#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 234 of 1
never let reason be the enemy of dunking
rule 2 is never dunk on someone trying to learn
dunking while teaching is allowed iff you are punching up
like if @frosty sundial was trying to learn something i could tease him but thats only bc hes clearly ahead of me in knowledge and career
max teach me about spectra
add preimages and equivalences until -\smash S is invertible
idk if i told you this before but a couple years ago I asked emerton about this like
so there are some mysterious connections between the sphere spectrum and number theory
for example, bernoulli numbers are a big deal in number theory and are apparently related to the sphere spectrum
also the stable homotopy groups of the sphere spectrum are conjecturally the K-groups of the field of one element
and I asked matt what the deal was
and he said something like "in 20 years, algebraic topology will be a prereq for number theory and you won't be able to do NT without knowing stuff about spectra"
max nt arc
homotopy theory + algebraic geometry eating all fields of mathematics
tbh i think spectra are a very natural thing
hahaha
frick I had a like nice introduction to spectra + related stuff
that I was reading
i always confuse the naming
i think every intro to spectra ive read was bad for a specific reason
Like, when spectra were being invented
the people more or less knew what they wanted and why
and all the various models for spectra were not randomly made, but there were guiding principles
makes sense (tm)
but every fucking intro to spectra steamrolls through the motivations
this is common in mathematical writing / pedagogy
ironically the nLab intro might be the best one
just because it at least explains why we want this category
so i think if i just spew a formal defn of a model cat of spectra at you
its like, understandable, but theres a lot of "so what"
and it takes awhile to get to punchlines
i wonder if lurie's intro is any better
you need to know infinity categories though
simplicial sets time
owo moth pedagogy is like maths pedagogy?
Two things
First you want to force the loops-suspension adjunction to be an equivalence
Then one reason you might want to do this is that the suspension iso on homology and space-wise brown representability suggested that the individual homology groups induced by the representing spaces ought to compile together in a category with naturally graded hom groups, i.e. you want to see each representing space as a suspension of the previous one
Sorry thats poorly phrased and is two seprate things
the first is that homology is suspension stable, so forcing suspension to be invertible should allow us to still read off homology
and second is that the suspension loops adjunction relates that functors $[-,K(G,n)]$ and $[-,K(G,n+1)]$
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
so that maybe entire cohomology theories should really be suspension-loops stable
things like this
also
you want a category where homotopy groups are the stable homotopy groups
is there a general construction of this sort where you have a pair of adjoint functors you want to force to be an equivalence?
seems like not just a loop space / suspension kind of thing people might want to do sometime
I am not aware of such a construction
Do you mean some kind of triangulation axioms or?
Is there a proof of the BBD recollement theorem in english?
So there's an example in my book that shows that the unit sphere in $\mathbb{R}^n$ for $n > 1$ is path connected. He first defines $g: \mathbb{R}^n - {\mathbf{0}} \rightarrow S^{n-1}$ by $g(\mathbf{X}) = \mathbf{X}/||\mathbf{X}||$. Then he says that it is continuous and surjective and "and it is easy to show that the continuous image of a path-connected space is path connected". What does he mean by the continuous image of a path-connected space? Don't you need to find a continuous function from a closed interval to the sphere?
Tokidoki
"the continuous image of a path connected space" means the continuous image of a path connected space
The author is showing that "if R^n - {0} is path connected, then S^(n-1) is path connected"
the author isn't showing path connectedness of S^(n-1) directly by contracting paths to points
hmm okay. But what is the continuous image of a space?
Just the image of the space under some continuous function
Like
this statement says "if X is path connected, and f : X to Y is a continuous function, then f(X) is path connected as a subspace of Y"
where Y is any topological space you like
ohhh okay now I see
you could similarly say "continuous images of compact spaces are compact"
okay I don't know what compact spaces are but I will learn that soon. Thank you!
the compact image of a continuous space is compact


