#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 223 of 1
would it be B = {x| d(x,A)<M}
there may not be a smallest open set
no
?
what's the smallest open set around [0,1]
ok
ive been beat
damnit
so I can just say that there is a ball
around a set
i dont really need it to be smallest );
just use def of boubdef
pick SOME ball that contains your set
doesn't need to be smallest
ok
just needs to be bounded itself
yeah the se gave entire answer
so like
if B in C where B is the bounded set and C is the open ball
then X/C is in X/B
and the points in X/C are connected since X/C is connected
the problem never requires that the complement only has one component
it requires that it has only one unboundef connected component
this should not help. in general don't think of the points themselves as being connected. that is more like "path connected" which is stronger than connected
that set may not be a component of X\B
ok
wait
why might X/C might not be a component
or atleast not a complete one
needs more elements maybe?
it might not be a complete one
exactly
yea
that is tricky to work with though
try to assume that there are 2 disjoint connected unbounded components and get a contradiction
they can only be in tbag set
that set*
yeah
woops
again
i meant to say that
i wonder if there is a more straightforward way to argue without contradiction that elements of component of X/C cant be in X/B - X/C
the two sets do form a seperation
ok
elements of X\C cannot be in X\B-X\C by definition
yeah
but can they share componenets?
components
like there might be a connected set D that contains both of them
i might?
um
arguing by contradiction
wait
you were saying 2 disjoint connected unbounded components cant be a thing
so we have X/C is one
but there is a connected component containing X\C
exactly
that is one
now if D is another
the other one would need to have points in C intersect B
what does it mean for D to be unbounded?
that there is no open ball around it
no don't think of this. C intersecti B is fine
use this definition
wait what do you mean be fine
like
you said this as if it was the problem. but this is not the problem at all
ok i see that
um
so problem with D being unbounded
is that it would need to be disjoint from X/C
and not contain points in B
yes
can you turn this into a formal argument
um sure
imma just type it
alright
Let B be bounded in R2
Take C to be an open ball containing B
So X/C is in X/B
Since X/C is connected we have that X/C is a subset of a component of X/B.
X/C is an unbounded subset of a component of X/B
Suppose there is another set A that is an unbounded component of X/B disjoint from X/C.
Then There is no open ball containing A.
So A is in X/C, but this is a contradiction, so there is no other set A that is an unbounded component of X/B disjoint from X/C.
So X/C is the only unbounded component of X/B.
QED
Im going to be honest
some statements are not justified
Then There is no open ball containing A.
So A is in X/C, but this is a contradiction, so there is no other set A that is an unbounded
it will be a lot easier if C is an open ball centered at the origin and you consider the radius of C as a revelat quantity
relevant quantity
really?
yeah
then the complement of C is all points at least some distance from the origin. this will play along well with the definition of unbounded when doing your contraction
ok
so like
C = {x in R2| d(0,x)<d(sup({p_x}),sup({p_y}))} where p are points in B and p_x,p_y are their x and y components.
There has to be a cleaner formulation qq
oh
gotta add something
don't try to figure out the radius of C
because it wont contain that point
just call its radius M or something
and define it to be an open ball containing A
which exists by definition
of bounded
ok
that is way easier lol
so C = {x in R2|d(0,x)<M} where M is the bound of B.
well
that isnt defined
I should write out definition for bounded first
and then just use that M
there exists some M
probably easier tofolllow
doesn't need to be a tight fit or anything
your space could be the unit ball and M could be 500 and nobody cares
oh
ok
once i do that
justifying the contradiction is another part
so
i assume there is an unbounded component A of X/B
my guess is to make this all more rigorous
but when I say there is no open ball of A
if it's unbounded, what does that mean
there is no open ball containing A
A is already a set, don't use that name twice
it is?
nah i avoided it
complement of an open ball
for each finite value you pick
it contains points father than that value away from 0
but R^2\C already contains all points with d(x,0)
M
ya
so if D really has some points as far away from the origin as you want
pick M to be your number
it just contain points with d(x,0)>M
so its in X/C
but R^2\C contains all such points
ya
that makes it way more rigorous
now I have to go but I will give you my explanation for connectedness
it helps to have an intuitive sense of open and closed
closed sets contain everything that is close to them in the metric space
or topological space (since the topolgies define a sense of "closeness")
open sets provide "padding" for all of their points
sorry
ah
I fixed it
ok read again now
and the set itself
it means some set D and it's complement C are "far apart"
i get the natural padding part too
with clopen and everything?
ok
by far apart
you mean doesnt contain those limit points
so it cant be closed
why cant it be open?
I mean an intuitove sense of far apart
wrong
oh
i assumed far apart means not close together
close together means it contains its liimit points
far apart should mean it doesnt have its limit points
D is open because it is far enough from C that some neighborhood of every point avoids C (think intuitively, D and C have some intuitive distance)
so D is open
D is also closed because it contains everything close to it
because C is not close to it
wait what is C now
oh
C can't be stealing any limit points from D
if it does that means its close to some points in D
that's how I make sense of clopen
yes
wait
im reading why D cant be open
why it is*
oh i guess that makes sense intuitively
so like
D's goal is to have all points avoiding C and at the same time not being close to C
avoiding C means each of its points have an open neighborhood around them, when unioning gives an open set
yes
and not being too close means not having any limit points in common with C which means D can't be closed because inorder to be closed it needs to contain all its limit points
yes
is closed*
or also
think
D is open
that's all you need
cause then apply the same reasoning to C
oh
a set is closed iff it contians all its limit points right?
and itself
because Cl(A) = A U A' where A' is set of limit points?
ok
ty for intuition
maybe someday ill make an animation
or a gif
yes
seems like its easy to visualize euclidean ig
I'm just explaining intuition
idk how notion expands to not R^n
its not possible to visualize otherwise
ig?
maybe there are a bunch of other ways
i think ill do a presentation on this seems simple and fun
in math conversations it's easy. get used to everything being rigorous
but sometimes
irs ok to not be
and at this time
it's just getting intuition for how our idea of connected relates to the topolgical def

