \mapsto F(0,t) which the endpoint takes, to a point, doesn't help me since I don't know if this contraction homotopy preserves a 
Yeah, though usually this is taken to be the definition of simply connected (fundamental groups use pointed homotopies)
Use the lemma that any nullhomotopic map from S¹ into X extends to a map from D² to X
Assuming that your definition of simply connected is path connected + every map from S¹ is nullhomotopic
Okay then I just identify D² as the quotient of a rectangle whose left edge is my path and whose other thre edges are glued together
The map from this rectangle should precisely be my homotopy
*my desired homotopy
Yeah I think that works too, but I was thinking that you can draw a pointed nullhomotopy of the boundary on D²
The original map is a composition S¹ → D² → X involving the extension
Keep the second map constant
Contract the first map along this
Ohhh
I'm not quite sure why the extension lemma holds tho
Identify D² with the suspension of S¹
You can just generally prove that any nullhomotopy from S^n is a pointed nullhomotopy for any point in S^n by going through the equivalence with the extension to the unit disc
Universal property of the quotient
So I'm trying hard to view the contracting homotopy as a map from not a rectangle, but a cylinder S¹xI to X (which is constant on the right circle hence the suspension)
But I don't quite see how, since we cannot glue the top and bottom edges together in said homotopy
Wait in suspension you only glue the top edge of the cylinder right
oof
I should have said cone I think?
my bad lol
Oh we're talking orthogonal to each other lol
The time part in the homotopy goes to the right for me
Oh, I just remember that I dont usually do that, I just got confused because I tried gluing a homotopy by 90deg to another homotopy
I guess I need a break to re-sort my mental imagery
Thanks so far 😌
No lux also said suspension
A nullhomotopy of a map X->Y is witnessed by a map CX->Y
Where CX is XxI/~
And ~ collapses the copy of C at time 1 only
Equivalently this is half of a suspension
Yeah we both said suspension and meant cone
Ah-do you still have a question abt it
We were vibing max 
Yes but I'll have to come back later as I'm occupied for the next 2h
Okay so this is the exercise that I'm working with: Show that if a path connected, locally path connected space X has pi_1(X) finite, then every map X --> S¹ is nullhomotopic. [Use the covering space R --> S¹]
I don't really know what to do here tbh. Lets say that f: X --> S¹ is a map. Then this induces a homomorphism from pi_1(X) to Z and pi_1(X) is finite so this map can't be surjective. And now what? That doesn't really give me much. I also don't know how I'm supposed to use the covering map R --> S¹
The only finite subgroup of Z is the trivial group, which must be the image of pi_1(X) on the induced homomorphism. Then we can use the lifting property to go from X --> S^1 to R --> S^1. Then properties of R help finish the proof
wait why is the image of pi_1(X) a subgroup? Don't we need injectivity for that?
no wait lmao
I'm pretty sure that's just a property of groups under homomorphisms
yeah okay I see. Thank you so much!
glad to help!
I was able to use the hint to show that I can decompose any path (up to htpy) into a finite product of paths entirely contained in the Ujs, but this multiplication occurs in the fundamental groupoid so it doesn't really help me. I can't see how I can use the hint to decompose my path into yet again closed paths each of which is entirely contained in some Uj.
Of course once I have some path in Uj I can deform it into a closed path (All maps from a contractible space to a path connected space are freely homotopic) but I don't know if I can actually construct a homotopy from this to the closed path I started with
Is that actually the way he wants me to do it?
I think this can't be it cuz in that case i'm not using the information that the intersection of every Ui, Uj is path connected at all
Tho rotman sometimes has redundant information in his exercises
I've asked this already in #help-2 , and someone said that here would be more suitable. The problem is as follows: #help-2 message
As I said I can deform the segments into closed paths, but I don't see why I need the bit about the intersection for this
The path segments should agree on intersections anyways
Wait actually it's possible that some of the path segments are contained in an intersection
Yea ok the way I constructed it I forgot about that but it's a possibility
I think
Ok so basically if $x_j$ is the intersection point, and $f_j$ is the path between $x_j$ and $x_0$ I wanna stick a $f_j \ast f_j^{-1}$ between them right? Then
$$f_{j-1}^{-1 } \ast \gamma_j\ast f_j$$ is a closed path and when I multiply them all together the $f_j$'s cancel (in the homotopy class) and i'm left with the original path
Right?
ShiN
How did I not see that before
Like I thought about doing that but for some reason didn't think it would work
Thanks!
Yea that's like a standard group theory trick tbh
Yea seems useful
Tyvm
is this correct for the question: "prove that there exists two automorphisms on a 2-sphere such that they have an equivalent homology"
wait wa
wait oops
I thought it meant like
a ball
eee
would this be correct if it was a 3-ball?
t_{S^2} = P(S^2)
(the topology is equal to the power set)
yeas
f
bruh
my wifi decided to have a heart attack
had to restart my pc lol
couldn't u say it is though?
oh wait nvm
wdym
like wdym using the euclidean topology
nah but wdym by Using it
eh
i dont understand
There’s the standard topology on S^2 coming from its embedding into R^3
Point set topology
is that it?
Yes, if you know basic point set topology (and standard examples, including things embedded in Euclidean space or manifolds) then yes
But knowing basic stuff about basic examples is kinda important
I think this might be a language barrier issue?
iik what u mean by its embedding in R^3 but i dont understand like
what youi mean by
using it
ohhhhhh
That's what you meant
sorry
I didnt understand
so R^3 induces the topology of S^2
Yes
how it induce
This is the subspace topology
You should probably learn about this before worrying about AT
oh.. ok thanks
oh wait a minute
sorry I didnt quite understand what you meant
but I think you mean i set the topology of the 2-sphere to it's euclidean topology
which is induced by R^3
right
or I'm mjust wrong
This is the subspace topology of the Euclidean topology on R^3 yes
so you mean that topology of $S^2 = {S^2 \cap R : R \in \tau_{\bR^3}}$
Muffin Man
where t_R^3 is the euclidean topology on R^3
Yes this is the subspace topology
did someone look at this?