4/27/2021 Mathematical Science Literature lecture
Speaker: Frances Kirwan (University of Oxford)
Title: Moment maps and the Yang-Mills functional
Abstract: In the early 1980s Michael Atiyah and Raoul Bott wrote two influential papers, 'The Yang-Mills equations over Riemann surfaces' and 'The moment map and equivariant cohomology', bringing to...
Hey there, im stuck with a problem, wonder if i can get some help
Let $X$ be the left-cosets of $B$ in $GL(n,R)$, where $B$ is the set of all inferior triangular matrices. We give $X$ the quotient topology of $R^{n^{2}}$. I want to show that $X$ is compact
Maikel
So, i was hinted all equivalence classes contained a matrix of determinant 1, and that i could use that.
I proved that, and also i noticed that the projection from GLn to X could be restricted to the special linear subgroup SL(n,R), but thats as far as i have come
That is almost better seen as a definition
if you are wondering why its a definition, consider the 2d case first
if I have a triangle of 1-simplicies
but that triangle isn't a boundary
that means its not filled in
i.e. its a triangle-shaped hole
this basic idea generalizes
if I have a bunch of filled in triangles that form a pyramid but aren't filled in, that means I have a 3D hole
and so on
(the reason I say this is more of a definition than a theorem is that I think for n>2 or 3 it's hard to give a proper definition of a hole that doesn't amount to saying what I just said)
@shy moss
thanks
I'll bring my question back so it can be seen ._.
hint: show that SLn(R) is compact @kind sluice
wait I may be brainlagging 
Its ok 😂
I think its not compact, but maybe i could restrict the projection even more and it will still be surjective?
what are some examples of functions which are continuous and invertible
but its inverse is not continuous?
think of the usual parametrization of the unit circle
derivada.schwarziana
so its inverse would be f(x,y) = arcsin(x) ?
ah
its [0,2pi)
im reading on MSE that phi cant be a homeomorphism because the circle is compact
and the half open interval isn't
which makes sense
what does the inverse actually look like explicitly tho
some piecewise function involving arctan
it's not too important, one way to see it isn't continuous is by looking at points near (1,0)
^^
or another way using stronger results is this
you can derive it but its neither nice nor insightful
the point is to observe it cant be continuous
do you see why?
what goes on at points near (1,0)
?
oh
it jumps
from the beginning of the interval
right
you can imagine phi as "wrapping" the interval into a circle
and if you try and "unwrap" it
and follow along the circle as you do so
you have to jump from one end of the interval to the other
near (1, 0)
so its not continuous
that is to say, your "unwrapping" necessarily introduces a "break" in the circle
if this phrasing sounds very informal, it is.
you can do the rigorous details yourself if you want
but hopefully that gets across the idea
yeah the intuition definitely makes sense ty
to show that its not actually continuous
do i need to consider the topology of the unit circle
well, your argument that it cant be a homeomorphism because compactness is a homeomorphism invariant is sufficient
since we know it has continuous inverse, so the only other possible way it cant be a homeomorphism is if the function itself is not continuous
(which it aint)
but if you prefer a more "grounded" approach
yes, youd have to look at the topology of S^1
in particular, neighbourhoods of (1, 0)
[everywhere else is fine, that single jump is the problem]
R2T2
😳
it is very nice
it says quite a bit about the topology of surfaces
all of those big results i saw back in my RG class are just generalizations of this thing's topological implications 
😌
i'm going historically backwards 
but this does make everything seem a bit more coherent
Is this true or false ?
How we prove ?
what do you think
what have you tried?
I only know the definition of homeomorphism
what would it mean for the distance between h(A) and h(B) to be zero? how would you show that?
the distance between two sets is the infimum of the distances of all pairs of points from the sets
d(X, Y) = inf{d(p, q): p in X, q in Y}
Yes yes l know that
Yeah
is the intersection of A and B empty?
Might be. Might not be

General condition
give an example of both scenarios for me please
Wait
I had an example
A= {N} and B={n + 1/n such that n in n}
A and B closed.
A Intersection B is empty.
Distance [A,B]=0
These two sets are closed
But intersection non empty
And the example of two close set . Intersection non empty is obvious.
Then it will be easy to prove this statement....
That is what I thought in exam.
But found the example later
what about the other scenario
Two closed sets intersection non empty ?
wait i might have misread
A and B be closed subsets of R^2
Intersection of A and B be non empty.
Implies that
There exist "x" such that
x is a element of A intersection B
Implies that
h(x) belongs to h(A) intersection h(B)
Implies that
distance [ h(A),h(B) ] = 0
Proved for non empty intersection
Now we need to prove for empty intersection.
Empty intersection cant occur, if 2 closed sets have distance 0 then they must intersect
wait nvm thats for compact

