#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 224 of 1
To recover basically just a Taylor series
I guess this is actually for k[x]/(x^n)
Actually lmfao yes this is exactly the completion of k[x] at (x) which is k[[x]]
But yes, first order info
Sorry that was a bit of an aside
hm
that's nice
I think the picture is more clear in the algebraic case here
IMO
And then you can just import that intuition to manifolds and just be like
“Okay Diff Geo and AG are really similar so it just kinda works out when we consider smooth functions not just algebraic ones”
It's just that I still didn't really study algebraic geometry
still taking my time to go through the commutative algebra bits
and I am more familiar with smooth manifolds
But I am pretty sure this will help me a lot when actually learning these concepts in the algebraic geometry setting
This construction doesn’t require any fancy machinery
I moreso meant the dual numbers notion
@bright acorn the language is maybe a bit different (premanifold), but Manifolds, Sheaves, and Cohomology by Torsten Wedhorn
Page 91-97
The specific thing with (I/I^2)-dual is on page 96
This makes an isomorphism between the derivations version of tangent vectors (which is shown to be equivalent to the more intuitive geometric notion in eg Intro to Smooth Manifolds by Lee, as well as earlier in this section of the book I mentioned) and the dual of I/I^2
Does anyone know what is meant by the "full cohomology algebra" here? I don't really know anything about this stuff but there seems to be a bunch of different flavours of cohomology and I can't find reference to "full cohomology" anywhere
they're talking about de rham cohomology probably, since it says "we realize cohomologies by classes of closed differential forms"
ahh cool thanks
and by "full cohomology" they just mean the direct sum of all the de rham cohomology groups
i think
that's usually what H*X means
This is weird...
Why is this symmetric?
won't you get a sign change if ω1, ω2 are 1 forms?
yeah I thought about that too hahah
Ah, "without odd dimensional cohomolgies"
Seems like they're using "a cohomology" to mean like "a cohomology class"?
Based on the parenthetical
what does it mean for a manifold to have no odd-dimensional cohomologies, does it just mean the nth cohomology group is trivial for odd n?
That's how I would interpret this, yeah
This is still an incredibly odd description
Ah okay slightly less odd than I thought
there's no canonical fundamental class bc we have R coefficients and not Z coefficients
I've only seen De Rham cohomology defined as a group, not an algebra
sure, you know the wedge product?
yeah
So if you take all the groups of forms Ω^p(X) of varying degrees p and look at the direct sum, the wedge product is a multiplication on that vector space
Making it an associative algebra
ohhh yeah
(it won't be commutative, generally there's a sign rule for swapping things. But if you only have even degree stuff it's commutative on the nose)
This multiplication satisfies $d(\omega \wedge \eta) = d\omega \wedge \eta \pm \omega \wedge d\eta$
Chadrock
And this formula allows you to define it on cohomology classes of closed differential forms instead of differential forms themselves
oh thats cool
the point is just that algebra structure = wedge product
do you have a recommendation for a textbook that includes this stuff
I've been trying to use a differential geometry book by Isham but it's not powerful enough to keep up with the stuff I need for this research project
ahh yes I've heard about that, thanks
i really like the approach of isham but you’re right it’s not very powerful at all
i wonder if there’s alternatives the follow the same approach
There are two definitions: "An affine hyperplane is an affine subspace of codimension 1 in an affine space" and "A[n] [affine] hyperplane is an affine subspace of codimension 1 of \mathbb{R}^d". What's the difference between the two?
the first defines affine hyperplanes in any affine space, where the second only does it in R^d ?

Does the second definition impose a redundant restriction?
its just more specific, since it restricts "affine space" in the definition to the case of R^d
but there's nothing redundant in it
Isn't $\mathbb{R}^d$ merely an example of an affine space?
JohnDark
yeah, it's just an example, the concept of affine space is much more general
but for someone who isn't familiar with, say, linear algebra with vector spaces over any field etc., the second definition will make more sense, ig ?
Just these two definitions are different for me o.o
And the second one even seems wrong. It wouldn't be the case if it explicitly said an $\mathbb{R}^d$ hyperplane
JohnDark
I think that's clear from the context, but yes indeed it means an R^d affine hyperplane 
So I just figured out why open sets describe a topological surface. Took me a bit.
So if I understand correctly, one disc can't fully describe a sphere, you need 2 because the disc can't cover itself, is that right?
And you need 3 for a torus.
etc..
I'm leaning topology from point set topology, trying to understand why open disks/sets are foundational.
*learning
I'm learning it as well
I've just completed Cauchy sequences.
Yeah, the book is beginning to talk about metric spaces, but hasn't used it in a topological way yet.
how dist must be defined, etc..
is my intuition off, that you need 2 discs to cover a sphere, or no?
okay, I think I understand you there. I guess I need to study more to get a proper understanding
yeah, I feel like starting at point set topology is kinda backwards in curiculum.
It's foundational, but not really intuitive.
yeah, thanks for your input.
Yeah
ok
Isn't it true that there cannot be any isolated points when d(x,y)=|x-y|?
Also, it seems so logical the no matter where and with which radius I centre my balls, I hit some number from R, but I have no idea how to formally prove this.
yes it is; center a ball of radius r at x and then try taking the average between x and x+r for instance
given any irrational number you can construct a sequence of rationals that converges to it
What about (S,d) with $S=[0,1] \cup {3}$ though? Isn't 3 then isolated?
veryhappyperson
ah sure, 3 is of course isolated then
derivada.schwarziana
Okay, and is this what I should write into my proof? Because, to be frank, I have no idea how to construct such a sequence. Would this mean that Q is complete in (Irrationals)?
no, it would mean that the closure of Q is R
since any set is a subset of it's closure, you just need to approximate the irrationals.
derivada.schwarziana
Okay, I am still confused about "given any irrational number you can construct a sequence of rationals that converges to it". If every irrational number is a limit point of Q, isn't this the definition of completeness?
Bruh, this makes sense, thank you xD
maybe the confusing bit was "converges", I meant converges in R
which isn't the same as convergence in Q or any proper subspace
And this would mean Q is dense in R, right? Anyway, does density imply that there cannot be any isolated points?
Wait, $S=[0,1] \cup {3}$ should be dense in R, so I was talking stupid stuff again.
veryhappyperson
no it shouldn't, it's closed in R so it's closure is itself
indeed Q is dense in R. As for the other question I'm pretty sure that's true it's not. For instance, (0,1)U{3} is dense in [0,1]U{3} and 3 is an isolated point
Ahh
Okay, so I cannot use that for my argument either xD Sadly, I don't get yours. What does approximating the irrationals even mean, and how does this help with my ball proof?
