#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 229 of 1
Gonna read that once I finish Hatcher
2 months to go probably lmao

its fun!
this is my first real exposure to homotopy theory
like properly not just pi_1
hi moth! I was going to join the discussion but I realized my brain is fried
spent several hours doing comm alg with chmonkey
valid 
we even worked together irl for part of it!!!
i wanna do more comm alg but chapter 5 of atiyah macdonald sucks
my class posted a homework problem when I thought it was done for the quarter
homeworkwise
so I was scrambling to try and finish it
and it's a bit of a doozy
yea i skipped the last and this hw for diff top 
its on like local lefschetz stuff and my brain is rly fried
i just dropped my cs clsas (because I stopped doing homework)
but we are doing differential forms stuff which i think i will do better
i can relate
also do u think profs are all unavailable for the summer lmao i want to email one and ask if he or anyone he knows would be willing to do an expository thingy but im a bit worried its too late
idk, might as well ask
ya
i want to do something on the relationship between galois theory and covering theory and maybe reformulating the fund. theorem of galois theory in terms of the way dieck does the classification of covers
i talked to buncho about it a bit and it seems like itd be nice cause itd tie together the topology im doing with also the comm alg
but idk if i have the prereqs
:O
yeah!!
Buy Galois Groups and Fundamental Groups (Cambridge Studies in Advanced Mathematics, Series Number 117) on Amazon.com ✓ FREE SHIPPING on qualified orders
ahhhh
but I have a lot of potential topics
so idk
kind of want to learn hodge stuff too
Chmonkey
i think ive talked about this before but dieck makes this very neat equivalence of the category of covers over B with the category of functors from the groupoid of B into Set
chmoneky

yup
i talked to you about it
the first treatment I saw of covering spaces did it too
covering groupoid stuff
Topology and groupoids?
yup
I remember hearing that book is kinda a meme on like MSE or MO
Something about it being oddly recommended a lot
topology and groupoids?
Oh lmao hahahaha
What makes covering spaces interesting in general? I saw the proof that the fundamental group of S^1 is isomorphic to Z but apparently in general fundamental groups are awful to compute
and yea I'm approx 
simply connected spaces are very very nice
you can shrink anything to a point
Froge
there's geometric implications of being simply connected too
if you accept that simply connected is a strong property that you can get a lot out of
then the universal covering space gives you a simply connected space very closely connected to the original space
Haha
but that's just the universal one
more generally there's a correspondence between covering spaces and subgroups of the fundamental group
Hm Sham
I was thinking about reading a bit of K-theory when I get the time
Lmao
Yeah
But it seems like a classical book
He also is sort of one of the creators of the theory it seems
He has made some work on that
That was fairly important
So it must be a good read
I was thinking about going for Hatcher's book on that
But it seems that he didn't finish it yet
i was talking to buncho about it and i was talking about how we kind of have a reversal of directions: with covers we have a coslice category because we have covering spaces over B so p: E -> B and in the galois case we have i: E/F -> K/F and he brought up that if you take spec the directions reverse and i was like

wtf
spec based now
hahaha
spec is very based
yeah like
C is like a covering space of R
two sheeted
even though there's only one point in both
you have this nice map Spec C -> Spec R
k theory is chapter 6 of fomenko and fuch 
go fomenko yourself
i have a problem
convinced
that was not convincing!! your convincing skills are abysmal
my gradescope keyboard shortcuts are broken 
you dumped charisma
☘️
you cant poison me you will be trapped in seattle and i will be safe in the comfort of my own home
just TA things?
hey guys, I'm trying to understand why the point at infty for vertical lines x = c is (0, 1, 0)...
following the process that is described in the text, letting z = 0, we obtain that x = 0, and y is undetermined.
thus the solutions are (0, y, 0). we can divide through by y since homogeneous coordinates never simultaneously vanish to obtain (0, 1, 0)
is this a correct way of reasoning about this?
Hmm
OK so verify that if (x,y) lies on x = c then (x, y, 1) lies on x = cz
In other words, using the map (1) to view R^2 as a subset of P^2R, we have that the affine line x=c is a subset of the projective line x = cz.
I assume "Proposition 4" tells you that the only other points of the projective line are those where z = 0.
So what points on x = cz satisfy z = 0? Clearly, those where x = z = 0 i.e. (0, y, 0) for some y. But because the coordinates are homogenous, all of those coordinates correspond to the same one point---(0, 1, 0).
So (0, 1, 0) is the only point on the projective line not in R^2 i.e. the point at infinity.
I want to show that for a function $f: X\rightarrow Y$, and for a collection of subsets $\mathcal{A}$ which covers $X$ where for each $A\in \mathcal{A}$ the restriction of $f$ to $A$ is continuous. Now if we assume that for each $x\in X$ there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $A\cap U$ is nonempty for a finite number of $A\in\mathcal{A}$, then $f$ is continuous.
I know this holds if every $A$ is open, however i am not sure how the proof changes now that they are closed.
Frozaken
My initial issue i see is that every neighborhood is open and every subset A is closed, thus we cannot say much about their intersection
So this is the exercise that I am working with: Let X be an ordered set in the order topology. Show that the closure of (a, b) is a subset of [a, b]. Under what conditions does equality hold? The closure of (a, b) is obviously a subset of [a, b] by definition since [a, b] is closed. But I don't understand how the equality doesn't always hold. If x is in [a, b] then a <= x <= b. All basis elements containing x are of the form (c, d) where c < x < d. This means that the intersection between (a, b) and (c, d) will always be non-empty, so by a theorem in my book, x must be in the closure of (a, b). There do I go wrong in this argument?
The intersection of (a,b) and (c,d) is (max(a,c), min(b,d)). Now c < x <= b, so c < b and similarly a < d. Thus max(a,c) < min(b,d).
But how do you know that the open interval (max(a,c), min(b,d)) is non-empty? ||Counterexample:|| ||suppose there is a 'gap' before b in the ordered set.||
So perhaps this holds if X has the same order type as the real numbers? Because then I get rid of that gap?