I'm not familiar with that stuff, but it might be helpful to repost the full question here, so that people don't have to click on the link to read the question, then come back here to answer
Let $X$ be a metric space, and $\mu$ a borel measure. Assume that $\mu(K)<\infty$ for each compact $K\subseteq X$, and that $X=\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty K_n$ where the $K_n$ are compact. Prove that $\mu$ is a regular measure on $X$.
Phorphyrion
What are you having trouble with, outer or inner regularity?
(not that I would know the answer to either off the top of my head)
||Both actually... My idea was to define a sub-algebra consisting of the inner regular sets. I'm having trouble proving it's closed under completion though...||
||You could maybe define a sub-algebra of the sets that are both inner and outer regular, but then how do you show it contains some generating set of the Borel algebra?||
oh actually I got it
i think
I'm just sitting here trying for the life of me to remember how to do this
And pretending as hard as I can that I don't need to retake measure theory in grad school
Oh well
No joke please respond with spoiler tags @winged badger, I wanna think about this as an exercise because my measure theory is very much lacking 😄
Ok I don't understand, when you wanna take the boundary of a singular simplex, do you fix some orientation for all the simplices in $S_n(X)$? Or are we just always looking at the 'canonical' orientation
ShiN
Also, there's no nice way to picture this beyond like, a 3-simplex right?
It seems like, in singular homology the concept of boundary lives solely in S_n(X), and it doesn't have a concrete representation like the boundary of a simplex?
Or at least, not a useful one
Alright yea so that's what I thought
I'm having a bit of a hard time grasping the induced orientation in higher dimensions tho
Like in 2d it's pretty simple but anything more and I don't see why this is the proper generalization
Why does the sign alternate
I mean honestly "it makes the formulas we want to work work" is a valid answer to that
Im not sure if theres a nice geometric interpretation
what means that the classifying space classifies G-principal bundles?
What are some minimalish regularity conditions we can toss onto a vector field so that it's induced by some global flow?
Not a bad place to start 
I mean I think you can find counterexamples for any lower holder regularity
You should be able to get blowup unless I'm crazy
I might be crazy
It's not obvious but it feels... plausible.
Does this definition seem correct?
A set $A$ \textit{encloses} a region $R$ if there exists another region $R'$ such that $R\subseteq R'$ and $A = \partial R'$.
KingArthur
Or are there better definitions?
i like this definition. you could appeal to the jordan curve thm or something but this is succinct
or the more general jordan-brouwer
I feel like this is a definition most people can understand
It's not that jordan brouwer is hard to understand but the theorem is a bit
complicated?
Are regions always bounded? Because otherwise you get a weird definition of enclosing
I guess I was trying to imply that when saying region
Also, empty set encloses the entire space
Yeah exactly, if you don't put the boundedness condition
is there a way to show that if a metric space is compact, then it is complete without appealing to the axiom of countable choice via utilizing the notion of sequential compactness?
?? why the delete?
I said smth incorrect
I just look at the proof of cantor's intersection theorem and you choose a point from every set in the sequence
so it relies on countable choice
hmm.
actually, I think maybe the implication that satisfying cantor's theorem implies complete doesn't rely on it, but i'm not sure
You should be able to show that a Cauchy sequence viewed as a set is compact iff it contains its limit. Assuming this, take some compact space X, and a Cauchy sequence in it. If the sequence didn't have a limit in the space, it would form a closed subset and hence be compact which contradicts the first statement
Let me see if the first statement is true/uses choice though lol
thanks guys. it’s no big deal anyway. i was just wondering. maybe there is some sort of equivalence between something and aocc here?
ok yea I think that's the general idea
Yeah the lemma holds because you can embed the Cauchy sequence in its completion, and then take an open cover of it as a subset by taking complements of smaller and smaller open balls around the limit, and compactness is independent of the ambient space
So no limit → not compact
And limit → compact because any open set containing the limit will be cofinite
Doesnt seem to use choice anywhere
gonna have to digest some vocab there but i’ll try and work through it that way too
Does compact implies sequentially compact even use countable choice?
not sure. i’d have to run through the proof again. i remember choice was used somewhere in there tho
Should be avoidable
Since X is a metric space so any any compact subset of X is closed hence any sequence in the compact space is convergent in that space so same for any Cauchy sequence also. Hence complete.
compact iff sequentially compact has to use aocc somewhere. it’s not true otherwise i don’t think.
You take a sequence and then produce a cover which consists of balls at each point such that no ball contains more than one point of the sequence. You can take the radius of this ball to be the inf of all radii that don't have this property, and then you don't have to invoke choice
“any sequence in the space is convergent in that space”
do you mean any sequence in the space has a convergent subsequence in the space?
Closed means convergent sequences converge within the set
Not every sequence
So i’m pretty sure seq compact implies compact needs aocc but the other way around i’m not so sure
Let X is the metric space and C is the compact subset of X. So, any sequence in C is convergent.
take X = [-1,1] and the sequence x_n = (-1)^n
on the same page lol

i’m just going to try to run through those proofs again lol. thanks
if that’s true, it avoids choice then
No
Cauchy sequences need not be convergent
unfortunately no. you have assumed that cauchy sequences are convergent, which is what we’re trying to show 
We want to prove that they are, in a compact space
just mulling this over, i think because you can “separate” each point in the metric space from the sequence with an open ball (except maybe the point itself, but that’s fine), then the union of each of those open balls is an open cover which contains no finite sub-cover, since there can be at most n terms from the sequence in any finite subcover.