@river granite , wasn't this sequence supposed to converge to an irrational ? I am so confused xD Even if it did, what would this prove?
well, if x is irrational then indeed it converges to an irrational. But note that even if x is irrational, each term of the sequence is rational since the floor function gives an integer.
I get you now. The question remains though: What does this help me?
If my brain isn't dead by now, this should mean that every point of the irrationals is adherent to the rationals, and then, @river granite ? I am sorry if I am bothering you with my questions xD
indeed that's what it means
I think you asked here whether it's true that any ball centered in a rational point must contain irrational points. It's true since Q is dense in R, and a way to prove that is by building rational sequences as we did
This was my the original question. I have already forgotten how I got to the others stuff we were talking about, @river granite xD
I think my very first sentence is just wrong. I think I meant to say, "No matter where and with what radius I centre my balls in Q, I hit some numbers in Q, therefore there cannot exist any isolated points."
yes, that's true
Okay, thanks again, but that is exactly what I have to prove -.-
this idea works, for instance
the whole thing about Q being dense in R is kind of unrelated, I thought you meant that balls centered in Q always have some irrational point in R
but since we're regarding (Q, | . |) as a subspace it suffices to find some rational point in any ball, other than the center of the ball of course
I finally got it now, thank you, @river granite !
anyone? <@&286206848099549185>
this map is linear right? cause its obviously linear in the first factor and also in the second?
im doing this problem, so here the image of the differential of psi is just the image of psi right?
I'm not sure where you need to explicitly work with a local paramaterization?
@sleek thicket
You thought you got me didn't you
https://estrogen.fun/i/qdy4.png
I don't think this is linear
I was very excited
hahaha
anyways @fading vale why is the 2nd coordinate linear in y?
and it convinced me einstein good
but creates some truly horrible expressions
Okay this is embarrassing as someone who just defended the honor of Einstein summation notation
But
I think raising/lowering index notation is so unnecessary and confusing
you're just using the iso with the dual space!
It’s actually based
yeah its not i was being very silly
i am still confused about tau though

idts tbh makes things a lot nicer looking
^

Is it true that removing the closure of regular coordinate ball from a 2-manifold the same as removing a point?
If p is a point of B, and V is a neighborhood of cl(B) that is homeomorphic to the disk, then V - cl(B) is homeomorphic to V - {p}, but I am not sure how to extend this to a homeo. from M - cl(B) to M - {p}.
Not sure about the topological case, yes in the smooth case
Should be homotopy equivalent in the topological category
I see
What can make my argument fail is that there's no control on what happens on the boundary bd(V)
in the smooth case you can take a collar neighborhood of the boundary of M\cl(B)
I think this can be fixed by choosing a suitable neighborhood W inside V.
I think
And in the topological case you can sort of homotope stuff out in the coordinate ball
I know nothing about smooth manifolds, unfortunately
ah okay
so a collar neighborhood is a neighborhood of the boundary which is the image of an embedding [0,1)×partial M -> M that sends {0}×partial M to partial M
this is for a smooth manifold M with boundary
But we can look at just a topological manifold with boundary and require that the map be a topological embedding
Ah it looks like this holds in the topological category also https://math.stackexchange.com/q/703009/408287
I think this gives that M\pt is homeomorphic to M\cl(B)
Or wait...I'm being very very silly
I'm not sure why I thought you needed a collar neighborhood
I think you can just do a homeomorphism in the coordinate ball
Containing cl(B)
Find a homeomorphism of R\closed unit ball and R\origin which is the identity outside of the closed ball of radius 2
Weird, I thought this would be easy to prove.
The collar neighborhood or your original claim?
The former.
I think your original claim is easy and I was confusing myself
Ah okay yeah it's definitely nontrivial
Exactly!
Wait, what are you talking about? The collar neighborhood?
No, constructing the homeomorphism I described
Or maybe you can just write it down explicitly? It's possible I'm being silly
Oh yeah I think I'm being silly
That's what I thought of: Suppose we have a coordinate ball B around a point p, and the following inclusions: B < cl(B) < W < cl(W) < V, where all these are coordinate balls, and we have a single homeomorphism f : V —> B(0; 3r) that induces a homeomorphism between cl(W) and cl(B(0; 2r)), and between cl(B) and cl(B(0; r)). Now there is a homeomorphism G sending cl(B(0; 2r)) - cl(B(0; r)) to cl(B(0; 2r)) - {0}, so we can use G to construct a homeomorphism g* : W - cl(B) —> W - {p}, and the nice thing is that g is equal to the identity on bd(W), because cl(W) is a disk. So we can extend g* to g : M - cl(B) —> M - {p}, by letting it equal the identity elsewhere, and this will be a homeomorphism.
Oh, I was saying you can use flows to construct G
I agree with your argument
Er wait, no
I don't know what I'm saying
I should go to bed
Well, I think the closed disk with a closed disk removed is homeomorphic to (0, 1] x [0, 1]
yeah, you're right
I think I was getting hung up on stuff being smooth
When you just want continuous
Oh, I see
just like, if you do stuff piecewise then it won't be smooth on the boundary
But mostly i should just go to bed, I've made a bunch of silly mistakes in this conversation
Hi
I have to solve this problem
I was able to find the equation of the tangent plane by plugging in the coordinates of M:
this is the equation: 3x+4y−6z−6=0
From here how can I prove that this plane cuts the surface after two lines? And how can I find the angle between these two lines?
is intersection number mod 2 secretly homology with Z/2Z coefficients or something
Can't you just substitute the plane equ into the hyperboloid and solve? If you get two solutions to the quadratic then you found the two lines I think
Does anyone have a hint on showing that Hopf fibrs S3->S7 ->S4 and 7->15->8 are not null homotopic?
Exactly. Yeah I'll try that idea

yeah its this
moth doesnt understand how to take derivatives of multivalued functions part 10138409234
go ahead ^^
so for the derivative of the function psi here
if you compute the jacobian you end up with like ((1, d/dv (dg_v)^t w), (0, d/dw (dg_v)^t w)) i think
yup ^^

So I need to compute the derivative of this map at (y, 0)
i.e basically explicitly get the tangent space of the normal bundle
my idea was to do this explicitly w/ the jacobian and for that im pretty sure you end up with like
$(x_1, x_2) \mapsto (x_1, (\frac{\partial}{\partial y} d g_y^\star (x_2))$
Moth
but i have no idea how to work with this second term
like at all lol
im not even sure intuitively what this means? or like i kind of do, because at (y, 0) in the normal bundle we have Y x {0} and {y} x N_y Y (where N_y Y is the orthogonal complement of T_y Y) and we're like... varying in a neighborhood of y along {y} x N_y Y
maybe im being dumb and misunderstanding how the jacobian works in the context of computing the differential at a point
also that y is a typo it should be (x1, x2) |-> (x1, blah blah blah)
but texit wont let me change it
can someone tell me how to show this property proves two metrics are equivalent: ∃a,b>0, ∀x,y∈X such that d1(x,y)≤ad2(x,y) and d2(x,y)≤bd1(x,y))
im reading its called strong metric equivalence but i cant find a proof for it
what's the definition of equivalent metrics you know ?
two metrics that generate the same topology?