ya
@gritty widget helps me get perspective of my compotition
wow
competition

I'm a junior in highschool
really?
yah
damn im doomed

buddy there are highschoolers in here doing way more advanced shit
who cares if some highschooler is doing things more advanced than u lol
?
I have no right to tell this to you because I literally such shit about comparing myself to other people, but it's honestly pointless
there are highschoolers smarter than me like beyong my comprehension
you didn't make IMO????? you're doomed lol gl getting into grad school literally 0.0001% chance
I have always had an understanding there are going to be people way ahead of the curve than me
I am significantly more competent than all of you and you should quit math now
compact
are you competition chadrock?
Especially you tterra
I am not your competition. You and your competition are like ants to me
to me it is
staying doomed is a good thing though
comparing to me
same as me
whenever that thought enters my mind my first thought is "I'm never gonna be good enough every9ne else is so much better"
the key is to just think you're better than anyone unironically
Ive only been the best at a couple of menial things in my life
and I'm not at that stage anyway
ow
@Moderators
I dont get it
good idea
,ban ethan
This may only be done by a moderator!
Delete discord
thank you
,ban ethan
This may only be done by a moderator!
oh we can go to #discussion
,ban mniip
This may only be done by a moderator!
oh since #advanced-analysis is being used i kind of want to ask my integral question here 
No selfroles matching moderator.
See ,selfroles --list for the list of valid selfroles.
probably
okay whatever ask your stupid integral here
nvm
i want to bash my head into the wall some more
i don't think enough blood has pooled
i want to also
i want to get corona vaccine
so that my blood can clot in my spine
if you're dead you can't get corona
and ill die with acute pain
coronavirus vaccine
true

tterra brain damage arc???
you mean my life?
i mean
tterra exsanguination arc???
I think this conversation should change
what is the question ttera
And not continue
i agree, it should.
someone teach me about poisson cohomology so i dont have to read
@Moderators
I will do this
how did you avoid ping?
Poisson cohomology is a form of sheaf cohomology
wdym
Sheaf cohomology is the derived functor of the inclusion of category of sheaves into the category of presheaves
?????????????????????????????
lol
No it's a cohomology theory of Fish
Chmonkey, please do not interrupt my incredibly correct explanation
Derived functors are when you take F and put a dot over it

