#point-set-topology

1 messages · Page 229 of 1

fading vale
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and if it has the HEP for that it has the HEP for everything else stare

empty grove
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Interesting

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Is this in Dieck? hmmCat

fading vale
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ya

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chapter 5

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4 and 5 are pretty pog

empty grove
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Gonna read that once I finish Hatcher hmmCat 2 months to go probably lmao

fading vale
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its fun!

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this is my first real exposure to homotopy theory

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like properly not just pi_1

empty grove
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Ye I enjoyed the first 2 chapters

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But definitions too abstract monkaS

sleek thicket
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hi moth! I was going to join the discussion but I realized my brain is fried

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spent several hours doing comm alg with chmonkey

fading vale
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valid broosh

sleek thicket
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we even worked together irl for part of it!!!

fading vale
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i wanna do more comm alg but chapter 5 of atiyah macdonald sucks

sleek thicket
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my class posted a homework problem when I thought it was done for the quarter

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homeworkwise

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so I was scrambling to try and finish it

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and it's a bit of a doozy

fading vale
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yea i skipped the last and this hw for diff top pandaOhNo

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its on like local lefschetz stuff and my brain is rly fried

sleek thicket
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i just dropped my cs clsas (because I stopped doing homework)

fading vale
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but we are doing differential forms stuff which i think i will do better

sleek thicket
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i can relate

fading vale
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i think im gonna miss the end of the class cause AP exams

sleek thicket
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rip

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if you want a fun commutative algebra problem to do

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warning it is very hard

fading vale
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also do u think profs are all unavailable for the summer lmao i want to email one and ask if he or anyone he knows would be willing to do an expository thingy but im a bit worried its too late

sleek thicket
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idk, might as well ask

fading vale
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i havent seen noetherian stuff yet at all monkaS

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ya no harm

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im going to tmrw

sleek thicket
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r i p

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it probably won't hurt their impression of you or anything

fading vale
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ya

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i want to do something on the relationship between galois theory and covering theory and maybe reformulating the fund. theorem of galois theory in terms of the way dieck does the classification of covers

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i talked to buncho about it a bit and it seems like itd be nice cause itd tie together the topology im doing with also the comm alg

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but idk if i have the prereqs

sleek thicket
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ooh yeah

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I was thinking of doing that at chicago this summer

fading vale
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:O

sleek thicket
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yeah!!

fading vale
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ahhhh

sleek thicket
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but I have a lot of potential topics

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so idk

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kind of want to learn hodge stuff too

tough imp
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Chmonkey

fading vale
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i think ive talked about this before but dieck makes this very neat equivalence of the category of covers over B with the category of functors from the groupoid of B into Set

sleek thicket
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chmoneky

tough imp
sleek thicket
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yup

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i talked to you about it

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the first treatment I saw of covering spaces did it too

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covering groupoid stuff

tough imp
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Topology and groupoids?

sleek thicket
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yup

tough imp
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I remember hearing that book is kinda a meme on like MSE or MO

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Something about it being oddly recommended a lot

sleek thicket
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topology and groupoids?

tough imp
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Or something like that

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Yeah

sleek thicket
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oh yeah absolutely

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the dude shills so hard

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yo ucan't miss it

tough imp
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Oh lmao hahahaha

sleek thicket
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like the author

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it's hilarious

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hello buncho spheres

tough imp
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I don’t even know who this is without checking the picture

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Maybe it’s the Buncho

shut moat
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What makes covering spaces interesting in general? I saw the proof that the fundamental group of S^1 is isomorphic to Z but apparently in general fundamental groups are awful to compute

sleek thicket
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i think it's approx

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yeah

shut moat
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and yea I'm approx UwU

sleek thicket
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you can shrink anything to a point

tough imp
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Froge

sleek thicket
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there's geometric implications of being simply connected too

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if you accept that simply connected is a strong property that you can get a lot out of

tough imp
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I was gonna talk AG reasons connected is geometric

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But not that useful IMO

sleek thicket
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then the universal covering space gives you a simply connected space very closely connected to the original space

tough imp
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Haha

sleek thicket
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but that's just the universal one

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more generally there's a correspondence between covering spaces and subgroups of the fundamental group

bright acorn
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Hm Sham

sleek thicket
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hello

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👋

bright acorn
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I was thinking about reading a bit of K-theory when I get the time

sleek thicket
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ooh

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nice

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i was also thinking that

bright acorn
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Is Atiyah a good book on that?

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I mean

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He sort of

sleek thicket
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no idea

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i haven't learned k theory

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i just know the general story

bright acorn
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Lmao

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Yeah

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But it seems like a classical book

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He also is sort of one of the creators of the theory it seems

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He has made some work on that

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That was fairly important

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So it must be a good read

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I was thinking about going for Hatcher's book on that

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But it seems that he didn't finish it yet

fading vale
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i was talking to buncho about it and i was talking about how we kind of have a reversal of directions: with covers we have a coslice category because we have covering spaces over B so p: E -> B and in the galois case we have i: E/F -> K/F and he brought up that if you take spec the directions reverse and i was like

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wtf

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spec based now

sleek thicket
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hahaha

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spec is very based

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yeah like

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C is like a covering space of R

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two sheeted

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even though there's only one point in both

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you have this nice map Spec C -> Spec R

fading vale
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k theory is chapter 6 of fomenko and fuch catKing

sleek thicket
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go fomenko yourself

fading vale
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shamrock i need you to convince me to not buy another AT book.

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i own 2 already

sleek thicket
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don't do it

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tada

fading vale
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i have a problem

sleek thicket
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convinced

fading vale
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that was not convincing!! your convincing skills are abysmal

sleek thicket
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my gradescope keyboard shortcuts are broken angerysad

fading vale
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you dumped charisma

sleek thicket
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moth, if you buy another AT book I will poison you to death

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roll for intimidation

fading vale
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☘️

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you cant poison me you will be trapped in seattle and i will be safe in the comfort of my own home

sleek thicket
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fuck why did we give students 23 problems

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this sucks

fading vale
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just TA things?

sleek thicket
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i was supposed to do this by yesterday night

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but ive lost my willpower

lunar gazelle
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hey guys, I'm trying to understand why the point at infty for vertical lines x = c is (0, 1, 0)...

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following the process that is described in the text, letting z = 0, we obtain that x = 0, and y is undetermined.

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thus the solutions are (0, y, 0). we can divide through by y since homogeneous coordinates never simultaneously vanish to obtain (0, 1, 0)

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is this a correct way of reasoning about this?

cerulean oriole
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What is "the map (1)"?

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The affine -> projective thing at the top of the image?

lunar gazelle
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this is how the book defines the map from R2 to projective plane

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@cerulean oriole

cerulean oriole
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Hmm

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OK so verify that if (x,y) lies on x = c then (x, y, 1) lies on x = cz

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In other words, using the map (1) to view R^2 as a subset of P^2R, we have that the affine line x=c is a subset of the projective line x = cz.
I assume "Proposition 4" tells you that the only other points of the projective line are those where z = 0.

So what points on x = cz satisfy z = 0? Clearly, those where x = z = 0 i.e. (0, y, 0) for some y. But because the coordinates are homogenous, all of those coordinates correspond to the same one point---(0, 1, 0).

