#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 219 of 1
🤨
im pretty sure ur not supposed to do it this way. Meaning ur not supposed to think of the 2n-gon embedded in R^2 and then say its closed and bounded and hence compact
i could be wrong
im definitely supposed to use this theorem
yup that's basically the proof
cuz well
you need to give a topology to the 2n-gon
and the only reasonable one is subspace of R^2
im pretty sure ur not supposed to do it that way but
yea im 100% certain ur not supposed to do it that way
i dont rlly see other way rn lol
you didn't even use that the polygon has an even number of sides
What do you mean you're not supposed to do it that way?
this is really so that the quotient makes sense
oh true
that proof just doesn't seem at all connected to what i was reading in the section of this book
that asks this question
(see "surface" part of the thing)
occasionally you still do need to go back to point set stuff to prove things
(btw you still need to show it is a surface)
yea i think ur proof works i just don't think it was the intended proof
this is why 2n
why does 2n let you show its a surface
this book defines surface as a connected 2-manifold
yup
so you jus need to show at every point
you can find a open set homeomorphic to R^2
there are really only 3 points to check
so basically ur saying if there's an odd number of edges there's going to be one edge that can't be paired up. Then any nbhd of a point on that edge can't be homeomorphic to R^2
which is why we need an even number of edges
yup!
this still feels like it is completely unrelated to the proof it wants us to do. Why would they give us theorem 5.1 and this polygon naming scheme if we're not supposed to use it in the exercise
plus the case of odd edges would still work but instead you would just prove its a 2-manifold with boundary
it just doesn't feel like ur supposed to do it that way
i could be wrong tho
it's just so that like
whatever you are doing
actually makes sense
it's very common to have to fall back to basic point set to make sure everything you're doing makes sense
like
what if there is some naming scheme that doesnt result in a compact surface
then youll have to somehow be more precise in what is "allowed" and ahat sint
that's exactly the proof i was trying to think about
you suppose for contradiction that the 2n-gon isn't compact (for some naming scheme)
then theorem 5.1 tells you its not homeomorphic to a sphere, connected sum of tori or connected sum of projective planes
and then ur somehow gonna produce a contradiction from there
to prove this classification theorem you kinda need that you get compact surfaces from identifying n-gons?
yea i was just reading through that
i think you're right
im just gonna heine borel like a boss fuck math and fuck this p set
it's really jus a point set exercise to make sure nothing is wrong
im going to be very proof sketchy about homeomorphisms on the boundary and hope i don't get points taken off
ik it is very meh but these kinda basic stuff to make sure everything is ok is really jus point set
If $f \in C^\infty(M)$ then is $X(f) \in C^\infty(M)$ for $X \in \mathfrak{X}(M)$?
snypehype
yes
That's because $X(f)(p) \in \mathbb{R}$ for $p \in M$? So we have $X(f) : M \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$?
snypehype
I mean that's how you define X(f) yes
but you would still need to show that its smooth
okay people i need some intuition
I've never really gotten used to working with complex forms, because to me it's really weird that you suddenly have to start caring about _anti_holomorphic things. Is there a good intuitive reason why, if we're generally only interested in holomorphic functions, and when we require all transition functions of a complex manifold to be holomorphic, why suddenly "antiholomorphic" forms like dx - i dy start showing up?
Would I be missing a lot if all my life i just worked with holomorphic forms and just ignore the complex-conjugated coordinate \bar{z}
okay i guess the dolbeaut operator absolutely requires antiholomorphic things to exist, but only if i've already admitted that i care about non-holomorphic sections in my bundle or something
can any symplectic kings or queens help me see why symplectomorphisms pull back hamiltonian vector fields?
if $f$ is a symplectomorphism and $X_H$ a hamiltonian vector field, i want to see that $f^*X_H=X_{H\circ f}$
lime_soup
I know that $X_H$ is defined to be the unique vector field satisfying $\omega(X_H, -)=dH$. so $X_{H\circ f}$ vector field satisfying $\omega(X_{H\circ f}, -)=d(H\circ f)$
lime_soup
But then $d(H \circ f) = f^dH=f^\omega(X_H,-)$
lime_soup
But this gives $\omega(df X_H, df(-))$ which I can't see why this is equal to $\omega(X_{H\circ f},-)$
lime_soup
First, we should talk about the pushforward of the Hamiltonian vector field, rather than the pullback, right?
That probably doesn'T make anything clearer yet but it's good to be precise lol
If it holds true that $\iota_{f_* X} \omega = (f^{-1})^* ( \iota_X (f^* \omega))$, where $f_$ and $f^$ are the pushforward and pullback respectively, then the statement is true fairly straightforwardly; here $\iota_X \omega$ denotes the interior product of the vector field $X$ with the form $\omega$
awww shit okay i forgot that a symplectomorphism is also a diffeomorphism
Lartomato
Okay, the important thing is to show that $f^* X_H$ indeed fulfils the defining equation for the Hamiltonian vector field of $H \circ f$, that is a good starting point. Hence, consider $\iota_{f^* X_H} \omega$, you want to show that this is $d (H \circ f)$. I believe something like $ \iota_{f^* X_H} \omega = f^* \iota_X (f^{-1})^* \omega$ should follow very generally for all diffeomorphisms $f$, vector fields $X$ and forms $\omega$.