I am trying to inform tterra
@gritty widget imma pm u but im too lazy to use pointer
About sheaf cohomology
Don't listen to Sham, he's a sham
Sheaf cohomology is the derived functor of the inclusion of O_X-modules into Sheaves
This is so obvious
oh cochain cohomology of its Chevalley-Eilenberg algebra, that makes sense
i was going to go on a rant about how yesterday i was thinking about poisson structures and how, like, there ought to be some way to measure how much poisson vector fields fail to be hamiltonian
but
id literally be the only person understanding it

Awww
anyways it turns out that poisson cohomology actually does measure this
I mean you're right
Just like in graph theory
Is TTerra actually just UGDG
the actual definition of poisson cohomology is pain
but at least the first degree is easy to understand

How are you only realizing this now chm

and now he says something like hamiltonian and poisson cohomology
so now I know he is serious about his DG memes
What's the first degree of poisson cohomology
okay...
different DG than what DG means to me
Do some real geometry...Spec \R
basically euclidean geo right???????
it really is like Euclidean geometry then
Tterra what is the first degree of poisson cohomology
How to solve every geometry problem in 8th grad
draw as many triangles as possible
stare at it until it becomes obviuos
This is called a "simplicial set"
Wait
A random pdf I found claims poisson cohomology is the same as de rham cohomology
Ie singular cohomology with real coefficients
How are all the cohomology theories the same
It's fucked
at least in the case that the poisson structure comes from a symplectic form this is obvious but i don't see it 
link
oh sorry this was for symplectic manifolds I can't fucking read
I looked at the definition though and it seems very similar to lie algebra cohomology
Which ig makes sense
Since a poisson structure is like a lie bracket on the smooth functions with an extra condition, right?
right
that condition being that fixing one argument gives you a derivation
ie vector field

Right
so you can ask what vector fields arise as such

which is what lead me to poisson cohomology (or to looking it up lol)
i will look into lie alg cohomology
Oh so is the first group like all vector fields/Hamiltonian ones?
Or some subset of all vector fields maybe?
some special subset
so alternatively, a poisson structure is a special bivector field, and then you call a vector field X Poisson if L_X(bivector field) = 0
Right
then its {poisson v fields}/{Hamiltonian v fields}
Ooh
which was very pleasing to me
Wait
What's L_X? Don't bivector fields eat like pairs of covectors?
So like it can't be the interior multiplication
defined as like, time derivative of pushforward wrt flow or some shit
i dont remember lol
Yeah ik how lie derivatives work
Just take the lie bracket and then use the appropriate product rules 4head
It is so fucked up that [X, Y] = L_X Y
What's going on there

proof: insane computation
@sleek thicket thx i think i wrote an 85% coherent proof
let $(M, \omega)$ be a symplectic manifold. we say a vector field $X$ is symplectic if the Lie derivative $L_X\omega = 0$, and Hamiltonian if $\iota_X\omega$ is exact. by cartan's formula $$L_X\omega = d\iota_X\omega + \iota_Xd\omega = d\iota_X\omega,$$ so $X$ is symplectic iff $\iota_X\omega$ is closed. cohomology.
TTerra
ah that makes sense
You mixed up the name of the formula though
It's cartans *magic * formula
Because every time you see it
You go

"what the fuck is this magic"
cohomology.
i might bring up poisson cohomology during my presentation
That would be neat
if i can find anything about it that isn't just the definition then i absolutely will lol
You could do a quick detour into lie algebra cohomology
Lock the doors
This is now a homological algebra talk
im finding that literally everything i find to present about is just a generalization of some shit from symplectic
so
hahaha
Do you have interesting non symplectic examples at leaat?
Nice

ah yeah
i wrote down a little bit about torii being poisson manifolds
just as a cute example
Oh neat
but since those are lie groups i can probably go more in depth with that example!!
Those are not symplectic
Because of compact
Wait no that doesn't make sense lol
The even dimensional cohomology groups of a torus are nontrivial
But because torii can have odd dimension works
There
Chadrock
Oh okay, here's an easy proof
By the kunneth formula, $\dim H_k(\mathbb{T}^n, \R) = \dim H^k(\mathbb{T}^n, \R) = \binom{n}{k}$
Chadrock