So (0, 1, 0) is the only point on the projective line not in R^2 i.e. the point at infinity.

stray bane
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I want to show that for a function $f: X\rightarrow Y$, and for a collection of subsets $\mathcal{A}$ which covers $X$ where for each $A\in \mathcal{A}$ the restriction of $f$ to $A$ is continuous. Now if we assume that for each $x\in X$ there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $A\cap U$ is nonempty for a finite number of $A\in\mathcal{A}$, then $f$ is continuous.

I know this holds if every $A$ is open, however i am not sure how the proof changes now that they are closed.

gentle ospreyBOT
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Frozaken

stray bane
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My initial issue i see is that every neighborhood is open and every subset A is closed, thus we cannot say much about their intersection

pearl holly
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So this is the exercise that I am working with: Let X be an ordered set in the order topology. Show that the closure of (a, b) is a subset of [a, b]. Under what conditions does equality hold? The closure of (a, b) is obviously a subset of [a, b] by definition since [a, b] is closed. But I don't understand how the equality doesn't always hold. If x is in [a, b] then a <= x <= b. All basis elements containing x are of the form (c, d) where c < x < d. This means that the intersection between (a, b) and (c, d) will always be non-empty, so by a theorem in my book, x must be in the closure of (a, b). There do I go wrong in this argument?

cerulean oriole
pearl holly
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So perhaps this holds if X has the same order type as the real numbers? Because then I get rid of that gap?

empty grove
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Try to formalize that, you'll see what the exact condition is

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[0,1] has different order type but has this property

pearl holly
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Okay but really quick: if there's a "gap" before b in the ordered set, how can the intersection be empty? I was thinking that x could lie in the end point of the gap but then (c, d) would still contain a small portion of (a, b)

empty grove
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I don't think you need to consider basis elements

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(a,b) itself is a basis element

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Also try to think of the "gap" as not a distance but more a property of order, because the space (0,1) union {2} seems to have a gap but is homeomorphic to (0,1]

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(under order topology)

pearl holly
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Okay thank you so much! (I am guessing that X need to be Hausdorff because Munkres has been going over it lmao)

empty grove
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|| order topology is always Hausdorff xD ||

pearl holly
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wait what??

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Oh yeah that's right

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Of course it is...

cerulean oriole
pearl holly
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Ohh okay I see now. Thank you so much!

fading vale
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$\begin{tikzcd}
A \times I \ar[dd, "j \times id"] & A \ar[d, "j"] \ar[l, "i^A"'] \ar[r, "f"] & B \ar[d, "J"] \ar[r, "i^B"] & B \times I \ar[dd, "h"] \ar[ldd, "J \times id"'] \
& X \ar[r, "F"] \ar[ld, "i^X"'] & Y \ar[d, "i^Y"] \ar[rd, "\varphi"] \
X \times I \ar[rr, "F \times id"] \ar[rrr, bend right, dashed, "K"] & & Y \times I \ar[r, dashed, "H"] & Z
\end{tikzcd}$

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tikzcd moment pain

gentle ospreyBOT
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Moth In Shambles

sweet wing
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lmfao

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wait what is this for

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ohhh

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i think i got a nicer tikz

fading vale
sweet wing
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and then later moving through homotopy theres this nice diagram

fading vale
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cheating!

sweet wing
fading vale
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for change of basis by a cofibration?

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wait

sweet wing
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yea rmb

fading vale
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change of cobase by a cofibration

sweet wing
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Hom(XxI,Z) = Hom(X,Z^I)

fading vale
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Yeah but X x I (or X^I) and Y x I (or Y^I) arent in your diagram : p

sweet wing
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wait you dont actly need them tho

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you can define a cofibration as like

fading vale
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well this is specifically for his proof which is taking the product of the pushout under I

sweet wing
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lifting from h to H

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ahh lul

fading vale
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and then using HEP for j to induce a htpy from X to Z and then pushout to induce a htpy from Y to Z

sweet wing
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if you just replace everything with exponential objects

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your proof gets uglier

pearl holly
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What is this?

sweet wing
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but diagram gets nicer

fading vale
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change of cobase by a cofibration

sweet wing
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i.e. pushout of a cofib is a cofib

fading vale
pearl holly
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So what is a cofib?

fading vale
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have you seen homotopy

sweet wing
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intuitively, homotopies lift

pearl holly
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What is a homotopy?

sweet wing
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i need to add quiver to my texit lmao

pearl holly
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Lmao this is going to be a looonnggg chain

fading vale
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i think at this point ud just have to read a textbook stare

sweet wing
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basically for every map h, a map H exists such that this diagram commutes

fading vale
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explaining it all would just be information overload and you wouldnt have any understanding of why we care by the end stare

sweet wing
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tbh yea

fading vale
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but they r based

pearl holly
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Yeah I get that. But is this algebraic topology?

fading vale
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ya

sweet wing
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the tldr of why we care about cofib is in algebraic topology, we typically study things modulo homotopy

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but the category of topological spaces modulo homotopy sucks

fading vale
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so we make it better nozoomi

sweet wing
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cofib/fib helps give the category like less sucky nature

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so you get a model category

pearl holly
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Oh man... The algebraic part starts at page 318... I am on page 100

fading vale
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i guess it doesnt so much change the category as it does provide alternatives to the usual defn of some things

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which it turns out have the properties we actually want

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Munkres moment

sweet wing
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lol use a diff book for AT at least

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munkres is only useful until like metricization

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cuz that is kinda the main goal of munkres iirc?

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is to build towards the metricization theorems

pearl holly
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Well my goal is to understand the coffee cup-donut thing

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That's all I care about

sweet wing
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you know what is a homeomorphism rite

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show they are homeomorphic

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tada

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but the usual animation is like an ambient isotopy

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and you only care about ambient isotopy for knots in manifold stuff

pearl holly
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But is like homeomorhisms and homotpy and blablabla an algebraic thing?

sweet wing
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huh how late did munkres intro this lol

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A and B are homeomorphic if there exists some continuous bijective map f:A\to B such that f^{-1}:B\to A is continuous as well

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homotopy youll see in alg top

pearl holly
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Okay I am almost at the continuous function section, just got to do the exercises first

sweet wing
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ahhh

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icicci

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wait what were the first 100 pages lmao

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oh crap munkres spent that long on set theory

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i skipped all of it opencry

pearl holly
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It was first really formal math (in my opinion) and then open sets, closed sets, limit points and so on

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yeah the exercises were like show that -(-1) is 1

sweet wing
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nah its just zfcscrewing

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lol

pearl holly
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which is actually a good exercise in my opinion

sweet wing
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idk how munkres consructed numbers lul

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lemme see

pearl holly
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But how much should I learn to start learning algebraic topology? What are the prerequisites?

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Well he assumes that there's a set called the real numbers with the basic field axioms and order axioms and then he derives the integers from them

sweet wing
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ohhh

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cute

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anyways

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any intro alg top book typically just requires you to know say like

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lemme see munkres

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probably until like page 200 ish

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chapter 5 is useful but you can just trust the theorem if you're lazy

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as long as you have seen groups you're good to go

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most alg top intro would introduce like

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free groups generator stuff and like eventually cats and stuff

pearl holly
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Okay I have learned some basic algebra like groups before so I just have to read asap to understand the homotopy things and all the cool stuff lmao

sweet wing
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honestly

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you just need the definition

pearl holly
sweet wing
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and maybe like what subgorups/normal subgoups are

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and thats reallly it

pearl holly
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yeah I have worked with them before

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Okay that's good

sweet wing
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ye then you're suited to start alg top once you understand what is like path connectedness or smt lol

pearl holly
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Okay good. Thank you so much!

sweet wing
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oh yea one thing munkres glosses over quotient spaces but they will be super important lmao

pearl holly
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Okay I will make sure to read closely then!

gritty widget
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Why can't operator T:X->X ,with T being isometry X inf dim, be compact?