🤡
x axis and graph of 1/x are currently coping and malding

Does the following work?
d(A,B)=0 implies there exist sequences such that d(a_n,b_n) --> 0. By homeomorphism, we get d(h(a_n),h(b_n)) --> 0 which gives d(h(A),h(B))=0.
please expand on the "by homeomorphism" step
The sequences a_n and b_n here are not convergent sequences
So the argument you are using does not work
@strong heron
let your first closed set be the y axis and let your second set be the elements in the first quadrant determined by the equation x=1/y. Let your function be f(x,y)=(x+yx, y) in the first quadrant and f(x,y)=(x,y) else
The y axis is fixed by this function, while the elements of the form (1/y,y) get mapped to (1/y+1,y)
That the function is invertible is pretty trivial (it is increasing for each fixed y), and that the function has continuous inverse follows from the inverse function theorem except for on the boundary of the first quadrant, where you have to piece together the agreement of the inverses of the piecewise functions this guy is made of, but this isn't too hard
(unless I'm making some silly mistake because it's 4 am, but if so someone please correct me)
One thing is for sure
If this function given is a "homeomorphism". Then the given statement is false
.
But I am not able to understand how to prove this function as homeomorphism
i.e.
f(x,y)=(x+yx, y) in the first quadrant and f(x,y)=(x,y) else
The inverse function is g(x,y)=(x/(y+1),y) in the first quadrant, g(x,y)=(x,y) else
The proof I wrote before was very haphazard but it's pretty easy to see that this is an inverse function which is continuous
The reason I'm using a piecewise function is to avoid the bad behavior of the inverse at y=-1
Ok then.
I want to say something.
I am not very good at these problems.
Is there some easy or understandable way for me to prove that the function and it's inverses are continuous functions.....
......
I can in no way see how to prove them continuous
You show that the two functions which you are combining agree on their intersections
On the axises .....?
Yep
The inverses function.
How is it continuous at the points
(x,-1)
The inverse function.
At the point
(0,-1)
The two "pieces" meet ?
i.e
The limiting value and the functional values are the same ?
The boundary of the first quadrant is the set of pairs (x,y) where x and y are >=0 and one of them is 0
That is where the two pieces meet
It's not hard to show that if one of x or y is 0, then (x(y+1),y)=(x,y) and (x/(y+1),y)=(x,y)
Does this make sense
I am only making these functions not the identity in the 1st quadrant
Else they are the identity
So when y is -1 we are fine
Ok ok ok ok
(0,-1) is not a point of the first quadrant !!!!!!!!!!
Yes
Okay. I will think for some time.....
The conclusion:
We have constructed a homeomorphism
f: R^2 --> R^2
f(x,y)=(x+yx, y) in the first quadrant and f(x,y)=(x,y) else
A={ y axis} B= { 1/y: in the first quadrant} are two closed sets.
Here,
distance [A,B]=0
distance [ f(A),f(B)] >0
Thus the given statement is false.
@dim meadow thank you for your help
I also thought about one counterexample. So you let h(x,y)=(xe^{-y},y) when x>=0 and h(x,y)=(x,y) when x<0. This is a homeomorphism which "straightens" the y=logx graph. Now you can take A={(0,y):y is real} and B={(x,logx):x>0}. Then h(A)=A and h(B)={(1,logx):x>0}={(1,y):y is real}. So, d(A,B)=0 while d(h(A),h(B))=1.
Ok . I understand this (counter)example. Thank you for your help ✌️
I have one more problems in this plz someone help.
The two functions we constructed
I know if they meet at the "joints". Then they are continuous
But what about inside the quadrants....
Do we use some theorem to prove that...
.
f(x,y)=(x+yx, y) in the first quadrant
let h(x,y)=(xe^{-y},y) when x>=0
How do we prove these two functions continuous......
How do we apply the definition of continuity in them.....
Or is there some theorem we need to apply......:pensive:
Yo, sup. Someone have any pdf about Algebraic Geometry?
rising sea
by vakil
Thanks @gritty widget
Aren't these component-wise continuous? I don't understand your question.
If the function is "components waise continuous" then the "function" is continuous ?
Oh, yes. When you apply the epsilon-delta definition of continuity, if each component is continuous, you can choose appropriate delta for any given epsilon and prove that the whole function is continuous.
Good exercise to try writing that, if you're unsure.
Another way might be.
Limiting value = functional value
Iff
The function is continuous
I think to use this will be easier here
@strong heron
Anyway.
Thank you for your help.... ✌️
What do I do next? Please help
(Sorry I missed the \epsilon here multiplied with B^n_2 - it's a typo)
When does bijecting two topologies uniquely define a homeomorphism?
Well first off you need the property that your bijection respects inclusions
And then if the points are closed in your spaces you are good
Cause the complements of points get mapped to the complements of points
A topology consists of two collections X and T, so a morphism of topologies: (X, T) -> (Y, S) should consist of two functions (f_X, f_T). But we have cl o f_X = f_T o cl, and T includes into P(X). This means that f_T can be obtained from f_X as f_T = cl o Image_f_X. So what we say is that we have a continuous map f_X and an induced map f_T. f_X is a homeomorphism if (f_X, f_T) is an isomorphism i.e. if both f_X and f_T are bijective.
When you have a bijection of the topologies that can induce a homeomorphism (respects the structure) then the map on the underlying set should be fully determined so long as no two points share all open nbhds
This is basically saying that you need the topology to see all of the points distinctly
Yeah having closed points (which I'm not sure is what max is talking about) is weaker than hausdorff
Well closed singletons would definitely imply my thing
Because then you just see what complements of singletons map to
Yes
I think you can show the converse as well (if there is some point which is not closed so that its closure is a set then you can define multiple homeomorphisms from a single (suitable) bijection on the topology)
I feel like it should be true but nothing obvious jumps out at me
A nicer way of saying this is there is an automorphism which fixes the topology
Oh, intersect every open set containing a point
Either the result is a singleton or it’s not
There’s your result
i didnt specify hausdorff bc i was worried hausdorff is too strong
Nvm, that’s not enough?
I feel like ‘no two points have the exact same inclusion index’ deserves a name
let $M$ be a two-dimensional riemannian manifold, and fix $p \in M$. if $A(r)$ denotes the area of the geodesic ball of radius $r$ at $p$, then the gaussian curvature at $p$ is given by $$K(p) = \frac{12}{\pi}\lim_{r \to 0^+}\frac{\pi r^2 - A(r)}{r^4}$$
R2T2
neat fact

ok, after staring at it for a bit i'm not COMPLETELY confused. but i'm still wondering
- why can't A(r) have a cubic term?
- WHY 12?!?!
- Don't ask this kind of questions, just accept it
because 12 is the 69th fibonacci number
12/pi is the quantum golden ratio
lmao