By poincare duality and orientability of the torus, $H^k(n\mathbb{T}^n, \R) \cong H_{n-k}(\mathbb{T}^n, \R)$
easy!
show this to discrete math students
someday
does this end up being circular or is it actually a genuine proof
Chadrock
I think it's a genuine proof
The computation of homology could end up sus
But I don't think so
handwave it enough and it's fine


It says if you have like finite CW complexes and you're working over a field or whatever
The kth cohomology of their product is the direct sum of the tensors of the ath cohomology and bth cohomology where a+b = n
So you keep pulling off circles
you can do an inductive argument
And get that it's n choose k
Probably not circular

i see
meh even if it were circular you should still give it to intro discrete math students
make them shit
i am back to wondering if there is a link between poisson cohomology and lie algebra cohomology
In mathematics, a Poisson algebra is an associative algebra together with a Lie bracket that also satisfies Leibniz's law; that is, the bracket is also a derivation. Poisson algebras appear naturally in Hamiltonian mechanics, and are also central in the study of quantum groups. Manifolds with a Poisson algebra structure are known as Poisson man...


I mean yeah the definition of a poisson structure only involves the algebra of smooth functions
Ooh these are allowed to be noncommutative though
let me find a definition of poisson cohomology
🐟
clearly
How are your fish puns coming along
i have not nearly included enough in my presentation
here is a more down-to-earth definition
P the bivector field
and [P, ] being the fucky bracket on multivector fields that i dont understand
This is more down to earth