Try to formalize that, you'll see what the exact condition is
[0,1] has different order type but has this property
Okay but really quick: if there's a "gap" before b in the ordered set, how can the intersection be empty? I was thinking that x could lie in the end point of the gap but then (c, d) would still contain a small portion of (a, b)
I don't think you need to consider basis elements
(a,b) itself is a basis element
Also try to think of the "gap" as not a distance but more a property of order, because the space (0,1) union {2} seems to have a gap but is homeomorphic to (0,1]
(under order topology)
Okay thank you so much! (I am guessing that X need to be Hausdorff because Munkres has been going over it lmao)
|| order topology is always Hausdorff xD ||
x at the end point of the gap will not be a problem, but x = b will.
Ohh okay I see now. Thank you so much!
$\begin{tikzcd}
A \times I \ar[dd, "j \times id"] & A \ar[d, "j"] \ar[l, "i^A"'] \ar[r, "f"] & B \ar[d, "J"] \ar[r, "i^B"] & B \times I \ar[dd, "h"] \ar[ldd, "J \times id"'] \
& X \ar[r, "F"] \ar[ld, "i^X"'] & Y \ar[d, "i^Y"] \ar[rd, "\varphi"] \
X \times I \ar[rr, "F \times id"] \ar[rrr, bend right, dashed, "K"] & & Y \times I \ar[r, dashed, "H"] & Z
\end{tikzcd}$
tikzcd moment 
Moth In Shambles
its missing Y^I and X^I though!
and then later moving through homotopy theres this nice diagram
cheating!
hu has in?
yea rmb
change of cobase by a cofibration
Hom(XxI,Z) = Hom(X,Z^I)
Yeah but X x I (or X^I) and Y x I (or Y^I) arent in your diagram : p
well this is specifically for his proof which is taking the product of the pushout under I
and then using HEP for j to induce a htpy from X to Z and then pushout to induce a htpy from Y to Z

What is this?
but diagram gets nicer
change of cobase by a cofibration
i.e. pushout of a cofib is a cofib

So what is a cofib?
have you seen homotopy
intuitively, homotopies lift
What is a homotopy?
i need to add quiver to my texit lmao
Lmao this is going to be a looonnggg chain
i think at this point ud just have to read a textbook 
basically for every map h, a map H exists such that this diagram commutes
explaining it all would just be information overload and you wouldnt have any understanding of why we care by the end 
tbh yea
but they r based
Yeah I get that. But is this algebraic topology?
ya
the tldr of why we care about cofib is in algebraic topology, we typically study things modulo homotopy
but the category of topological spaces modulo homotopy sucks
so we make it better 
Oh man... The algebraic part starts at page 318... I am on page 100
i guess it doesnt so much change the category as it does provide alternatives to the usual defn of some things
which it turns out have the properties we actually want
Munkres moment
lol use a diff book for AT at least
munkres is only useful until like metricization
cuz that is kinda the main goal of munkres iirc?
is to build towards the metricization theorems
you know what is a homeomorphism rite
show they are homeomorphic
tada
but the usual animation is like an ambient isotopy
and you only care about ambient isotopy for knots in manifold stuff
But is like homeomorhisms and homotpy and blablabla an algebraic thing?
huh how late did munkres intro this lol
A and B are homeomorphic if there exists some continuous bijective map f:A\to B such that f^{-1}:B\to A is continuous as well
homotopy youll see in alg top
Okay I am almost at the continuous function section, just got to do the exercises first
ahhh
icicci
wait what were the first 100 pages lmao
oh crap munkres spent that long on set theory
i skipped all of it 
It was first really formal math (in my opinion) and then open sets, closed sets, limit points and so on
yeah the exercises were like show that -(-1) is 1
which is actually a good exercise in my opinion
But how much should I learn to start learning algebraic topology? What are the prerequisites?
Well he assumes that there's a set called the real numbers with the basic field axioms and order axioms and then he derives the integers from them
ohhh
cute
anyways
any intro alg top book typically just requires you to know say like
lemme see munkres
probably until like page 200 ish
chapter 5 is useful but you can just trust the theorem if you're lazy
as long as you have seen groups you're good to go
most alg top intro would introduce like
free groups generator stuff and like eventually cats and stuff
Okay I have learned some basic algebra like groups before so I just have to read asap to understand the homotopy things and all the cool stuff lmao
I will trust you on this one
ye then you're suited to start alg top once you understand what is like path connectedness or smt lol
Okay good. Thank you so much!
oh yea one thing munkres glosses over quotient spaces but they will be super important lmao
Okay I will make sure to read closely then!
Why can't operator T:X->X ,with T being isometry X inf dim, be compact?
Like I know that unit ball isn't compact in X
and isometry preserves distance
but like, is this the same argument as showing unit ball in X isn't compact?
(first thought was cts operators take noncompact sets into noncompact sets, but thats probably not true?)
(yep not true)
closure T(B) is comapct
T(B) = B?
yeah like I wasn't sure about this although felt like thatxd
but I guess yeah
I don't see why T(B) = B here?
lol
ledog, is X just an arbitrary normed space? or is it like, a banach or hilbert space maybe?
l_p
oh neat
Ive seen an argument online: "unit ball B is not relatively compact and is bounded. So T(B) is not relatively compact." but I don't get it.
i just don't see why it would be true slim
T(B) \subseteq B and T^{-1}(B) \subseteq B, the latter of which implies B \subseteq T(B). isometry need not be invertible.
same, feels like it could be proper subset
oh wait is T bijective or just injective?
but like -1 goes to 1 or sth
this is why i dislike math
oh ok ye its injective
switching from RG to functional analysis
wait so injective implies TB onto B
I still don't see why this is true
let T be a shift forward by one cooridnate
T(x1,x2,...) = (0, x1, x2, ...)
this is an isometry l^p -> l^p
That's the problem I'm trying to solve actually.