Right that works
i have to think about why your infimum arg. works. not quite seeing it rn
It has the discrete topology on denumerably many points
Take sequence (x_n). If it had no convergent subsequences, then for each point y, you can take B(y, r_y) with r_y small enough that it contains no points of the sequence other than possibly y itself. This is an open cover without finite subcover, the only thing we have to change is the choice of r_y
To make the choice of r_y not depend on AC, take the set R_y of all radii r such that B(y, r) contains some point of the sequence different from y. This is non empty because distances are finite. Set r_y = inf R_y
Then r_y > 0 because there is some positive radius which isn't in R_y, and R_y should obviously be a ray in R
So we aren't leaving things upto choice

Yes now it is clear, nice proof
what is an example of non-paracompact space?
long line?
hi i have a question about this page
so here they say that G = A A^T where A is the jacobian matrix
when I try to compute G for polar coordinates it doesn't work it's supposed to be line 1 of the matrix 1 0 line 2 0 r^2
but the jacobian matrix A for polar coordinates is line 1 cos theta -r sin theta line 2 sin theta r cos theta and if you compute A A^T then you won't have the matrix that I just mentioned
also on wikipedia they say that G = A^T A not G= A A^T so I'm confused https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metric_tensor#Examples
In the mathematical field of differential geometry, one definition of a metric tensor is a type of function which takes as input a pair of tangent vectors v and w at a point of a surface (or higher dimensional differentiable manifold) and produces a real number scalar g(v, w) in a way that generalizes many of the familiar properties of the dot p...
Okay so this is the exercise that I'm working with: Let $p: \tilde{X} \to X$ be a simply connected covering space of $X$ and let $A \subset X$ be a path connected, locally path connected subspace, with $\tilde{A} \subset \tilde{X}$ a path component of $p^{-1}(A)$. Show that $p: \tilde{A} \to A$ is the covering space corresponding to the kernel of the map $\pi_1(A) \to \pi_1(X)$.
I assume that I should show that $p_*(\pi_1(A))$ is the kernel of the map. I don't know what the map $\pi_1(A) \to \pi_1(X)$ is since it isn't given but I assume that they mean the homomorphism induced by the inclusion $i: A \hookrightarrow X$. This is my work so far:
So let $[f] \in p_*(\pi_1(A))$. By a theorem in my book, this set contains all loops such that when you lift them, they become paths starting at a point in the fiber of the the basepoint in the original loop. I will ignore basepoints tho. This means that $\tilde{if}$ is homotopic to a constant loop since it is a loop in $\tilde{X}$ and this set is simply connected. Now just "project" this bad boy down (by composing the homotopy with $p$) to get that $if$ is nullhomotopic so $f$ is in the kernel.
Now let $f$ be in the kernel instead. We will show that $\tilde{f}$ (the lift) is a loop in $\tilde{A}$ which will end the proof. Let $\tilde{i}: \tilde{A} \hookrightarrow \tilde{X}$ be the inclusion. We know that $if$ is nullhomotopic, but $if$ is homotopic to $\tilde{i} \tilde{f}$ so this guy has to be nullhomotopic. Now $\tilde{if}$ is a loop so $\tilde{i} \tilde{f}$ must be a loop and so $\tilde{f}$ is a loop. I am very skeptical of the very last sentence here, I think that it is very wrong.
Tokidoki ✓
How can i check general linear group over C is path connected or not?
in the complex case the matrix exponential is surjective, so you can try to use that to get paths
Can you please elaborate?
But why A to I , not A to any other matrix?
well this is sufficient to prove path connected, and i said that because you know how linear algebriacly you can do this.
Hmm ,i have to make a path like
A+(I-A)t
so that wont work necessarily
because you dont know if everything on that is invertible
so think back to how you can obtain I from A
like describe to me an algorithm
I form A by multiply A with its inverse
sure, but lets try to be more elementary here
yes, the word elementary is a hint kek
On that path?
yeah, cause for instance use that path from -I to I
0 is in it, which isnt invertible
Okk let me try to solve this further
Not gonna read all that, draw a commutative diagram 😌
I mean I read the problem
The solution is
Draw a commutative diagram
hmm but how am I supposed to draw a commutative diagram that solves the whole question tho?

Also yeah if they just say "the" map from pi1A to pi1X, they always mean the induced one
You're not, draw the only thing you can draw from that information
And it will give you most of the solution immediately
Like don't try to work backwards from the solution
Just draw whatever you know
Okay I will give this a think 
😌
% https://q.uiver.app/?q=WzAsNCxbMywwLCJcXHRpbGRle1h9Il0sWzMsMywiWCJdLFswLDMsIkEiXSxbMCwwLCJcXHRpbGRle0F9Il0sWzAsMSwicCJdLFsyLDEsImkiLDIseyJzdHlsZSI6eyJ0YWlsIjp7Im5hbWUiOiJob29rIiwic2lkZSI6InRvcCJ9fX1dLFszLDAsIlxcdGlsZGV7aX0iLDAseyJzdHlsZSI6eyJ0YWlsIjp7Im5hbWUiOiJob29rIiwic2lkZSI6InRvcCJ9fX1dLFszLDIsImYiLDIseyJzdHlsZSI6eyJib2R5Ijp7Im5hbWUiOiJkb3R0ZWQifX19XV0=
[\begin{tikzcd}
{\tilde{A}} &&& {\tilde{X}} \
\
\
A &&& X
\arrow["p", from=1-4, to=4-4]
\arrow["i"', hook, from=4-1, to=4-4]
\arrow["{\tilde{i}}", hook, from=1-1, to=1-4]
\arrow["f"', dotted, from=1-1, to=4-1]
\end{tikzcd}]
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
Tokidoki ✓
YES 
Can you please give. Me one more hint, i am not getting this
Step 2 is π_1 😌
you get to I by elementary row operations right
Yup
Also first make sure the diagram is commutative
Not just that it's a random square
Then see what it tells you about the fundamental groups and the induced maps
show that doing a row op on matrix A keeps it in the same path component. if you have shown it for all of the row ops then you are done
Also what is f, why is it dotted 
because that's the map that I'm "focusing" on now I guess
It isn't supposed to mean anything, I just wanted to highlight it
Well I'm trying to show that f: tilde A to A is the covering space corresponding to the kernel map of pi_1(A) -> pi_1(X) so I just highlighted it
Yeah, but do you know what the map f is

Like can you describe what it does
or maybe just try to prove that the diagram you drew commutes
Should use determinent?