i have written "Is there a link between Lie algebra cohomology and Poisson cohomology?" down in my notes
i do not think i will pursue it any more tonight
but ty for bringing that up
how do you justify that f is differentiable here?
oh wait i just realized how to do it as a posted it
nvm
Nice!
If I am given two geodesics $γ_1$ and $γ_2$ and a distance function $d$ that gives me the distance between any two points on the geodesics, what conclusions can I draw about the geodesics from the information given by $d$?
Roenbaeck
(this is a more general question than one I posted earlier about "boxes", but essentially the same problem)
I'm also interested in any constraints under which it would be possible to say much more. Like, "if we assume the curvature is uniform, then..."
I have closed form expressions for $d(γ_1(t), γ_2(t))$ in a set of spaces, as a clarification.
Roenbaeck
Not sure whether this room or the category theory room is more suitable for this question. Let $k$ be some field, $V$ a $k$-vector space. In group scheme theory, people work with the functor $\operatorname{Aut}(V)$ from the category of $k$-algebras to $\mathbf{Grp}$ which assigns to a $k$-algebra $R$ the group $\operatorname{Aut}_R(V \otimes_k R)$, where $\operatorname{Aut}_R$ denotes the $R$-linear automorphisms. What does this functor do on morphisms?
harraq
If we restrict to the finite-dimensional case, for a morphism $f: R \to S$ of $k$-algebras, $\operatorname{Aut}(V)(f)$ goes from $GL_n(V \otimes_k R, R)$ to $GL_n(V \otimes_k S, S)$, where $n$ is the dimension of $V$, and can be defined by pushing forward the coefficients. One could extend this definition to the case when $V$ is not necessarily finite-dimensional using choice to construct a basis $\lbrace v_i | , i \in I \rbrace$, observing that $V \otimes_k T$ is a free $T$-module for any $k$-algebra $T$, hence any automorphism is given by an "infinite matrix" in a sense that can be made precise, and pushing forward the coefficients of that matrix as in the finite-dimensional case. However, it remains to show that this preserves invertibility and is overall a bit cumbersome.
I feel like there should be a more conceptual, diagrammatic way to define how $\operatorname{Aut}(V)$ acts on morphisms. Can anyone help me out here?
harraq
? How is Aut(V)(f) defined? Where f is a morphism from R1 to R2. f isn’t necessarily isomorphism.
this is exactly my question.
I'll illustrate the action of $\operatorname{Aut}(V)$ on morphisms in the case that $V$ is finite dimensional. In that case, $V \otimes R$ is a finitely generated free $R$-module and any $R$-linear automorphism of $V \otimes R$ is given by an invertible square matrix with entries in $R$. Let $f: R_1 \to R_2$ be a ring homomorphism. Then $f$ preserves units. If $M$ is an invertible square matrix with entries in $R_1$, then applying $f$ to every matrix entry yields a square matrix with entries in $R_2$. Moreover, the resulting matrix is invertible, because its determinant is a unit in $R_2$. I hope I could illustrate the finite dimensional case. Note that this relies on a choice of basis, which is something that you generally want to avoid
harraq
i need help in learning how to factorize
@timber junco This isn't the correct channel
sorry i'm in AP thats why i put in advanced
we have a curve r(t).
r(0) = (2019,-1)
r'(0) = (0,1)
the curvature of the curve is fixed to be 1/t^2+5t+6
r(1) = ?
im sorry if this doesnt count as advanced, but i asked in #calculus and i didnt get any guidance
rate of change of the unit tangent wrt the arc length
slimvesus
typo?
show connected by not path connected meant to say, show connected but not path connected?
probably
☑️
quick question
for proving connected
can you argue this
suppose set is open
and then suppose that the set contains all its limit points
show some contradiction in that?
i know how we define it
its no clopen sets
the problem is to prove topologist sine curve is connected but not path connected
i was thinking of doing argument by assuming a seperation, then showing it doesnt exist.
then proceeding to show it isnt path connected, which i honestly don't know off top of my head
ya
yea
um
def is
graph of your given f(x) unioned with verticle line from -1 to 1 at origin
and subspace topology on r2
so yeah the closure of graph
its continuous
so um
open sets get mapped to open sets
specifically
open in R^2 is open in (0,1]
and (0,1] is connected
wait uh
i can just say connectedness is perserved by continuity
and then just move on to arguing not path connected
but ig that might be harder
Let p, q be two points in a connected topological manifold. Shamrock essentially proved that there is a homeomorphism f sending q to p and is equal to the identity outside a prescribed open set containing the path (I think? At any rate, this is possible), but I still wanted to find a coordinate ball V containing p, q. I think the following argument should work, but I feel like I am missing something.
Pick a coordinate ball B around p, and let p' =/= p be in B. Now assume we have f so that it fixes p and sends p' to q, and let B* = f(B), which is also a coordinate ball around p. Now the point is that f(p') = q, so q is in B*.
To make f fix p, we find a neighborhood of p that is disjoint from a neighborhood of the path C = f([0, 1]). This is possible because {p} and C are disjoint closed sets, and M is normal.
how do i parametrize a curve if i know its curvature (as a function itself), a point on the curve, and a tangent vector at that same point?
this is not what a continuous function does, it pulls back open sets to open sets btw
how do i parametrize a curve if i know its curvature (as a function itself), a point on the curve, and a tangent vector at that same point?
@tough imp h
yea
if f:X->Y continuous
then open in Y implies f^-1(Y) is open in X
say X was connected
then Y is also connected by continuity
or wait
i think it needs to be surjective
i dont remember
the image of a connected set is connected
so it would need to be surjective
else every set is continuous by just taking a map from the one point set haha
if f: X -> Y is continuous, then f(X) is connected
so Y is connected is connected if f is surjective indeed
why you copying what I'm saying smh smh you gotta change your name to Chika-Blyat now
fortunately every connected space is a connected space !

If I have a continuous function from unit disc to circle i.e. D -> S1 , is there always an x in S1 which is fixed under this function?
yes but idk how to show it without brouwer fixed point theorem
but don't we have D -> D map in brouwer fixed point theorem ? I dont see how this follows from that