I could do some spectrum shit but I noticed its an isometry
so T(X) is some closed subspace I think
so idk
like
is T a homeomorphism X -> T(X)?
er
it's an isometry whatever
look my point is T(X) is complete okay
and complete => T(X) is a closed subspace of X
But I think the unit ball of T(X) should be T(B)
so we'd end up with a banach space T(X) whose unit ball has compact closure
and that's an oopsy
I think this is a proof but i probably didn't explain it very well, so let me start over
let $Y = T(X)$
shamrock
then $Y$ is a normed vector space, thought of as a subspace of the codomain $X$
shamrock
and $T$ gives an isometric isomorphism $X \to Y$
shamrock
since $X$ is complete, the same is true of $Y$
shamrock
Oh what we doing here?
a complete subspace of a metric space is closed, so $Y$ is closed in $X$
shamrock
the unit ball of $Y$ is $T(B)$
shamrock
is that always true?
and the closure of $T(B)$ in $Y$ is the closure of $T(B)$ in $X$, since $Y$ is closed. in particular it is compact
shamrock
I'm using the fact that T is an isometry
so if y is a point in the unit ball of Y then y = T(x) for some x, and the fact that T is an isometry forces |x| = |y| < 1
Wait so are you guys allowing isometries to not be surjective?
yes
anyways the point is, T(X) is an infinite dimensional banach space whose unit ball is precompact
contradiction
.
dammit i forgot the scheme question I was going to ask here
@gritty widget, does my proof (outline) make sense to you? I'm happy to clarify
im trying to understand give me some time im slow
it's no problem, just wanted to check in
wait so I get why it's a contradiction, but what were you assuming that was not true that lead to that contradiction?
T(B)=/=B?
the last sentence here is using that T is compact
so you can rephrase it as "if T were compact, then T(B) have compact closure, so Y would be an infinite dimensional banach space with precompact unit ball, a contradiction"
Both of these are polygon representations of the Klein bottle, right?
But why are these giving different homologies then? I'm getting a bit confused here.
Need help!
Using the chain complex given by these cell structures.
Oh cellular
It's H_1 that is the problem. In one case, we get a Z/3 summand while a Z/2 in the other.
That can be seen just by abelianising the fundamental group also.
But then these spaces must be different. And I can't see why.
I don't think the left thing is the klein bottle
Uh yeah I am not sure how you are identifying the sides here but
Why do you think it is the klein bottle?
It's Euler characteristic is 1-2+1, right? And it's non-orientable.
Ah, it has boundary components, is it?
Hmm I agree with the euler char computation
I don't see how it could have boundary
Then what's it?
The lettering is wrong probably
I agree with your reasoning whysee
Because 3 a's and 3b's
I've been given this problem like this only. 😦
hmm idk then I probably haven't seen this notation before 
Maybe it's something very strange, like it's not a manifold
What does a neighborhood of the vertex look like?
Yeah I think there are too many directions
Near the vertex
So the problem probably has a typo
The right representation also seems wrong unless you're pasting a's to b's 
Because in Klein you identify opposite points on boundary of square
#?
Well, I know it's correct because I just checked a textbook
Now I'm trying to figure out why it actually works geometrically
Connected sum

I definitely understood this 1.5 years ago lol
Yeah, right one is pretty standard
Why is this P^2 # P^2...
So like, if you think about folding the a edge
You end up getting something sort of twisty
You glue points near the bottom left to points near the top left
Yes!
Cut along a diagonal
ty slim
Right right right
The aa thing will glue to be P^2
And then you have a hole cut out
which is the thing you glue along to get a connected sum
I see
So like the first thing to do to understand this would be to think about why <a|aa> is P^2
Oh I can visualise it with the cut diagonal somewhat
neat
This is P^2
You're like, gluing antipodal points on the boundary of a disk
Ty whysee!
The cut out diagonal corresponds to the ball you remove when you do the connected sum
Idk what connected sum is 
Ah okay
It's a really cool thing you can do with manifolds
Take two manifolds M, M'
Cut out small disks
The boundaries of these new things are spheres
So you can glue M\ball to M'\ball along the sphere
Way I'm thinking is when you cut along diagonal and identify a and b you get 2 mobius strips and then identifying diagonal is pasting their edges 
Yeah!
And it's independent of the disks in dim 2
I think in higher dimensions you need to be careful about orientation or something
Don't remember off the top of my head
(small here means precompact and contained in some larger coordinate ball btw)
Yeah, that's one way to think about it
They aren't homotopy equivalent though
I thought they were when I first learned about the connected sum and got really confused
You can't like, shrink down the hole you've made to a point
np!
Oh and the sphere is a unit
The n sphere for n dim manifolds
you get the same space back
oh that's epic
and any compact connected surface is either the sphere, a connected sum of torii, or a connected sum of projective planes
This is another reason to care about the connected sum
if you want to classify or break up manifolds it comes up a lot
Nice 
So that left guy is not a manifold right?
In this picture
Yeah if you take a point on an edge, its neighbourhood looks like a plane with another half plane attached (or 3 half planes), like the xy plane in R^3 union the yz plane but with only y positive.
Pretend you are an ant at the vertex
im thinking of cutting the hexagon like a pizza and then identifying the 'a' edges is like putting 3 of those slices together with the crust edge identified
🍕
I dont get why the cyclic orientation of edges doesnt give a delta complex structure
It seems to me that all 3 conditions are satisfied
Moldilocks
What books would you guys recommend as an introduction to homotopy theory, in particular spectral sequences?
I intend on giving it a try after finishing Hatcher
May's concise course is good
for homotopy theory
for spectral sequences, there's vakil's notes, mcleary, weibel, bott and tu, gelfand and manin
hatcher
Jeez, does no one know transformation geometry
Very last undergrad assignment
Worst math class ever. Is a good class but lack of outside resources
i do, i simply choose to let you suffer
my only option is chegg
(i do not)
have you heard of math stack exchange?