I guess I just don't know how to compute the area of a pringle off the top of my head
R2T2
I see
It's integral(4K(p)rho^3)/r^4
And that's just K(rho)
The question has successfully been transferred to "where does the 1/3 come from in that taylor expansion?"
that one is a long computation
very long

$$g_{ij}(x) = \delta_{ij} - \frac{1}{3} R_{iklj}(p)x^kx^l + O(|x|^3)$$ is the general case
R2T2
Someone: "I'm not bad at maths, I'm not bad at mental arithmetic"
every mathematician ever: "noo, mathematics isn't just computing stuff
"
TTerra: "yes
"
Please don't tell me you just wrote that tterra
Good lord
Sometimes I'm like "you know geometry is really cool" and then I see proofs like this and it bring me back to grad diff geo psets
And it's all over
i already had it written
Sensible
What if someone could tell me in one english sentence "the 1/3 is here because blah blah blah this symmetry blah blah"
That would be awesome
It's probably just not possible and that's sad
I don't think it's possible looking more closely at the computation
It's just product rule combinatorics
Nothing pretty
Can you used algebra to get an expression for the 14, then try to interpret it that way
It's not that dumb
🤔
O
If A is a subset of X × Y and the intersection of A with any "horizontal line" or "vertical line" is open (in the "line") then is A open in X × Y?
what is an horizontal or vertical line, here, @cerulean oriole ? 
X x {y} for y € Y and {x} x Y for x € X ?
yes
||X = [0, 1] with discrete topology, Y = {1, 2} with indiscrete, A = X x {1}||
i hope
Pretty sure if X is discrete it's true
Because X × Y is the disjoint union of the vertical lines {x} × Y.
Isn't A open in X × Y since X is discrete?
Oh wait
have i forgotten point-set again
Y is slightly larger than {1} though, and has the indiscrete topology
so if X x Y has the product topology, A is indeed not open in X x Y
Intersection with vertical lines is not open, because (x,1),(x,2) are indistinguishable
oops
you said the intersection should be open in the line
mine's open in A
sadness

I got a counterexample from someone else
i am interested
A = open unit disc \ {(t,t) | 0 < t}


point-set topology moment
I just saw the question, but can we do R^2 minus a point?
It's open anyway.
Oh, i see
.
R^2 minus positive reals should work? I hope it does atleast
.pin
the line R x {0} intersects A in (-\infty, 0] x {0} which isn't open in R x {0}
Cut the ray diagonally and it works
.
Oh you already had a solution, sorry
Damn, feeling horrible now

(wow my first pinned message
)
that message was A+ <3
did anyone get this
@cerulean oriole in a similar vein: there is a non-measurable subset of the plane which intersects any line at exactly two points
So intersections with straight lines definitely don’t tell the whole story abt the regularity of a set
Wow
So my book defines path connectives with the “normal definition” but the path function should have the domain [a,b]. In Wikipedia, they use the same definition but with the domain [0,1]. But these definitions are equivalent because [a,b] is homeomorphic to [0,1], right? I think that I have proved this formally but I’m on mobile and too lazy to type it out
if a < b yes
Okay great!
take like x \mapsto (b-a)x + a
for [0, 1] to [a, b]
and then you can compose those to switch between definitions
Okay that’s great! That’s exactly what I’ve done on paper, I’m just lazy to type it out lol
But thank you so much!
It is common in mathematics to use the unit interval when an interval is to be considered. It is somewhat like a 'canonical' interval choice. People sometimes also denote it with a capital I.
And this implies that a product of two path connected spaces are connected because of the fact that a function is continuous if it’s continuous in each coordinate, right?
Okay thanks for the info!
how are you using that exactly?
ye
By this maybe?
i dont see how its immediate
Hmm well I know that if X is path connected and if Y is connected then there are function from [0,1] to X and Y respectively. But then the function from [0,1] to X x Y is also continuous
I hate being on mobile
right so you are connecting some 2 pooints
Yes exactly and since the function to the product “behaves” like the path function in each coordinate then we can connect two points
I think
yeah
another way to do this is to just move along the axes
and travel in an L shape
how did you define product topology?
Ahh I see
open rectangles as bases
By the product topology, not the box topology
But those are the same when we have finite products
Yes that’s it
I think loch was asking if it was defined by a basis, or a universal property or whatever
Oh okay sorry
ye
because if you have the universal property, this is indeed immediate
otherwise do the L shape thing
Yeah but Munkres proved the universal property for the product topology so it’s fine I think
Who are you malti? Moldis brother?
Or like sister?
@mods

There’s only one real moldi
tru
And if A is path connected then the closure of A doesn’t need to be path connected, right? A counter example is the topologist sine curve or whatever it’s called
ye
Okay great ez, thank you!

