#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 237 of 1
if the spaces are finite you cant even have a bijection
even if the space isn't finite
let Y = P(X)
Saying that you'd have a surjection X -> X x Y gives you in particular a surjection X -> Y = P(X)
this contradicts Cantor's theorem
could you give the whole context ?
because some stuff isn't defined in your screen 
X is just the product of topological spaces where they are all indiscrete except for a countable number of those who are not indiscrete
the author says C is such countable set
what is this trying to prove?
is quite long
uncrop
this is some preliminary stuff that helps the proof
Yeah that line seems wrong, but I think first countability should be preserved under removing indiscrete factors
which line moldi ?
the product of a given space with an indiscrete space is homeomorphic to the original, given space.
yhea thats clearly wrong
So they might be saying instead that if A, B are spaces and B is indiscrete then A x B is first countable iff A is
oh yes, then yeah what I said earlier is a counterexample
maybe I cant still fix the proof if instead of saying homeomorphism I say that there is a open continious function
does that prove first countability of the product from the first countability of the countable sub-product?
sorry I mean to say, just a function that will preserve the first countability
Right
This seems easier to show
Because it is subsumed by the countable products case
np 

Maybe their Kolmogorov quotients are homeomorphic?
(x1, y1) (x2, y2) topologically indistinguishable iff all (U, V) st (x1, y1) in U x V, (x2, y2) in U x V
i.e. forall U, V st x1 in U and y1 in V, x2 in U and y2 in V.
In which case x1, x2 are indistinguishable because there exists a V.
Converse is obvious.
So K(X x Y) = K(X) x K(Y), so that's that.
Should I actually study Advanced Calculus before putting my hands on De Carmo's Differential geometry for curves and surfaces?
what does "advanced calculus" mean
you should understand multivariable calculus
and probably some linear algebra, and knowing what an open set / closed set / continuous function is wouldn't hurt.

so like you have a topological space (X, T) and u wanna delete some points from it,
intuitively most natural thing to do is i think:
remove points from X and
new open sets will be same as before except without old points
if that doesnt work just take that as a basis
is there universal property for this
ah ofc
Can manifolds which are curved carry a vector space structure?
What I want to know is given a topological manifold with curvature, can I equip it with a vector space structure?

Oooh, that's unexpected.
say it ultra
Well, there are no global bijections for a general topological manifold to any R^d.


The pullback would only exist locally.
also what's a topological manifold with curvature?
Um, I'm sorry?
SSussy is talking about "actual" curvature
You know, the Riemann curvature tensor field?
That curvature.
ok, so you're explicitly referring to a smooth structure and riemannian metric
you should say so
Well, metric induced or not.
Are you looking for a topological vector space structure that has the same topology as the manifold's, or smth like this ? (In this case, the answer is no you can't)
No, an actual smooth manifold, which is curved.
What do you guys mean by a curved manifold?


Riemann curvature, right?
no, we're interpreting a topological manifold as a length space with respect to a metric inducing its topology
/s

I know that topological vector spaces exist.
What I wanted to know is that given a smooth manifold with curvature, can it also carry a vector space structure?
Well, the vector space structure isn't given.
What I want to know is could it be given one.
Let's say the manifold is the sphere.
With all the garnish.
How can the sphere be bijected to R^2?
There are only local bijections.
Can you give me an example?
do you believe that both R^2 and S^2 are of the same cardinality?
Yes?
then you believe there is a bijection between them
thats the definition of cardinality
Sure, but, can you give me an example?
i am honestly not sure there is an easy way to write one down lol
it will be inherently gross
Well, my intuition was that manifolds like R^d that has a vector space structure are flat.
the obvious thing to think of is like, remove a point, take the stereographic projection S^2->R^2 and then convince yourself you could find a place for the extra point if you wanted to
i think you are misunderstanding
a bijection does not know about any structure
it doesnt care if you have a vector space, a field, a topology, etc
its just sets
If a topological group acts on a topological space, is there any obvious way to relate the cohomology of the orbit space to the cohomology of the original space and the group?
For instance, if I quotient out an ℝ-action, I expect the cohomology to not change, because I would expect to get a deformation retract
and I was wondering whether that relates to ℝ being cohomologically trivial
Let's also assume that the action is free
@flint cove puppe sequence
oh wait cohomology
lookup the serre spectral sequence
if the actions start getting weirder you will have to do EG x_G X instead of X/G
and you will get "Borel equivariant cohomology"
which is insanely complicated for super simple spaces
for example, if G acts on a point, then the associated cohomology is the group cohomology of G
TTerra
i am in dire need of a sanity check. ping if you respond
(assume the flow is complete if needed)
i don't understand this. If we take wedge product of a n and n-1 covectors, we get a 2n-1 covector which is clearly not in the algebra. What am I missing?
You're missing that it automatically becomes zero due to antisymmetry
Take say R² and wedge (e1 wedge e2) to anything else, you'll see that you only get terms containing (x wedge x)
Okay, let's pretend I know how spectral sequences work for a second.
So the first thing here would be to notice that X onto X/G gives us a fiber bundle (or at least a fibration)? Does this still hold if I was non-free, say when I act with scalar multiplication on a vector bundle (since it includes the zero section)?
So if the fiber were cohomologically trivial, I would get $E_2^{p,q}= H^p(X/G, 0)\Rightarrow H^{p+q}(X)$
lux
But wouldn't that imply that E2 had only zero entries? How can that converge to the cohomology of X?
Hello, someone have any PDF about Algebrical Geometry?
Vakil is a great resource: http://math.stanford.edu/~vakil/216blog/FOAGnov1817public.pdf
Thank you very much
converge is technical term
it doesnt have to give you the actual answer
Could someone please explain to me what an induced homomorphism is? 0.0
In the context of fundamental groups?
Whenever you have a continuous function (X, x) →(Y, y), you get an associated homomorphism π₁(X,x) → π₁(Y,y)
and that's special about fundamental groups?
No many other things have this kind of a property
Like continuous maps induce homomorphisms between homomology groups
Or chain maps
Or even simpler, group homomorphisms induce set maps, between their underlying sets
This inducing maps thing is studied in cat thy as functors 
But idk if that's what you were trying to ask 
I think that's what I needed 
but that look like a very weird property 
Why is it weird 
how would that continuous function look like?
It works for any continuous function
You get a group homomorphism
The group homomorphism is just applying the continuous function on the paths in X
🤦
ie you have an element of fundamental group of (X,x), say [f]
And say the continuous function is g
The image of this element under the induced map is [g ∘ f]
Soundness of the definition has to be checked
But this turns out to be a group homomorphism
That's included in the definition of maps between pointed spaces
wait, just to avoid any further stupidity of mine: If there exist a continuous function between (X,x) \to (Y,y), then there must exist a homomorphism between their fundamental groups?
whoops, sorry
And yes that is true
For example there's a continuous map from R to S^1
The corresponding induced map for the standard map will be the homomorphism from the trivial group to Z
I'm sorry, I am not with you yet, I don't even get that function part.
Why does that take a basepoint?
(X,x) I mean
That denotes a space X with a basepoint x
Let me get back to you in 5 min 