You will need to know what f is to be able to do that
sure, use det to show its still invertible everywhere in the path ig
Toki just read the question carefully you literally typed what f should be 
Yeah lol
lmao okay then it's quite easy to see that the diagram commutes right?
and now we can "transfer" this thing to a diagram involving fundamental groups and that diagram will also commute
maybe I should draw it too
Also have you shown that the restriction of p is also a covering
That's also part of the problem ig
yeah I did, it was an earlier exercise
Always draw commutative diagrams if you have more than like 2 maps😌
Tokidoki ✓
😌
I can't , not getting it.
ok what did you try so far
I want to show path connected, so there should be a path ,
But i am not getting that path .
so remember i told you to break it up into row operations
find one for each, i.e changing rows, adding em and constant multiplication
Transformation
Please can you write that path?
I will try this in morning.
if $A\in GL(n,\bC)$ then $A = e^X$ for some $X\in M_n(n,\bC)$. $t\mapsto e^{tX}$ is a path in $GL(n,\bC)$ joining $I$ to $A$. this suffices for path-connectedness as, given $A,B\in GL(n,\bC)$, concatenate the path from $A$ to $I$ and from $I$ to $B$ to get a path from $A$ to $B$
TTerra
oh i just completely ignored the previous conversation
well this is a "not elementary" way to do it since i'm not sure how elementary "every invertible complex matrix is an exponential" is
i litteraly meant elementary operations
when i said elementary kek
(to generate matrices that is)
lol
But now what tho? Doesn't this only prove one inclusion? Because now I have that $i_* f_(\pi_1(\tilde{A}))$ is trivial so every element in $f_(\pi_1(\tilde{A}))$ is in the kernel
Tokidoki ✓
Ye it proves only one immediately
For the other one start with a loop in the kernel in the bottom left group
Prove that it's in the image of f_* 😎
So like start with this loop and track it around the diagram
Via liftings, images, etc
I'm a bit confused with whats going on here
when he takes the exterior derivative of fdz, is he doing this formally, or are dz and dz bar actual 1-forms?
are they being treated as 1-forms on C identified with R^2 as a real manifold?
(sorry for interrupting but I got it now. You just compose a loop in A, "push" it forward with i to get something nullhomotopic and then lift it up, restrict the range and then you have a loop in tilde A that lifts the original loop. Thank you so much! I'll try to draw a diagram next time!)
Interrupting what 
i think i get it now actually 
Oh crap
Frick 
but why can't I just restrict the range tho?
bro I was chilling in my bed and now this 
Is the lift along p, of the image of the loop under i_*, guaranteed to lie is tilde A?
Like the lift has to be a path in the image of the inclusion of coverings for their to be a valid restriction
yeah because it's homotopic to a constant loop right?
no wait, that doesn't say anything, does it?

no it does because of the uniqueness
well idk, consider a constant loop lying in tilde A?
well it's a path component of p(A)^(-1), but I don't know what that gives me
man I didn't think this through lmao. I thought that the constant map always is in tilde A or something idk
Constant map would be
But this isn't a constant map
It's a nullhomotopic map
Not quite the same
So the image of the path under i lies in the subspace A
So its lift lies in p inverse of A
But it's path connected

No changing basepoints 
The first diagram you drew should've been a pointed diagram
All lifts you do are pointed lifts
When you lift along a covering, you choose a basepoint
Each basepoint gives you a lift starting at it
So in tilde A you already have some basepoint and you use that as the starting point of the lift
yeah okay I see, but now what? How do I know that the lift is inside tilde A tho?
This
And this
Together tell you that the lift lies in the path connected component of p inv A containing the basepoint of tilde X
ie in tilde A
but why is path connectedness needed in this case?
Path connected subsets lie in path components
Otherwise you could jump back and forth between components
ooohh lmao okay I see
Now to prove that this path really is the lift along f 😌
restrict the range I mean
You apply f though 
no wait
Ah
Restricting gets you a loop in the top left space yeah
You have to show that this loop in the top left space maps to the original loop under f
So that the original loop is in the image
The idea for this whole inclusion is that informally you should just think of f and p as the same map
well f is just p restricted so then this must be the case
okay and now we are done right?
✓
okay great thank you so much! I really appreciate that you wasted all this time on me lmao 

A=e^x ? How
you can google a proof of this fact
probably something like do a jordan decomposition (we're in C) to reduce to the case of a jordan block
Small question for knot theory: if you have a braid word $\sigma_i^{-1}\sigma_i^{-1}$ (for any $i$), does that condense to $\sigma_i^{-2}$ or $(\sigma_i^{-1})^2$? I saw a prof use the former and I just wanted to check that it was appropriate
gmod
it condenses to both of those, they're equivalent
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presentation_of_a_group maybe look at this for more information
the braid groups are in the examples
swag
swag
@mossy ermine ur not swag
modular forms r topology and geometry 
ok analyst
to be clear: we analysts want nothing to do with modular forms even though they're cool.
does $f(\overline{X}) \subseteq \overline{f(X)}$ for every kind of $f$
you can use \overline to make the bar go over the entire expression f(X)
honey99
so if this holds then function is continous?
is it iff?
okk i will try
Does f=x+y maps discrete set to discrete ? Any hint ,
Look at previous examples 😌
Ohhh z*sqrt2 z it is dicrete in R^2 but its map is not?