Jeez, does no one know transformation geometry. Stockexchange won't help me with this
its like bitcoin
sorry stack
anyways the chance of finding someone on MSE who knows transformation geometry is much higher than here
What about the cat? @digital peak
is it worth burning my karma to tag tterra on your mse question
hmm
ah it looks like it's not possible anyways
what? are we really cheating at this level?
just understand it first
What level are you in?
in my experience when people get to this level, they are people who actually care about the subject and such and would never cheat. So i am surprised to see people cheat at high levels like this, i expect this from highschoolers, shame on you
I'm a college senior
never took a geometry course
This is my first ever geometry course and is the worst experience ever
Is a great class but it lacks outside resources. You don't see this in analysis or algebra
well I am tired of seeing people cheat(i am in bio so lol basically half my peers), and i do not like the comparision to cops lol
Oof, wait until john goes to college and half of the enigeering students look up on slader or chegg. Just to pass calc 1,2,3 and diff eq
I am aware, why do you think i abhor your behaviour so much
I wonder if john considers helping "cheating" @coral pivot what you think? So I can't have a tutor? Since that is consider cheating? lol
is going to office hours cheating?
damn
lol don't try to bullshit this
using chegg is not the same as going to office hours
cheating doesn't really matter but own it
like 99% of the traffic on this server is cheating
Yeah, I understand both of your arguments, @empty grove and @sleek thicket. But I'm wondering how to make this precise.
lmao, I think calling my "pretend you are an ant" counts as an argument
what precisely are you trying to show? what was the problem given to you?
Actually, I think the problem given to me in fact makes this precise
So I was required to compute cup products on this CW structure
With Z_3 coefficients
And I get that ab, aa, and bb are all 0
Which cannot happen if this were a manifold
ah sure, did it tell you these present the same space or something?
I guess I'm still stuck on why you need to know <a,b|a^3 b^3> isn't the klein bottle/a manifold
No. That was just my doubt. Because I felt it was (looks like at first glance) a Klein bottle and I thought I'd use Klein bottle's homology to save computation. But then we discovered that this is not anywhere close to a Klein bottle.
ahhh okay, my bad
No that's why I said that the problem was not wrong, there was a gap in my understanding somewhere..
So Munkres want's me to critize the following "proof" that $\overline{\bigcup A_{\alpha}} \subset \bigcup \overline{A}{\alpha}$: If ${A\alpha}$ is a collection of sets in $X$ and if $x \in \overline{\bigcup A_{\alpha}}$, then every neighbourhood $U$ of $x$ intersects $\bigcup A_{\alpha}$. Thus $U$ must intersect some $A_{\alpha}$, so that $x$ must belong to the closure of some $A_\alpha$. Therefore, $x \in \bigcup \overline{A}_\alpha$. I really can't find a flaw in this proof. What's funny about this is that there was a earlier exercise that wanted me to prove the reverse inclusion and I did it using this exact method but in "reverse"
But I think that the reverse argument works, right?
older sister
Oops, forgot that you can't have "emojis" in latex so now it says something about flonshed:629 lmao
This argument does have a flaw
In this sentence:
||Thus U must intersect some A_a, so that x must belong to the closure of some A_a.||
Okay before I look at the answer, if I were to show the reverse inclusion would the "reverse" argument work?
I thought by "reverse argument" you meant the above argument showing the reverse inclusion?
Oh reverse argument being for the inclusion not in the above message
Yes that works
Okay great! I will try to find the flaw! One more thing which might be hard to answer: how do you get better at solving these exercises? Is there any way I can get quicker at them?
Literally every time I get stuck at a problem you guys solve it in like 10 seconds. How do I get that superpower?
I wish I was more familiar with this server's emojis sigh
😓 I don't really have any clue
If this particular kind of "find a flaw" exercise, maybe look at each step really carefully, or try to find counterexamples for that step, or something?
If you want a counter example i think you can just take each A_alpha to be a singleton set of a rational number and X to be R
As for how I "solved" this, I remember working out these inclusions before.
Oh okay! I will try to find the flaw and if I fail I will try to use your censored message and use wizards answer. Thank you so much!
Often times some of us have just straight up done the exercise before
So perhaps the flaw lies in the fact that some A_a can be a singleton only containing x? Because if that's the case then x is not a limit point and hence can't be in the closure of A?
Do you have an example of where it fails?
That will probably give you a good way to see where the proof falls through
So my take was wrong?
No I have tried to ignore it, I will read it later if I can't figure it out. I just looked at a special case where A only is a singleton
It fails in that case but it's not the only case where that inclusion fails
I’d just grab an example it fails that makes geometric sense
Think about A_n = (0,1 - 1/n)
Compute both sets in that case, and see where it goes wrong and see if you can identify what’s going on
Another thing is try to justify the given proof in your own words, sometimes if you're thinking of how you'll explain something to someone else you can find flaws in it easier
Just have a conversation in your head with someone who keeps asking why 🤡
To make it precise, for a point on the edge you can find a neighborhood in the quotient which is homeomorphic to the xy plane and a half plane. You can do this pretty explicitly if needed by using the universal property of quotients. Union of the xy plane with a half plane cannot be homeomorphic to R^2 because if you remove a point from both, you get spaces that deformation retract to a firgure eight and a circle respectively, which you can easily prove to be non homeomorphic
Reposting in case anyone can help
Ohhh so the flaw lies in the choice of U. If I pick neighbourhood, say U_1, of x then it could intersect A_1. But then a different U doesn't need to intersect the same A_1 so I don't know that x lies in the closure of some A_i, right?
yes, that's correct
ayyyy thank you so much! (Sorry Moldi for disturbing your repost)
there's no particular reason why some particular A_a has to be shared by every U
np lol
Well done, @pearl holly! Now you should be able to write down a counterexample.
Well, I don't think you should say union of plane and half plane. Although I understand what you mean. Should perhaps say it's a "notebook with three sheets".
Yeah I was struggling with the name lol
I can't say I understand this very well either. But if you take the cyclic orientation, then the boundary formula of a simplex gets disturbed. You can see this for a triangle, for instance.