Lartomato
Once you have this, use that f (and f^-1) are symplectomorphisms, use the definition of X_H as a Hamiltonian vector field, and use that the de Rham differential commutes with pullbacks
@gritty widget now i can ping you without breaking my tex
I simplified my task and am now wanting to prove this first: "The set of isolated points, $A$, of $\mathbb{Z}$ is a dense subset of $\mathbb{Z}$." Could you please tell me whether my argument it correct or not? Since $X={x}$ is open for all $x\in \mathbb{Z}$, every $x \in \mathbb{Z}$ is an isolated point. Therefore, $A=\mathbb{Z}$. Hence, $\bar{A} = \mathbb{Z}$.
veryhappyperson
I guess the topology on Z is the one you get from considering it as a subspace of the real numbers? Then yeah, this seems fine; you may want to make sure that you understand why a point x is isolated if {x} is open (and also why {x} is open)
Yeah you need to be sure 1) you're using the discrete topology or subspace topology (they coincide)
and 2) which of them you are using in order to prove you have open points
The original question makes me unsure this is the correct topology because I don't know why they'd phrase it that way
Thank you. The original question was "Prove that the set of isolated points of a countable complete metric space X forms a dense subset of X." I was just trying to prove a simpler case first, because I had no idea how to approach this.
Ah I see
Honestly, I have still no idea how to approach this xD It doesn't seem like I can transfer my simple argument to this problem.
ah thank you this makes sense
i abusing notation and just writting an empty entry
so i didn't take into account the extra factor from the interior product
The definition for a derivation involves a linear map from an algebra to itself. Apparently there's a more general definition from an algebra to a bimodule over the algebra.
Now, I'm confused since when defining tangent spaces via derivations, we take a 'derivation' at some point $x$ as $D: C^\infty(M)\to\mathbb{R}$, but this doesn't seem to be covered by the definitions above (or it might be and I'm just big dumb). What am I missing?
tanninStains
I guess I'm just confused on what can constitute a derivation. Is it enough for the domain and target to be algebras over the same field as long as the Leibniz condition is satisfied? Is that more than enough?
The tangent space definition at a point is a bit of an outlier here, since it works by evaluating at a specific point; so D(fg) = f(x) D(g) + D(f) g(x); you of course can't do that in a general algebra; you think of this kind of derivation D(f) as "first you 'derive' f in some way, and then you evaluate at x"
I'm wondering if there's some point of view to rescue this...
Yeah, I think the correct notion here would be the algebraic notion of a derivation of modules, i.e. if you have an algebra $A$ and an $A$-module $M$, then a function $f : A \to M$ is a derivation if $f(ab) = a \cdot_M f(b) + f(a) \cdot_M b$, where $\cdot_M$ denotes the action of $A$ on the module $M$. In your setting, the algebra would be $A = C^\infty(M)$, the module is $M = \mathbb{R}$ and the module structure of a function $f \in C^\infty(M)$ on a real number $r \in \mathbb{R}$ is evaluation at the point $x$ of the manifold, so $f \cdot_M r := f(x) \cdot r$
Lartomato
This is not a super common perspective from my experience, but it's the correct one here at least 🤷
@candid mulch
Sorry to ask again, but could someone please give me an example for a subset of a metric space, which closure has an empty interior? I am having a hard time comprehending such things.
bruh
a less trivial example:
and the union of multiple {} is then of first category, right?
In mathematics, the Cantor set is a set of points lying on a single line segment that has a number of remarkable and deep properties. It was discovered in 1874 by Henry John Stephen Smith and introduced by German mathematician Georg Cantor in 1883.Through consideration of this set, Cantor and others helped lay the foundations of modern point-se...
there's definitely simpler examples
like {a} for any a in R
it's closed so it's its own closure (speaking about the cantor set, but that's also true for {a} lol)
Hm, it's weird to think of R as a C^infty(M)-module... but I think I see it. Thanks 🙂
That makes sense xD Thank you. But the union of such sets is of first category, right? So does that mean [0,1] is of first category, for example?
I'm sorry i'm not very familiar with the english maths vocabulary, what does being of first category means here ? @frigid river
Yeah, you'd think it would go the other way round 😄 But that's exactly what an evaluation map does to a function!
"A subset is of the first category if it is the countable union of nowhere dense subsets."
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Meagre_set This is an alternative name for "of first category"
In the mathematical fields of general topology and descriptive set theory, a meagre set (also called a meager set or a set of first category) is a set that, considered as a subset of a (usually larger) topological space, is in a precise sense small or negligible.
A topological space T is called meagre if it is a meager subset of itself; otherwi...
(find your own language in the sidebar)
Ohh 😦
What would be? Nothing in R?
Is there a meagre subset of R?
Is that the only one?
cantor set is nowhere dense, so indeed it is a countable union of nowhere dense subsets
thanks !
Wait, is "nowhere dense subset" equivalent to "countable union of nowhere dense dubsets"?
no
here i'm just using the implication
(since if A is a nowhere dense subset, then the union U A is countable (only one element) and well, every subset of the union is a nowhere dense subset)
Okay, thank you. I think I have at least some intuition now.
for example Q is a countable union of nowhere dense subsets but is dense everywhere in R
Just to be sure, "nowhere dense subset" implies "countable union of nowhere dense subsets", right?
Does this imply Q has an empty interior?
If I remove a non-isolated point, x, from a countable metric space, X, must {x} necessarily be closed in X?
Or is is it just not open?
$X\setminus{x}$
veryhappyperson
Now I am confused. Isn't an isolated point a "finite point set" that is open?
"Anyway finite point sets are always closed in metric spaces"
So an isolated point is open as well as closed? I am sorry if I misinterpret everything xD
That is weird.
Okay, thanks. I can finish up my proof then, I think.
(sets that are both closed and open are what we call (unions of) connected components of a topological space)
@gritty widget One last question (I hope xD): Does this mean the complement of the set is open and closed as well?
yes
Okay, thanks, again.
What
Is this actually true?
Any clopen set is a union of connected components?
It isn’t true the other direction right?
@tough imp it's always true that they are closed and the converse is true if there are finitely many connected components
is my proof incorrect
or did i like implicitly call upon p(z) and r(z) having no common zeroes somewhere
I hope Moth isn't mad because of my interfering with his question, but is this finally correct now? And if it is, why only for "countable" metric spaces?