I know that „E ⇒ blah“ means that it starts to stagnate for some index, and the entries at that stagnation point should be blah, correct?
because then having a zero page would mean all the successive pages are zero as well after taking cohomology, so we're already stagnant
I feel like I have a very basic misunderstanding here
I also feel like I am having a very basic misunderstanding here. Why does the basepoint of a fundamental group matter? I can't think of an example where the basepoint would make a difference.
pi_1(S^1,x)=pi_1(S^1,y) also for x \neq y, isn't it?
Oh, no, I'm just stupid, I forgot that the 0th cohomology is nontrivial
then I have E₂ consisting of one column corresponding to H^p(B, ℤ)= H^p(B) and that stagnates when taking cohomology, because to the right and left everything is zero
likes spectral sequences now
one stupid thing you can do is take the disjoint union of a point and a circle
then the base point definitely matters
for path connected spaces, the basepoint doesn't matter
any two fundamental groups of the space are isomorphic, and you can construct an isomorphism by choosing a path between the basepoints
it's in munkres
Thank you ❤️
of course the natural question to ask is if connectedness is enough (instead of path connectedness)
that's an exercise 



just think of the usual connected-not-path-connected space
maybe with some modifications
if I could only think of such an example 0.0
topologist sine curve
Now find a counter example that shows that the closure of a path connected subset doesn't need to be path connected 
You already gave it 
gimme another one
another one? 
Well idk, a curve that is "infinetly dense" at its limit points somewhere but not as dense elsewhere, just like the sine curve thingy

But what other examples are there tho? 
probably some really weird, non visual and abstract ones or something
It's a long shot, but would anyone happen to know where I might be able to find an english version of this paper? https://link.springer.com/content/pdf/10.1007/BF02950724.pdf
It's german title is "Zur Isotopie zweidimensionaler Flachen im R4", translating to "On the isotopy of two-dimensional surfaces in R4", published by Artin in 1925
i doubt it exists, but id say just force your way through, math german isnt too hard to read even with basically 0 backgroynd
google translate is useful :)
based
you get lots of hot guys
this is also a good reason
thank god it's only 3.5 pages
I just want to see the proof that the fundamental group of a spun knot in 4-space is isomorphic to the fundamental group of the knot that is being spun
I've started translating it and should be done in say half an hour
Gonna sound terribly awkward tho because it sounds awkward in German already
I would really appreciate that! It looks like most of the stuff I care about is on the latter half of the second page, where it talks about fundamental groups in the next to last paragraph. I more or less understand everything up to there
@pearl holly are you here?
Yes
Okay, let me post this then
okay good
Okay so the first thing is: what the heck does he mean by "depend only on the endpoints of the path h"?
Like if we assume that it is abelian, what should we arrive at?
Maybe that if $h_1$ and $h_0$ are two path with the same endpoint, then $\beta_{h_1}[f] = \beta_{h_0}[f]$
Tokidoki ✓
Sorry, I am still thinking about that "change of basepoint" definition you sent.
yep
It's basically conjugation like in group theory
since the h bar thing is kind of the inverse of h
Yeah, I get that.
OKay good
oh, so "dependent on only the endpoints of h" means that we could just pick any f and it would still be the same, I guess.
but that's visually very weird to me
progress: mid third page
Hmm
Do you think this is right?
i really don't know xD
Because I can pick two completely different paths h and h'. If beta is only dependent on the endpoints of these paths, and if the have the same endpoint, then b_h = b_h'. Right?
So if I pick different endpoints, then the b_h and b_h' should be different
yeah, sure
Okay so now we can at least start with something
let's start working with $\beta_{h_1}[f]$ and show that this is equal to $\beta_{h_0}[f]$ using the fact that the group is abelian
Tokidoki ✓
let me try this on paper first