Right.\
So try to show that if for every $(x, y) \in X$, there exists $a_{x, y}, b_{x, y} > 0$ s.t $a_{x, y} d_1(x, y) \leq d_2(x, y) \leq b_{x, y} d_1(x, y)$, then the topology generated by $d_1$ and $d_2$ are the same.\
Strong metric equivalence is even stronger than that (it says that the $a$ and $b$ are the same for any pair of $(x, y) \in X$).\
To show the two generated topologies are equivalent, try to show that every open ball of $(X, d_1)$ is included in some open ball of $(X, d_2)$, and reciprocally
Shika-Blyat
okay ill work with that thank you for your response
aight so imma post this here since it's a computational geometry problem
what i THINK might work is first making the delaunay triangulation of P and then searching through its edges
but im not sure this actually gives what i need
and im not sure how to go about proving it either way
I guess there is an obvious O(n^3) algorithm using the hint, maybe it can be improved. (For each pair of points, draw a line between them, and consider all ways to "complete" the quadrilateral)
the DT is my attempted improvement
i tried websearching and a few examples popped up but i didnt understand
nope i mean i=the other way
well, all path connected spaces are connected, so there are no examples
our teacher said this at the end of the class, and told us to look into it
idk, maybe i heard him wrong?
i was confused too
sin(1/x^2) or smth like that, right ? 
("canonical" in the sense of "this is the most common example")
ah alright thanks, ill look into that
so that ones an example for connected but not path connected?
yup
thanks
it's connected because it's the closure of a connected set, but not path connected, since joining (0, 0) to any point on the graph part by a continuous path will be impossible
Is there any "practical" application of the fact that every topological manifold is metrizable?
all results on metric spaces immediately becomes true, isn't it enough ?
at least for smooth manifolds, i think some stuff to do with the tubular neighbourhood theorem involves choosing a metric
i've always blackboxed it so i don't know the specifics
but you can maybe look there
I see
I wonder whether it's possible to ensure that, for example, all sufficiently small balls are actually regular coordinate balls, or something similar
Unfortunately I don't know what a normal bundle really is.
tangen't bundle
@west spindle if you confirm that your DT thing works, or if you find a solution in general, I will be curious to know 🙂
<@&286206848099549185> see this, if any of y'all wouldn't mind.
I think the DT thing fails (at least, without modifications). Eg consider the set of points: A=(0,0), B=(N, 1+eps), C=(N+eps,1), D=(-N, 1+eps), E=(-N-eps, 1) where N is large and epsilon is big. Then the optimal quadrilateral is the one that excludes the (0,0). But there exists the DT that consists of ABC ABD ADE
@west spindle
Lmao, "where N is large and epsilon is big", I meant "epsilon is small"
@west spindle Maybe this can help, although I suppose your problem allows concave quadrilaterals as well? https://www.ics.uci.edu/~eppstein/pubs/EppOveRot-DCG-92.pdf
they say time complexity of O(n³) ?
Looking at this pdf feels a bit close to giving up
But O(n^3) is basically easily achievable with the hint
And the easy O(n^3) algorithm is O(n^2) if the points are the vertices of a convex polygon, but I'm not sure if the original problem is reducible to this case
okay so i have a new idea
if we know the min area quadrilateral among n-1 points, and we add another point, can we find the new min area quad in O(n)?
if yes, then we can get the O(n^2) total run time we want
I think I have an O(n²log n) algorithm :(
knowing the list allows you to keep a list of points sorted by "altitude" for all the slopes as you turn
altitude?
for a slope of 0 that would be sorted by y-coordinate
oh
and we want such a list for all the slopes
okay i think i see what you're getting at
because to get the minimal quadrilateral we want to find for each pair of points, a third point closest to them on top and a fourth point closest to them under
for each slope take the points with the positive and negative altitudes closest to zero
like the hint says
if you can do the slope sorting in O(n²) you win
a linear time sort would be quite the breakthrough 
I'm not sure I follow how a list sorted by slopes is used for this
start with a slope of 0 and have a list of points sorted by y-coordinates
have your list of pairs of points sorted by slope ready
as the slope goes up a little, you will get the first pair of point with a small positive slope
they will be consecutive points in your list of points
you look at them plus the one above them plus the one below them in the list and see how big the quadrilateral they make is
then you swap those two points in the list, and now you have the sorted list of points for a slope slightly higher than the slope of their line
and now you continue with the next pair of points in your list of pairs of points sorted by slope
and so on
isnt there a nice quadrilateral area formula dependent on diagonals?
maybe there's a way to think about it only in terms of the diagonals of the quadrilaterals?
just a thought
this allows you to visit the n² pairs of points while for each of them, have a complete list of all the points sorted by the distance to the line between them
there is
which if you do it naively is O(n³ log n)
n^2 log n no?
no you if you do it naively and sort the list from scratch every time it's O(n³)
right
It's like $\frac{d1 \times d2}{2} \times \sin \theta $ where $d1$ and $d2$ are the length of the two diagonals and $\theta$ is the smallest angle formed by the two diagonals
Shika-Blyat
iirc
You are not claiming that consecutive items in the sorted list create small quadrilaterals right?
I am
Are you considering pairs of points with one of the points fixed?
the hint says that any quadrilateral can be obtained by glueing two triangles
so you can just sort quadrilaterals by their diagonal (the convex ones have two ways to do this)
and then for a given diagonal where we want to glue triangles on
we just need the smallest triangles on each side
hence you have to sort the points
Yes, that I follow (and which I was saying there is an obvious O(n^3) algo, and O(n^2) algo if the points form the vertices of a convex polygon)
by how far they are from the line
How do we sort the points (efficiently)?