I take everything back, give me 5 min to rethink
xD
side note
im gonna start ominously putting rigorous terms in quotes
just to keep people on their toes
The function f can clearly be seen to be injective and "continuous"
.pin
{x}
I never said that though. I meant that it is not open, therefore it is only closed, not open as well.
Why not? If {x} is closed, its compliment must be open, does it not?
xD Nothing, just wanted to let the reader know that I knew xD
Why? Does Baire only apply when a set is only open, not closed as well?
And to finish this up, why does this only work for a countable metric space?
My book only states "Let ${U_n}{n=1}^{\infty}$ be a sequence of dense open subsets of a complete metric space $X$. Then $\bigcap{n=1}^{\infty} U_n$ is also dense in $X$. It doesn't say anything about ti only applying for countable union, except I am missing something again.
bruh
Okay, thank you, yet again.
veryhappyperson
Let $\alpha:I\to S^2$ be injective. Show that $\alpha(I)$ has an empty interior.
亜城木 夢叶
Is I an open or closed interval @long coyote?
I is closed,
yes
So suppose the image had nonempty interior
Then it would contain a ball
(something homeomorphic to the disk in R^2)
We could pull that back along α to get a subset of I homeomorphic to a disk
Try to prove this is impossible
i see
α is not surjective therefore we can assume that it maps I to S \ {s} which is homeomrophic to R^2
Using that fact that I is compact we can get that α(I) is a measure-zero set
Where any open ball isn’t
How do you get that?
There are certainly compact sets that have positive measure
Even ones with empty interior
(eg take a fat cantor set in R and look at its product with itself)
Sorry it is a mistake it isn’t because I is compact. The set of rational numbers in I is {x_1,x_2,...} any positive real number ε we can find a open neighborhood I_n of x_n in I such that α(I_n) is contained in B(x_n, ε/(2^n)
Right so I think the issue with this proof is that the I_n might not cover I
But I'm having trouble understanding it
Dead end ... I am completely lost😂
Btw how to illustrate that it’s impossible for I to contain a open subset homeomorphic to an open disk in R^2...
connectedness
If you remove a point from a connected open subset of I you'll get at least two connected components
Wait no sorry
If U is a connected open subset of I then it must contain some point x distinct from the endpoints of I. Removing such a point disconnects U
But removing any point from a disk will leave it connected
For higher dimensional versions of this question ("invariance of dimension") you need something stronger like homology
I see. Thanks I got it.
Statement: Computing the cellular boundary maps action on a 2-cell is easy--just read off the coefficients from the exponents of the word you glue along. You can't do this for >=3-cells
Question: But what if instead of a free group--you had something better to glue along???
Question: Am I about to reinvent operads?
Tfw you like Faye's tweet and then you see it on discord
figured someone here might know the answer?
im not sure i understand the question
- what 2) no
This seems like a very strong reaction
do you understand the statement?
let me revisit in the morning but i dont see an immediate connection to operads
mhm
as for rephrasing the question
Question: Combinatorially we describe gluing data of a 2-cell onto the 1-skeleton by specifying a word (aka an element of a free group) in the 1-cells. Is there a corresponding type of structure that gives the gluing data of an n-cell onto the (n - 1)-skeleton, and can you get a similar result about computing cellular homology
well, the word structure comes from the fact that an attaching map for a 2-cell is a map from S^1, i.e. an element of pi_1, so part of some non-abelian group
but looking at pi_2 and above is abelian, so "words" in this sense don't really mean much
sure
but I don't think the gluing data is given by just looking at the coefficients in pi_2 right?
or am I missing something?
:o neat!
Here's something interesting: the image of a continuous injective map I -> R^2 might not have measure zero!
lebesgue measure 🤢
real mathematicians use the counting measure on everything 
can someone help define total boundedness in metric spaces?
go on wikipedia lol
mean
a metric space is totally bounded if for every r > 0 there's a finite covering by balls of radius r
that was the definition from wikipedia
I'm having a real tough time with this one. I could really use some help understanding this
(try to look at the contrapositive of the condition)
If the arbitrary intersection is empty, then there exists a finite subset where the finite intersection is also empty.
yep!
Ohhhh, then if that's the case, the complement is the space itself!
exactly! and complements of closed subsets are open subsets!
hehe
I need help on another one, but let me wrap my head around this one first real quick.
Thank you very much!

This is the next one. I also ran into a similar issue where I wasn't really sure where to start.
So hold on. Does X not being compact imply it is either not bounded or not closed?
I know the converse is true, but I don't think this implication is true
So how is that hint useful?
Wait... X is a subset of the real numbers
Heine Borel is at play here
yep
We haven't proved that direction in class yet, so it's time to take things for granted!
hehe okie
so say X was unbounded, can you give me an unbounded function from X --> R?
The most trivial would be f(x)=x
is that continuous?
Well, $|x-c|<\delta \Rightarrow |x-c|<\epsilon$ where $\epsilon=\delta$
dackid
yep!
so we're done with this case!
what if X was not closed? This means that there is a limit point p of X which is not in X
Yea, I agree with that
so try to find a an unbounded function from X --> R
Then what about $\frac{1}{x-p}$
dackid
yep this works!