$\beta_{h1}[f]=[h \centerdot f \centerdot \bar{h}]$ and that's just equal to $[f]$, since it's abelian, right? 0.0
verysorrowfulperson ✓
my coffee is still too hot for it to be consumed 
well the concatenation is not abelan I think. We know that [f][g] = [g][f] tho
huh, why isn't it?
because it's the fundamental group that is abelian
the group operation of the fundamental group is concatenation
yeah but the group elements are [f], right?

it's the equivalence classes that are in the group, not the loops itself
yeah, I see :/
yeah we need some sort of relation between b_h_0 and b_h_1 I think
otherwise, we won't get anything I think
because how do we proceed from this?
that b_h1[f] = [h1 f h1 bar]
and all we know is that they have the same endpoint
so they are homotopy equivalent, right?
yeah I think so
so it's trivial xD
Okay.
There you go
okay well they have the same start and endpoint, but that doesn't mean that there's a homotopy between them, right?
no, it doesn't
I think
no, it really shouldn't
lux what a bro! Translating a whole paper, that's really nice of you!
yeah so it's not trivial, right?
no, nothing here is trivial, for me at least
probably still is trivial for the solution manual authors
yeah I just thought about this
because if that was the case, then it actually would be trivial
without the need of the group being abelian
it just follows
but if they have the same starting and end point, they obviously eliminate each other (h and h bar I mean), and weirdly this doesn't require "abelianness"
@bronze lake feel free to ping me if some things are unclear; sometimes I don't quite understand what he means in German as well, it's kinda ancient regarding some parts of the nomenclature
well it's clearly better than doing numerical analysis homework lmao
wait how do they eliminate each other?
I am so confused by this, I think my visual intuition is completely leading my astray.
h and h bar are inverse paths, I thought.
I think of it like vector addition
If I go h then f then \bar{h}, it's the same as going the green thingy, right?
so the whole thing is only dependent on f, and not h and h bar, right?
No I don't think so. By going h and then h bar you will go back to the starting point
or am I just dead lost
im eating dinner
and we're suffering
maybe we could annoy ask Max 
to at least explain what the exercise actually wants from us
Like is this what he means when he says "depend only on the endpoints of the path h"?
is that equivalent to that statement
but I don't understand how it is dependent on h anyway
In my mind, they cancel each other.
Yo max is here bois
this is the question
oh id need to think for this one I dont think its necessarily trivial
but yes its saying that the basepoint change homomorphism only depends on the basepoints
but why don't the h and \bar{h} cancel each other? 
okay, I asked a bad question apparently
Okay so we can show that if the group is abelian, then $\beta_{h_0}[f] = \beta_{h_1}[f]$ for two paths $h_0$ and $h_1$ that have the same ending point?
Tokidoki ✓
why, visually, isn't [h \centerdot f \centerdot \bar{h}]=[f]?

yeah, visualising them as vectors wasn't the smartest of ideas 0.0
~~just don't ask, please
~~

okay hol up, let me think first
share thy knowledge, please
i remember doing this exercise
how long did you take? 0.0 3 minutes?
Okay I think that this is just a group theory thing
how did you get that figure? 
we have that $\beta_{h_1}[f] = [h_1 f \bar{h_1}] = [h_1 f \bar{h_2} h_2 \bar{h_1}]$, right?
Tokidoki ✓
since the h_2 and h_2 bar cancel
so then $\beta_{h_1}[f] = [h_1f \bar{h_2}] [h_2 \bar{h_1}]$
Tokidoki ✓
so then, because the group is abelian, $[h_2 \bar{h_1}][h_1f \bar{h_2}] = [h_2 f \bar{h_2}]$
Tokidoki ✓

just manipulating the equation
we need some referee for that proof
this
$\beta_{h}1[f]=\beta{h}_2[f]$, which we assumed would be equal to the task 0.0
verysorrowfulperson ✓
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whilst toki thinks, I will just write down this one.
wait
so you mean this part where I split it?
well a long time ago, we went through a proof with max and he showed me that you can split this thing like I did
yeah yeah I know sorry lmao
and why can you split them up? 0.0
well crap, I don't really remember the argument that max gave
wait, I will scroll up
and also, why is this? xD
I assume you can combine them due to the same argument.
Ah great.
yes, here I am combining them and the step before it uses the fact that the group is abelian
or not the previous step, but the previous step combined with this step kind of
okay so how does that follow from definition?
aaahhhhh I shouldn't be doing all this stuff when I can't even remember basic definitions!
I should just go back to Munkres man
no, stay here.
Well, it's brackets and it's a group, so the laws of associativity must apply



are you kidding me

I remembered there being something about that property, but couldn't quite recall what it was xD
🤨
well anyway, that literally follows from definition. Should we try to do the other implication now?
,ti
The current time for veryhappyperson is 01:14 AM (CEST) on Sun, 27/06/2021.
are you sure about that?
the other seems harder, tbh.
I should honestly review all this before trying to do the exercises
wait let me think for a minute
don't worry, even max hasn't responded yet, so it can't be that simple 
yeah, but he said he had to think about it
the only tricky part is to get the manipulation right
I don't know how to begin this.
ok so we want to show that [f][g] = [g][f] right
and [f][g] = [fg]
so now we want to manipulate this thing to somehow get to the other side
so we need to add something to the equation
so what about the identity?
like e: [0, 1] -> the space?
oh wait
what???
hold on
right so [fg] = [e fg e bar] right?
oh there's now way
what, no, why?
oh
we can just make it a constant loop
because now we at least have that [fg] = \beta_{e}[fg] right
so now if e ends at the same point like g, then we have that \beta_{e}[fg] = \beta_{g}[fg]
and that is just [gfg g bar] = [gf]
and so [fg] = [gf], right?=

and the equality follows from the assumption that something something independent of h soemthing something
so from this
I don't know, but I know that I will seek my bed now 0.0
okay lmao me too, but I think that we solved it
it's just a lot of manipulation of the equations
nothing hard, just hard to see the manipulation thingys
Okay, good night 
and here e can be a constant loop that equals the end point of g
yes good night! 