I explained that
when the slope you use to sort changes a little, you only need to do little changes to the list
you just swap to points P and Q when your slope goes through ... well the slope of the line through P and Q
.sort() 
you might have an annoyance when there are three or more points aligned
because for getting the smallest quadrilateral you need to pick a pair with the shortest base length for your diagonal
so you have to actually care about the order you pick them
Hm. So I have a sorted list of points (P1, Q1),(P2,Q2),..., (Pm, Qm), let's say the diagonal we are consifeting is (P2, Q2), what are you saying we do?
say I have a sorted list of points according to their distance to a line of slope t - epsilon
AND a sorted list of pairs of points according to slope of their line
and I am visiting a pair of points (P,Q) of slope t
then I find P and Q in the list of points
if the list looks like ... X, P, Q, Y, .... I look at the quadrilateral made by the triangles XPQ and PQY
then I swap P and Q in the list of points
so I get ... X, Q, P, Y, ....
now my list of points is sorted according to their distance to a line of slope (t + epsilon)
and then I go to the next pair of points (P',Q') of slope t' > t
and I do it all again
1/4 * product of diagonals * sin(angle between them)?
or something
wait if that's actually true
then i think we might have a breakthrough
holy shit
...wait
hm
O(n⁴) algorithm ?
im personally stumped my paper is full of dots and lines, and no improvements
WHAT A BREAKTHROUGH! [digs straight down]
this is probably completely wrong but could the minimal quad be made from 4 consecutive points on a minimal spanning tree?
i dont have any justification for this it just seems so visually and maybe it can help idk
nvm found a counterexample by mesing around
minimal Euclidean spanning tree?
oh no sham left :(
there's a part b to the min area quad problem by the way
but i think i can solve it
kinda?
part b is to count the number of convex quads with vertices from P in O(n^3 log(n))
which i believe can be done with the slope-sorting method @wanton marsh presented
orrr wait maybe not. shit
He’ll be back
hi
the fundamental group is defined to be te equivalence classes of loops, but is possible to define a group on arbitrary paths, not necesary loops?
l think if you fix two distinct endpoints then you get the fundamental groupoid
From https://ncatlab.org/nlab/search?query=fundamental+groupoid
Direct page found at: fundamental groupoid
here tau is just summation lol and N(S^2) is the normal bundle
intuitively should this have any critical values?
i know for sure that its regular at S^2 x {0} and i dont see why it would ever not be?
like its not like N_(u, 1) S^2 should be any smaller at S^2 x {1} or whatever
so i Think we can literally just take charts of R that translate a neighborhood by n? cant we?
and then tau is regular on S^2 x {n}?
no, tau take a point x of S^2 and a normal vector y at this point and "translates" x to x+y
you should see something no regular
to help you, such an irregular point is called a focal point
You dont fix endpoints, the fundamental groupoid is the set of all paths (upto path homotopy) in a topological space, along with a partial binary operator which is the concatenation of path given that their respective endpoints match up
yeah i guess im just gonna have to hunker down and compute the differential
lmao
sigh
i guess identifying it w/ S^2 \times R will make it a bit easier
@honest narwhal so re: the thingy we talked about yesterday (thanks for that btw it worked out)
the thing with the 2nd derivatives and such
derivative of psi and all
so im working with the case here where i need to find the derivative of psi at an arbitrary point (y, v) in the normal bundle
so here we get like:
1, 0
d^2 g_y^t (v), dg_y
and if we wanna find what this derivative does to a point (x1, x2) its like, (x1, d^2 g_y^t(v) * x1 + dg_y^t(x2)), right?
we have to fix a v in N_y Y and evaluate the hessian at that v
here im taking it specifically for the sphere... so i guess i have to find a g about y in S^2 that maps an open neighborhood of that to zero

im guessing this is where the focal point stuff comes in because somethings omething stereographic projection
tho you don't need to use local parametrization to compute the differential of tau
you can see your normal bundle as a submanifold of R^4
then it's easy to compute tau, it's the sum lol
it's linear
yea its diffeomorphic to S^2 x R
did you succeed the tau exercise ?
maybe im being silly but then i dont really see where it would fail to be surjective
this
oh
maybe try (x,y) -> x-y from R²->R
you'll see
find the focal points of that?
oh yes, and (h,k) is in the tangent space of S^2xR
thus in Ker(df)xR where f(x,y,z) = x²+y²+z²-1
um is the domain of d tau here ker(df_y) x R?
yes
oh i think i kind of see, before when i was working with a general Y and (y, 0) i had to compute the differential of psi to determine the tangent space of N(Y)
but in the case of S^2 I can just use that N(S^2) is diffeo to S^2 x R
so the tangent spaces are diffeomorphic as well
so i dont have to compute d psi to find the domain of d tau
btw I still don't see where there would be a non regular point for me but I think it's (x,-x)
a focal point is a point f such that there's x and y in S²xR s.t. tau(x,y) = f
mhm
(I've given the bad definition before)
maybe im being dumb but i still cannot see a point where this fails lol
im not sure how (x, -x) works here since x is in S^2 and -x in R
yeah I don't see why too, I think it's true that it's not regular on (x,-x) bc it's written in my course xD
if you have the answer I'm aware, it's really weird
PAHUS
I have projection to $B =[0,1]\times{0}$ from $E={(x,y) | \leq x, 0\leq y, x+y \leq 1}$. This is clearly a fibration since projections are fibrations. Any clue on how to show that this is not a fiber bundle ?
PAHUS
this is very false? unless you mean homotopy not rel {0, 1}
yeah
plus you can't take a group structure on it
what you said would imply that fundamental groupoids are all contractible
which would be very bad
G_delta means it's a countable intersection of open sets
Cool thanks. Why G? Why delta?
it's a german language thing, i think
The notation originated in German with G for Gebiet (German: area, or neighbourhood) meaning open set in this case and δ for Durchschnitt (German: intersection).
^from wikipedia
ah ok
hmm do you think by this they meant that its like
((0, 0, 1), -1)
agh this is so confusing
@gritty widget do u have like any idea how to do this 
ok like part 1 is fine.
the critical values are so confusing to me
namely i dont feel like they should exist
i know for a fact d tau is surjective at (y, 0) and like
i dont understand why moving up would matter
at all
im still wondering how to do that min area quad problem from yday tbh
O(n^2) seems so out of reach oof
Did you understand zeps n^2 log n solution?