Also you can see that all lines of slope -1 have singleton images, so far away points can map to close together elements. Tweak this slightly to get an easier example
But one thing is that how to show that image of z*sqrt 2Z is dense in R?
Many ways, main idea is that √2 has arbitrarily close rational approximations 
You can also show that you get things arbitrarily close to any integer without equalling it, using pigeonhole, and then translate stuff around to get good approximations of anything
I think i got this, by integers a+bsqrt(2) is dense in R ,this is already proved on math stack
hmm this isn't exactly a+√b
Edited
The dense part ,


This argument is really neat btw, my discrete math prof mentions this every year to each batch that he teaches 😌
Very nice application of pigeonhole
Wait now I'm interested, how does the argument go
For any natural number n, make n boxes by saying box i contains all the elements of the set that are between i-1/n and i/n above a natural number. As there are infinitely many numbers in the set, two elements are in the same box, so subtracting and translating you’ll get a number in the set that is less than 1/n and greater than 0 (the last part from irrationality arguments). Now taking integer multiples of this, we see that all reals are within 1/n of some element of the set
I'm trying to show that in a compact set K, every sequence has a convergent sub sequence. My strategy is to take an open cover and produce a finite subcover, pick an open set V in the subcover that has infinitely many points, and consider the part of V that is disjoint from every other U_i (so V - the union of all the other U_i). This is closed in a compact space thus is compact. I can construct the subsequence by picking a point in this space, and then repeating the construction to get a subsequence and a nested sequence of compact sets descending. But something that I am worried about is if this process is a jerk and just picks a subcover of one open set over and over and over. How do I work around this?
eg if i picked K to be [1,2] and chose the lame open cover {(0,4)} - it seems like I need to do something at the step of picking an open cover
V\the union of Ui’s need not be compact. Also we have the freedom to choose any open cover we like, why use a generic open cover when we could possibly define an open cover using the sequence that will give us interesting info
I thought it would be compact because it's a closed subset of a compact set
It isn’t closed
Oh no I really meant to say V intersect K-unionU_i for all U_i that is not v
my bad
but the part of v that is not in any other U_i is what im focusing on
How is that any different?
Can somebody maybe explain how the quotient of a cylinder $S^1\times I$ under the identification $(z, 0) \sim (e^{2\pi i /2}z,0)$ and $(z, 1) \sim (e^{2\pi i /2}z,1)$ gives the Klein bottle
Cuz i ain't seeing it
Irony Incarnate
Now that I think about it that isn't different lol. But I do fail to see how it isn't closed.
Why do you think it is closed?
Is there a source this isn’t a presentation of it ive seen
Hatcher page 65
Can u post it I’m in an airplane
Ah OK lol gimme a sec
Okay, so our finite subcover is {U_1,...,U_n} and I'm picking one of these open patches that has infinitely many points and calling it V (so that when I discuss U_i i am not talking about V). The other U_i are open in K and so their union is open in K. Thus, the compliment of their union is closed. Now, we know this closed compliment is a subset of V since V helps to cover K. Thus, V intersect the compliment of the union must be the closed set itself.
The idea is that $(\bigcup U_i)^c \subseteq V$ is clsoed
Michael Harp
I see, V was in the open cover, sorry I thought it was just some random open set
No worries, I should have probably made that clear
Oh boy
Irony I think maybe you can prove this with classification of surfaces and van kampen
I’m not sure it’s easy to picture
In any case, I still fail to see how that will help, you kind of showed it yourself by taking the trivial covering, doing this sort of thing kinda gives you no info
I see, and I agree - do I ditch the whole effort?
Oh wait no it describes it well if you know how to build a Klein bottle from Möbius bands
Okay maybe threads aren’t a bad idea
You should really try to come up with an open cover using the sequence and show that this has a finite cover implies that the sequence has a convergent subsequence
Pick a basis open set for every term in the sequence?
I might be able to convincingly draw it with fundamental polygons if you remind me in like
10 hours
Lol
My question at first was actually how he built those mobius bands but then I thought about asking for everything
I can probably imagine the mobius to klein
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/907176/klein-bottle-as-two-möbius-strips
Thank you math stack exchange for your service to our great cause
Ok so go by contradiction, assume no convergent subsequence for any x in the metric space, find a neighbourhood that has only finitely many elements of the sequence in the neighbourhood. Use this to get an open cover. The problem in your case is that even if we cover all elements of the sequence that most likely won’t cover the whole space.
I tried to describe this myself
And decided
Not to
So that link might help
this makes me feel so stupid. why is he able to say dx=dw1e1+dw2e2
@novel acorn
Thank you and enjoy your flight
like yeah, i get that x only has derivatives in those directions, but like, why not have de1 and de2 as the basis for this
@true robin I always forget contradiction exists because I don't like it too much. I'll see how this works out though, thanks for the help fam
No problem
Point set topology has a ton of results whose basic proofs tend to be contradiction
I don’t know how many of them actually end up having constructive proofs
Is every subspace of a fin-dim normed space closed?
No. Consider R.
R has only 1 proper subspace tho which is trivially closed
And R itself is closed
Wdym
this is true
Can you give me a direction for proving it?
try finding a linear homeomorphism with R^n which carries your subspace to something pleasant
there are more direct ways to doing it too
Hmm alright
the more direct ways involve literally just showing the complement is open
pick a basis and work in coordinates
In an IP space this would just be the This would just be the coordinate vector transfotmation w.r.t. some Orthonormal basis which is an isometry
But is it still an isometry for a general normed space?