D is the closed unit disk? compose with the inclusion map S^1 -> D if you really want it to be D -> D
this makes no difference, a map into S^1 is practically the same thing as a map into D
if its continuous from D to S1 its continuous from D to D, just consider the original function to have codomain D
oh yeah terra said it better
composing with inclusion map
hm
hmm. for some reason I thought that brouwer required the map to be surjective
special cases of brouwer become much easier if you actually require the range to be "small" enough
this is now reminding me of a cute complex analysis problem i did earlier 
idk complex analysis
and im not in a rush to learn
considering what else i dont know
find a holomorphic mapping of the open unit disk into itself with no fixed points. can you pick it to be biholomorphic?
idek what holomorphic means
it is!
but idk enough complex analtsis
follows from cauchy's theorem
i could not eyeball a function and twll you whether its complex differentiable or not
which cauchy's theorem
ok i have a question
cauchy's theorem is "f is holomorphic only if f dz is closed" (converse is called "morera's theorem" in my notes)
which gives you cauchys integral formula which gives you complex analycity
if you have the open unit disk D and a smaller disk within it that has opposite points at some bounary point of D and the origin
so like
radius 1/2
and they would share a boundary point with each other
if the disks were closed
if you shrink the unit disk into that disk
there are no fixed points
open disk --> upper half plane --> shift ---> back to disk?
cayley transform is so useful
but i cant tell if mine is holomorphic cause i just have no clue how to work with that
holeomorphism
oh
someday
@gritty widget what is wrong with my answer (unless its magically right)
is it hard to explain what this means in more detail? (hard = requires some complex analysis info to explain)
it isnt hard if you're willing to accept that there is a holomorphic map from the unit disk to the upper half plane with a holomorphic inverse
hmm
but if you're willing to accept that
then map to the upper half plane
shift the plane
and map back
omg
that is smarty pants
thats a bijection as well
mine (if it even works) is only an injection
and i am willing to accept that
i am trying to think of one rn
this is probably the intended solution
they teach you about those maps in a complex analysis class
im confused about why its the half plane
cant you just as well shift the whole plane
this is where the holomorphic-ness comes in
there is no holomorphic bijection between the complex plane and the unit disk
:(
thats so weird
like
..
i feel like i can think of one
must not be holomorphic
it's called liouville's theorem
any bounded holomorphic function on the plane is constant
so if it maps into the disk
it's bounded
and therefore constant
whats wrong with this?: biject [0,1) with [0,infinity) in a smooth way that has a smooth inverse in R. then send eveythign in the disk to the number in the same direction but the abs value scaled appropriately according to the bijection?
it wont be holomorphic
is complex analysis generally harder than real analysis (at the introductory level, i know each can like get as hard as you want)
:(
real and complex differentiability are very different things
say I have a function from R^2 ---> R^2
and say it's differentiable at some point
then you have the corresponding jacobian matrix
if it's complex differentiable, the jacobian commutes with multiplication by i
am i misunderstandign something
or how can it not
oh
do you mean treating C as R^2?
sure
ok
so in the real scenario multiplying by i is multiplying by the matrix:
(0 1)
(-1 0)
so you want it to commute with a 90 degree counterclockwise rotation
or something
ye
that is cool
what about this
engineering students take complex analysis so
so if the jacobian is $\begin{pmatrix}
a & b\
c & d
\end{pmatrix}$
oh....
im shitposting, they take a non-rigorous computational version
Brotivic t-structure
so like
and even then, only certain disciplines (electrical) do
complex analysis\the interestinf stuff
i mean it still covers the important theory
Then we're demanding that $\begin{pmatrix}
-c & -d\
a & b
\end{pmatrix}$ is equal to
oh i see
Brotivic t-structure
ye something like that
but wait
a=d as well
so a and d are zero
b=-c
omg
that makes perfect sense
the derivative is literallt just like a multiple of i
actually
that seems very restrictive
:(
lemme write it out
isnt it -1 of that
and -1 of that
oh yeah idk how i got a=-d
that makes more sense
becaise then it acts like a general complex number
which is what i ex[ect
expect
these are called the Cauchy-Riemann equations
but the othe way got me a multiple of i
yeah
so you can already see that the jacobian of a holomorphic function is a lot more special than the jacobian of a real diffable function
yeah
well like
in this interpretation
R^2->R^2 is like a 1d function
and we already know for real differentiable functions, the jacobian is just [c] so it can be thought of as c=f'(x)
and this rwsult seems like the same thing
the jacobian is like the matrix equivalent if a general complex #
c
right
Ooh complex analysis
Hey quick question. What would be the prerequisites to start diving into algebraic topology, on the topology side ?
I've recently opened Hatcher but I was already kind of lost while reading the part on cell complexes in the chapter 0.
Or maybe is there a more noob friendly intro to alg top than Hatcher ?
rotman
i remember briefly reading hatcher when i wanted to learn algebraic topology. it was weird
it's a pretty book but somehow i also never liked the style
i liked it, however some exercises are a bit too vaguely stated
The following problem makes me wonder something
Let $$f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R} $$ continuous and $$ \lim_{x\rightarrow +\infty }f(x)=\lim_{x\rightarrow -\infty }f(x)=0 $$. Prove f is uniformly continuous.
add a _ after the \lim
so that you have \lim_ instead of lim
so that the "x -> +oo" goes under the lim
Carla_
If we extended f to the extended real line, it would still be a continuous function i believe. However idk if uniform continuity makes sense in that new space. Could this be somehow used to show f is uniformly continuous?
so uniform continuity may make sense in the new space
Just see it as a metric space
but it is not a metric space
what is the distance between -infinity and 0 for example?
it is metrizable
right
its equivalent to [0,1] in some sense
but idk if that equivalence can be used to transfer uniform continuity
cuz the metric might not be compatible with the original metric in it's interior
Hm, I wonder if you can do the trick where you swap the metric d with d(x, y)/(1+d(x, y)), and then define d(x,infinity)=1. I know this generated the same topology, but not sure if the metric is similar enough that uniform continuity transfers over
Could you do something like, let a be a number such that on (-infinity, -a) U (a,infinity) |f(x)| is < 1
Then on [-a,a] since this is compact f is uniformly continuous, and then use the fact f is bounded on the complement to show its uniformly continuous there as well or something?
That’s my first instinct at least
Yea ofc, but i'm curious if could use the extended real line somehow instead