Can you explain the idea behind it? I still don't understand it 😞
basically for every segment connecting two points, we drop perpendiculars from all the other points onto its line
and look for the shortest ones above and below
Yeah, and I believe he is saying we can find the closest points to this line segment (or rather a list of points listed by their distance), and when we iterate to the next set of two points, we can find the new closest points without recomputing everything. But I don't see how that is possible
I think of this as the trivial O(n^3) algorithm (when we iterate over all points to find the closest ones). (And we can optimize this to O(n^2) if we assume that the points form the vertices of a convex polygon, in which case intuitively it suffices to check the points adjacent to P and Q). But I don't follow how zef is optimizing this from n^3 to n^2 log n
In general, I don't see how the slopes "play nice" with the distance of points to the line segment PQ, or that a list of points sorted by distances to a line segment can be easily updated. I am fairly sure I can think of examples where iterating to the next slope causes O(n) swaps to the list of points sorted by distance
The derivative should be more precisely (h,k) -> h +kx for me, if you differentiate in S^2xR. But it's still wierd because h is orthogonal to x
I have an idea, but haven't proved it. Translate the points so that they are all in the first quadrant. Then sort the points such that $(x_i,y_i) < (x_j,y_j)$ if either $x_i < x_j$ or $x_i = x_j$ and $y_i < y_j$ in $O(n \log n)$. Arrange the points in a grid. Points with the same $x-coordinate$ lie in the same column and those with the same $y-coordinate$ lie in the same row. Now, for each point in the sorted list, consider the minimal quadrilateral with that point as the leftmost and bottom-most point.
$$ $$
It's likely that we would need to consider points only on a certain number of adjacent gridlines which could be bounded by the sum of the number of points in those adjacent vertical or horizontal gridlines and that is $O(n)$. Showing this would probably need to consider a bunch of cases depending on if some of the other 3 points lie on the same horizontal or vertical gridline or not. Also having the the parallel gridlines should make area comparisons somewhat easier.
$$ $$
If that's possible, we would be done in $O(n log n) + O(n^2)$
andreO
this feels really hacky
and it also feels like its disregarding the hint i was given, which was to consider a quad as two triangles attached to a diagonal
Oh, maybe I'm starting to see zefs solution now
we aren't sorting an arbitrary list. There are constraints on the slopes that pairs of points can have.
so it's not completely ruled out that sorting in O(n²) is possible
If you project onto the diagonal, and are only interested in the closest points, and given that you have to calculate the projections anyway. Would it not suffice to keep the two points with the the shortest distance in memory instead of producing a list and sorting it?
My understanding is that: you have a list of points sorted by signed distance to a line PQ. Then the idea is that if you were to shift PQ without changing the slope, then the list of points is still sorted. And iterating to the next line segment from PQ is sort of like shifting the line segment, and changing the slope by epsilon. Is that a more or less accurate understanding?
yeah
well the next line of closest slope can jump pretty far
but since the sorted list doesn't change if you translate the line that's not a problem
it's only rotating the line (so changing the slope little by little) that will change the order
I am not
Do you need hard O(n^2) or is eg amortized O(n^2) okay too? (Maybe you can throw a ton of data structures at the problem to keep run times low)
hard O(n^2)
I am just saying that just because sorting an arbitrary list has a lower bound of O(n log n)
doesn't mean that for our case O(n² log n) is a lower bound for sorting the pairs of points
oh ok i think i see your point
im not sure i get your and 8da's point about rotating
Yeah, eg maybe you can do merge sort
For each point, sweep over the other points such that the line segments you create are already sorted by slope
i am assuming that we have some blackbox sort function we dont care about the innards of that runs in n lon(n)
n log(n)
wait did you say sweep
Then this creates a list of n line segments that are already sorted. Then merging this should take n^2 time
isn't that already O(n * n log n)
Actually I'm not sure how to do the sweep such that you iterate over points in a way that they are already sorted
It would be n n log n if you manually sorted each list, yeah, but I guess I was thinking of some way such that it "automatically" gives you a sorted list
also, merging n lists of size n takes O(n² log n) time I think
n sorted lists?
yeah n sorted lists
fuck. this is making my head hurt
Ah, yeah, I am making too many mistakes/thinking too wishfully 🙂 I don't have an n^2 algorithm for merging n lists
bottom line is i think i might be able to get pity points if i present the "sort slopes in O(n^2 log(n))" algo
so its not ENTIRELY hopeless
in practice the difference between O(n²) and O(n² log n) is not that crippling
compared to a O(n³) algorithm
(it might also be a project euler problem but I can't really remember the number and a lazy search didn't bring up anything)
It's certain that concave quadrilaterals are supposed to be included?
I think so
Also I realize I should've kept this secret for some reason so I'll delete the msg
I guess you have to submit it as a project euler problem and wait for people to solve it and maybe one of them will post a O(n²) solution
lmao
I guess it is a question for ann how cheaty it would be to look at the algorithm from the book in your screenshot
i dont have a book, all i have is a pdf with a bunch of problems our teacher gave us :P
ah but is the smallest-area triangle necessarily contained in the smallest-area quad?
I just mean roenback posted a screenshot, and that book/algo for theorem 2 probably contains a great idea for solving the quadrilateral problem
okay i'll look through this once ive had some food bc all this math shit is making me kinda hungry
Im missing something very obvious but why does the definition of Fiber bundle give us the homeomorphism to the fiber of the singleton set? Since the definition only talks about homeomorphisms for the open sets and singletons are not open sets
Restrict the homeomorphism phi to π^{-1}({p}). The restriction of a homeomorphism is a homeomorphism onto its image.
Ahh true! Thank you!
i figured it out btw
you had to explicitly write out the diffeo between N(S^2) and S^2 x R and basically use it as a local paramaterization of each point so like
if g: S^2 x R -> N(S^2) is the diffeo you have to compute d(tau circ g)
Hmmm I have shown that the projection from $E={(x,y) | \leq x, 0\leq y, x+y \leq 1}$ to $B =[0,1]\times{0}$ is not a fiber bundle, but how can I show that it is a fibration. I think I can use the fact that B is a retraction and I believe that projections are fibrations, right? Am I in the right direction?
PAHUS
yeah ok legit then. I've computed the differential wrongly. Btw someone explained me that if you restrict tau to (x,-x) it's constant equals to 0 then you can see that the Kernel of df is non trivial by differentiating with resepct of x
yea
the critical values are just 0 btw
the points are S^2 x {-1}
you end up getting like (1 + t)v + t'w or something and v and the tangent plane span R^3 so you need (1 + t)v to be 0
i.e t = -1
Use the fact that the projection from the square to the interval is a fibration, and that any initial condition on the triangle can also be viewed as an initial condition on the square. Lift homotopy to the square, then choose appropriate retraction from square to triangle to compose the homotopy with
A bit wordy but I hope that makes sense. If I'm not wrong there will be only 1 choice for the retraction to the triangle
Ah I think I see this , thanks!
Hello ! Struggling with visualization a bit here... Working in dimension four 🙂
So I managed to see that $$\natural^k(S^1\times D^3)$$
is a 1-handlebody. Now, I want to see a handle decomposition of $$\natural^k(S^2\times D^2),$$
what could it be ? It may be very obvious but I can't find it...
Matplotlib
The thing I want to do is trying to use the Laudenbach-Poénaru paper (http://www.numdam.org/article/BSMF_1972__100__337_0.pdf). I understood the paper and the outline of the proof, but I've read elsewhere that this paper means that the attaching of the 3-handles can only be done in a unique way, and I don't understand how this is implied by the results proven...