In other words, boundary formula is not cyclic.
the boundary [a,b,c] = [a,b] - [a,c] + [b,c] formula?
Yes yes
Is that relevant to the definition? Hatcher defines that a bit later
Yeah, true. But that does say that cyclic orientations aren't allowed.
Just with those three conditions, I don't think I understand it either, like I said.
Actually, never really looked at those 3 conditions with great attention. Should do perhaps.
Yes, sure
Can anyone give me a hint on how to prove M×N is orientable if M and N are? I'm looking for an algebraic-topologic argument. Trying to think about orientation double cover of the product.
I've read that the definition of a lie group can be made stricter than it is usually given in books,however I am struggling to understand it,could someone help ? 
apparently the smoothness of multiplication and the fact that G is a group implies that the inverse(which exists by group axioms) is smooth
owo reposting
me repost too 🥺
(Additionally assume U is a neighbourhood of E as mentioned below that message)
This is true. My professor mentioned this but I haven't gotten around to thinking about it yet.
Hmm IDK about smoothness
But if multiplication is continuous
Then the preimage of {e} under it is closed (assuming Hausdorff which you should have for a manifold)
So {(g, g^-1) | g in G} is closed
Does that show that the inverse is continuous at least? Maybe not ...
You can find a proof by Daniel Litt
He wrote a proof of this you can find on his website, it’s not very complicated, I think it’s < 1 page
i'll check it out,thanks! 
Should be an application of implicit/inverse function theorems, I think
Thanks! I'll check it out, too.
Can you use the fact that if a set S is contained in a ball B, and theres a countable collection of disjoint balls in S, then the total volume of those discount balls will be less than or equal to that of B
Yes
Then given an open set S contained in a ball of volume V, you can find a cover of S with countably many balls in S whose total volume is less than V+epsilon for any given epsilon > 0 (the only difference from before being that S is covered now)
Assuming this is proved, you can solve the problem
Because you take a countable cover by balls of E of total volume less than epsilon, then intersect each ball with interior of U, but now they are open sets, so you cover them by balls contained in them, covering the nth open set with an error of at most epsilon/2^n
Giving total 2 epsilon
Yeah

Why is this true though
Yeah so transfinite recursion
That escalated quickly
Pick a point in S and define B_1 to be the maximal radius ball that can be contained in S centred at that point. A maximal radius will exist because whenever you have a collection of "too large" radius values, their infimum also doesn't work because S complement is closed
Wait doesn't this make U interior measure-0?
But you're applying this with S = interior of U, right?
Oh
So (each ball) cap U_interior is covered
Yes
But that doesn't mean U_interior is
Got it
Yep
So now given an ordinal n, assume B_i has been defined for all i<n
If the collection of B_i closures covers S then terminate
If it doesn't, pick a point thats not in the closure of any B_i, and define B_n to be the maximal radius ball centred at this point and not intersecting the closure of the union of B_i's
And contained in S
So the idea is to almost cover S with balls, except you'd have points left out at all the boundaries of the balls
And all the B_i's are obviously disjoint (transfinite induction on their definition)
And contained in S, which is an open ball intersected with U interior
Now this is going to be a countable collection
Because each B_i contains a rational point
So you must terminate before this collection becomes uncountable
And by this, the total volume of this whole collection is less than that original open ball
OK so you have countable collection of disjoint balls within the open set S, with volume at most V
And the closure of the balls covers S?
Yes
From there expand radius by constant factor c such that (1 + c)^n V < V + epsilon
Wow
Yess
Demm
And you have countably many S
At least I don't feel bad about not coming up with this
So make epsilon smaller with each S
So that the sum of those increases is less than any given positive quantity
this might be trivial but given that the multiplication is smooth,how can I conclude that the left multiplication is smooth?
one is a map $G \times G \to G$,the other is a map $G \to G$
ProphetX
Thanks
TPT h -> gh is smooth
Consider G -> G x G -> G
h -> (g, h) -> gh
Both smooth
First one being smooth doesn't depend on the group structure or anything
sniped 
why is h->(g,h) smooth?
if that is smooth,then i can use the theorem of composition of maps being smooth
Take some coordinates around h0 and g, let h = (x1,...,xn) for h near h0 and g0 = (y1,...,yn) in those coordinates
Then in coordinates the map is
(x1, ..., xn) -> (y1, ..., yn, x1, ..., xn)
which is definitely smooth
Or IG if you have the universal property of product then
G -> G: h -> g is constant hence smooth
G -> G: h -> h is identity hence smooth
So G -> G x G : h -> (g, h) is smooth
this is another proof right?
Yes, two proofs
of this
thanks
now it makes sense
for the right translation I would need to prove that the map h->(h,g) is smooth right?
in a similar fashion
choosing charts
then conclude that h->(h,g)->(hg) is smooth cause composition of smooth is smooth
this might be very yikes,but I got another idea of a shorter proof(don't laugh if it's very incorrect please lol)
isn't the map h->(g,h) smooth by the definition of product atlas?
i.e. G->GxG is smooth,because we equipped GxG with product atlas
IG so?
If I'm not wrong this is the "by definition" part fleshed out
That's sooo much detail but yeah this is pretty good; if you want to go full hyper-correct, you should also check that L_{g^-1} L_g is the identity
right good point
i'll do that too 
I could use a previous proposition for that 
lie groups 
can someone help me understand this please?
i understand it up to the point where it says 'inverse function theorem'
I tried looking up what it says,but I do not see how it is related at all to this proof
the inverse function theorem just says that if the differential of a smooth map at p is bijective, then the function itself is a diffeomorphism in a neighbourhood of p. so the inverse of the function, if it exists, is smooth at p
if the function is bijective then you can do this everywhere and get smoothness of the inverse
something like that
why does this hold in my case?
cause the identity map and left and right translation are bijective?
ya
okay, thanks!
is the proof of IFT tedious? do you have a reference for it?
wikipedia and some books state it totally differently
and only in R^n
there are many different versions
I checked in Lee and it also has different version than what you stated
but what you stated is the one I need 
what's lee's version?
yes but his proof is very tedious
lol
uses theorems from metric spaces and what not 
yeah the theorem is a bit tricky to prove
not that i know of
it's not a particularly "easy" result
the trade off is that it's very powerful
(isn't contraction mapping to prove implicit function first... easy enough?)