Proving continuity might be a little trickier
this is continuous on R\{p} so continuous on any subset of R\{p}
You mind if I try the epsilon delta way? I could use the practice
yea okie
so we know that p and c are not the same
Absolutely
but if you let delta be huge, then x might get very near p
so first lets assume delta is small enough, we'll assume delta <= |c-p|/2 this will guarantee that x doesn't not go very near p
Okay, I think I follow
what can you say about |x-p| now
Would it be smaller than |c-p|/2?
oh no, its greater
we pick x near c, to make x away from p
In any case, we have |x-p| >= |p-c|/2
draw a picture plot p and c and draw x near |p-c|/2 distance of c
using this, we get |f(x) - f(c)| <= (2/|p-c|^2)* |x-c|
Yep! I see it now
so i can take delta = epsilon * |p-c|^2/2
but recall we wanted delta to be smaller than |p-c|/2
else our calculations would be wrong
so final delta should be min(|p-c|/2, epsilon*|p-c|^2/2)
Wait, why the minimum? I understand the epsilon term
I'm just not sure why that isn't sufficient here
This is true
what if the epsilon given to you was 2/|p-c|
Then delta would just be |p-c| (if we just look at the epsilon term in the mininum).
and then x could get very close to p, as p was a limit point
and our calculation was based of the rough estimate the our |x-c| <= |p-c|/2
so this wouldn't apply and f could be huge
Ah, I see. So the minimum accounts for both cases
yep
Ah okay. I see now. Thank you for bearing with me, I'm not sure why I am struggling so much on this one
And now we know the function is continuous and unbounded, so we can conclude the proof
yep!
or like i said, you could use the fact that if you have 2 real valued functions f and g which are continuous at a, and g(a) != 0, then f/g is continuous at a
the proof is pretty much what we just did.
Oh... well, that works too :p
does anyone know here whether Christoffel symbols are constant or dependent on the position in a bundle?
I think they should be dependent on the position in a bundle, but I am not sure
Yeah they're functions of the position
thank you very much!
Wasn't much, but no problem 😄
heh
the notation was just a bit confusing sometimes
especially with the einstein summation convention in the mix as well
they're basically the components of the partial derivatives of your basis vectors, at least understanding that the question becomes obvious
and the book Im reading uses differential operators as vectors as well, which confused me at first but makes sense
Yeah exactly, what merosity said
yeah its related to vertical and horizontal subspaces and covariant differentiation
The perspective of "tangent vectors = differential operators" is very common (fundamental even) to differential geometry, so it's not all that strange; tho yeah, it takes getting used to
I can type out how I understand it and you guys can see if its correct maybe
so as far as I understand, the vertical subspace of a principal bundle is very simple, and is just tangent to the fiber, so d/dg_i are the basis vectors, then for the horizontal subspace the basis is of the form
d/dx_mu + Gamma_{mu, i, j}g_j d/dg_i
``` (with einstein summation over i and j), and the Christoffel symbols sort of correct for the curvature of the space (so in the direction of your fiber)
which then depends on the position in your bundle (makes sense), and the manifold and fiber themselves
is that about correct?
So the g_i are the fibre-coordinates I suppose
yes
yeah a principal bundle over a manifold M and a fiber/structure group G with coordinates x and g respectively
I think your understanding might be right, tho I always forget the precise formulas with which the horizontal subspace is defined from a connection
yeah Ive been having a lot of trouble understanding connections and parallel transport in a rigorous way, but I think I finally got it
it seemed like a bit of a chicken and egg scenario
where the connection and the horizontal subspace seem to be dependent on eachother
Though what is a bit weird: If you had the trivial bundle and the trivial connection, your horizontal subspace should basically just be spanned by the d/dg_i
or wait, no
that's the vertical one
yah
No then this is probably good, yeah; the christoffel symbols correct exactly for the curvature
worst part was that I had a lot of trouble finding a good definition of a connection, especially in the book I was mostly using :/
Haha there's like fifty
yeah
from what I understand its mostly just a function that describes how local coordinates of different neighborhoods in a bundle relate
But the one which is like "an operator $\nabla : \Gamma(TM) \times \Gamma(E) \to \Gamm(E)$ which is $C^\infty(M)$-linear in the first argument and Leibniz-ey in the second one is probably appropriate here
Lartomato
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That's a good intuitive view I'd say, yeah
yeah, though this is for my thesis, and I'm getting kind of side-tracked with this topic, so I might just keep the exact definition of a connection kind of open haha
but after like a week of struggling I finally understand what I need to I think
Ah, it's good to write down one, and then appeal to your favourite diffgeo book to say "connections have a bunch of equivalent definitions, which give rise to the following stuff i need" or so
Ill be mostly describing what it is along the covariant derivative since it's an example of one I think, and thats the one I mostly need
yeah I referred to a book for a more precise definition
But yeah, that's like 90% of the work in diffgeo, getting a good feeling for all the objects that float around, so don't feel bothered too much if this takes you some time
yeah...
Diffgeo is less "super cool theorems about super cool things" and more just a good useful framework to view geometry through
it was a lot harder than I expected
So understanding the definitions well is an effort in itself
and this is mostly for a physics part of my thesis, where I feel like Im allowed to be a bit less rigorous at least haha
Yah I know how the physicists are
They might even be happy if you leave the details in the dark a little
I usually prefer math, but for stuff like this, where the math behind it is very involved...
there are someee cool theorems (though half of them are "this analytic object ends up really nkt caring about the metric at all")
Which one are you thinking of fam
gauss-bonnet is a standard one
Tho I won't deny that there are some cool magic tricks there, most of them are something like "we define this object in charts and then show that no matter which charts we used, it's a globally well-defined boio"
Which is cool in its own right, but rather than revealing something magical, it just kinda tells you that the framework of differential geometry is a good one to work with
But yeah gauss-bonnet is a fair one
It's not something i've personally ever seen treated in a diffgeo course weirdly enough
i mean, similar things can be said for alg geo
but there are sick theorems in alggeo
just to be sure, are the \omega_{\mu, a}^b in this math stackexchange answer in fact the christoffel symbols?: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2337456/explicit-derivation-of-the-horizontal-subspace-connection-and-covariant-derivat
they are usually denoted with Gamma I guess, but they are in the place where I thought the christoffel symbols would be
Oh yeah they are
whew
This is the cooler way of thinking about Christoffel symbols; you might have heard that they are not globally-well defined/not a tensor; but they are components of the so-called "connection 1-form", which is well-defined globally
Christoffel symbols don't transform well, but christoffel symbols times 1-forms transform well
That's not super important for you but it puts the mind of differential geometers worldwide at ease
yeah I kind of skipped the part of the 1-form, cause I wasnt really sure what it was haha
since we don't have to work with weird objects which only make sense in local coordinates
the book I used kind of dropped it out of nowhere
the connection 1-form did seem like a more general thing than the christoffel symbols though
It's the same data, just packaged in a globally-well-defined way
hmmm
It's like if you have a vector field "X" and you choose local coordinates "X = X_i \partial_i", then the collection of functions X_i across all the different charts does not stitch together to a globally-well-defined function X_i, because its transformation behaviour across different charts sucks
But together with the \partial_i it starts transforming well -- and stitches together to a globally-well-defined vector field, namely X
But that, too, is something difficult to get used to, since "usual" mathematics just takes place in Euclidean space, where the concept of "transformation behaviour" is never something that matters
as in, the field X is transformed when "moving around" the bundle?