$\natural$
Σ, liestinche
What it mean?
Boundary connected sum
For M natural N you glue M and N along discs on their boundary
It is such that bdy(M natural N)=bdy(M) connected sum bdy(N)
When my professor was discussing non-isoled singularities, branch points to be more exact, he briefly mentioned how we can consider a group called the monodromy group in order to properly study how does a certain "function" like the complex logarithm fails to have a unique value if you run around a point.
Could someone give me a better explanation of this?
hm
Since it's periodic, the log function is an inverse to the exponential
So you have to cut off the angle to not go all the way around
otherwise you get multi-valued
I have a $E={[0,1]\times{0})\cup({0}\times[0,1])$ and the projection to the unit interval on the x axis denoted $B$. Now I have shown that this is hom eqv, and fibers are contractible, but I am trying to show that this is not a fibration. I have tried to come up with some homotopies in B that can't be lifted but I can't seem to think of one. Any ideas?
PAHUS
I was thinking about having a homotopy between identity and constant map to $(1,0)$ from either $B$ or ${0} \times I$ but itseems that these are both liftable
PAHUS
In May's „concise“, is this a typo, or are there meant to be two stars?
If yes, is this done to convey the difference to the direct sum, i.e. finitely supported coefficient sequences?
bump
I guess the point (1,0) when projected in B is homotopic to (0,1), but this isn't true in E with respect to the fibers
@cold vine
the homotopy H(.,t) = (0,t) can't be lifted
bcp it would give something like h : [0,1] -> E where h(0) = (1,0) but p(h(x)) = (0,x)
then h(x) = (0,x) for x>0
So i had this question asking me to prove this
i was wondering if my follow up answer is correct
I think the answer here must be true because of what i state right?
but it seems too straightforward
Z^beta and T have swapped positions
Hi Everyone! I'm looking for an example for a covering number on S is smaller than the packing number on T, despite T being subset of S. Any hints?
so exactness tells you different things
Thanks so much! Couldn't figure that one out although I did think of the homotopy
Which book are you reading from btw?
I have materials which are loosely based on Tom Dieck, but I own Hatcher which has been a help.
oh this time i get Z^b + T right?
Also checked out Munkres when relevant
oh @pale sky I see
you you didn't use anything about
Z^b and T right?
the statement is false
in general
it's equivalent to the sequence splitting
by the splitting lemma
like
your proof of the statement in part (a)
you said it didn't use any properties of Z^b and T
it's not true in general that if you have an exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0
that B = A + C
so your proof of part (a)
is wrong
ah ok do u see where it is wrong? i have examined it for a bit and not sure where
but hatcher says this
yes, when the sequence splits
isnt that what i prove here?
you can't prove this splits without using properties of T and Z^b
in a)
let me take a closer look
I think your proof is wrong in that
H/Im m_1
can't be identified with H/T
because T is not a submodule of H
isnt it though? since this diagram has to be for homomoprhism of modules right
consider also like. An exact sequence 0 -> Z -> Z -> Z/5Z -> 0
where the first map is x5
and the second map is quotient
Z is not Z + Z/5Z
your proof would imply this
because Z/im (x5) is not Z/Z = 0 even though im(x5) is isomorphic to Z
sorry im not sure what this means
"where the first map is x5" and "and the second map is quotient"
so like
consider maps 0 -> Z -f-> Z -g-> Z/5Z -> 0
f(x) = 5 * x
g(x) = x mod 5
ah i see
tyty
hmm for a)
is there a way to rectify this proof
or is it no where near what i need?
also im still abt confused about why T cannot be identitief with im m1 since m1 is a module homomorphism
so like
T and im m1 are isomorphic
that doesn't mean H/T and H/im m1 are isomorphic
in fact H/T doesn't even make sense
consider
5Z and 6Z are isomorphic as groups right
but Z/5Z and Z/6Z
are not isomorphic
5Z and 6Z are not isomorphic in the slice over Z
ah i see thanks!
Thanks
Moth


Let's say we have a smooth function $f:\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{R}$ which goes to a constant value at infinity, i.e. $f(x)\to C$ as $|x|\to\infty$, for some $C\in\mathbb{R}$. Let's now say that we want to find a diffeomorphism $F:\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{B}$, where $\mathbb{B}\subseteq\mathbb{R}^3$ is the open unit ball, such that $f\circ F^{-1}:\mathbb{B}\to\mathbb{R}$ extends smoothly to a function on the closed unit ball $\overline{\mathbb{B}}$ (which necessarily will have to equal $C$ on $\partial\mathbb{B}$). What kind of decay do we need on the derivatives of $f$ in order to be able to do this?
gustavn64
Guys what's the scariest topology?
Zariski topology
is the R^2/QxQ plane connected and path connected?
Nice problem 🙂 the first thing that comes to my mind to try to show that if is not connected is to write down an equation in x and y like p(x,y)=0 that has no rational solutions
Then we can take p>0 and p<0 as open sets
Sadly I am not number theoretic enough to know how to write down such a p
you can take a look at this
Oh, wow, it's connected?
Ah, I was wondering what was going on since I intuitively agree that this space is path connected. This should be "only rational solutions" instead of "no rational solutions". Which sounds false
(just to confirm, that's set difference, right?)
set difference is \, not /, no ? 

$\setminus$
Namington
$\setminus$
/ is usually a quotient
some authors dont care about your directionormative notation though
and will do whatever
Let (X,x_0) be a pointed topological space. There is a category with objects real numbers and morphisms x -> y being continuous maps f: [x,y] -> X with f(x)=f(y)=x_0 (i.e. a loop but the interval doesn't have to be [0,1]). Morphism composition of arrows f: x -> y, g: y -> z is the loop composition but now on an interval [x,z].
Please has anyone ever seen this somewhere except for here and now?
No, but I haven't seen much math in the grand scheme of things
where did it come up?
Not necessarily, if you interpret [b,a] to be empty when b>a
because then no non-identity arrow is invertible
I've seem tom dieck briefly mention that we could do this but thats it
Hi everyone. This question came up in a Multivariable Analysis class, but I was told it's much more involved in Algebraic Topology, so they suggested I ask here. Thanks in advance! a.) Let $A = \cup_{j = 1}^{m} B_j$ where $B_1,\dots,B_m$ are non-empty open balls in $\mathbb{R}^n$, pairwise disjoint ($B_j \cap B_k = \emptyset$ if $j \neq k$). Prove $dim H^{0}(A) = m - 1 $ and $H^k(A) = {0}$ if $k \geq 1$. b.) Let $A = {(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2: 1 < x^2 + y^2 < 4}$. Compute $H^k(A)$ for $k = 0,1,2,\dots$
hype_db
Shouldn't dim H⁰(A) = m since there are m path components?