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Like I know that unit ball isn't compact in X

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and isometry preserves distance

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but like, is this the same argument as showing unit ball in X isn't compact?

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(first thought was cts operators take noncompact sets into noncompact sets, but thats probably not true?)

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(yep not true)

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closure T(B) is comapct

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T(B) = B?

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yeah like I wasn't sure about this although felt like thatxd

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but I guess yeah

sleek thicket
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I don't see why T(B) = B here?

gritty widget
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hence, question mark

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because i don't feel like justifying that

sleek thicket
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lol

gritty widget
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but it'd work

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if it were true

sleek thicket
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ledog, is X just an arbitrary normed space? or is it like, a banach or hilbert space maybe?

gritty widget
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l_p

sleek thicket
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oh neat

gritty widget
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Ive seen an argument online: "unit ball B is not relatively compact and is bounded. So T(B) is not relatively compact." but I don't get it.

sleek thicket
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i just don't see why it would be true slim

gritty widget
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T(B) \subseteq B and T^{-1}(B) \subseteq B, the latter of which implies B \subseteq T(B). isometry need not be invertible.

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same, feels like it could be proper subset

sleek thicket
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oh wait is T bijective or just injective?

gritty widget
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but like -1 goes to 1 or sth

sleek thicket
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yeah

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I don't think it needs to be invertible

gritty widget
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this is why i dislike math

sleek thicket
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lol

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it was very annoying

gritty widget
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oh ok ye its injective

sleek thicket
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switching from RG to functional analysis

gritty widget
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wait so injective implies TB onto B

sleek thicket
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I still don't see why this is true

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let T be a shift forward by one cooridnate

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T(x1,x2,...) = (0, x1, x2, ...)

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this is an isometry l^p -> l^p

gritty widget
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cocatThink That's the problem I'm trying to solve actually.

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I could do some spectrum shit but I noticed its an isometry

sleek thicket
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so T(X) is some closed subspace I think

gritty widget
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so idk

sleek thicket
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like

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is T a homeomorphism X -> T(X)?

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er

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it's an isometry whatever

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look my point is T(X) is complete okay

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and complete => T(X) is a closed subspace of X

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But I think the unit ball of T(X) should be T(B)

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so we'd end up with a banach space T(X) whose unit ball has compact closure

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and that's an oopsy

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I think this is a proof but i probably didn't explain it very well, so let me start over

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let $Y = T(X)$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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then $Y$ is a normed vector space, thought of as a subspace of the codomain $X$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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and $T$ gives an isometric isomorphism $X \to Y$

gentle ospreyBOT
#

shamrock

sleek thicket
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since $X$ is complete, the same is true of $Y$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

honest narwhal
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Oh what we doing here?

sleek thicket
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a complete subspace of a metric space is closed, so $Y$ is closed in $X$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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the unit ball of $Y$ is $T(B)$

gentle ospreyBOT
#

shamrock

gritty widget
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is that always true?

sleek thicket
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and the closure of $T(B)$ in $Y$ is the closure of $T(B)$ in $X$, since $Y$ is closed. in particular it is compact

gentle ospreyBOT
#

shamrock

sleek thicket
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so if y is a point in the unit ball of Y then y = T(x) for some x, and the fact that T is an isometry forces |x| = |y| < 1

honest narwhal
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Wait so are you guys allowing isometries to not be surjective?

sleek thicket
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yes

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anyways the point is, T(X) is an infinite dimensional banach space whose unit ball is precompact

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contradiction

sleek thicket
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dammit i forgot the scheme question I was going to ask here

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@gritty widget, does my proof (outline) make sense to you? I'm happy to clarify

gritty widget
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im trying to understand give me some time im slow

sleek thicket
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it's no problem, just wanted to check in

gritty widget
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wait so I get why it's a contradiction, but what were you assuming that was not true that lead to that contradiction?

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T(B)=/=B?

sleek thicket
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That such a T exists at all

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sorry that T was compact

sleek thicket
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so you can rephrase it as "if T were compact, then T(B) have compact closure, so Y would be an infinite dimensional banach space with precompact unit ball, a contradiction"

gritty widget
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okaaay I think I get it, thanks.

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who tf sullied

sleek thicket
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me, by accident

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look,,

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they're adjacent

gritty widget
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You sully too much.

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Or 👍 too much.

sleek thicket
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👍

strong heron
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Both of these are polygon representations of the Klein bottle, right?

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But why are these giving different homologies then? I'm getting a bit confused here.

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Need help!

fading vale
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How are you computing the homology here?

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Simplicially?

strong heron
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Using the chain complex given by these cell structures.

fading vale
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Oh cellular

strong heron
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It's H_1 that is the problem. In one case, we get a Z/3 summand while a Z/2 in the other.

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That can be seen just by abelianising the fundamental group also.

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But then these spaces must be different. And I can't see why.

sleek thicket
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I don't think the left thing is the klein bottle

fading vale
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Uh yeah I am not sure how you are identifying the sides here but

sleek thicket
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Why do you think it is the klein bottle?

strong heron
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It's Euler characteristic is 1-2+1, right? And it's non-orientable.

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Ah, it has boundary components, is it?

sleek thicket
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Hmm I agree with the euler char computation

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I don't see how it could have boundary

strong heron
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Then what's it?

sleek thicket
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I'm not sure

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I'm thinking about it

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Hmm

empty grove
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The lettering is wrong probably

sleek thicket
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I agree with your reasoning whysee

empty grove
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Because 3 a's and 3b's

sleek thicket
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About why it's the klein bottle

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It's nonorientable and has euler char 0

strong heron
empty grove
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hmm idk then I probably haven't seen this notation before mnoop

sleek thicket
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Maybe it's something very strange, like it's not a manifold

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What does a neighborhood of the vertex look like?

strong heron
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Yeah, that seems so.

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That's what I was trying to do now.

sleek thicket
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Yeah I think there are too many directions

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Near the vertex

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So the problem probably has a typo

empty grove
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The right representation also seems wrong unless you're pasting a's to b's mnoop

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Because in Klein you identify opposite points on boundary of square

sleek thicket
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The right one works

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Think of it as a presentation of P^2 # P^2

empty grove
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#?

sleek thicket
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Well, I know it's correct because I just checked a textbook

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Now I'm trying to figure out why it actually works geometrically

sleek thicket
empty grove
sleek thicket
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I definitely understood this 1.5 years ago lol

strong heron
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Yeah, right one is pretty standard

sleek thicket
#

Why is this P^2 # P^2...

#

So like, if you think about folding the a edge

#

You end up getting something sort of twisty

#

You glue points near the bottom left to points near the top left

#

Yes!

#

Cut along a diagonal

#

ty slim

#

Right right right

#

The aa thing will glue to be P^2

#

And then you have a hole cut out

#

which is the thing you glue along to get a connected sum

empty grove
#

I see

sleek thicket
#

So like the first thing to do to understand this would be to think about why <a|aa> is P^2

empty grove
#

Oh I can visualise it with the cut diagonal somewhat mnoop neat

sleek thicket
#

This is P^2

strong heron
sleek thicket
#

You're like, gluing antipodal points on the boundary of a disk

#

Ty whysee!