In a sense, yes
I mean, when moving around a sphere or a cone youll need it too
Or when moving between two different overlapping charts
yeah I guess thats the most important part
but then what is the 1-form?
is it just a collection of those transformations?
Yeah, written as $\Gamma_{ab}^c dx_a \otimes \partial^c$ or so in local coordinates
Lartomato
It's also a bit weird since it's a tangent-bundle-valued form, lol
but where is the structure on that collection?
just composition or something?
I wasnt sure what to make of it
What kind of structure are you looking for?
Oh, hm, so that it must fulfil some properties or so, like how the christoffel symbols fulfil some identities
Yeah I think this is where my spontaneous knowledge ends
I'm nooot sure if these things will be super important to you quite yet anyway; it's probably just as healthy to think about connections in terms of christoffel symbols for now
heh, I'll be avoiding it anyway when writing, but thanks very much for your help and confirmations
Yeee maybe that's good for now. These are the things that I even sometimes lose my head in, even though I've worked with this stuff for a couple years now
But good luck on your thesis in any case!
thanks!
There is a one to one correspondence between levi civita connection on M and the globally defined o(n) valued connection one forms
oh yah that was one perspective yes
Tho idk how much easier it makes it on a diffgeo-newbie to think of "o(n)-valued 1-forms" lol; but matter of taste
The christoffel symbols are thereby coordinate patch components of the connection 1-form
With values in the tangent bundle
Which can be regarded as a associated bundle to the O(n) principal bundle over the riemannian manifold
How u can imagine it is that the connection one form in this case describes how we move between tangent spaces (which are the fibers of this bundle which can be seen as just the O(n) group at each point ( a little imprecise cause the fibers are actual O(n) torsors))and we can globally define it
If we now look at a coordinate patch on the manifold we can also regard this connection one form locally as the christoffel symbols
Also u can view the “ way we move between tangent spaces” by saying the connection one form measures how a vector field for example devitates from being horizontal to the fibers
Aka if the vectorfield is horizontal the form vanishes aka is 0
So the covariant derivative d+Γ acts on horizontal vectorfield X through d(X) + Γ(X) = d(X)
I'm trying to understand the proof that the fundamental group of homotopic classes of paths is a group. I'm trying to intuitively make sense of the proof of the existence of inverses.
In this diagram, what exactly is happening?
I can see that we start with $[\alpha \circ - \alpha]$ and end up with the constant path.
snypehype
hello
so compactness implies closeness and boundedness
however the converse is not necessarily true for non euclidian, or anything other than Rn and Cn
i know this
however cant come up with an example for the latter statement
with what metric?
this is the most boring example though. An example with a complete space is harder
for metric spaces the better condition than closednesss and boundedness is completeness and totally bounded
pick your favorite infinite-dimensional banach space
ball go brrrrrrrrrr
here's a good example of what TTerra was talking about
Yes, I understand that I think. What I'm struggling is how one "slowly" deforms the path into the constant map visually. That is what the diagram is supposed to do.
the diagram is a way of subdividiing I x I in order to make the homotopy more obvious (these diagrams appear in a lot of AT textbooks)
Hm? I don't think that's that hard? It's not sequentially compact
I guess the idea is like. First go all the way along alpha and then all the way back along -alpha
Then go 0.9 along alpha then 0.9 back along -alpha, and kinda like "unfold" it this way
for example, the closed unit ball in C^0([0, 1]), the space of continuous functions on [0, 1], with the sup metric, is not compact. the sequence {x^n} has no convergent subsequence (why?)
oops im late
the questioner is long gone 
I'm going to go do my linguistics lecture? I think it's good to see why both conditions are necessary, not just completeness?
totally bounded though
My understanding is the following: you do $\alpha \circ -\alpha$ and then "do" the constant map. And slowly you increase the speed of $\alpha \circ -\alpha$ and so you have "more time" to do the constant map. Then eventually you'll be at a point where you're spending very little time on $\alpha \circ -\alpha$ and most of the time on constant map. Would this be the correct way of thinking about it?
snypehype
hmm
something feels weird about this
yeah
if you were just doing it faster
you could do this for any loop
and that would be bad
but what does it mean to do "less" of it?
this is a clever example! Thanks for sharing
So is this what you mean by "less"?
mm
we're only doing this at one endpoint
so instead the right half should get smaller
but not the left half :)
(this is required if we want a path homotopy)
@gritty widget oh I see this makes sense. So the speed in the case is unchanged
Ok thanks I think I get it. I'll try to parse the equation and relate it to what you said later.