okay now I need to rest. Stardew valley time 
it's helpful getting the greenhouse before winter, so don't forget to plant fruit trees.
Well I’m on summer now so I think that it is fine
trees take 28 days to grow though, and we really shouldn't have that conversation in here xD

toki thinks he figured it out too
🚶♂️ 🧠
my brain just shuts off when walking
and how exactly did you figure it out? 0.0
Do you want hints or a solution

its a free group on four generators modulo a product of commutators

I do not understand the argument in the corollary
(in this defn branch points are those with e_y > 1)
set of branch points sorry
im moreso confused about the claim in the proof
Like
why does the proposition imply that each point of Y has a punctured open set containing no branch points
how the argument made in the proof of corollary 3.2.4 follows from the proposition
Because it only has branch points at 0?
I see
and the fiber argument works similarly i guess
ok
that makes sense
thank you ultraproduct 
write down explicitly that z |-> z^k has only 1 branch point at 0?



ultra if this explanation is done I think i understand the general notion of how to do the computation im just not sure how to show that in the points of C where z |-> z^k isnt a branch point in the usual defn its not a branch point in the defn we have here
like if we use the transition maps properly we get this square where the objects are all C, the one of the horizontal arrows maps z |-> z^k and its given by local behavior near y, the other horizontal maps z |-> z^d for some d and its given by local behavior of phi near y', and the vertical arrows are transition maps
so i guess i just have to show that if ur not a branch point of z |-> z^k in the usual sense then ur not a branch point of z |-> z^k in the sense defined above
ughhh this sounds like complex analysis i dont know
every day is moth vs """basic facts from complex analysis"""
i know
it should be like
$\begin{tikzcd}
\mathbb{C} \arrow[r, "z^k"] \arrow[d, "t_1"] & \mathbb{C} \arrow[d, "t_2"] \
\mathbb{C} \arrow[r, "z^d"] & \mathbb{C}
\end{tikzcd}$
pain
Moth In Shambles
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$\begin{tikzcd}
\mathbb{C} \arrow[r, "z^k"] \arrow[d, "t_1"] & \mathbb{C} \arrow[d, "t_2"] \
\mathbb{C} \arrow[r, "z^d"] & \mathbb{C}
\end{tikzcd}$
AHHHHH
Moth In Shambles
holy shit finally
anyway z^k is top map between charts t_1 t_2 are transition maps z^d is local map and we know that for z in C nonzero corresponding to y' neq y in U_y cap U_y' we have z^d cause yeah
(you might have to shrink transition maps appropriately or something)
but how do we show that z nonzero implies d = 1
ofc z is not a branch point of z |-> z^k in the usual defn of branch points but idk how to show thats equivalent to the ramification index defn of branch points
Im not i hope slim suffers for 1000 years
what im trying to say is that like
i dont know how to show that branch points of z^k are branch points in the first place
under this defn
if they are then of course d = 1
so ur done
but idk how to show that z non-zero implies d = 1
i guess thats not rly what you asked me to do though 
idk i probably just need to sit down and learn complex analysis in detail to get into the nitty gritty of a lot of htese constructions
ok what i mean is like
i know that z^k has no non-zero branch points under the usual defn of having to pick an argument
i dont know how to show that z^k has no non-zero branch points under this defn, i.e i dont know how to show that z^k locally looks like z |-> z for non-zero points
once you take charts that translate those non-zero points to 0
does that make more sense?
no like
under the defn of branch points im given
how do i know that 0 is the only branch point of z |-> z^k
Oh i may have been very unclear
Yeah the thing i showed earlier with the charts and the z |-> z^k
so points are branch points of phi if k > 1
thats my defn
yeah the proposition is a definition
it shows that every map has that z |-> z^k form given some charts
and then defines branch points as ones where k > 1
and im just not sure how to show that when X = Y = C and phi = z |-> z^k that points other than 0 arent branch points

this makes sense!

topolog
A donut may be topologued into a coffee cup
How would I start here?
Hint: an endomorphism of Z is uniquely decided by the image of 1
Im kinda confused as to how the last sentence implies that the stabilizers are cyclic
@empty grove' hint in other words: What are all the homomorphisms from the set of integers to itself?
it is locally z->z^e
but not globally
e = ramification index
i.e. there is a complex patch thatlooks like this