I would think the complement in general would be more complicated
Since it's not even a subspace
i mean why is R^3 minus R^2 x {0} open
Cuz you can find an open ball around every point ofc
I get the general idea
I'll play around with it tmrw
Actually wait
I've proven smth stronger than this before
That every fin dim normed space is complete
Therefore as a complete subset of a complete space it's closed
But maybe i'll try doing it directly for sport
that's a good way to do it
so that's like a sequential closedness proof as opposed to a complement is open proof
For the sake of completeness one should add the „black magic“ proof where you just state that ℝ²×{0} is the preimage of {0} under the projection on the third coordinate π₃:ℝ³→ℝ, which is continuous
But that is only easier if the product topology is defined by the universal property – otherwise the „complexity“ of this argument lies in showing that π₃ is indeed continuous.
I think thhe „nitty-gritty“ approach to verifying open/closedness is really helpful to understand the concept, but the „preimage of continuous map“ approach can provide much more elegant and less error-prone proofs
(Although it is not always easy / possible to find such a continuous map)
sorry to interrupt, but I have a question: why is going around a circle twice fundamentally different than the constant loop?
because if i take a string and loop it around a doorknob two times and then tie it tight
i can't take the string off without cutting it
ohhhh
well
that's kind of not it
it's one reason
but even if i took a rubber band
i would need to take it off the doorknob
so would going around a circle n times be fundamentally different than going around n+1 times?
these are all different "homotopy classes" of closed paths on the circle
turns out, they're the only ones
every path on the circle can be stretched or shrinked into a path going around n times in one direction with constant speed
so what you're saying is if I make a half loop around a circle, I can stretch it to make, say, 10 loops if I wanted, right?
(just making sure I understand what you're saying)
and why does the "constant speed" part matter?
No ryc means like
For a given path
There is some n
But only one
For half way around this n=0
oh I see
The best way to think about this in my opinion
Is you take a string
And a piece of paper
And punch a hole in the paper and like stick a pencil through it
Then you tape on end of the string down and wrap it however you like, double back on yourself, whatever
But the rule is you have to end where you started
And tape it down again
Then the statement is that you can arrange your string to look like something that smoothly goes around the pencil n times for some n
where do you tape the string down?
Doesnt matter just has to be the same spot for both ends
oh I see
Oh obviously
The pencil is there to stop you from crossing the “hole” in the circle
Don’t lift the string over the pencil lol
Np
I feel stupid
If I have injective maps f, g: X→Y, is f(x)↦g(x) between the subspaces Im f → Im g continuous?
My feeling says it should only hold for embeddings (because then the inverse of f is a continuous map from Im f → X) but I fail to find a counterexample
I mean if it is continuous it must always be a homeomorphhism because g(x)↦f(x) would also be continuous
But I guess there are injective continuous maps X→Y whose images have different homeomorphism types
like f = embedding ℝ→ℝ² into first coordinate, g = infinity sign parametrized by ℝ
nvm then :>
So I guess this is yet another case of „hatcher does not mention why stuff is continuous although it isn't obvious at all“
but yeah I guess in this case it's not hard to see that the ψᵢ in question are embeddings.
okay, no, the ψi aren't, but their graphs x↦(x,ψᵢ(x))
I understood the first half of what you said.. then my brain slowly melted. But Id like to learn more; did you solve your query?
I think I have a counter example, let X be a 2 element set {a,b} with any topology (say discrete). Let Y be the four element set {1,2,3,4} which is the disjoint union of the trivial topology on {1,2} (that is, only empty and {1,2} are open) and the discrete topology on {3,4} (everything is open). Let f map a->1 and b->2 and g map a->3 and b->4. The map you describe will not be continuous
@flint cove did you see this
Yes, but thank you
It's like 6am over here and I should really stop doing things now.


generally, if I have $A \subseteq X, B \subseteq Y$, and I know that separately, A,B are homeomorphic (In the resp. subspace topologies), X,Y are homeomorphic, then
- Can you always find a homeo' between X and Y such that A is sent to B by it?
- If not, are the relative properties of the subspaces still preserved? (i.e. closedness, compactness etc.)
ShiN
No, here is an example, let X be the topology on two points {a,b} where the open sets are empty set, {a}, and the whole space. We let Y be the same thing as well. Let A be the set {a} and B be the set {b}. Obviously they are homeomorphic. But there is no homeomorphism from X to X that sends b to a, because such a map, would have to send b to a and a to b. The preimage of the open set {a} under this map will be {b} which is not open.
Alright I thought as much for the first question but couldn't come up with an example, but what about the 2nd question? In your example the {a},{b} still have the same relative properties
thanks
Properties relative to X and Y
Just like I said
Topological properties of a subset/subspace
e.g. closedness, compactness
Well compactness is preserved under homeomorphism so that should be true
But properties that rely on the bigger space like being open or closed
In saketh's counter example, the closed set {b} is mapping to the not closed set {a}
Yea I know
I mean even though there is not a homeomorphism that sends A to B
Is it still true that A is open iff B is open
Wait I was talking about the homeomorphism from A to B not the big space homeomorphism
No, {a} was open, {b} wasn't
Yeye I misread the example
I thought the topology on Y had {b} oprn
Alright that settles it

Np
specifically the question arose in the context of spaces homeomorphic to (subsets of) eucildean spaces where I realised that closedness would be preserved in this case cause of Heine-Borel
in the case of bounded sets at least
Yeah only in the case of bounded sets
So closed and bounded is the same as compact, and compact is an “intrinsic” property
Because (0,1) for example is homeomorphic to R which is closed
yea ofc
I can't think of a counterexample for openness while keeping dimension constant
Open sets in R^k would be k manifolds, and I guess all k submanifolds of R^k would be open?