#

The cut out diagonal corresponds to the ball you remove when you do the connected sum

empty grove
#

Idk what connected sum is mnoop

sleek thicket
#

Ah okay

#

It's a really cool thing you can do with manifolds

#

Take two manifolds M, M'

#

Cut out small disks

#

The boundaries of these new things are spheres

#

So you can glue M\ball to M'\ball along the sphere

empty grove
#

Way I'm thinking is when you cut along diagonal and identify a and b you get 2 mobius strips and then identifying diagonal is pasting their edges mnoop

sleek thicket
empty grove
#

ohh

sleek thicket
#

Yeah!

#

And it's independent of the disks in dim 2

#

I think in higher dimensions you need to be careful about orientation or something

#

Don't remember off the top of my head

#

(small here means precompact and contained in some larger coordinate ball btw)

empty grove
#

We do it because edge sum won't be a, manifold?

#

Wedge*

sleek thicket
#

Yeah, that's one way to think about it

#

They aren't homotopy equivalent though

#

I thought they were when I first learned about the connected sum and got really confused

#

You can't like, shrink down the hole you've made to a point

empty grove
#

Right

#

ty

sleek thicket
#

np!

#

Oh and the sphere is a unit

#

The n sphere for n dim manifolds

#

you get the same space back

empty grove
#

oh that's epic

sleek thicket
#

and any compact connected surface is either the sphere, a connected sum of torii, or a connected sum of projective planes

#

This is another reason to care about the connected sum

#

if you want to classify or break up manifolds it comes up a lot

empty grove
#

Nice mnoop

strong heron
#

So that left guy is not a manifold right?

strong heron
empty grove
#

Yeah if you take a point on an edge, its neighbourhood looks like a plane with another half plane attached (or 3 half planes), like the xy plane in R^3 union the yz plane but with only y positive.

sleek thicket
#

Pretend you are an ant at the vertex

empty grove
#

im thinking of cutting the hexagon like a pizza and then identifying the 'a' edges is like putting 3 of those slices together with the crust edge identified

#

🍕

empty grove
#

I dont get why the cyclic orientation of edges doesnt give a delta complex structure

#

It seems to me that all 3 conditions are satisfied

gentle ospreyBOT
#

Moldilocks

bright acorn
#

What books would you guys recommend as an introduction to homotopy theory, in particular spectral sequences?

#

I intend on giving it a try after finishing Hatcher

tight agate
#

May's concise course is good

#

for homotopy theory

#

for spectral sequences, there's vakil's notes, mcleary, weibel, bott and tu, gelfand and manin

#

hatcher

thin bramble
#

@gritty widget

gritty widget
#

i can't even open this file type on my phone

#

so vacuously i can solve it

thin bramble
#

Jeez, does no one know transformation geometry

#

Very last undergrad assignment

#

Worst math class ever. Is a good class but lack of outside resources

sleek thicket
#

i do, i simply choose to let you suffer

thin bramble
#

my only option is chegg

sleek thicket
#

(i do not)

gritty widget
thin bramble
gritty widget
#

stockexchange??

sleek thicket
#

its like bitcoin

thin bramble
#

sorry stack

gritty widget
#

anyways the chance of finding someone on MSE who knows transformation geometry is much higher than here

thin bramble
#

What about the cat? @digital peak

sleek thicket
#

@gritty widget might know?

#

or @sleek thicket

thin bramble
#

I've posted on StackExchange

#

What if Silmeveaus knows but doesn't want to help? 🤔

sleek thicket
#

is it worth burning my karma to tag tterra on your mse question

#

hmm

#

ah it looks like it's not possible anyways

thin bramble
#

So I found this on chegg

#

How do I make this into my words or something

coral pivot
#

what? are we really cheating at this level?

vocal wharf
#

just understand it first

thin bramble
coral pivot
#

in my experience when people get to this level, they are people who actually care about the subject and such and would never cheat. So i am surprised to see people cheat at high levels like this, i expect this from highschoolers, shame on you

sleek thicket
#

(this is my level)

#

john, stop being a fucking cop

thin bramble
#

I'm a college senior

#

never took a geometry course

#

This is my first ever geometry course and is the worst experience ever

#

Is a great class but it lacks outside resources. You don't see this in analysis or algebra

coral pivot
thin bramble
#

Oof, wait until john goes to college and half of the enigeering students look up on slader or chegg. Just to pass calc 1,2,3 and diff eq

coral pivot
#

I am aware, why do you think i abhor your behaviour so much

thin bramble
#

I wonder if john considers helping "cheating" @coral pivot what you think? So I can't have a tutor? Since that is consider cheating? lol

#

is going to office hours cheating?

#

damn

sleek thicket
#

lol don't try to bullshit this

#

using chegg is not the same as going to office hours

#

cheating doesn't really matter but own it

#

like 99% of the traffic on this server is cheating

strong heron
#

Yeah, I understand both of your arguments, @empty grove and @sleek thicket. But I'm wondering how to make this precise.

sleek thicket
#

lmao, I think calling my "pretend you are an ant" counts as an argument

#

what precisely are you trying to show? what was the problem given to you?

strong heron
#

Actually, I think the problem given to me in fact makes this precise

#

So I was required to compute cup products on this CW structure

#

With Z_3 coefficients

#

And I get that ab, aa, and bb are all 0

#

Which cannot happen if this were a manifold

sleek thicket
#

ah sure, did it tell you these present the same space or something?

#

I guess I'm still stuck on why you need to know <a,b|a^3 b^3> isn't the klein bottle/a manifold

strong heron
#

No. That was just my doubt. Because I felt it was (looks like at first glance) a Klein bottle and I thought I'd use Klein bottle's homology to save computation. But then we discovered that this is not anywhere close to a Klein bottle.

sleek thicket
#

ahhh okay, my bad

strong heron
#

All good

#

This was interesting

#

And kind of eye-opening

strong heron
pearl holly
#

So Munkres want's me to critize the following "proof" that $\overline{\bigcup A_{\alpha}} \subset \bigcup \overline{A}{\alpha}$: If ${A\alpha}$ is a collection of sets in $X$ and if $x \in \overline{\bigcup A_{\alpha}}$, then every neighbourhood $U$ of $x$ intersects $\bigcup A_{\alpha}$. Thus $U$ must intersect some $A_{\alpha}$, so that $x$ must belong to the closure of some $A_\alpha$. Therefore, $x \in \bigcup \overline{A}_\alpha$. I really can't find a flaw in this proof. What's funny about this is that there was a earlier exercise that wanted me to prove the reverse inclusion and I did it using this exact method but in "reverse" flonshed But I think that the reverse argument works, right?

gentle ospreyBOT
#

older sister

pearl holly
#

Oops, forgot that you can't have "emojis" in latex so now it says something about flonshed:629 lmao

cerulean oriole
#

This argument does have a flaw

#

In this sentence:
||Thus U must intersect some A_a, so that x must belong to the closure of some A_a.||

pearl holly
#

Okay before I look at the answer, if I were to show the reverse inclusion would the "reverse" argument work?

cerulean oriole
#

I thought by "reverse argument" you meant the above argument showing the reverse inclusion?

#

Oh reverse argument being for the inclusion not in the above message

#

Yes that works

pearl holly
#

Okay great! I will try to find the flaw! One more thing which might be hard to answer: how do you get better at solving these exercises? Is there any way I can get quicker at them?