Wait this is de Rham Cohomology right?
Or singular homology?
@empty grove neither of those words sound familiar. I'm checking my book to see if they are stated.
Difference is idk singular homology lol
the set of closed k forms C^k(A) divided by the set of exact k forms E^k(A). We define H^k(A) = C^k(A)/E^k(A)
Yeah that's de Rham Cohomology
Isn't singular homology abelian groups and de Rham Cohomology R vector spaces?
oh damn didn't know that was a thing
But I think you'll have this since locally constant smooth functions on A are essentially m tuples
You can take singular cohomology with coefficients in any abelian group A, though you usually want it to be a rinf
If you use the ring Z you get the usual singular cohomology
I see
In your definition, you probably look at integer linear combinations of chains
Err, cochains
Right
You can replace “integer linear combination” with “real linear combination”
And that’s (co)homology with real coefficients
slimvesus
And the higher cohomologies will be dim 0 because H^k(A) will be the direct sum of H^k (B_i) which are all 0 as B_i are contractible
well, if I can prove it is actually equal to m, I'll be ok. My professor is known to have typos lol.
Yep
Connected component = each B_i here
the two theorems in the section given are the Homotopy Equivalence Theorem and Mayer-Victoris Special Case. But ok, I think I see what you mean. There are m B_i's, so m connected components. That implies dimension m?
You can use homotopy equivalence here
A is homotopy equivalent to m points
Just contract each ball
Ok hold on, I'm sorry my topology is very weak since I haven't taken a class in it. My professor also got stuck during the proof of the theorem, so he never did an example using it. When you say contract each ball, how exactly would I do that? And how would that allow us to conclude A is homotopy equivalent to m points?
He didn't define homotopy. In my book, it says that if two functions satisfy the theorem, then they are homotopy equivalences. And I did not know that fact, but I don't see why it wouldn't be true.
Yeah check the definition of homotopy
that's what I asked my instructor and he didn't have an answer lol. It's theorem 40.1 in the Munkres Analysis on Manifolds book. It's easy to get a PDF and it's a long theorem, so is it possible to look at it there?
Have you computed the cohomologies for a single ball?
nope. I really hate that my instructor covered this section. He did it on the last day of class and he got stuck in the middle of a proof and then he gives us a homework problem on it
luckily this is the ONLY problem on it. So I'm just hoping to get through it with some sort of an understanding and then when I take Topology I'm hoping to learn more.
agreed. I really don't like it... especially on the last day of class
Try to think about this case first, m=1
Then it's a matter of taking direct sums
then its derivative is 0?
No he just said def of locally constant lol
What does the function look like, can you think of any examples?
so I feel that would mean C^k(A) = 0 meaning H^k(A) = 0.
Why would C^0(A) = 0?
I didn't mean to. I thought our only assumption was m = 1? Nothing about k yet.
ohhh that was my bad I missed it
so yes then it would simply H^0(A) = 0. But we want it to be m (or m - 1 according to my instructor)
Why would it be 0?
wouldn't C^0(A) = 0? Meaning C^0(A)/E^0(A) = 0 regardless of E^0(A)?
oh that's true. I don't have a reason to think that. my bad
yes that's my bad
it implies f = c (where c is constant)
well if ALL of the derivatives have to be 0 I'd think we could.
because f' = 0 implies f = c as we said. That's true for all f.
By all the derivatives do you mean derivative at all points?
oh, well you said it's not always true, so I guess I'm incorrect then
Consider the case where your function is 0 on (0,1) and 1 on (2,3), not defined elsewhere
Derivative is 0 everywhere, so what property of the space allows this kind of thing?
I'm sorry, I'm really not sure. I feel it would always be true just because of how derivatives are defined
See this example for a function in R
oh, so you're saying certain functions can be defined in such a way where non-constant functions can have derivatives equal to 0
so in C^0(A) there could be up to m functions that are not constant, but have derivative 0. There could be less, but that's the most they could have right?
or am I jumping too far?
Alright forget what I said then.
ok so on B_1 there must be a function with derivative zero. With what you said, now I'm not sure it has to be constant. I could define a function like the one above on B_1 why couldn't I?
Why not exactly how the one above was defined? Let B_1 = (0,1) U (2,3)
oh that's true. So on B_1 such a thing can't be defined. It has to be constant. Even if it has jumps, those jumps must be constant
What do you mean by "jumps have to be constant"?
like a step function. A sequence of steps.
But then it won't be a constant function right?
And you would get non differentiability where those jumps happen
yeah I see what you mean
so is that where the union of open balls comes in? We union the open neighborhoods where the function is constant?
ok sure. So there's 1 such neighborhood, B_1
Wait slim
2 definitions of local constancy being used
That's why it's confusing
One is df = 0 and the other is there exists some neighborhood of constancy
@flint pilot you've seen the first definition right?
yes the df = 0.
Right so take a path from x to y in the ball
that path has to be constant right?
Which is a function from [0,1] to ball
No x and y are any 2 points on the ball
Path has nothing to do with f right now
ok
Now given a function f on B_1, you can get a function on [0,1] from this
By defining g(a) = f(whatever a maps to under the path)
sure that's fine
Notice that if f is locally constant, g would be too
Chain rule
So now you have a locally constant function on [0,1]
ok that's fine
Can you say anything about locally constant functions on intervals?
they have derivative 0 in this case
they map to locally constant functions?
like @empty grove said g(a) = f(whatever it maps to) they have to be constant
I'm sorry I don't think I'm seeing what you guys are getting at
So idea is I'm trying to reduce locally constant on a ball to locally constant on an interval
We want to prove that locally constant on ball means constant on the ball
Do you know that for intervals in R, locally constant implies constant?
You can use mean value theorem to say this
They definitely defined it at some point, I just don't remember exactly where. It has to be earlier in the book
let me see if I can find it
oh I just searched from the PDF and it didn't come up. Maybe they don't define it
Yeah we need path the be differentiable at least
Right so if you have a differentiable path connecting x and y in whatever space, and a locally constant function on that space, you end up with a locally constant function on the path, and because on intervals locally constant implies constant, you get that the function must be constant on this path
So the function would have the same value at x and y, in particular
If path is constant then x = y right
oh you're saying we need to handle it separately
Right, it'll be fine but will just make things unnecessarily complicated
I think I see that. Just to make sure I'm still following because we've been going at this for a while. For the case m = 1, we have that A = B_1. We want to show dim H^0(A) = 1. By assumption, we are considering locally constant functions and want to show that they are constant on the entire ball B_1. Any two points connected by a path must be equal since we have a locally constant function on the path. Because on intervals locally constant implies constant, the two points are equal. Therefore, the function is constant on B_1. This means C^0(A) = 1 since we have 1 function that is constant with derivative 0. So all that is left is to show E^0(A) = 1 so that H^0(A) = 1. Is that a summary so far?
dim C^0(A) = 1
yes my bad, I forgot to write that
Right
That is correct
So now think about m=2
You have a locally constant function on the union of 2 balls
E^0(A) is always the trivial space
Because you don't have any -1 forms to differentiate
It has dimension 0
oh? so 1/0?
oh ok. I didn't know that. That explains it
Can you justify why C^0 has dim 1?
my thinking was because we only have 1 ball, B_1. It's constant on all of this ball, so it is 1 dimension.