And being a k manifold should be intrinsic
could be, that's beyond me
The above reduces the problem to "are there non open subsets of R^k, homeomorphic to R^k?"
If there is one you get a counterexample immediately
If there are none then all k submanifolds of R^k should be open
So that argument above would work
here f(x)=f(2x) so that means f(x)=f(2x)=f(4x)...., but how this help me to check 1st option?
what exactly did you mean by "does it work for (0, inf)?"
(0, inf) isn't compact, so you can't say the function would be bounded directly.
another way to think about this is by using that t(x) = 2^x is a homeo from R --> (0, inf)
wait let me think about this
yea sure
well maybe this hint is a bit too much but:
||the values f admits on the interval [1,2] already determines all values of f||
Let $X,Y$ be two compact hausdorff spaces and $f$ be a function such that the graph of $f$ is closed in $X \times Y$. Show that $f$ is continuous
d/dx
I checked that this indeed holds for a function from [0,1] to [0,1] and while that gave an idea it isn't working as well as I expected
I was thinking that I could use a net that approaches the "hole" left by the discontinuity (and thus doesn't converge to anything) and use that to show the graph cannot be closed
Maybe you could find a closed subset in Y whose preimage is not closed in X
lemme think about that for a min
If the graph of f is closed, then f is a composition of a homeomorphism and a projection
nvm that was circular
wait no
it works 

The problem doesn't state injectivity though
nvm it works

how? can you please elaborate
Suppose x is between 2 and 4. What is f(x) in terms of some number between 1 and 2?
In terms of f(some number between 1 and 2) I mean
let suppose x=2.4 , then f(2 times 1.2) like this?
Yep!
And we know f(2x) = f(x)
So f(2.4) = f(1.2). Can you prove that we can push any positive number into this interval by doing this over and over?
i think we can because f(x)=f(2x)=f(4x)=f(8x)=... so on
Try to make it more precise 
(ignore what I said, you don't necessarily need to do it that way)
i was also thinking about that , but still can we do that ?
Ye it works
can you please given any hint for next part, as i know that continous function on compact set is uniformaly continous,
Try to come up with a counterexample 
but think about such function which satisfies f(x)=f(2x) not an easy task for me
Try drawing graphs. You would have to presuppose values, but try doing this: presuppose a value, see what other values you can deduce. Then do this for multiple points instead of a single one. Do this for a bunch of choices and I think you would get pretty good intuition for what these functions look like
any help with this? https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4217532/the-equivalence-between-cubical-sets-with-connection-and-cubical-omega-groupo
In the paper Cubical abelian groups with connections are equivalent to chain complexes as seen here: https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0212157.pdf it is asserted that cubical sets with connection and cubi...
hi
why the poset of cosets of abelian subgroups of a discrete group is
simply–connected if and only if the group is abelian.?
Let me get this straight: a delta complex is basically a way to divide your object into triangles/simplicies, right? So basically it is a family of maps from some standard n-simplex to X and those maps allow us to divide your object/space into triangles. Did I get the intuition right?
and then there's these fancy properties that has to be satisfied and those properties make your "cutting object to triangle" natural in some way
oh wow, this is great! Thank you so much!
a delta complex X_0, X_1,..., is just a secuence of sets with face maps, so X_n (n-simplexes) is not necesarily formed with the vertices X_0
yeah okay got it! Thank you! 
in option a , here it is given that 2 is not root so (x-2) is not factor of polynomial, and i know the defination of connected set, and knows that continous function maps connected to connected set, how can i use these things to solve this question
Nobody
So it will get mapped to non connected set
@pearl holly for the example of 1.21 right after van kampen on pg52 pdf, whats ur visual intuition for A_\alpha
because Im not sure how the implication X_\alpha is a deformation retract of its open neighborhood A_\alpha
Is it just me or is Hatchers proof of Van Kampen a little too visual and sort of messy?
Because I remember going over it briefly in a class but it didnt put so much emphasis on this rectangle nonsense
You mean May? :P
Wow the linking circles and torus knot parts are cancer
Its either that im tired, my visual iq is low, he is explaining weirdly.
Im honestly feeling like the visualizing explanations are sorta important because they are meant to buikd intuition, but at this point its causing my brain to get overly tired
ESP showing R^3-A deformation retracts to S1 V S1
with A=S1 in R3
HOLY FUCK
I might be dyslexic
It was saying it retracts to S1 V S2
ok ig thats my signal to sleep
does we get all the values of R-{0} by this map?
Do you need all the values?
but map is onto so , all the values should be there
Yes, but see if you actually need to prove it
And what you get from surjectivity
Something much weaker than surjectivity suffices too
But of course you should also prove surjectivity (you probably would end up doing that anyway)
does evaluation map work here? like F : Set -----> R such that F(g(x))=g(2)?
That is the map Nobody was talking about
for rest of part i can use path connectivity (1-t)f+tg?
For which part?
for b,c,d
Yeah that works
Anyone here know any shape theory?
Looking for a decent quality book to learn it from
Dydak-Segal is the standard textbook account for shape theory
but definitely look through the references in https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/shape+theory, there's sort of no one size fits all book for this
The torus knot thing is pretty hard tbh
He will sometimes have these examples that are just super weird and hard to imagine but they're not too common
Maybe one or two per chapter
Oh sorry for not responding, John was explaining some stuff is discussion last night and then I fell asleep lmao. Tbh I don’t think that I have a visual understanding of those sets, I just understand the example intuitively and that’s enough for me
I might re-read that example when I get home tho because I don’t think I truly understand it
Yeah I guess you could imagine that those A’s, in the case of S^1 V S^1, is the wedge sun of a circle and a small arc
Might draw a picture once I get home lmao
I think Hatcher does Delta complexes badly (at least I had a pretty hard time with it)
You might want to use other resources (or skip it) I don't think they're that important for singular homology
But it’s really cool 
I might try to find something else if I struggle with it more tho, thanks for telling me!