#

Literally every time I get stuck at a problem you guys solve it in like 10 seconds. How do I get that superpower?

cerulean oriole
#

I wish I was more familiar with this server's emojis sigh

cerulean oriole
sharp yoke
#

If you want a counter example i think you can just take each A_alpha to be a singleton set of a rational number and X to be R

cerulean oriole
pearl holly
#

Oh okay! I will try to find the flaw and if I fail I will try to use your censored message and use wizards answer. Thank you so much!

tough imp
#

Often times some of us have just straight up done the exercise before

pearl holly
#

So perhaps the flaw lies in the fact that some A_a can be a singleton only containing x? Because if that's the case then x is not a limit point and hence can't be in the closure of A?

tough imp
#

Do you have an example of where it fails?

#

That will probably give you a good way to see where the proof falls through

pearl holly
#

So my take was wrong?

tough imp
#

Are you trying to work off of urahairywizard’s example?

#

Or just the general issue

pearl holly
#

No I have tried to ignore it, I will read it later if I can't figure it out. I just looked at a special case where A only is a singleton

empty grove
#

It fails in that case but it's not the only case where that inclusion fails

tough imp
#

I’d just grab an example it fails that makes geometric sense

#

Think about A_n = (0,1 - 1/n)

#

Compute both sets in that case, and see where it goes wrong and see if you can identify what’s going on

empty grove
#

Another thing is try to justify the given proof in your own words, sometimes if you're thinking of how you'll explain something to someone else you can find flaws in it easier

#

Just have a conversation in your head with someone who keeps asking why 🤡

empty grove
# strong heron Yeah, I understand both of your arguments, <@427909312099385346> and <@228562950...

To make it precise, for a point on the edge you can find a neighborhood in the quotient which is homeomorphic to the xy plane and a half plane. You can do this pretty explicitly if needed by using the universal property of quotients. Union of the xy plane with a half plane cannot be homeomorphic to R^2 because if you remove a point from both, you get spaces that deformation retract to a firgure eight and a circle respectively, which you can easily prove to be non homeomorphic

empty grove
pearl holly
#

Ohhh so the flaw lies in the choice of U. If I pick neighbourhood, say U_1, of x then it could intersect A_1. But then a different U doesn't need to intersect the same A_1 so I don't know that x lies in the closure of some A_i, right?

drifting sundial
#

yes, that's correct

pearl holly
#

ayyyy thank you so much! (Sorry Moldi for disturbing your repost)

drifting sundial
#

there's no particular reason why some particular A_a has to be shared by every U

strong heron
#

Well done, @pearl holly! Now you should be able to write down a counterexample.

strong heron
empty grove
#

Yeah I was struggling with the name lol

strong heron
#

In other words, boundary formula is not cyclic.

empty grove
#

the boundary [a,b,c] = [a,b] - [a,c] + [b,c] formula?

strong heron
#

Yes yes

empty grove
#

Is that relevant to the definition? Hatcher defines that a bit later

strong heron
#

Yeah, true. But that does say that cyclic orientations aren't allowed.

#

Just with those three conditions, I don't think I understand it either, like I said.

empty grove
#

I see

#

Guess I'll read a bit further then come back and see if I can figure it out

strong heron
#

Actually, never really looked at those 3 conditions with great attention. Should do perhaps.

#

Yes, sure

#

Can anyone give me a hint on how to prove M×N is orientable if M and N are? I'm looking for an algebraic-topologic argument. Trying to think about orientation double cover of the product.

cursive flume
#

I've read that the definition of a lie group can be made stricter than it is usually given in books,however I am struggling to understand it,could someone help ? sweating

#

apparently the smoothness of multiplication and the fact that G is a group implies that the inverse(which exists by group axioms) is smooth

cerulean oriole
#

me repost too 🥺
(Additionally assume U is a neighbourhood of E as mentioned below that message)

strong heron
cerulean oriole
#

Hmm IDK about smoothness
But if multiplication is continuous
Then the preimage of {e} under it is closed (assuming Hausdorff which you should have for a manifold)
So {(g, g^-1) | g in G} is closed
Does that show that the inverse is continuous at least? Maybe not ...

tough imp
#

He wrote a proof of this you can find on his website, it’s not very complicated, I think it’s < 1 page

cursive flume
#

i'll check it out,thanks! catThumbsUp

strong heron
#

Should be an application of implicit/inverse function theorems, I think

strong heron
empty grove
#

Can you use the fact that if a set S is contained in a ball B, and theres a countable collection of disjoint balls in S, then the total volume of those discount balls will be less than or equal to that of B

cerulean oriole
#

Yes

empty grove
#

Then given an open set S contained in a ball of volume V, you can find a cover of S with countably many balls in S whose total volume is less than V+epsilon for any given epsilon > 0 (the only difference from before being that S is covered now)

#

Assuming this is proved, you can solve the problem

#

Because you take a countable cover by balls of E of total volume less than epsilon, then intersect each ball with interior of U, but now they are open sets, so you cover them by balls contained in them, covering the nth open set with an error of at most epsilon/2^n

cerulean oriole
#

Giving total 2 epsilon

empty grove
#

Yeah

cerulean oriole
empty grove
#

Yeah so transfinite recursion

cerulean oriole
#

That escalated quickly

empty grove
#

Pick a point in S and define B_1 to be the maximal radius ball that can be contained in S centred at that point. A maximal radius will exist because whenever you have a collection of "too large" radius values, their infimum also doesn't work because S complement is closed

cerulean oriole
empty grove
#

No they may not cover U interior

#

It's a cover of E

#

Intersected with U interior

cerulean oriole
#

Oh

#

So (each ball) cap U_interior is covered

empty grove
#

Yes

cerulean oriole
#

But that doesn't mean U_interior is
Got it

empty grove
#

Yep

#

So now given an ordinal n, assume B_i has been defined for all i<n

#

If the collection of B_i closures covers S then terminate

#

If it doesn't, pick a point thats not in the closure of any B_i, and define B_n to be the maximal radius ball centred at this point and not intersecting the closure of the union of B_i's

#

And contained in S

#

So the idea is to almost cover S with balls, except you'd have points left out at all the boundaries of the balls

#

And all the B_i's are obviously disjoint (transfinite induction on their definition)

#

And contained in S, which is an open ball intersected with U interior

#

Now this is going to be a countable collection

#

Because each B_i contains a rational point

#

So you must terminate before this collection becomes uncountable

empty grove
cerulean oriole
#

OK so you have countable collection of disjoint balls within the open set S, with volume at most V
And the closure of the balls covers S?

empty grove
#

Yes

cerulean oriole
#

From there expand radius by constant factor c such that (1 + c)^n V < V + epsilon

#

Wow

empty grove
#

Yess

cerulean oriole
#

Demm

empty grove
#

And you have countably many S

cerulean oriole
#

At least I don't feel bad about not coming up with this

empty grove
#

So make epsilon smaller with each S

#

So that the sum of those increases is less than any given positive quantity

cursive flume
#

this might be trivial but given that the multiplication is smooth,how can I conclude that the left multiplication is smooth?