So here's one thing I don't quite understand about the serre spectral sequence
If I try to see what happens with the trivial fibration B→B, it reads
lux
So this gives us a 2-page that consists of only one column (or row?) filled with $H^p(B)$, and this already stagnates because codomain / domain of the respective arrows is 0
lux
But I read the arrow as "eventually, our page looks like $(H^{p+q}(B))_{p,q}$"
lux
which can't be true because we only have nonzero entries in one row / column and don't have constant entries in each codiagonal
You should read it as $\bigoplus_{p+q=n}E_\infty^{p,q}\to H^nB$
The New Maxnormal
You have to worry about hidden extensions and stuff
bc you
are actually summing up an associated graded thing
not the real thing
im not sure where you would be learning about this that doesn't define convergence though
@flint cove
Does anyone know what is meant by "spectral topology" in the context here https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Gelfand+spectrum?
Ok thanks. Do you have any reference for this? because I can't seem to this definition anywhere
If i have a cover p: Y -> X and two points x1 x2 in X with distinguished open sets U1 U2 that have non trivial intersection
does every section on U1 agree with some section on U2
on the intersection
Fair, I guess I shuold bite the bullet and rigorously go through a text
I wanted to start off doing some „simple examples“ to convince myself that the whole machinery is worth it
Thanks for the helpful remarks.
Let me clarify
Convergence is the thing you need to actually pay attention to
feel free to completely ignore the setup of the spectral sequences
and the proofs
you just need to know what convergence actually means
I have a video lecture up on the Serre SS with some exercises at the end
if ur interested
Okay, that helps to focus things
Vakil seemed to be an accessible resource at first, do you know of anything else?
Found a copy of McCleary.
If you have a link to the video that'd be excellent!
Casual talk given to an audience of friends. I tried to make sure I did not miss any technicalities, but I am human! Please feel free to reach out or comment on any errors you find.
Original slides:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1aeg4yJ4c1hQkoyEhCAUvvd0-7SWgrqWK/view?usp=sharing
Slides with Annotations:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1aBtr7...
oh shit when did that get to 300 views lmao
weed probably
I'll reveal the full computation of $\pi_*S$
The New Maxnormal

Just do an over-eager announcement then you have to commit
works for me every time, now everybody knows that I have no clue about the Yoneda Lemma and I know a little more about it lmao
I have a question for Compact Manifolds in general. Is the metric tensor bounded? So does $ C_1 \leq \sqrt{g} \leq C_2 $ hold? With C_1 > 0 and for a particulare choosen chart.
as function in general on the defined region with \sqrt{g} := \sqrt{ det g}
my professor said it is true, but the explanation was a bit off
Black hole go grr
\sqrt{g}(p) is only defined on a region defined by a chart, why should scaling always work? In General the prof. said that the compact part was important
The Question is more about why this holds, because the prof. said it too me a week ago and since i was not able reproduce this argument. I want to show, that for a given chart part of an compact Manifold M (without boundary) there always exits a c_1,c_2 with
c_1 \leq \sqrt{g}(p) \leq c_2 \forall p \in F \subset M
where F is the subset defined by the chart.
If it goes to 0 its degenerate, if it blowd up then at the blowup point its bad news?
yes thats the thing i want to show does not happen when it is on a compact manifold
He said i should look a the \wedge * Operator
but that does not help me in any way
even tho i only have Subset, where this specific Chart defines the metric tensor?
because this one can be relative open
ok, but i think about it, this seminar i am having right now is a bit hard. Thank you ^^
people
why the first fundamental group is not conmutative
?
ups sorry im interrupting
no no just asking for the basic stuff
yes a wedge of circles I was thinking about that one
hey guys, i have a question on differential geometry
there's an exercise our professor solved, and i don't understand the last passage,
so, the exersice is:
- show that X is a differentiable manifold
- show a base of the tangent space of X in point p_0
and there's the solution!
i understand everything except how he got a base (BIG CURSIVE B) of the tangent space in p_0
I think it might be... a simple linear algebra problem, but i've been thinking about it a lot and i don't get it, can anybody help? (please @ me if you reply!)
I saw a past exam for this course, and one of the question was to do something similar for S^n, the n-dimensional sphere.
I can see that it could be seen as the pre-image of a regular point (1) of a smooth function in R^(n+1) (x1, x2, .... , xn+1 ) -> x_1^2 +.... + x_n+1^2
, the gradient of that function is gradf=(2x1, 2x2, ..., 2xn+1), and it's only zero in (0, ..,0) but that's okay because that point doesn't belong to the n-sphere.
So, that would make the sphere a smooth manifold of dimension n+1 -1 = n
The tangent space in a point x would be ... the set of the vectors that are orthogonal to the "radius vector" in that point, so i can describe that set TxS^n as the set of vectors y such as <gradf(x), y > = 0
BUT HOW DO I EXPRESS A BASE IN THOSE TERMS.... (like in the exercise my prof solved...)
(also can this be done GLOBALLY on a sphere?? because intuitively, I DO NOT THINK SO)
Does a homeomorphism between topological spaces X and Y endowed with the Lebesgue measure send null sets to null sets?
I should ask this in analysis prolly
can't you consider like cantor function or something?
Sadly i don't see the way to solve it. I even tried a different approach with the eigenvalues of the metric tensor. Because if it explodes at on point tge eigenvalues or at least one has to go to infty and the same with 0. But it does not work😞 i getting a litte depressed about it tbh, thats really bugging me long enough now.
Your tangent space – call it V – consists of all vectors (v₁, v₂, v₃, v₄) satisfying 2v₁-v₂+v₃-v₄ = 0.
There's many possible bases here, but one possible base of that in particular would be ((1,0,0,2), (0,1,0,-1), (0,0,1,1)): they are three linear independent vectors satisfying above equation, so they form a basis of V.
And in terms of your manifold, ∂/∂x would be your first unit vector, ∂/∂y your second, and so on
ohhh thank you so much @flint cove !! i got it now
IT REALLY WAS A QUICK LINEAR ALGEBRA THING
i just emailed my teacher about it and now i feel really embarrassed!
this would also be a valid base, right?
you just need any three linear independent vectors
differential geometry is just linear algebra parametrized by smooth things
i have heard of them a few times
but i don't know much
(anything, really)
yael karshon namedropped them a few times 