(even though the theorem may be hard, the idea is pretty neat, which makes it pretty easy to understand)
that's what lee does,but I have 0 metric spaces background,I only know how to define what a metric space is 
then he uses some other inequalities 
welcome to anal(ysis)
does the IFT hold aswell if the neighborhoods are not connected?
can I state it in my notes without the connected condition?
since not any neighbourhood is connected is why I am asking
or?
yes you do not need connectedness
you can just shrink the nbhd until its connected...
any book on differentiable manifolds should have its own version of the inverse function theorem
pick the one you need lmao
having that f is a local diffeomorphism and globally bijective why is it a global diffeomorphism?
what does a local diffeomorphism mean? does it mean it is globally smooth and locally invertible?
or how is a local diffeomorphism defined?
so why does the IFT help me here if I know that f is invertible already?
it should give me global smoothness 
f is a local diffeomorphism at p if there's a neighbourhood U of p and V of f(p) such that f restricts to a diffeomorphism of U onto V
(definition)
the point of using the inverse function theorem here is that it guarantees the inverse of f is smooth
but it only says it smooth at p
how can I conclude it is smooth globally?
ohhhh lol
this implies that if f is invertible, then f^{-1} is a diffeomorphism of V onto U
since here it is bijective for all p
because each L,G is a diffeomorphism for all a,b
right?
so I apply first that $L_{a},R_{b}$ are diffeomorphisms for all a,b, in particular,they are bijective, therefore for all $a,b$ I have a bijective map between tangent spaces, therefore I can apply at all points $a,b$ the IFT
right?
ProphetX
and then I can conclude that this is a global diffeomorphism
yeah, IFT implies that the function f's inverse is smooth near f(a, b), and since (a, b) was arbitrary, the function's inverse is smooth everywhere
sounds right
Something's wrong here. The closure of $\bigcup A_\alpha$ is defined to be the intersections of all closed sets that contain $\bigcup A_\alpha$. We know that $\bigcup A_\alpha \subset \bigcup \overline{A}\alpha$ and that $\bigcup \overline{A}\alpha$ is closed. This means that $\bigcup \overline{A}\alpha$ is one of the sets that I take the intersections of. This means that $\bigcup \overline{A}\alpha$ is finer than the closure of $\bigcup A_\alpha$, which is wrong. Where do I go wrong?
older sister
Why is $\bigcup \overline{A_\alpha}$ closed?
Lunasong the Supergay
Because the closure of a set is closed and the union of closed sets in closed, right?
Is the union of closed sets closed?
Only finite.
Oh, so if the union if infinite then it doesn't hold?
Not necessarily
try to find an example 
So maybe like the union of all possible closed intervals of the real line?
Nope, that would give a closed set.
Try to write || an open interval as a union of closed intervals ||
what if ||singletons are closed and unions of closed was closed?||
Or that is even better
Yeah that's what I thought
1/n is a number tho, not a set (go away set theorists)
Well if I just put it inside a set like this {1/n} or something similar
Yep
Okay but my argument above works only for FINITE unions right?
Yes
Also, you can look at [1/n, 1-1/n].
What Luna suggested probably in the hint before.
where n is a natural number, not a real number, presumably
This would show it also doesn't work for countable unions
natural bigger than 0 😶
No, n is a natural number different than 0

Alll natural numbers are different than 0 :)
sniped

Blocked
except 0
This channel is unbased. I'm leaving.
Okay but thank you so much! I was really confused for a moment but you guys helped me a alot, thank you!
Lunasong the Supergay

Luna $\not \in$ friends list
Ledog

Looking at some MIT Topology courses for free from the web. I think the standard n-simplex is pretty neat. From what I read, I don't think it's too complicated to understand it.
and that's why nobody likes you
LE BULLYING FRANCAIS
Reposting... need help 
What definition of orientation are you working with?
Consistent choice of generator of H_n(M, M{x})? Or do you have a smooth structure?
If so my instinct is to look at the kunneth formula
hmm this isn't quite right though is it...
@cerulean oriole my proof from yesterday had too many mistakes 🤡
Actually this still has an issue 🤡 I don't know if the boundary of $\bigcup_i B_i$ is contained in $S$ (and in fact it won't be, except in some trivial cases probably)
Also I keep making the same mistake, covering the boundary of each ball is not enough as the boundary of the union may have extra points 
This can be made to work if in the original set up, instead of U being a compact neighborhood of S, it's a neighborhood of S closure, but otherwise I'm a bit stuck
Sure why not
IDK if U compact is needed either as it was used for a different reason already
It just happened that whenever this fact was used, U was compact
I mean, at this point I might as well add the full context.
So it's a proof that a C^1 function f : W sub R^n -> R^n takes measure-0 sets E sub W to measure-0 sets f(E). By writing as a countable union of bounded sets, we can assume that E and W are bounded.
Then take a countable cover of W by open sets Ui such that closure(Ui) subset W. It's sufficient to show that f(E cap Ui) is measure-0 for every i, so assume E subset U_i.
Thus we have E subset U subset closure(U) subset W, all bounded, U, W open.
|Df| must attain a maximum and so be bounded on closure(U); hence |f(x) - f(y)| <= M |x - y| for some M, provided x, y in closure(U). Thus a ball subset closure(U) can grow in volume by atmost M^n.
So it comes down to showing that
If E measure-0 has a compact neighbourhood closure(U) then there are covers of E by balls subset closure(U) with arbitrarily small total volume.
The only explanation for how to do that was to "shrink the balls", which is either wrong or I don't understand at all.