If I understood correctly, a homotopy is just a continuous function $H: X \times [0;1] \to Y$ such that $H(X,0)=f$ and $H(X,1)=g$, where f and g are maps from X to Y.
If that's correct, I don't see how that's the same as the definition given in Hatcher's.
verydisturbedperson
Hatcher does a family of maps thing I think
That's the stuff in Hatcher's, and I don't get that :/
Where a map X x [0,1] ->Y is the same thing as a family of maps f_t:X -> Y and the condition in Hatcher that the latter vary continuously also is equivalent to the condition that the former be continuous
yeah the condition (2) there is what I am talking about
That's the specific case of path homotopy
X = I
And endpoints remain fixed throughout
Other than this extra condition it's the same thing
Based
homotopy
You can fix the definition you sent to be based homotopy as well
(tldr the reason you can't see the equivalence is that the two notions aren't equivalent only conceptually the same)
(and small modifications can make them actually equivalent)
And what does he mean by the endpoints being independent? They are fixed anyway, aren't they?
it means that it is true for all t
and the same
so its just saying for all t the endpoints are the same (indepedent of the choice of t)
And the second line is just saying that all the functions of that family must be continuous, right?
I can't even pretend to know what that means 0.0
for example consider the following family of maps $f_t:\bR\to \bR$ given by $f_t(x)=1$ for all $0\leq t<1$ and $f_1(x)=0$. Then all the $f_t$ are continuous but they don't vary continuously
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
the picture in your head should be that like
you have some slider for t that you control
and as you slowly change t
the functions f_t should change slowly
in my example the functions "jump" from 1 to 0
Oh, I think I get that.
Okay, thank you. I will see if I get the examples now.
But them varying continuously isn't a condition for the regular homotopy, is it?
Nevermind, I think it is -.-
So what's so based about path homotopy? Is it just that the end points are fixed?
oh
based is an adjective meaning like cool and good
but also
based means something mathematically
0.0
in the sense of like "based at [location]"
so he was making a pun
so a based homotopy is just a homotopy with fixed endpoints
Okay, but is based homotopy based?
Based homotopies are generally more important to topolkogists
topologists*
In fact based spaces are generally more important to topologists
that's based
(it turns out if your space is good enough the base-point restriction isn't actually that big of a deal because a free homotopy can often be altered into a basepoint-preserving one
Is this channel the right one for fairly open ended diff geometry questions? (Sorry am new)
Sure, go ahead.
From this article (Volume of small geo. balls on a riemannian manifold) they derive a series expansion formula for the volume of spheres on a manifold. It might take a bit of a read, but my question is how one might find the variational derivative (in terms of the metric) of equation 9 or 10 in section 3. The expression is:
$S(r) = \int_{exp(S^{n-1}(r))} i(\omega)$
where S is the volume, i is the inclusion of the n-1 volume and $\omega$ is the volume element.
Anteater
I hope Anteater isn't mad for me posting this, but which two (continuous) functions actually aren't homotopic?
you were first anyway
the easiest example is on the circle to itself
you can have the identity map
or you can wrap the circle around itself twice
these are not homotopic
any two functions R->R are homotopic
continuous*
And a path always "has a domain" of [0,1], right? Is there a reason for this, or is that just a definition? 0.0
That's the definition of a path, and it's defined that way because it matches our intuition of paths
so only functions with a domain of [0,1] could be path homotopic?
uh
Yes path homotopy is specifically a homotopy between paths
path homotopy means homotopy of paths
this is like asking whether a bear can be an African elephant
but my intuition of a path tells me that not all paths are of "equal domain" 
Continuous functions don't preserve length
(there is some nuance here i feel obligated to say. in other fields people refer to anything of the form [a,b]->Y as a path rather than just a=0 and b=1 but this makes no difference because up to homotopy we can reparameterize without a problem)
And [a,b] is just homeomorphic to [0, 1]
(for a<b)
so it doesn't matter?
I'm sorry I was busy for a second. Oh this is a different question, continue on 😆
Ye if you do all your theory from that perspective you still get the same results
Okay, thanks.
if all you want to do is consider which paths in a space are homotopic you dont lose any information just using [0,1]
i.e. if you only care about the paths and how they act in the codomain
but there are places where it matters outside of topology
Need Help. I have I=[-1,1] and the following relations given by
~_1 : {1/2, 1}, the rest related to itself
~_2 : {1/2, 1}, {-1/2, -1}, the rest related to itself
I need to who that [-1,1]/~_1 and [-1, 1] /~_2 are not homemorphic any ideas ???
maybe a connectedness argument?
I mean the first relation is just every number in [-1,1] related to itself and 1 related to 1/2
the second relation is the same but we add -1 related to -1/2
it should be something really basic because Im starting to study quotients spaces
I understand that one quotient is homemorphic to something like a straight line with a curl
the otherone is homeo to a straight like with two curls
Could be something like suppose they were homeomorphic by a homeomorphism f, and remove point x from one space, then this decomposes it into some number of connected components, but this would be homeomorphic to the other space minus the point f(x), but the other space has at most some other number of connected components when removing a point
you might need to remove 2 points for this argument
but I think that should work
And you know the number of connected components is preserved under homeomorphism
Again, this is just at a glace but it should work since one space is a line with 1 curl and 1 space is a line with 2 curls
I understand that the line with 1 curl has two connected components maybe ?
I'm not sure if the spaces as they are are connected
I don't think a connectedness argument will go through
Do you know fundamental groups?
I know the first fundamental group but I should try to use something more 'fundamental' than that lets say
if you remove 2 points, no matter where, in Y you will disconnect the space
if you take a point in the straight line you disconnect the space with just one point
This is nice. I was unable to see it immediately.
Right, but that's true for both spaces. You want to find a property that happens only in 1 space but not the other
i like the fundamental groups proof too
maybe Im getting it wrong Im kinda new with this disconeccted arguments
Actually one can do better and just remove one point from the central line in X
You cannot disconnect Y by removing just a one point.
Ah, you can. Sorry
Yeah, I was thinking of wedge of two circles and one circle. But those are homotopy equivalent spaces to these ones. My bad.
Your proof is good, ShiN
The point is, if X is homeomorphic to Y by some f, then X-x will be homeomorphic to Y-f(x), and you can keep subtracting points like this (In general, if $X \cong Y$ and $A \subseteq X$ then $A \cong f(A)$). With connectedness arguments you usually want to find some property of X that is preserved after removing some number of points (Say, connectedness or the number of connected components), such that no matter which points you omit from Y (Meaning, it's independent on the map you choose), that property won't hold
ShiN
so they must not be homeomorphic
If only topology proofs were as simple as drawing them
Not a fan of working with quotient spaces
Like this would be simple to write but not the cleanest
Most topologists would be perfectly happy with this picture proof.
yeah picture proof is fine here
Great!
oh was going to ask for that
on my point-set topology final i drew a picture with a few words for a problem and got full marks
like picture proofs are enough formal right ?
fr, that would never fly in my class
okey that gives me confidence
if your prof is an analyst, no. if your prof is a topologist, yes