what is it called
NEW SPACES
RKrtejtklrltjk
BABE WAKE UP
i can't believe i woke up today, had a full meltdown over baby linear algebra and emailed my teacher about it and now i have to be embarrassed
guys stop saying the truth my mind is weak
one time i was confused about something for like 3-4 days and had absolutely no clue how to justify it
eventually went to the prof's office hours and it was literally a one liner

best way to retain memory on any subject is embarrassment and pain
i don't remember the exact issue but the one liner was basically like "the map sends the orbit to itself so it sends the tangent to the orbit to itself" and i was like fuck
so simple 
i failed an exam once bc i couldnt prove gramm schmidt's orthonormalisation algorithm in linear algebra like 6 whole years ago and now it lives in my brain rent free
i know it better than the lyrics of whatever i listened to at 14
honestly, a teacher's job should be making students understand why something is really obvious
but then students will surprise you on how not obvious something you think is obvious is
i had a calc 2 teacher with absolutely NO EMPATHY like.
she couldnt get HOW someone might not find ALL OF MATHS obvious
she was like "obviously, you're all playing stupid because there's no way you don't get this, i can't wrap my head around it!"
and it was really terrible to experience, but also hilarious
"what do you mean you don't get it? you're lying, right?"NO PROF
I guess every problem is intractable until it's trivial?
Sorry should have been more specific
I mean that pretty much everything seems impossible till you understand it
and then it seems trivial
Does someone have an interesting example of a non connected manifold with varying dimension on each connected component?

tu's manifolds book (intro) allows for such manifolds. there's an MSE answer out there by him that explains why
if you can find that, then he should give an example
Oh cool, I don't particularly remember that.
it's a really small technical thing
never really matters
but it's a thing
if you can find it pls link it i actually want to see
or it might be on MO idr
ill see if i can find it when i get out of the shower
i swear ive read a post by him that explains it
ya
This is actually a really cool example
But prolly too hard to describe with the current tools we have available at the course I am taking
group actions weird
is the moral of the story
wanna know a fun fact
every closed subset of R^n is the fixed point set of some smooth R-action
ok what hypothesis did i miss

i use fun sarcastically
i hate this fact


just goes to show how nice compact / proper lie groups actions are

imagine your fixed point set being some stupid shit like the cantor set
How to draw this smooth action if i want 3 points in R^2 as my fixed point set?
? Is it supposed to be >=0 function? How do you prevent additional maxima?
let f be a >= 0 smooth function which is zero at exactly those points and take the flow of f/(1+f) * (a coord vector field)
the zeroes of this vector field are exactly your points, and the boundedness of the coefficient ensures the flow is globally defined
(so is actually an R action and not anything local)
i read this on an MSE post a while ago and haven't forgotten it
more generally if your manifold admits a nowhere vanishing smooth vector field then you might be able to do the same thing 
oh right what I was confused about when I was trying to draw what it should be was that I was only drawing minima or maxima type fixed points (for the 3 points in R^2), which can never work by some topological argument (like, 1+1-1 != 0, -1-1+1 != 0), but in this example f/(1+f) * (coord vector field), all the fixed points are hyperbolic, and 0+0+0 = 0
(?)
maybe the topological stuff I was saying is nonsense; I'm going to believe something like that in my head anyways
Hmm I read a small portion of the image that MisterSystem sent and I thought that the theorem in invariance of dimension seems kind of cool. How does one prove it? I can only find PDF's online that I either don't understand (there's too much background knowledge that they don't cover) or proofs that only prove it for small values for the dimension (where n = 0 and n=1). Maybe this proof actually is pretty hard to prove so this might be a little bit far fetched since I don't know a lot, but it would be cool to see a proof of this.
Hey, I've seen two different definitions of weak topology on a Banach space X, one says that it is the smallest topology that make linear functionals in X* continuous and the other talks about the topology induced by seminorms. I suppose that the two are the same, but what is the intuition behind the weak topology and why should these two definitions be equivalent?
In some weird sense, the weak topology should be thought of as the topology of pointwise convergence. What do I mean by this? Well, a sequence x_n in X converges to a point x in X weakly if for every linear functional f in X*, we have that the sequence f(x_n) converges to f(x) as a sequence of real/complex numbers.
So what's really going on here is that the x's are acting like functions, and the f's are acting like the points that we're evaluating the functions on. Let's switch the notation: x_n(f) converges to x(f) for each f. Where I've just flipped the positions k
of f and the x's for notation purposes, the meaning hasn't changed. Now you can see that it's like a sequence of functions, x_n, is converging pointwise at every input f to a function x.
For me, understanding the weak topology in terms of how it captures pointwise convergence is really important. It's also how I actually use the weak topology in practice: to prove things using weak topologies, I almost always use weak (pointwise) convergence.
Ok, now why is this equivalent to the other two definitions you mentioned? It's actually kind of a bridge between the two imo.
First of all, we're demanding that each linear functional still satisfy sequential continuity (f(x_n) converges to f(x) when x_n converges to x: this was always true, but now it's our only restriction). Maybe you can try working out why it's true that the kind of convergence we've defined is precisely the kind given by the smallest topology that makes all the linear functionals continuous. Even if it's not totally immediate, now we can see that we're mostly just trading between usual continuity and sequential continuity.
On the other hand, there's the topology induced by seminorms. Well now each seminorm just comes from a linear functional. Check that weak convergence as we've defined it is the same thing as convergence in each seminorm, and vice versa.
Maybe for a more direct path between the two definitions: you need the seminorm for the functional f in order to make the functional f continuous, so we need all those seminorms. This is just by writing down what it means for f to be continuous. But we also need the SMALLEST topology, so we shouldn't add any more beyond the topology these seminorms generate.
@cobalt turretC thanks a lot for your detailed answer! That made things a lot clearer
@limpid vault it might be related to the topology on an infinite symmetric product
In algebraic topology, the symmetric product of a topological space X consists of unordered n-tuples of distinct points in X. The infinite symmetric product is the colimit of this process, and appears in the Dold–Thom theorem.
I dont think so
it's a free commutative monoid on X
according to the wikipedia page
there's probably a nice way to topologize the groupification
Has anyone an idea what the $C^{\infty}_{loc}$-topology is?
lime_soup
on what?
for the full context im trying to understand the "space of broken trajectories"
from morse theory
This is from Audin's morse theory, they prove directly that this is compact. I saw on some stack exchange post that this is the compactifction in the C^{\infty}_{loc} topology