Yeah but how do you get from constant on the ball to dimension = 1?
that's true. I don't know
What is C^0(A) as a vector space?
the set of closed k forms on A
Right but can you tell me what the set is exactly?
Like it's the constant functions, but how many of those are there
maybe like C^0(A) = {w s.t. dw = 0} Something like that?
Well more precisely it will be {f_c s.t. c is a real number, f_c is the constant function corresponding to it}
ah ok yes that is more precise.
now, I feel like there could be a lot of those functions. I mean, there are infinitely many constants.
ie you have exactly one constant function corresponding to each real, and this correspondence is a vector space isomorphism
yes each real has a constant function corresponding to it
Yeah and do you see that it's an isomorphism between the real vector space R and C^0(A)?
yes that's actually very clear. It makes perfect sense
each real constant has a corresponding constant function
and it'll be the same thing for m = 2 I believe. Are there any other ambiguities? And as of right now, no, but I think i have an idea. If k >= 1 (not 0 right?) then there aren't any functions that will come out with derivative 0 since we no longer have constant functions. So C^k(A) = 0. Is that at least an idea? Or is there much more to it?
Nope, there will be forms on A which will have derivative 0
then I'm not sure
For example x dx
Try finding the higher cohomologies for just a point then
Instead of a ball
what do you mean by higher cohomologies? That word wasn't mentioned in my book. I know that was an hour ago that I mentioned that so I thought I'd remind you.
k>0 lol
ok fair lol
but doesn't it say k >= 1? that's in the statement of the problem
prove H^k(A) = {0} if k >= 1
Yeah but C^k(A) doesn't have to have dimension 0 for that
C^k is actually infinite dimensional, but turns out that all closed k forms on a ball are exact when k ≥ 1
I'm really not sure how you're supposed to do this without having seen any homotopy, but this is called poincare lemma
ah and he skipped the section on Poincare's Lemma. Lovely....
ok damn
well here's the thing. It's the section before this one in the book. So let's go with that fact, and I'll read it myself lol
Yeah cool
my goodness this is literally my last problem of the entire semester and my professor was like, "let's make it really tough." lol...
I mean it wouldn't be so tough if all this stuff wasn't skipped
Or done without prerequisites rather
Yeah. It really stinks. But, at least it's the last problem. Ok, so C^k(A) = E^k(A) meaning C^k(A)/E^k(A) = 1 since they are the same right? But wouldn't that mean H^k(A) = 1? It doesn't mention dimensions on this part.
oh, so that becomes 0 then
Yep
well there we have it
so with this we know that dim H^0(B_i) = 1 and dim H^k(B_i) = 0 for k > 0
and for m = 1
Yeah I just put B_i instead of A
yes that's fine
So we can move to m=2
So for k = 0, again you have the space of all locally constant functions
But on 2 balls
What can you say about such functions
before I type it all out, does the same argument work? Because that's what I'd say.
then how can we get the fact that it is constant everywhere?
I mean that was the entire basis of our argument
we cant
but you can use that argument partially
in the sense that whenever x and y are in the same ball, the function would take the same value on them
because then you can connect them by a path
Ok so what about this: on B_1 and B_2 separately, we can connect any two points with a path. Now on the area where B_1 intersects B_2, we have the assumption that their intersection is empty if j \neq k. So would that allow us to disregard that problem? Then the union of those balls is still open
B_1 and B_2 are given to be non intersecting
all the balls are pairwise disjoint
so you wont be able to connect points in different balls by a path
Ok, so how can we handle that?
and notice that a function can in fact take one value on one ball and another constant value on the other ball, while having derivative 0
that is true
There will not be any relation between the values
ie each value can be arbitrary
so C^0(A) is exactly the set of functions which take a value c_1 on B_1 and c_2 on B_2, where c_1 and c_2 are arbitrary reals
yes ok that makes sense
what do you think is the dimension of this space?
I'd think 2 just because it's taking on 2 values
right, the isomorphism to R^2 is that the above function maps to (c_1,c_2)
oh yes exactly! Back to the isomorphism argument. So yes this works
and as always, E^0(A) = trivial space, so H^0(A) = C^0(A)
and it is equal to 2
I think I can do it. It will follow this same structure from m = 2. I think I'm good on that part!
like the direct sum they cover in introductory abstract algebra?
yeah
then I've done it, but my abstract algebra is very rough. So it'll take some reminders as I do it
Ah ok
I research applied math lol. PDE/ODE dynamical systems
oh i see
So notice what we had was C^0(B_1 union B_2) = direct sum of C^0(B_1) and C^0(B_2)
yeah off the top of my head I don't remember how I'd calculate that direct sum. I may remember if I see it done, it's possible.
singular homology with coefficients in A gives you modules over A so they coincide if you take a field 
ofc Z-modules are abelian groups so in that case you get the abelian group stuff
yeah
ok so taking an element in B_1 and a corresponding element in B_2 and adding them. Simple enough
yep
and the reason was that the behaviour of a form on one ball doesnt have any effect on its behaviour on the other one
because the balls are disjoint
yes
are you computing the de rham cohomology of a disjoint union of balls? have you seen contractibility?
yes but no background in topology
thats... so weird 
@fading vale nope. The reason we've gone on so long is because my professor didn't teach us or require the necessary background. This is from an Analysis class. Never even defined homotopy
so you get similar behaviour for the higher forms, that if you have a closed form on B_1 and a closed form on B_2, putting them together (ie defining a single form by combining their domains) you get a closed form on the union
so then the same argument would work. C^k(A) = E^k(A) meaning they are both the trivial space, so they have dimension 0
and conversely given a closed form on the union, you can restrict it to either ball to get closed forms on each ball
yep, same argument works for E^k, and so all higher cohomologies are the same
are 0*
got it. Wow so that's part a of the problem lol.
yeah lol
you said you were given mayer vietoris right?
can you do the same for m>2?
yes, it follows based on what you said. And for above. I'm good on that part