Fellow Algtop is cool enthusiast
Covering spaces are pog
Although I'm on the permutation thing and Imma try rereading that to get a better grasp
"algtop is cool enthusiast" 
Yeah they are quite nice but tbh I literally find simplicies a lot cooler than covering stuff
Like only the concept of simplicies
Covering stuff is at the bottom of my list tbh
I remember reading Crossley and never fully understanding homology so I'm wondering how Hatcher does it
Hmm idk, I heard people saying that it is bad but I find it nice but I haven’t read a lot so I’m not the one to talk here

What conditions are sufficient for a subgroup of a torus to be itself a torus? Also do I need to understand lie groups to prove that it's indeed sufficient?
Moldi explain clown
Maybe I don’t truly don’t understand it yet idk

It’s basically ker/ im lmao
Cycles and then you quotient out the boundary stuff where you glue your cell
Yeah I’m almost there
The cool thing is that you have these nice simplicies and with them you can cut your object into triangles/simplicies and that’s pretty cool imo. And then I guess that with this you can calculate the homology group of some space or something
😌
And then apparently they “measure holes” so that’s pretty cool
Like the Betty number thing I guess
But I’m not there yet, I just remember nG talking about this a while back
the n-th betti number is the rank of H_n
Oh
That wasn't too scary
yea, except calculating ranks when H_n is not free abelian can be a bit annoying sometimes
Rank 
Ye
the rank of an abelian group can be thought of as the cardinality of the maximally independent set in it (Which exists since zorn), where independence here is being independent as a Z module
so basically the maximal set such that every finite combination with whole coefficients is 0 (the group identity) iff every coefficient is 0 (in Z)
equivalently, it's the cardinality of the maximal free abelian subgroup F contained in G such that G/F is torsion (every element has finite order)
try and see if you understand why these are equivalent
Yeah I think I see that, but are these numbers related to holes in some way?
yea
betti numbers pretty much tell you how many n-dimensional holes your space has
Daim that’s really cool, looking forward to reading about that!
And these numbers can be used as a definition of the Euler characteristic I think
From Wikipedia
I think
yea
So that’s cool too
I think yea
Yeah this stuff is really nice!
Honestly I get the meaning of the homology group, but I don't exactly understand why torsion free elements correspond to holes (yet?)
I might actually
So if anyone can tell me if my intuition is correct that would be nice: Basically, if some element in Hn is torsion, that means that if you 'go around' (In the sense of adding it to itself) enough times you eventually get a boundary, so this isn't a hole, but torsion free elements correspond exactly to those cycles which never become boundaries, and so correspond to holes
I think I might not exactly understand the geometric meaning of addition in the homology group though (SIngular homology specifically but simplical homology too ig)
but what does addition in the singular complex correspond to geometrically
like if it's just 'going around it twice' then why can that make something that's not a boundary suddenly a boundary
like adding a singular simplex to itself
I understand it's formal addition but it must correspond to something geometrically
Hi this is a topology question:
So we know a straw has 1 hole, but how many does this have?
If you put a pin prick in a straw then you would say it has 2 holes but saying this has 2 seems silly
and if it look slike this will the answe change
Please @ me
a once-punctured S^2 is homeomorphic to the real line
ah yes, I love these questions
@analog lark are we considering this as a surface?
it's homeo to a sphere with three holes, or to a disk with two holes
im gonna be hnoest with everyone, I know nothing about maths but this is rly bothering me
ok let me phrase this differently
do these tubes have one "layer" or two?
i.e. is there any thickness to the metal?
hmmm, well i would say yes
right
so this is a solid, and you're asking about the hole count of its surface
which means that there's both an inside and an ouside surface to these tubes
ahh i see
hmm
is it actually homeomorphic or just homotopy equivalent
so wouldnt that mean a straw has 2 holes
a straw, if considered as a solid, is homeomorphic to a solid torus with one hole
i mean, it's both, isn't it? unless i'm missing something
let me think about this for a moment.
I don't have a good enough intuition for when something is just homotopy equivalent vs when it's actually homeomorphic yet
imagine im 3
okay so like
i think
if we take your shape
it may be possible to deform it, without gluing or tearing anything,
into a torus with 2 holes
that's the topological answer to 'how many holes does this have'
I like to think about homotopy equivalent as a deformation retraction. Hatcher says that X and Y are homotopy equivalent if and only if there is a third space Z that deformation retracts onto X and Y. So thinking about this makes the intuition easier in my opinion. So if you have two spaces, you can just look at if they both can be "squished" down from a third space. One example of a deformation retraction is obviously from S^1 X I to S^1, so they are homotopy equivalent. But these spaces are not homeomorphic. Maybe another way to see the difference is to remember the invariance of dimension, which says that if U is open in R^n and V is open in R^m, then these two open sets are homeo iff n = m. Homotopy equivalence doesn't need to satisfy this
someone please correct me if I said something stupid, I am not yet qualified to answering questions here lmao
is there still a question here
chazer's question ig
depends on your definition of hole i guess
a topologist would probably say a torus has two holes
on through the center and one due to its hollow tube
@analog lark
isn't the second one a 2d hole, and the first one a 1d hole tho?
no both are 1D
oh wait no i guess so
i mean
the real issue is that the holes metaphor is bad
the real issue is that the holes metaphor is bad
Okay so here's another question: I don't really understand how C_2 "looks like". Like what does it mean for a group to be generated by the 2-cell A? What operation is in this group?
free abelian group is what he means
what the fuck hatcher