it should be some kind of mapping space
did not pay attention to the topology 
maybe try looking up gromov compactness
Okay thanks

Is the pullback notation evoking the hodge star operator?
or is that a notational overlap
hm, pure unadulterated sadness

I was kind of hoping that like
pullback of g on a k form omega = g(hodgestar(omega))
by some weird composition of n-k-forms in vector val'd functions
hmm
i don't think i know of any identity similar to that
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exterior_calculus_identities maybe you can find something here
This article summarizes several identities in exterior calculus.
hodgestar...
shamrock activated
hodgerock shamstar
can someone help withthis ?
Professional
Can you see what the accumulation points and the boundary points are, from the sketch?
Also it should be the interval [1,2], not (1,2)
They are points in R^2 such that you can find a point of A arbitrarily close to them (ie in any neighbourhood)
so it must be the first answer then?
or what
wait
the boundary points are not defined
Why are they not?
Or do you mean you don't know the definition?
also that I guess

hmm
Boundary of A is A closure minus A interior
kind of, but interior could also contain limit points so you remove those
the answer is C then
yes
but the boundary is not defined
It is 
I know some 
I got some practise exercises until august
but we won't get the answers, only for practise
also quadrature
like if you know numerical analysis
I see, you can post them here if you get stuck on any
I got 1 look
I got 3 questions I have been looking at for quite long
also on more in topologty
my guess here is number 2
because the neigborhood is in A
right?
yeah that would imply that A has non empty interior
it seems right.
my guess is B here
since the inverse is self-mapping as well?
in the open interval
why are you taking a multiple choice exam on topology 
cohomology of RP^n multiple choice
guys
i need to use the Alexander Subbasis Theorem to prove that the space 2^𝑋 is compact for every 𝑋.
and uh, i just need a lil help to know where to start 🤡
Hmm… start with the definition of a subbasis?
It's virtually impossible to say something helpful here without knowing your context and which definitions you are comfortable with
I'm confused about the statement that says the weak-* topology is weaker than the weak topology. Here I assume the weak topology is defined on X and *-weak topology is defined on X *, but how can we compare topologies on two different topological spaces?
Also why is the weak-* topology weaker?
isn't the dual of X also a Banach space, and so also has a weak topology ?
@wanton marsh is that true in general? I don't really know much functional analysis at all, but I thought that depended on the underlying field
@summer jolt Elements of X* pair with both elements of X and elements of X** in a bilinear way. The weak* top on X* is that which makes all of the former cts, and the weak top on X* is that which makes all of the latter cts. The general embedding of X into X** is what gives you that the weak top is stronger (you are requiring more functionals to be continuous, i.e. you need more open sets).
Of course it immediately pops out from this that X reflexive gives you equality of these topologies.
@nimble jolt ok so in this case the book is talking the weak topology on X* not on X?
Yep, because as you say it does not make sense to compare topologies on different spaces.
I see thanks a lot!
no worries
Okay so this is the exercise that I'm working with. Here's what I (and veryhappyperson) thought:
So every homomorphism from Z to Z is of the form f(x) = ax for some integer a. This is because f(x) = f(1+1+1+ x amount of times) = f(1) + f(1) + x amount of times = ax where f(1) = a. But now what? You have to somehow "transform" this f(x) to be a homomorphism from pi_1(S^1) to pi_1(S^1). But how do you do that? To "change" the domain and range of this function, we need the variable x to be an element in pi_1(S^1), so something of the form [f]. But what does "a" correspond to in pi_1(S^1)? I assume that it must be a map from S^1 to S^1 because then I'm done, but I don't know how to prove it.
I also tried "conjugation", so hfh^-1 where h is the isomorphism from Z to pi_1(S^1) and where f: Z -> Z is a homomorphism. This will be a homomorphism from pi_1(S^1) to pi_1(S^1) but this doesn't give me a lot I think.
Then I tried to "replicate" the argument that every homomorphism from Z to Z is of the form f(x) = ax but with homomorphisms from pi_1(S^1) to pi_1(S^1), but it didn't go well because I only got "concatenation" in my expression instead of composition. So how would one do this?
Hmm yes but you still need to kind of "transfer" f(x) = ax so that it is "written in the language of" pi_1(S^1)
?
yeah idk lmao
I'm really tired sorry
But how would you use f(x) = ax in this scenario? How do I proceed from here?
I think the issue might be that your thing with "ax" only makes sense if you view Z as a Z module
It might be better to write: every function Z->Z is of the form f(1)=n which determines every other value
But maybe this isn't helpful
okay heres a better way of thinking of this
We know $\pi_1 S^1\cong \bZ$ and that every homomorphism $f:\bZ\to \bZ$ is of the form $f(x)=nx$ for some $n\in \bZ$.
The New Maxnormal
The New Maxnormal
Well we show that psi: Z -> pi_1S^1 defined by psi(n) = (cos2pi n, sin2pi n) is a isomorphism
Is that what you mean?