You might just want to see you understand how the proof is actually done
hahah nah I heard my professor say that picture proofs are okey a couple of times
lucky fucks
For one of my HW assignments I had to calculate a stereographic projection from the punctured sphere to the plane
Like, it's not that bad, but it's just too analytical for me
Stereographic projection is pretty standard. Those formulae are actually important.
I mean yea but the point of the exercise was to understand why these spaces are homeomorphic
the rest of the details are a bit superfluous
Gross
(see pins)
terrible
wrong
yes

Oh, okay. To just see they are homemomorphic, you don't need explicit formulae.
this is an anti ugct channel
shamrock in shambles
shamrocks not a ugct
what's ugct
undergrad category theorist
he has a very fair relationship w categories that is only cringe bc he seems weirdly confused and torn about it online lol
nono
let me find the meme
Like, i'm taking algtop next semester and i'm super excited
and the semester after that i'm taking a commutative algebra class
commutative diagrams are like a scalpel
very useful in the right context
but its a bad thing if they are all you know how to use
I mostly just wanna get really good with tikzcd to flex on the grad students that will be taking the course with me
lmao i promise the grad students are probably better
The ones i've spoken to aren't
and there's like
10 in the whole department
ok maybe more like 30 but still
no one even uses tikzcd anymore
why not?
they use https://q.uiver.app
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
writing tikzcd by hand is bad
Oh yea that's what the TA for one of my classes uses
ok this is pretty dope
didn't know that was a thing, def gonna use it
my opinion is that tikzcd is subsumed by quiver and tikz proper should be replaced by illustrator
it makes commutative diagrams trivial
and easy
and therefore unexciting which is good
All the arrow diagrams in Hatcher were done using Illustrator, so yeah, there are much tastier alternatives to tikz.
I pray that I am welcome 😌
copresheaf
Copresheaf.
cope sheaf
we believe in rehabilitation
Fffffff

I am scared
Mirppa wasn't even ug
goddamn HSCTs
I'm kind of confused about the notation here, this is the def of the equivalence relation for constructing a compact n-dim torus, but the "[n]" is kind of confusing me.
Intuitively I feel like it should mean some set of n indices, but I've never seen this notation used in this context, given that n is a dimension. Is it some sort of equivalence class?
[n] = {1,2,...,n}
This is saying that x ~ y iff x_i and y_i are 0 or 1, or both are neither but equal for all i in [n]
ty!
is this common convention?
yeah, semi common
tyty
the only potential thing to be careful about is that some people use $[n]={0,1,...,n-1}$ but this is obviously a small difference in 99% of situations
$|[n]|=n$ is basically always true
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
good to know tyty
I read some algebraic topology on how to construct a cw complex space such that its fundamental group is isomorphic to a given group with presentation $G=<S| R>$. First, each 0-cell corresponds to each element of the group, then the $1$-cell from $x$ to $y$ if $y=ax$ for some generator $a$.
Then we glue a $2$-disk to each loop corresponding to a relator r in $R$. I worrry about the set $R$ when it includes some "useless" relation. For example, considering $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$ with generators a, b. R must include $aba^{-1}b^{-1}$, but it may also include $a^2ba^{-2}b^{-1}$.When it does include such relators, do we have problems?
mqcase1004
i mean not really, you arent modding out any other loops right so redundant relations wouldnt be a problem i would think
Think of it like the sphere, which is 1 0 cell and 1 1 cell and 2 2 cells. Putting 1 2 cell is enough to make the group 0 but the other 2 cell doesn't allow any new homotopies. More generally if you attach a redundant 2 cell, see from van kampen that it doesn't affect the fundamental group, and therefore attaching finitely many 2 cells won't affect the fundament group, and then attaching infinitely many won't because else by compactness of the closed interval you can reduce to the case where finitely many redundant cells reduce the fundamental group which isn't possible
It would be of great help if somebody could verify these solutions. Thanks in advance
I have X =$\mathbb{R}^2$-{(0,0)} and xRy iff $\norm{x} = \norm{y}$
I need to show that $p: X \to X/R$ is open and closed any help ?
Tomás Sentagne
any idea ? 
For open, see that the image of an open ball is open, and then the rest is unions
thats actually not true
you could have an open map on the basis thats not open at all
Isn't f(union of S_i) = union of f(S_i)
I think is a subset
hmm isn't it a subset if it's intersections?
hmm
ah right there you have intersections
so for closed, I am thinking that you can show both spaces first countable, hence sequentially closed is equivalent to closed
any idea using saturated sets or something like that
hmm let me think
y know that "p" open iff p^(-1)(p(U)) is open
ye ye
right if you saturate any given closed set C of R^2, then it remains closed. Since you only saturate it, the image doesn't change, and the images of saturated closed sets are closed
so it remains to show the first thing
Suppose you have a sequence x_n in C which converges to some x in R^2. We need to show that x is in C. Since x_n converges in R^2 it is a bounded set, and so must have some subsequential limit in R^2 which must be in C because C is closed. This subsequential must be equal to x
is that not the kind of proof you wanted
There might be a way to do it without sequences
is the second exercise in my notes about quotient spaces
I thought it should be easy
oof
Just sharing a nice topology question a friend asked me:
wait
What are the integers n such that there is some norm N on R² whose unit ball is a regular n-polygon
why is there another moldilocks
yes 
HA!!!!!
caught