I can probably make this happen. In the context, we have Ui (open) subset closure(Ui) (compact) subset W. By T4, we can add an open Vi in between so that
E cap Ui subset Ui subset closure(Ui) subset Vi subset closure(Vi) subset W
Then Vi covers W, and closure(E cap Ui) subset Vi subset closure(Vi) so you can take U := closure(Vi) as the compact neighbourhood of closure of S := (E cap Ui).
How do you get that open cover by U_i? If E were closed you could use normality but otherwise I can't see how to ensure that their closures are in W
And this certainly isn't trivial lol I found something related
The infinite version seems like it could be used
phew found exactly this as well
Just googled the statement of the theorem you sent
Last paragraph is using vitali's lemma 
Too sleepy to bother reading the argument tho
For each x in W (open), find B(x, r) subset W, then take U_x = B(x, r/2). So U_x covers W and closure(U_x) subset W.
Use second-countability (specifically the consequence that it's a Lindelof space) to get a countable subcover.
Right, makes sense
Yes. In the topological setting only. No smooth structure.
Yeah my instinct is to look at the (relative) kunneth formula
But I haven't really thought about it
Hi. How can one prove that the solid hiperboloid is a manifold with boundary?
Hi, I'm looking at the solution of this solution involving the killing equation
Should there be a minus sign in the second equality?
no I don't think so, because the covariant derivative of something with a covariant index puts a negative sign on the christoffel symbol
moving it over would make it positive
This seems to imply that {(x,y) \in R² : x=0 or y=0} is a 1-manifold, but that doesn't sound right
How would you cover the crossing point (so the origin) with an open set U that's homeomorphic to an open subset of R?
@gritty widget
also does anyone know what the "adjoint gruop" of an abstract Lie algebra is supposed to be? just the standard integrating simply connected one, or something like the inner automorphism group?
Cover the whole thing with {(x,0)} and {(0,y)}. Both of them are homeo to R which is open.
These sets aren't open in the subspace topology though (inherited from R^2), since there's no open set in R^2 whose intersection with the cross yields just a coordinate axis
Every open set in this cross which contains the origin must reach into all four "axes"
What if instead use a topology generated by open intervals of each axis?
Hmmm, maybe; I guess that probably still is Hausdorff
it is but hmm kinda weird, cuz every manifold can be embedded in R^n for some n iirc
Oh yeah sure but that n can be very big, so that's not a contradiction
ik just doesn't seem intuitively right
I think it's a topological 1-manifold by that definition, but it's for example not connected since you can write it as the union of the x-axis and (y-axis minus origin), which are both open
what a weird thing
In fact, maybe it's even homeomorphic to the disjoint union of a line and two rays?
maybe
then wouldn't be manifold
line and two rays i think makes sense
yea im pretty sure thats it
cuz then the rays don't care about the origin, only the line does
but then again it would have an automorphism by considering a different line which the other space doesn't seem to so idk
At least its decomposition into connected components equals the 4 rays and the origin
But I guess that doesn't mean it's homeomorphic to that...? I don't know, I'm not used to these kinds of examples lmao
I imagine that this manifold sucks in some subtle way, like not being paracompact, and hence escapes the usual classifications
maybe not cuz both axis are open by themselves while in a line disjoint 2 rays you'd get 2 rays and a single point. but actually maybe yes cuz that point alone is open cuz intersection of both axis
so maybe not what am i saying
Oh, I think I'm starting to see a problem. So when you generate your topology like that, and you try to, say, construct a homeomorphism from (-1,1) in the real numbers to the line segment (-1,1) x {0} in the cross, the identity will not be a homeomorphism
Because by generating your topology like that, you can easily show that the origin is by itself an open set (its the intersection of the two open sets given by the coordinate axes), so a homoemorphism would have to map {0} into an open subset of R -- but of course there are no open singletons in R
So even if you generate your topology like that, you still cannot create an open neighbourhood of the origin that maps homeomorphically into R
So this space is, after all, not a topological 1-manifold, even with the topology you gave it -- the best you could do is understand it as a disjoint union of a 0-manifold (the origin) and four 1-manifolds (the rays)
Lemme know if that makes sense to you! Really fun question @gritty widget
is there an 'easy way' to see that SU(3) is simply connected without 'fibrations' or 'long exact sequences'? everything I find online uses those words and looking them up leads me to a loophole of definitions. or is this a difficult thing to show and I should just accept it for the time being?
So this is the exercise that I am working with: Show the T_1 axiom is equivalent to the condition that for each pair of points of X (say x_1, x_2), each has a neighbourhood (say U_1, U_2) not containing the other. What does the author mean by "each has a neighbourhood not containing the other", does he mean that the neighbourhoods are not comparable?
Okay thank you so much!
If X is a scheme, saying that a function vanishes at all points of X means that we take a f in Gamma(X,O_X) and f_x = 0 for all x ?
In this case doesn't it imply that f = 0 since O_X is a sheaf ? Am I crazy ? The book I'm reading wants us to show only that there's a n such that f^n = 0
Am I crazy ? This is general sheaf theory, if a global section s of F a sheaf on X is zero on every stalks, that one can define an open cover (V_x) for each x in X where s|Vx = 0, then s = 0 because F is a sheaf
I think it means x2 not in U1 and x1 not in U2
But OTOH, AFAIK that is the definition …
Okay thank you so much!
I can do part (a). What does (b) want me to do? I feel I have to give covering spaces as quotients of the universal cover in (b), right? Not sure how to go about doing that though. Hints?
That worked out, thanks. Although it isn't a very illuminating proof in the sense that it uses heavy technology. Would be happy to see something more concrete in terms of getting actual generators and verifying compatibility conditions and so on, another time maybe.
Well the kunneth formula involves an explicit isomorphism, right ?
like you should be able to write down the generator of H_(n+m)(M×N, M×N\{(p, q)}) or whatever
I think consistency conditions should follow from some kind of naturality of the kunneth formula
Oh, I didn't use that one actually. I just expressed the top homology of M \times N in terms of homologies of M and N. That Kunneth formula gives out that the top homology is Z.