Suppose you have an n-dimensional C^{\infty} manifold and you pick a point p in M.
We can see that the set of all real valued C^{\infty} functions f : M -> IR that vanish at p forms an ideal on the ring of C^{\infty} functions from M to IR
and you can use this ideal
call it I
To define the tangent space of M at the point p as the dual of the quotient I/I^{2}
But I really don't quite get the intuition behind this definition
you can define the tangent space of a manifold at a point using curves or derivations
and it's all fine
But I really don't get this one
I guess the intuition is
you're ignoring higher order information
which is what a tangent vector should be
only the first order information a la taylor series
how is it tho?
I mean I/I^2 fairly clearly reads as "you have I which is things vanishing at zero, view these as smol bois, throw away all smol bois * small bois which is I^2 and call those 0"
so you have only first order smol bois
This is not for manifolds I will preface
This is for varieties, and their tangent space, but I assure you the analogy is very similar
On page 38
the author goes through essentially this
You can identify a local chunk like being in A^n (this is like taking a chart to be in R^n)
And then you can define the tangent space via partial derivatives the way we usually think of it
From there they show that if you are embedded in affine space that the analogous I/I^2 is isomorphic to this tangent space
The analogy for manifolds is practically exactly the same
I’d give a manifolds reference if I could, but I don’t know of one
This helped me swallow the I/I^2 pill since you see an explicit isomorphism between what you intuitively view as the tangent space and I/I^2
I see
Yeah from what I have heard
this definition is usually more useful when dealing with algebraic varieties
But it's a nice little bonus to know that you can also define the tangent space of a manifold at a point this way
Thanks for recommending a reference for the subject
Give me a few minutes, I have a book which might have an explanation for this
It’s a manifolds book done using locally ringed spaces
So if anything I know of would have this sort of algebraic description, it would probably be this one
That's kinda new
Also for what it’s worth, do you know what the dual numbers is
K[x]/(x^2)
This is pretty much what Faye was sayinr, and also how I think of I/I^2 sort of
Not really :/
So elements of this look like
a + bx
And then multiplication operates like
(a + bx)(c + dx) = ac + (ad + bc)x
So you’re considering essentially the first order information
The way to think of it is like
a is a point
And the value b is like this infinitesimal information, sometimes people use epsilon instead of x
Think of x as being some number thats sooooo small that when it’s squared it becomes 0
But it still exists
So the idea here is that like a + bx is kind of like the point a
(Say on the real line)
And b is this tiny little vector at a
So say, 1 + 2x is like the point 1 with this vector pointing two to the right from 1
So this captures tiny infinitesimal data which is kinda what you want in the tangent space
But now let’s consider if we instead looked at
(x)/(x^2)
Okay, this is a special case of I/I^2
Well an element of (x)/(x^2) looks only like
bx
Essentially the a = 0
So now all we’re left with is the vector
Aka the tangent vector
Also if we looked only at polynomial functions on R, then (x) is exactly the ideal of functions vanishing at 0