you can call me "private y"
because i am the best sleuth around here
anyway this n-gon thing is so weird
This feels illegal
(I must say that my answer is just a bazooka with a more general theorem, but you definitely can do without it
)
This being topological scares me
You said it was a topology question
But all n-gons are the same….
ok
this makes me think about gauges from functional analysis
or minkowski functionals i guess
I said topology just because it involves norms 
rice why does it need to be symmetric under negation?

Norm laws
absolute homogeneity moldi
if you take the minkowski functional for a given set, as long as it's convex, balanced, and absorbing, it's a seminorm
this is some theorem i forget how to prove
I have written a detailed solution for this question. Can someone take a look? I am not very sure about the last line in my solution. \
We will prove that $X $ is homeomorphic to $S^1 \times [0,1]$. Consider the function $f:\mathbb R \times [0,1]\rightarrow S^1 \times [0,1]$ given by $(x,y)\mapsto (exp(2\pi i x),y)$. Note that $f$ is surjective and continuous and so the map induced $X\rightarrow S^1\times [0,1]$ is surjective and continous we also note that it is injective. So it remains to prove that $f^{-1}$ is continuous. Open set in $X$ is such that its preimage in $\mathbb R \times [0,1]$ is open, but f is open so the induced map is open.
bert
but an absorbing set is a set $U$ for which $\bigcup_{r > 0} rU$ contains the whole space, and the minkowski functional for $U$ is the function on the space $\rho_U(v) = \inf{r : v \in rU}$
RYC
For a given n, there's also only one possibility for the norm, right?
Upto rotoations, dilations, etc.
so the idea is that these functionals are like "norms" whose unit ball is the set U
And the only thing that may or may not hold is the triangel inequality
I don't know for sure but yes I think so
it is a fact from functional analysis that a minkowski functional is a seminorm if U is absorbing, balanced (x in U implies -x in U) and convex (this is for triangle)
as ryc pointed out, absolute homogeneity holds only for even n
This solution is not detailed precisely bc you should justify continuity, subjectivity, and most importantly openness of the map
I thought they are pretty obvious
i.e. I think they are obvious ( but I am doubtful about openness in the end)
I think in a detailed solution you should give a quick explanation of each of these things
If you are afraid of writing details then you should
is there an even n>2 that doesnt work?
it seems that convexity of the n-gon gives the triangle inequality
t. Max
Yes so convexity ensures the triangel inequality
As it is you are essentially just asserting that this map is a homeomorphsim
Which is not very convincing
so note that in finite dimensions, these minkowski functionals of absorbing balanced convex compact sets are actually norms
not just seminorms
so f is continuous because it is product of continuous maps. similarly it is product of open maps so it is open
Rice in his own world 
You should also mention that the map "induced" on X is actually well-defined, I think.
You should see that the complex exponential is open
In my opinion this is something that should be verified at least once if you haven’t shown it before
right. pretty obvious tho
oh i get it
if the set we have is unbounded
then it can be a seminorm
then it's zero because every r works
ok
anyway, my point is that all 2n-gons for 2n = 4 and up can be done

the norm is literally "inf{r : v is in a 2n-gon of radius r}"
proving subadditivity is easy because it's a convex set
proving homogeneity is only possible because the number of sides is even
RYC is correct 
Yes I just thought of U = whole space :kek:

and by compactness, it's positive definite. there's always some r which makes the 2n-gon smaller than v.
wut
If in an overly generalised way 
v is in any very very large n-gon
yeah lol sry
Problem solved here lol
yes but RYC gave the details 
it would be something like sup if i did rv in the unit 2n-gon
but then i would need to take 1/ at the end
i think?
idk
its open because image of an open interval is $exp(2\pi i t), \ t \in (a,b)$. So for any point in this image there is $x\in (a,b)$ such that the point is $exp(2\pi i x)$. So the intersection of $B( exp(2\pi i x), r)$ with $S^1$ where $r= \min (|a-x|,|b-x|)/2$ is contained in the image.
very nice problem! i've never thought about how norms can have pretty much any unit ball like that before
There's a more general theorem actually
as long as it's convex, bounded, and balanced i guess?
bert
what's balanced ? 
defined above
too many conversations simultaneously 