Oh
Works well with the converse also.
Wait sorry what exactly did you do?
I don't think you can just compute like H_(n+m)(M×N)
I was thinking of using kunneth locally
(that's why I clarified I meant the relative version)
Well why can't you? M, N are given to be manifolds. They will have some CW structure. Use Kunneth for that.
Which it seems like you were saying here
Take M = \R, N = \R
Then H_2(M×N) = 0
Gah I keep writing superscripts by accident
You need compactness in addition to orientability
Hmm, you're right. My bad, I assumed that.
Let me pull up Hatcher and think through my proof sketch in more detail
so from the top
let $M, N$ be oriented manifolds of dimensions $m, n$
shamrock
we define a pointwise orientation on $M \times N$
shamrock
let $(p, q) \in M \times N$ be arbitrary
shamrock
consider this relative kunneth map from Hatcher
with $R = \Z$, $X = M$, $A = M \setminus {p}$, $Y = N$, $B = N \setminus {q}$
shamrock
Since $H_i(X, A) \cong H_i(\R^m \setminus {0})$ is always flat (it is either $\Z$ or $0$) the tor groups in the short exact sequence always vanish
shamrock
and in fact, this holds if we take $A$ to be $M$ minus a regular coordinate ball around $p$ instead of $M$ minus $p$, this will be important later
shamrock
so we get this isomorphism $H_{m}(X, A) \otimes_\Z H_{n}(Y, B) \to H_{m+n}(X \times Y, (A \times Y) \cup (X \times B))$
shamrock
and this is defined without reference to a generator
observe that $(A \times Y) \cup (X \times B) = (M \times N) \setminus {(p,q)}$
shamrock
so if $o^M_p$ is the generator for $H_m(M, M \setminus {p})$ determined by the orientation on $M$ and $o^N_q$ is the generator for $H_n(N, N \setminus {q})$ determined by the orientation on $N$ we can push $o^M_p \otimes o^N_q$ along this kunneth map (which is an isomorphism) to get a generator for $H_{m+n}(M\times N, (M \times N) \setminus {(p,q)})$
shamrock
doing this over all points p, q gives a pointwise orientation of M\times N
to show local consistency, cover $M$ and $N$ by appropriate neighborhoods ${U_i}, {V_j}$ and look at $H_{n+m}(M \times N, (M \times N) \setminus (U_i \times V_j))$
shamrock
the same kunneth map will give an isomorphism from this to $H_m(M, M \setminus U_i) \otimes_\Z H_n(N, N \setminus V_j)$, and then by thinking about the specific construction of the kunneth map (some kind of naturality thing) you can show consistency of the orientaiton from the choice of neighborhoods Ui, Vj
shamrock
@strong heron okay here's what I was thinking when I said kunneth but written out in more detail
lmk if you need me to clarify anything
Okay, thanks. I'll have to go through this line of proof slowly. I'm having a tough time with understanding orientability.
definitely, it's a weird concept
have you seen it in the smooth world before?
it makes more sense there imo
Yeah, it makes more sense with charts and stuff.
Hmm I wonder if you could define it via charts still...
so you'd need to know what it means for a map to be orientation preserving
without reference to the derivative
but maybe you could frame that in terms of this whole local cohomology stuff
anyways yes I agree that it's confusing
I think the idea of homology = orientation makes sense for S^1 at least
the two generators are either a clockwise or a counterclockwise loop
and similarly for higher spheres, I guess
but then patching it all together locally is weird
okay time for scheming
because I have a french exam I should be studying for and don't want to
let $X, Y$ be integral schemes and $f : X \to Y$ be a scheme map with the following properties
shamrock
$f$ is dominant, i.e. $\overline{f(X)} = Y$
shamrock
$f$ is finite type, i.e. there's an affine covering ${V_i}$ of the codomain $Y$ such that each preimage $f^{-1}(V_i)$ has a finite covering $U^i_j$ by affines where the ring map dual to $U^i_j \to U_i$ is finite type
shamrock
$f$ is generically finite, meaning that if $\eta$ is the generic point of $Y$ then $f^{-1}(\eta)$ is a finite set
shamrock
I need to show that there's a nonempty open subset V of Y such that f^{-1}(V) -> V is a finite map
first step: we can replace $Y$ with any nonempty affine open, so wlog $Y = \mathrm{Spec} A$ for a ring $A$
shamrock
the finite type assumption is then much simpler. there's a finite affine cover $X = U_1 \cup \ldots \cup U_n$ of the domain such that the maps $A = \Gamma(Y, \mathcal{O}_Y) \to \Gamma(X, \mathcal{O}_X) \to \Gamma(U_i, \mathcal{O}_X)$ are all finite type
shamrock
some useful examples to keep in mind for this problem are X = A^n \ {0}, Y = A^n. you can't just pass to an affine open of Y, the map still isn't finite in this case
so the hint says to show K(X) is a finite extension of K(Y), I did that
I'm trying to reduce to the affine case
i.e., wlog X affine as well as Y
yah and I can't make it work
Remember you had a finite cover of opens
i think you were wrong
okay so we can find finitely many $V_1, \ldots, V_n$ in $Y$ where $f^{-1}(V_i) \cap U_i \to V_i$ is finite
shamrock
wlog the Vi are even distinguished opens of Y
this is what the affine case gives us, yeah?
Yeah
then you said look at like $V = V_1 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$, we can assume this is a distinguished open too
shamrock
but I don't see why $f^{-1}(V)$ is even affine
shamrock
so we can say like $f^{-1}(V) = \left(\bigcap_{i=1}^n f^{-1}(V_i)\right) \cap \left(\bigcup_{j=1}^n U_j\right)$
shamrock
but if we like, distribute, we won't even end up with the union of f^-1(Vi) cap Ui. even if we did, that's only a union of affines in X
anyways yeah I don't see how this reduction would work
oh but @tough imp i did give up on my dream of factoring through Spec O_X(X)
Rip



too much.