#

one is a map $G \times G \to G$,the other is a map $G \to G$

gentle ospreyBOT
#

ProphetX

cerulean oriole
empty grove
#

sniped stare

cursive flume
#

why is h->(g,h) smooth?

cerulean oriole
#

Smooth := for some chart around p and f(p) it's smooth in coordinates right?

cursive flume
#

if that is smooth,then i can use the theorem of composition of maps being smooth

cerulean oriole
#

Take some coordinates around h0 and g, let h = (x1,...,xn) for h near h0 and g0 = (y1,...,yn) in those coordinates
Then in coordinates the map is
(x1, ..., xn) -> (y1, ..., yn, x1, ..., xn)
which is definitely smooth

#

Or IG if you have the universal property of product then
G -> G: h -> g is constant hence smooth
G -> G: h -> h is identity hence smooth
So G -> G x G : h -> (g, h) is smooth

cerulean oriole
#

Yes, two proofs

cerulean oriole
cursive flume
#

thanks catThumbsUp now it makes sense

#

for the right translation I would need to prove that the map h->(h,g) is smooth right?

#

in a similar fashion

#

choosing charts

#

then conclude that h->(h,g)->(hg) is smooth cause composition of smooth is smooth

#

this might be very yikes,but I got another idea of a shorter proof(don't laugh if it's very incorrect please lol)

#

isn't the map h->(g,h) smooth by the definition of product atlas?

#

i.e. G->GxG is smooth,because we equipped GxG with product atlas

cerulean oriole
#

IG so?

cerulean oriole
cursive flume
#

does this seem ok? catThink

#

it might be trivial but want to be sure -tried writing it upsweating

uncut surge
#

That's sooo much detail but yeah this is pretty good; if you want to go full hyper-correct, you should also check that L_{g^-1} L_g is the identity

cursive flume
#

i'll do that too catThumbsUp

#

I could use a previous proposition for that catThink

gritty widget
#

lie groups cocatthonk

cursive flume
#

can someone help me understand this please?

#

i understand it up to the point where it says 'inverse function theorem'

#

I tried looking up what it says,but I do not see how it is related at all to this proof

gritty widget
#

the inverse function theorem just says that if the differential of a smooth map at p is bijective, then the function itself is a diffeomorphism in a neighbourhood of p. so the inverse of the function, if it exists, is smooth at p

#

if the function is bijective then you can do this everywhere and get smoothness of the inverse

#

something like that

cursive flume
#

cause the identity map and left and right translation are bijective?

gritty widget
#

ya

cursive flume
#

okay, thanks!

#

is the proof of IFT tedious? do you have a reference for it?

#

wikipedia and some books state it totally differently

#

and only in R^n

gritty widget
#

there are many different versions

cursive flume
#

I checked in Lee and it also has different version than what you stated

#

but what you stated is the one I need opencry

gritty widget
#

what's lee's version?

cursive flume
#

it has 'connected' extra

gritty widget
#

oh

#

well it doesn't hurt to assume connectedness

#

no loss of generality i guess

cursive flume
#

yes but his proof is very tedious

gritty widget
#

lol

cursive flume
#

uses theorems from metric spaces and what not sweating

gritty widget
#

yeah the theorem is a bit tricky to prove

cursive flume
#

is there no 'simpler way' to prove this?

#

ah ok

gritty widget
#

not that i know of

#

it's not a particularly "easy" result

#

the trade off is that it's very powerful

marble socket
#

(isn't contraction mapping to prove implicit function first... easy enough?)

#

(even though the theorem may be hard, the idea is pretty neat, which makes it pretty easy to understand)

cursive flume
#

then he uses some other inequalities sweating

gritty widget
#

welcome to anal(ysis)

cursive flume
#

does the IFT hold aswell if the neighborhoods are not connected?

#

can I state it in my notes without the connected condition?

#

since not any neighbourhood is connected is why I am asking

#

or?

gritty widget
#

yes you do not need connectedness

marble socket
#

you can just shrink the nbhd until its connected...

gritty widget
#

any book on differentiable manifolds should have its own version of the inverse function theorem

#

pick the one you need lmao

cursive flume
#

having that f is a local diffeomorphism and globally bijective why is it a global diffeomorphism?

#

what does a local diffeomorphism mean? does it mean it is globally smooth and locally invertible?

#

or how is a local diffeomorphism defined?

#

so why does the IFT help me here if I know that f is invertible already?

#

it should give me global smoothness sweating

gritty widget
#

f is a local diffeomorphism at p if there's a neighbourhood U of p and V of f(p) such that f restricts to a diffeomorphism of U onto V

#

(definition)

gritty widget
cursive flume
#

how can I conclude it is smooth globally?

gritty widget
#

do it at all p

#

lol

cursive flume
#

ohhhh lol

gritty widget
cursive flume
#

since here it is bijective for all p

#

because each L,G is a diffeomorphism for all a,b

#

right?

#

so I apply first that $L_{a},R_{b}$ are diffeomorphisms for all a,b, in particular,they are bijective, therefore for all $a,b$ I have a bijective map between tangent spaces, therefore I can apply at all points $a,b$ the IFT

#

right?

gentle ospreyBOT
#

ProphetX

cursive flume
#

and then I can conclude that this is a global diffeomorphism

gritty widget
#

yeah, IFT implies that the function f's inverse is smooth near f(a, b), and since (a, b) was arbitrary, the function's inverse is smooth everywhere

#

sounds right

pearl holly
#

Something's wrong here. The closure of $\bigcup A_\alpha$ is defined to be the intersections of all closed sets that contain $\bigcup A_\alpha$. We know that $\bigcup A_\alpha \subset \bigcup \overline{A}\alpha$ and that $\bigcup \overline{A}\alpha$ is closed. This means that $\bigcup \overline{A}\alpha$ is one of the sets that I take the intersections of. This means that $\bigcup \overline{A}\alpha$ is finer than the closure of $\bigcup A_\alpha$, which is wrong. Where do I go wrong?

gentle ospreyBOT
#

older sister

bleak helm
#

Why is $\bigcup \overline{A_\alpha}$ closed?

gentle ospreyBOT
#

Lunasong the Supergay

pearl holly
#

Because the closure of a set is closed and the union of closed sets in closed, right?

bleak helm
#

Is the union of closed sets closed?

gritty widget
#

Only finite.

pearl holly
#

Oh, so if the union if infinite then it doesn't hold?

bleak helm
#

Not necessarily

marble socket
pearl holly
#

So maybe like the union of all possible closed intervals of the real line?

gritty widget
#

Nope, that would give a closed set.

marble socket
#

that would be all of R which is closed.

#

you want to union to be not closed.

bleak helm
#

Try to write || an open interval as a union of closed intervals ||

marble socket
#

what if ||singletons are closed and unions of closed was closed?||

bleak helm
#

Or that is even better

pearl holly
#

So like the union of all possible 1/n where n is a real number?

#

nevermind

marble socket
#

yep that works actually

#

(ofc n != 0)

pearl holly
#

Yeah that's what I thought

bleak helm
#

1/n is a number tho, not a set (go away set theorists)

pearl holly
#

Well if I just put it inside a set like this {1/n} or something similar

bleak helm
#

Yep

pearl holly
#

Okay but my argument above works only for FINITE unions right?

bleak helm
#

Yes

gritty widget
#

Also, you can look at [1/n, 1-1/n].