it's a circle. So if we have loops we can "concatenate" them to get a loop of a winding number which is a sum of the other winding numbers
okay so
psi(n) is a loop living in S^1
in the dumbest words possible
what does this look like
Well it's a circle? A loop?
is psi(n) just one loop?
So it has winding number n
If I wanted to walk around the circle in the path described by psi(n) what would i do?
So it goes around itself n times I think
yes!
okay
so to the number n in Z
we associate the path "go around n times"
Also I messed with some variable names let me restate stuff
every function Z to Z is of the form f(n)=mn
Okay
so in the "language" of pi_1 S^1 what does this mean
if "n" is go around n times
well it means go around mn times maybe?
Great
now, this is completely defined by what happens for f(1)
or f(go around once)=go around m times
can you think of a map S^1->S^1 that would induce this?
Hmm well not really. I'm not quite sure what you mean by induce
You need a map $f:S^1\to S^1$ such that $f_*(1)=n$
The New Maxnormal
The map $f$ induces the map $f_*$
The New Maxnormal
Well maybe a map that maps (cos 2pi, sin 2pi) to (cos 2pi (n-1), sin 2pi (n-1))?
okay hahah side bar
we are putting on our topologist hats now
please never write down another continuous function like that
just describe it
pure vibes
okay lmao, so like a thing that goes around the circle n-1 times
n-1?
because then when I compose it with "going around 1", I get "going around n-1 + 1 = n"
Oh
So you have this map from the interval to S^1 describing going around once
and then you wrap that circle around another circle n times
so now your path goes around how many times?
n times?
ah yes okay I see
But how would I write it using math? Because now f_a[w_n] = [w_{na}] where w_n is a loop that goes around itself n times is an expression for all homomorphisms from pi_1S^1 to itself, right?
what weve already said counts you dont need symbols for something to be math
But if you want to be careful
you'd just do something like
Well I mean yeah you've basically already done it
unless you feel like you need to prove that
$\omega_n\circ f\simeq \omega_{nm}$
The New Maxnormal
but you've already shown that all that matters here is winding numbers
and we already counted it
so its all formal and fine
yeah I know that it counts and it is a great way to think about it, but I got to this point once and I didn't know how to proceed from this so I just threw away the whole idea
yeah sorry idk, I should sleep and examine what I've done and then come back once I can express myself clearly lmao
if anything what you are saying sounds like you got so caught up in the symbols you lost sight of the geometry that gives you the answer
Someone here have any pdf about Riemann geometry?
i have plenty. give me 20 minutes or so and ill DM you a bunch
don't want to share them here
Alright
Hm ok
(pirated content)
Has virus?
lol
no
the mods don't want pirated content being posted on the server

Hm


I see

@gritty widget is it cool if i send them now
it might be a bit spammy
dont want to do it out of nowhere
@gritty widget In preference send it on my private
Because I’m gonna outta home
Hey TTerra? Respect the rules please 🙂
Nerds
Is Coordinate Transformation & Homeomorphism the same thing, or what's the Difference?
not every homeomorphism can be expressed as a change of coordinates
How is Coordinate Transformation different?(specifically, I want to know about coordinate Transformation of 3-d space to Hyperbolic space).
Again, not every topological space has a useful notion of coordinates
homeomorphism as a term is just vastly more general
can a fundamental group on a single connected component have an involution without being trivial?
2 dimensional real projective space has fundamental group Z/2Z. In this case the only nontrivial group element has order 2.
sorry if this question is too simple for an advanced topic channel 😅 I'm only a math minor who's studying all kinds of maths as a light hobby
if I would define manifolds like this:
- topological manifold is a special case of topological space
- to classify as a d-dimensional topological manifold, each point in the topological space's set must have on open set in the topology containing said point and an infinite(/arbitrary?) number of (continuous?) functions that map that point to a point in a d-dimensional coordinate system
is this definition sufficient? does it leave something critical out? is it susceptible to misunderstandings?
instead of "infinite/arbitrary number of functions", rather there exists an open set and there exists a function on that open set which maps the open set homeomorphically to an open subset of Euclidean d-space.
There end up being a bunch of functions, but the definition asserts the existence of at least one very special kind of function.
and that function must take any open set from the topology and be able to turn it into an open subset of Euclidean d-space in order for the top. space to be classified as a manifold?
does the function need to be bijective as well?
Yes, with continuous inverse
in a lecture series I'm watching right now, the lecturer tends to talk about these functions as "maps". is this just a convention of topology or does it carry some special nuance?
If you think of continuous in the forward direction as telling you no ripping/tearing, the continuity in the other direction you could think of as telling you there's also no squishing/collapsing. That way, for example, you can make sure you have a consistent notion of dimension