mmh I don't know then, the characterization I know is any unit closed ball is a convex, neighborhood of 0, symmetric around 0 and compact set (and for any each set, we can find a norm whose unit ball is this set, defining it in a similar way than what you did here)
I'm not sure about what the balanced part implies or does not imply here, maybe its equivalent to what I'm saying 
Only in finite dimensions
Surely you can just say bounded and the whole thing generalizes to arbitrary vector spaces I think
Maybe not
mmh maybe
I guess it needs to be a topological vector space to say what "neighborhood of 0" means
Ah
That's funny
Actually I really don't like that
Hmm
Oh, something just clicked that I learned like 2 years ago
Wow
You need local convexity in order to guarantee the neighborhood of zero wont be wacko
in the R^n case, since every norm is equivalent there's no problem not giving more details on what "neighborhood of 0" means, but ig it becomes more annoying in infinite dim ? 
idk
And this is why a locally convex topological vector space is exactly a space with a family of seminorms!
Wow
Because you just take minkowski functionals on every convex compact balanced neighborhood of 0
:catGlad:
It has to be compact?
balanced = symmetric about 0
How are you defining bounded when you're yet to give the nor?
norm*
The closed ball must be closed, and obviously must be bounded
oh are you asking if the condition is redundant ? 
It can only bounded after you define a norm with it
At which point it is already bounded
you don't need to already have a norm defined

every norm is equivalent in R^n
...
Oh
R^n
That is still
Weird
Can you define bounded without a norm in R^n?
with a metric yeah 
😑
bounded for what norm ?
Can confirm
My first idea was "pick a basis and make it bounded in some norm, say infty-norm"

Real numbers norm
well I mean, yes then, but definitely feels like cheating too 
like a linear functional is something of the form $(x_1, \cdots, x_n) \mapsto a_1x_1 + \cdots + a_nx_n$
Shika
After you pick a basis
At least this is visibly
basis-independent
norm-independent
doesn't need a norm in the first place
Oh
When you said R^n I mentally made that finite-dimensional vector space lol
If it's R^n just assume Euclidean norm
Also canonical
lol
yeah I mean, what I said obviously also holds for any finite dim R-vector space, but working in R^n is just a bit easier because everything's canonical 
We could try this in the infinite-dimensional case
As well
Great question, something like "convex but contains no vector subspaces"
Besides zero of course
Wait
Aren't all topological vector spaces given by a family of seminorms?
No
but yeah, image through any linear functional is bounded doesn't sound bad 
Seminorms only induce locally convex topologies
IIRC any uniform space is given by families of seminorms

And TVSes are uniform spaces
yeah I recall seeing this too 
topological vector space 
Also Raghuram
"a homogeneous, translation invariant pseudometric admits a seminorm"
Ok
So something is wrong there
For commutative groups
Pretty sure you can make the pseudometrics translation invariant
What is homogenous?
Must be that non locally convex tvs's are defined by inhomogeneous pseudometrics, that kind of makes sense
If we could define bounded without referencing any norm, but while conserving the fact that for any norm, bounded for the norm <=> bounded for the independent def, we'd get that every, wouldn't we get that any norm is equivalent on any vector space ? 
Ooooh
It would be like d(rx, ry) = rd(x, y) where r > 0
or maybe not
The part about scalar mltiplication
That is not there for uniform spaces
Right
Yes
Which is weird

Since usually that's triangle
How?
Above ==> bounded equivalent for every norm
==> for all norms p1, p2; unit p1-ball bounded in p2 ==> p1 finer than P2
=> all norms equivalent
ok yeah I was right, I just brainlagged nvm 
I mean you're right, and what I was initially saying was right, not what I just said when I said I was wrong 


wow that sentence is so bad 
Very weird
If it's just one pseudometric, then it's locally convex, right?
Since balls are convex
Was the result you mentioned
all locally convex spaces are given by a seminorm
?
Hello ! In a lemma in an article, I don't understand what the authors mean by “... framings induced by F”, would someone be kind enough to explain please ? (might be dumb)
That is, point #3 in the lemma
Are they talking about the framing for the link ? (like the extension of the embedding) In that case, what could that mean to have a framing induced by F ?
i assume they mean a framing of the knot
@feral copper https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2138942/going-between-heegaard-diagrams-and-framed-link-diagrams/2141225
hopefully this helps? i dont know this stuff
okay @frigid river go ahead
sure
well do you have a definition for "loop?"
Yeah that's what I had guessed, but I don't know what they mean by a framing induced by the boundary... Oh and here, the 2-handles are 4-dim too
4-manifolds 
yes, but I couldn't really connect that to the adjacent pictures
A loop in R is something that would go over itself, you don't have room for interesting stuff as it's 1-dim (don't confuse the loop in the space and the graph of the function)
Imagine a loop an arc in R as the path an ant would take on a spaghetti
path is probably the term verydisturbed knows
a loop is just a path that starts and ends at the same point
you can do that by walking around your house
or by walking in a straight line and then walking right back to where you started
or by just standing still
Then you live in RP² ? 
No, actually no, on its cover xD
And you end up in a copy of your house
With a copy of your wife/husband XD

This image still bother me though. How are you going to describe the loop, a, as a function?
Take your favourite parametrization of the torus
Then your curve has an equation f(t)=(x(t),y(t),z(t))

(because in our parametrization we embed everything in R³)
thanks!