#

What Luna suggested probably in the hint before.

bleak helm
#

This would show it also doesn't work for countable unions

marble socket
#

natural bigger than 0 😶

gritty widget
#

No, n is a natural number different than 0

marble socket
bleak helm
#

Alll natural numbers are different than 0 :)

gritty widget
#

catLove sniped

gritty widget
pearl holly
bleak helm
#

This channel is unbased. I'm leaving.

pearl holly
#

Okay but thank you so much! I was really confused for a moment but you guys helped me a alot, thank you!

bleak helm
#

np np

#

Now you know

#

$0 \not\in \bN$

gentle ospreyBOT
#

Lunasong the Supergay

marble socket
gritty widget
#

Luna $\not \in$ friends list

gentle ospreyBOT
bleak helm
manic wave
#

Looking at some MIT Topology courses for free from the web. I think the standard n-simplex is pretty neat. From what I read, I don't think it's too complicated to understand it.

honest terrace
bleak helm
#

LE BULLYING FRANCAIS

sleek thicket
#

Consistent choice of generator of H_n(M, M{x})? Or do you have a smooth structure?

#

If so my instinct is to look at the kunneth formula

#

hmm this isn't quite right though is it...

empty grove
#

@cerulean oriole my proof from yesterday had too many mistakes 🤡

gentle ospreyBOT
#

Moldibee

#

Moldibee

empty grove
#

Actually this still has an issue 🤡 I don't know if the boundary of $\bigcup_i B_i$ is contained in $S$ (and in fact it won't be, except in some trivial cases probably)

#

Also I keep making the same mistake, covering the boundary of each ball is not enough as the boundary of the union may have extra points sad

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This can be made to work if in the original set up, instead of U being a compact neighborhood of S, it's a neighborhood of S closure, but otherwise I'm a bit stuck

cerulean oriole
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Sure why not

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IDK if U compact is needed either as it was used for a different reason already

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It just happened that whenever this fact was used, U was compact

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I mean, at this point I might as well add the full context.

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So it's a proof that a C^1 function f : W sub R^n -> R^n takes measure-0 sets E sub W to measure-0 sets f(E). By writing as a countable union of bounded sets, we can assume that E and W are bounded.
Then take a countable cover of W by open sets Ui such that closure(Ui) subset W. It's sufficient to show that f(E cap Ui) is measure-0 for every i, so assume E subset U_i.
Thus we have E subset U subset closure(U) subset W, all bounded, U, W open.

|Df| must attain a maximum and so be bounded on closure(U); hence |f(x) - f(y)| <= M |x - y| for some M, provided x, y in closure(U). Thus a ball subset closure(U) can grow in volume by atmost M^n.

So it comes down to showing that
If E measure-0 has a compact neighbourhood closure(U) then there are covers of E by balls subset closure(U) with arbitrarily small total volume.

cerulean oriole
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The only explanation for how to do that was to "shrink the balls", which is either wrong or I don't understand at all.

cerulean oriole
# empty grove This can be made to work if in the original set up, instead of U being a compact...

I can probably make this happen. In the context, we have Ui (open) subset closure(Ui) (compact) subset W. By T4, we can add an open Vi in between so that
E cap Ui subset Ui subset closure(Ui) subset Vi subset closure(Vi) subset W
Then Vi covers W, and closure(E cap Ui) subset Vi subset closure(Vi) so you can take U := closure(Vi) as the compact neighbourhood of closure of S := (E cap Ui).

empty grove
empty grove
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The infinite version seems like it could be used

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phew found exactly this as well

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Just googled the statement of the theorem you sent

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Last paragraph is using vitali's lemma hype

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Too sleepy to bother reading the argument tho

cerulean oriole
empty grove
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Right, makes sense

strong heron
sleek thicket
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Yeah my instinct is to look at the (relative) kunneth formula

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But I haven't really thought about it

modest nexus
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Hi. How can one prove that the solid hiperboloid is a manifold with boundary?

summer jolt
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Hi, I'm looking at the solution of this solution involving the killing equation

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Should there be a minus sign in the second equality?

chrome dew
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no I don't think so, because the covariant derivative of something with a covariant index puts a negative sign on the christoffel symbol

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moving it over would make it positive

gritty widget
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This seems to imply that {(x,y) \in R² : x=0 or y=0} is a 1-manifold, but that doesn't sound right

uncut surge
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How would you cover the crossing point (so the origin) with an open set U that's homeomorphic to an open subset of R?

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@gritty widget

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also does anyone know what the "adjoint gruop" of an abstract Lie algebra is supposed to be? just the standard integrating simply connected one, or something like the inner automorphism group?

gritty widget
uncut surge
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These sets aren't open in the subspace topology though (inherited from R^2), since there's no open set in R^2 whose intersection with the cross yields just a coordinate axis

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Every open set in this cross which contains the origin must reach into all four "axes"

gritty widget
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What if instead use a topology generated by open intervals of each axis?

uncut surge
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Hmmm, maybe; I guess that probably still is Hausdorff

gritty widget
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it is but hmm kinda weird, cuz every manifold can be embedded in R^n for some n iirc

uncut surge
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Oh yeah sure but that n can be very big, so that's not a contradiction

gritty widget
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ik just doesn't seem intuitively right

uncut surge
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I think it's a topological 1-manifold by that definition, but it's for example not connected since you can write it as the union of the x-axis and (y-axis minus origin), which are both open

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what a weird thing

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In fact, maybe it's even homeomorphic to the disjoint union of a line and two rays?

gritty widget
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maybe

uncut surge
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Or rather, four rays and the origin? jesus

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idk

gritty widget
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then wouldn't be manifold

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line and two rays i think makes sense

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yea im pretty sure thats it

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cuz then the rays don't care about the origin, only the line does

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but then again it would have an automorphism by considering a different line which the other space doesn't seem to so idk

uncut surge
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At least its decomposition into connected components equals the 4 rays and the origin

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But I guess that doesn't mean it's homeomorphic to that...? I don't know, I'm not used to these kinds of examples lmao

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I imagine that this manifold sucks in some subtle way, like not being paracompact, and hence escapes the usual classifications

gritty widget
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so maybe not what am i saying

uncut surge
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Oh, I think I'm starting to see a problem. So when you generate your topology like that, and you try to, say, construct a homeomorphism from (-1,1) in the real numbers to the line segment (-1,1) x {0} in the cross, the identity will not be a homeomorphism

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Because by generating your topology like that, you can easily show that the origin is by itself an open set (its the intersection of the two open sets given by the coordinate axes), so a homoemorphism would have to map {0} into an open subset of R -- but of course there are no open singletons in R

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So even if you generate your topology like that, you still cannot create an open neighbourhood of the origin that maps homeomorphically into R

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So this space is, after all, not a topological 1-manifold, even with the topology you gave it -- the best you could do is understand it as a disjoint union of a 0-manifold (the origin) and four 1-manifolds (the rays)

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Lemme know if that makes sense to you! Really fun question @gritty widget

gritty widget
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yeah that makes sense thank

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@gritty widget Can I dm you?

cursive flume
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is there an 'easy way' to see that SU(3) is simply connected without 'fibrations' or 'long exact sequences'? everything I find online uses those words and looking them up leads me to a loophole of definitions. or is this a difficult thing to show and I should just accept it for the time being?

pearl holly
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So this is the exercise that I am working with: Show the T_1 axiom is equivalent to the condition that for each pair of points of X (say x_1, x_2), each has a neighbourhood (say U_1, U_2) not containing the other. What does the author mean by "each has a neighbourhood not containing the other", does he mean that the neighbourhoods are not comparable?