the diagram is slightly different than your proof slimvesus
or no it's the same, I misread
so if you draw a horizontal line in the diagram
then the first section of the line is "wait at x_0", the second section is "do alpha for this time", the third section is "do -alpha for this time" and the fourth section is "wait at x_0"
@obtuse meteor Ah brilliant! that makes it easier to understand
how do you use lebesgue number lemma when proving S2 is simply connected
So the goal of this proof is you have a loop gamma in S^2 based at x_0
you want to homotope gamma so that it's not surjective, aka it's in S^2 \ {x} for some x != x_0
because S^2 \ {x} is just homeomorphic to the plane, and everything is trivial there
The intuitive picture is you draw a small open ball B around some point x, and then whenever gamma passes through that ball B, you homotope gamma inside of B so that gamma traverses still inside of B without touching x
The way the lebesgue number lemma is used is that you know the preimage of B under gamma is open, so it is composed of finitely many intervals (a_i, b_i)
the preimage of x is closed in [0, 1], so it's compact. The lebesgue number lemma tells you that this compact set is contained in only finitely many of the (a_i, b_i).
and then on each interval [a_i, b_i] which contains this compact set you just nudge gamma a little bit in order to miss x to make your homotopy
the key point is that there are finitely many such intervals, so you can do all of these homotopies no problem
Nice fact: This same proof method shows that for a manifold M with dim M >= 2, there is an inclusion pi_1(M, x_0) into pi_1(M \ {x}, x_0) for any two points x != x_0
👍
Even nicer fact: I think this same proof method shows that for a manifold M with dim M > n there is an inclusion pi_n(M, x_0) into pi_n(M \ {x}, x_0)
max seems like the relevant expert to check me on this :P
That isn't true. Consider M = T^2 and n = 1. Then M \ a point is homotopy equivalent to the wedge of two circles, so pi_n(M, x_0) = Z^2 while pi_n(M \ {x}, x_0) is a free group of rank 2. There is no inclusion of Z^2 into a free group of rank 2 by nielsien-schrier (I think a similar thing was on your midterm review faye)
I think the key issue here is that you can construct (it is nonunique) a nice map from $\Omega M\hookrightarrow \Omega(M-x)$. The issue is twofold: you must make a choice for each map and the map is not injective yet. Of course, obviously before you actually remove x it is clear all possible choices are homotopy equivalent and the places where injectivity goes wrong share a homotopy class by construction (in M), so maybe this will work out. Unfortunatley, after you remove the point you remove some possible homotopies so choices are not unique even up to homotopy and depending on your choices you may have also broken homotopy-injectivity. Sham gives an example that shows that even if you try to make your nonunique choices carefully its not quite good enough
@obtuse meteor
Okay after like a million edits i think this is fine now lol
The right way to think about the S^2 example might be that S^2 is exceptional in that you can remove a point and it turns out this point wasn’t necessary for doing any homotopies because you could always go around the other way
what's Omega?
I would read it as diff. forms but that doesn't makes sense from context
$\Omega X:= \operatorname{Maps}_*(S^1,X)$ is a common notation from alg top sorry
MaxJ
It’s adjoint to $\Sigma X := S^1\wedge X$
MaxJ
but when talking about manifolds and homotopy invariants it's not my first guess for omega 😛
at least you knew from context i wouldn’t bring up differential forms hahaha
this is interesting tho
I think its a convincing reason to see that like, homotopy groups are very sensitive to most changes to a space despite the fact that we often think about them as very weak invariants
maybe I made a mistake. Instead we want a surjection pi_1(M \ {x}, x_0) to pi_1(M, x_0). Is this true?
this way there are no choices to make
you just take the inclusion
and it's surjective via the argument I made
This is of course less useful, because understanding quotients is harder than understanding subgroups (at least imo)
hmm, is there anything really nice you can draw about this?
I decided that was too pedantic of a message
anyway
I think it is worthwhile to think about the kernel here. Take Sham’s example.
Fix a point
make it a disk
the kernel of the pi_1 map is the commutators
and it turns out the loop represented by the boundary of this disk
is that commutator
In general the obstruction to that being an isomorphism should have to do with the associated small disk which you can always draw in a manifold
I’m being a bit cheeky but we can either use path conjugation or or we can move the basepoint to the edge of the disk for this to be actually true
So the kernel of the pi_1 morphisms somehow tells you how much extra connectivity the point you removed was accounting for
(this works well w my discussion of the S^2 example because in degree 1 removing a point has no kernel and therefore that point accounted for no connectivity)
yeah this makes sense ^^
unfortunately ofc you can't provide such simple descriptions of what you lose in higher dimensional cases
yeah i have no rigorous backing for this really
but like
to me it seems geometry only ever really tells you anything about one homotopy group
@fading vale related to my thing about covres
not directly applicable to your problem
but interesting still
thinkies
good problem
I don't think you should try it yet
but also, what do I know
I think the number of sheets of the cover will be the degree of f
but if you talk about degrees later
think about it ig
idk I'm not your boss
capitalist shamrock arc
lol

i am not now nor have I ever been a member of the american capitalist party
shamrock
im typing up a really long response to my prof's "do part a more carefully"
it's not me insulting him

malevolence
i want to
i really want to
im just summarizing all the things we discussed 
including book page references 

book page references
this is so demented
idk if thats what tterra means
but im pretty sure this prof like
makes u cite result by result from the book
i hope so
i require immense clarification because the things in the problem im asked to look at don't even have definitions in the book

I would simply take a better course?
Have you tried being at a school where the TA for analysis isn't trash?

@sleek thicket you know for a second I thought your theorem was wrong
And then I remembered Sard
lol
And I was like 😍
Sard's good
Sard is actually an S-tier theorem
,ban slimvesus
This may only be done by a moderator!