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Okay thank you so much!

rugged swan
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If X is a scheme, saying that a function vanishes at all points of X means that we take a f in Gamma(X,O_X) and f_x = 0 for all x ?
In this case doesn't it imply that f = 0 since O_X is a sheaf ? Am I crazy ? The book I'm reading wants us to show only that there's a n such that f^n = 0

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Am I crazy ? This is general sheaf theory, if a global section s of F a sheaf on X is zero on every stalks, that one can define an open cover (V_x) for each x in X where s|Vx = 0, then s = 0 because F is a sheaf

cerulean oriole
pearl holly
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Okay thank you so much!

strong heron
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I can do part (a). What does (b) want me to do? I feel I have to give covering spaces as quotients of the universal cover in (b), right? Not sure how to go about doing that though. Hints?

strong heron
sleek thicket
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Well the kunneth formula involves an explicit isomorphism, right ?

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like you should be able to write down the generator of H_(n+m)(M×N, M×N\{(p, q)}) or whatever

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I think consistency conditions should follow from some kind of naturality of the kunneth formula

strong heron
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Oh, I didn't use that one actually. I just expressed the top homology of M \times N in terms of homologies of M and N. That Kunneth formula gives out that the top homology is Z.

sleek thicket
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Oh

strong heron
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Works well with the converse also.

sleek thicket
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Wait sorry what exactly did you do?

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I don't think you can just compute like H_(n+m)(M×N)

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I was thinking of using kunneth locally

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(that's why I clarified I meant the relative version)

strong heron
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Well why can't you? M, N are given to be manifolds. They will have some CW structure. Use Kunneth for that.

sleek thicket
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Sorry let me clarify

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Orientable isn't the same as top homology being Z

sleek thicket
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Take M = \R, N = \R

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Then H_2(M×N) = 0

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Gah I keep writing superscripts by accident

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You need compactness in addition to orientability

strong heron
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Hmm, you're right. My bad, I assumed that.

sleek thicket
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Let me pull up Hatcher and think through my proof sketch in more detail

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so from the top

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let $M, N$ be oriented manifolds of dimensions $m, n$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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we define a pointwise orientation on $M \times N$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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let $(p, q) \in M \times N$ be arbitrary

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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consider this relative kunneth map from Hatcher

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with $R = \Z$, $X = M$, $A = M \setminus {p}$, $Y = N$, $B = N \setminus {q}$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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Since $H_i(X, A) \cong H_i(\R^m \setminus {0})$ is always flat (it is either $\Z$ or $0$) the tor groups in the short exact sequence always vanish

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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and in fact, this holds if we take $A$ to be $M$ minus a regular coordinate ball around $p$ instead of $M$ minus $p$, this will be important later

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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so we get this isomorphism $H_{m}(X, A) \otimes_\Z H_{n}(Y, B) \to H_{m+n}(X \times Y, (A \times Y) \cup (X \times B))$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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and this is defined without reference to a generator

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observe that $(A \times Y) \cup (X \times B) = (M \times N) \setminus {(p,q)}$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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so if $o^M_p$ is the generator for $H_m(M, M \setminus {p})$ determined by the orientation on $M$ and $o^N_q$ is the generator for $H_n(N, N \setminus {q})$ determined by the orientation on $N$ we can push $o^M_p \otimes o^N_q$ along this kunneth map (which is an isomorphism) to get a generator for $H_{m+n}(M\times N, (M \times N) \setminus {(p,q)})$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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doing this over all points p, q gives a pointwise orientation of M\times N

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to show local consistency, cover $M$ and $N$ by appropriate neighborhoods ${U_i}, {V_j}$ and look at $H_{n+m}(M \times N, (M \times N) \setminus (U_i \times V_j))$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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the same kunneth map will give an isomorphism from this to $H_m(M, M \setminus U_i) \otimes_\Z H_n(N, N \setminus V_j)$, and then by thinking about the specific construction of the kunneth map (some kind of naturality thing) you can show consistency of the orientaiton from the choice of neighborhoods Ui, Vj

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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@strong heron okay here's what I was thinking when I said kunneth but written out in more detail

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lmk if you need me to clarify anything

strong heron
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Okay, thanks. I'll have to go through this line of proof slowly. I'm having a tough time with understanding orientability.

sleek thicket
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definitely, it's a weird concept

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have you seen it in the smooth world before?

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it makes more sense there imo

strong heron
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Yeah, it makes more sense with charts and stuff.

sleek thicket
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Hmm I wonder if you could define it via charts still...

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so you'd need to know what it means for a map to be orientation preserving

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without reference to the derivative

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but maybe you could frame that in terms of this whole local cohomology stuff

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anyways yes I agree that it's confusing

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I think the idea of homology = orientation makes sense for S^1 at least

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the two generators are either a clockwise or a counterclockwise loop

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and similarly for higher spheres, I guess

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but then patching it all together locally is weird

sleek thicket
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okay time for scheming

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because I have a french exam I should be studying for and don't want to

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let $X, Y$ be integral schemes and $f : X \to Y$ be a scheme map with the following properties

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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$f$ is dominant, i.e. $\overline{f(X)} = Y$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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$f$ is finite type, i.e. there's an affine covering ${V_i}$ of the codomain $Y$ such that each preimage $f^{-1}(V_i)$ has a finite covering $U^i_j$ by affines where the ring map dual to $U^i_j \to U_i$ is finite type

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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$f$ is generically finite, meaning that if $\eta$ is the generic point of $Y$ then $f^{-1}(\eta)$ is a finite set

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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I need to show that there's a nonempty open subset V of Y such that f^{-1}(V) -> V is a finite map

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first step: we can replace $Y$ with any nonempty affine open, so wlog $Y = \mathrm{Spec} A$ for a ring $A$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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the finite type assumption is then much simpler. there's a finite affine cover $X = U_1 \cup \ldots \cup U_n$ of the domain such that the maps $A = \Gamma(Y, \mathcal{O}_Y) \to \Gamma(X, \mathcal{O}_X) \to \Gamma(U_i, \mathcal{O}_X)$ are all finite type

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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some useful examples to keep in mind for this problem are X = A^n \ {0}, Y = A^n. you can't just pass to an affine open of Y, the map still isn't finite in this case

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so the hint says to show K(X) is a finite extension of K(Y), I did that

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I'm trying to reduce to the affine case

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i.e., wlog X affine as well as Y

tough imp
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Hint time?

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Also, didn’t we already say we can reduce to the affine case?

sleek thicket
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yah and I can't make it work

tough imp
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Remember you had a finite cover of opens

sleek thicket
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i think you were wrong

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okay so we can find finitely many $V_1, \ldots, V_n$ in $Y$ where $f^{-1}(V_i) \cap U_i \to V_i$ is finite

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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wlog the Vi are even distinguished opens of Y

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this is what the affine case gives us, yeah?

tough imp
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Yeah

sleek thicket
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then you said look at like $V = V_1 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$, we can assume this is a distinguished open too

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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but I don't see why $f^{-1}(V)$ is even affine

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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so we can say like $f^{-1}(V) = \left(\bigcap_{i=1}^n f^{-1}(V_i)\right) \cap \left(\bigcup_{j=1}^n U_j\right)$

gentle ospreyBOT
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shamrock

sleek thicket
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but if we like, distribute, we won't even end up with the union of f^-1(Vi) cap Ui. even if we did, that's only a union of affines in X

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anyways yeah I don't see how this reduction would work

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oh but @tough imp i did give up on my dream of factoring through Spec O_X(X)

tough imp
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Rip

sleek thicket
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I realized the map Spec O_X(X) -> Y might not be finite type

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I don't have a counterexample

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but it seems like you could have a finite type map which isn't finite type on the rings of global functions