,bt
I have been angered
hehehe im still typing out this post 
but it's funny to overkill things sometimes
I love that theorem
Bro you're scaring tterra stop
Beyond even my tastes
Definitely on an orientable manfiold you can integrate against a volume form
And that defines a measure
But I'll say this
What is measure :S
It's easier to define measure zero than it is to define measure
Just cap with charts 🙃
baby: derivative of a degree d polynomial has at most d - 1 roots, so there is one value which does the right thing
woke: sard's theorem
Uncertainty principle man
The only microscopes good enough for these sets cost more than the department's budget can afford
So we call it measure zero
Hah that's a new version of that expression
I usually say nuke a potato from orbit
unrelated: sham I'm wondering how long it'll take before I have tons of cringe in my mentions. I already had someone whose twitter name is "ontos of intellect" quote tweet me
Aw smashing butteflies makes me feel sad
oh it's coming Faye
I'm used the turn off reply feature more aggressively
It is peaceful
lol

lmao
Sounds like something someone for whom the statement is vacuous would say but ok
Twitter is bad
tterra has the right idea
Just look at filth and never interact with people
All the fundamental math needed to understand nature at any practical level was mature by the early 20th century. There has been no progress in pure math useful to the public because there is none left to make
More like
We're just making things worse imo
math is done pack it up
All the fundamental math needed to understand nature at any practical level was mature by the early 20th century. There has been no progress in pure math useful to the public because there is none left to make
hm?
Math is creating undergraduate category theorists and not giving any benefit so
I buy it
reject modernity: a standard theory of groups
embrace tradition: a set of equations with substitution rules and a permutation group / general linear group
schoomers btfo
Idk if I buy that so much as
The stuff is more advanced so it's harder to appreciate
we haven't had time to look back imo
emily riehl has a model of a future where like
homotopy type theory is taught to undergrads
in 2100
Like I can take 10 big results between 1900 and 1921
And a lot of undergrads/early grad students could understand their significance
and infinity-category theory is done as an advanced undergrad course in the language of HoTT
mhm
Poincare conjecture
Which fits more largely in Thurston's geometrization
slim maybe, maybe not. But definitely the sentiment that less happened in 21st century compared to 20th def didn't exist 😛
I wana get into dynamics at some level but I feel dumdum
I am hoping to learn a lot of dynamics over the coming year
I spent approximately 4 weeks of my life trying to learn dynamics
I need to talk about maths with professors and stuff
I guess my thing is
I found Brin and Stuck non-trivial but kinda doable as a rising third year undergrad
Now I'd be a rising third year grad student
So it's probably not nearly as hard lol
I'm prob gonna use two books
Brin and Stuck + Einsiedler and Ward
how do you people like
learn out of books???
maybe I'm just not mathematically mature enough yet?
but I can't keep myself motivated to read a book
and do exercises
compared to like talking about math with profs and stuff
Yeah usually I prefer lectures tbh but I think the best thing is to not do it totally independently
Either do it under prof guidance or as part of a reading group
At minimum have some external source of accountability to force you to make progress
And optimally you have someone to discuss the math with regularly
Idk I honestly found Brin and Stuck to be okay
Like it's hard for sure
At the time I read it, it was easily the hardest math I attempted to read
and I'm taking complex analysis next semester
But as a second/third year undergrad I was able to do stuff
So I feel like now it'd be very doable
Since I'm much more experienced and since a lot of it wouldn't be a first pass anymore
That is tru
I mean dynamics has just one example which matters and it's the hyperbolic toral automorphism right?
jk
I will say at the time I never really understood the point of the solenoid shit
B&S has a list of weird examples early on
Solenoid and horseshoe
@obtuse meteor I don't think it's a maturity thing, at least not necessarily
I can't focus on lecture and so it just doesn't work for me /shrug
HTA and circle rotation I can appreciate for sure
hmm I see
wdym by this?
I mean I read books out of necessity, I guess?
Like if the choices are to read books or watch a lecture
As my main way of learning a thing
The lecture will do almost nothing for me
^
I'm very big on lectures lol
I think it helps that if I can get myself to focus
Then my memory is crazy fucking good
yeah I almost never forget like
statements of theorems
or things we've done in class
I remember one time I was actually focused in class
but I can't read them and remember them as easily at all
And a few hours later I basically recounted the lecture perfectly
I always have to refer back 10 times
To someone who missed class
when I'm reading
Except one detail in a proof
Oh yeah and like
Now I'm usually not focused but then I'm just fucked whether it's lecture or reading
I did two reading courses on algebra before ever taking an algebra class
I guess book is nice since you can consult later in that case
And just found out it works really well for me
I just haven't taken an algebra class
But yeah when my focus is good it's good
It's my strongest subject/the thing I have the strongest knowledge base in
Well my point isn't really about algebra lol
¯_(ツ)_/¯
wtf is /shop lmao
I'm doing algebra and complex analysis next semester
probably nothing else
bc I value my sanity
Complex analysis is cute
I wish I could like
take the next course in algtop next semester
but I really need complex anal
and algebra
so it doesn't make sense lol
it's 596 so it's the qualifying exam level of complex analysis
let me looksee
the algtop class also probably uses higher algebra than I know
for a second course
ye
I also don't have any difftop background
hmmm yeah
idk
I'm caught in the weird area of things only being offered in fall/winter now I think
and there's an issue of if I have the money to do a 4th year and stuff
and if I need to fast-track graduating and applying to grad school
in which case I need complex analysis
to have a good app
lol
mmm
that sounds like
a bad decision
considering how busy I've been this semester
and that I have to work as a grader next semester
(again money)
Don't overload yourself
yeh
When we use the van Kampen theorem, in the amalgamation product, are the original relations of the participating groups taken into account?
Like, if in this picture a Mobius band is attached along its boundary to the meridian circle gamma, what would be the fundamental group of the resulting space?
Is it not just free on two generators?
Yes
for your second question I would need to think about it, sorry
Can you let me know when you have the time?
I think by van kampen it would have presentation <a, b, c|aba^-1b^-1, c^2 a^-1>
So we can extend the torus and the mobius band a little to get open sets which cover your space and are pretty much the same
The mobius band's fundamental is generated by the loop c that goes around its central circle (you might need to change basepoint but I don't think it's a huge deal here)
And c^2 is the boundary loop of the mobius circle
the torus is generated by two commuting loops, the loop a called γ in your picture and a horizontal loop b
The intersection is (actually deformation retracts onto) the circle γ in your pic, and so is generated by γ. When looking at the groups, the generator of this will include as the element a in the fundamental group of the torus and c^2 for the mobius band
This is how I get the relation c^2 a^-1 = e
So this group can also be presented by <b, c|bc^2b^-1c^-2>
This contains a subgroup <b, c^2> which is not free so it cannot be a free group (subgroups of free groups are free)
That's right. I also got this only. But then I got confused primarily because of this... When you calculate the fundamental group of the 2 holed torus
Then as the standard octagon, you get the presentation <a,b,c,d | aba^-1b^-1cdc^-1d^-1>, right?
But if you take it is the connected sum of two 1-holed tori and then use van Kampen, you seem to get <a,b,c,d | aba^-1b^-1=cdc^-1d^-1=1>
How are these two groups isomorphic is what is confusing me.
I think I know what you did wrong
So that second group is the free product of π1(T^2) and π1(T^2)
Right?
Yes, supposed to be
So if you had two torii touching at a point you could do van kampen to get this fundamental group
But this doesn't work with T^2 # T^2
What open subsets are you using?
Presumably they should be homotopy equivalent to T^2
Oh, no. They're homotopic to torus-disk
Ah, I see. So they are totally free on two generators!
Yes!
Because torus \ disk is homeomorphic to torus \ point is homotopy equivalent to a bouquet of two circles
And you could track generators and stuff
But I think it would be ugly
I remember being very confused that the connected sum and wedge sum weren't homotopy equivalent when talking my first class on this stuff
Yes, yes. So it's basically (Z*Z)*(Z*Z) where the amalgamation is over Z again? In the connected sum case.
Yes, but the relations added by amalgamation aren't obvious to me
Oh wait!
I think I see it!!!
Okay think of two squares
Hmm, the boundary of the removed disk is equal to the boundary of the torus, right? So I think we will get the same result as in the octagon case. Because the octagon can be subdivided by a line into two 1-holed tori with disks removed.
With their centers cut out
And the edges identified to be torii
Then the loop in the center looks like aba^-1b^-1
Yes, that's what I was saying too..
Yeah, you take the hole at a vertex and then stretch it open, do the same for the other square and then join them to get an octagon!
Okay, great! This had been stumping me since morning that why are those relations being added. Many thanks!
What book are you looking at for this stuff?
Mostly Hatcher
yes hello?
oh, I just saw you were typing
did you see that i solved my thing from earlier
felt polite
oh
i was gonna ask a qn about hatcher but shanged my minf
Hello i am trying to see what the fundamental group of $X$ is, where $X$ is the union of $S^1$ and $C$. $C$ is the plain square of side length $\sqrt2$ and centered at (0,0).
kh
this seems homotopy equivalent to a wedge of two circles
but I would have to draw it
do you have a schematic of what this looks like in the plane?
it is a circle and the square in it
oh sqrt(2) centered at (0, 0)
one sec
so it's like a square
with the circumscribed circle?
yeah
probably the best way to approach this
is to treat it as a graph
do you have the result on computing the fundamental group of a graph?
No not yet
So the idea is like
repeatedly contract edges
until you end up with a wedge of circles
so i will get the full circle ?
mmm
no you shouldn't
you should visually go through this contraction process
contract one edge at a time
to make sure you don't miss anything
Is that square filled in
you should be careful
nothing in the original statement makes me think it would or wouldn't be
but the answer changes
ah yeah that is important
Yes it is filled in
the second part of the question is what happens if it is not filled in
then what we're doing here is if it is not filled in
MaxJ
there we go
a line between two verticies
contract it
and redraw
one at a time if you want to be careful
and eventually you should get some wedge of circles
Oh wait its filled in shoot
okay sorry
first step is deal with the square
Do you know how you might do that?
what i tried so far is to use Van Kampen
but i was not able to go far
maybe try and contract the square?
Hmmm
Not quite
One thing to keep in mind
Everything that was connected before you contract the square
has to be connected after
Here's a procedural hint
What is your main goal? Contracting the square to a point
So start by drawing the point
Then you've finished w the square
But now you have to ask "How are all the lines that used to touch the square connected to this point"
Well, there is only one way to do it
(it might help to try to animate this in your head if you can)
(visualize the square shrinking and how this pulls on everything else)
my circle will become a 8?
ah yes like a 4 leaf
No i will try using van kampen
Thank you for the help
Your tips were very helpfull
Np!
Eventually after some practice
you'll look at these things and see the answer instantly hahaha
I hope so
something that might help build the skill
is to try to visualize homotopies without drawing them first
and like watch it happen in your brain and see if you can accuratley do it before you do it in the procedural way
might cause some headaches haha
haha thanks for the help!
i got the same figure after contracting each line in the empty square
it must be wrong
Hm?
Your end result should be a 4-leaf clover
But if the square was not filled in, it should be a 5-leaf I believe
(you can only contract 3/4 of the sides before you don’t have a contractible side)
in 2->3 you identify two sides of the triangle but you arent allowed to do this
remember all you are doing is contracting one side
the other two can bend or whatever
isn't this like taking the quotient space where the corners of the circumscribed square lying on a circle are equal?
not if it isnt filled in no
if it is filled in this is exactly what is happening yes
you can’t preserve homotopy type by contracting a non contractible subspace
(if your method worked then the filled in version would be htpy equivalent to the not filled im which is false)
how can i contract in the second step without merging the two lines
ill draw
ill need to retract 2 lines at the same time?
but if this was less than 4 points then we wouldn't need to have the circle filled? (sorry for budging in with my question)


