#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 218 of 1
how to define boundary of a manifold?
take a (topological) manifold and demand that the charts can be open subsets of {(x_1, ..., x_n) : x_n >= 0}. the boundary points are the points which have a chart taking the point to something with x_n = 0.
x_{n}>=0 means all x_i are >=0 or just the last point?
last
is there any intuition behind it?
draw a picture
let me give one
kind of shitty
how does x_{n}>=0 give rise to the 'boundary'?
separates the stuff on the manifold from the stuff off it
manifolds with boundary are locally modeled on H^n, which has a "boundary"
I mean the boundary has charts that look like this
anyways i don't feel like competing with other people's explanations so i'm going to defer to lee 
the charts here are an upper half space, the subspace of R^n where say the last coordinate is ≥0
lee ISM ch2 has a good explanation
so it's true that every manifold is a manifold with boundary,but not every manifold with boundary is a manifold,right?
ohhh this makes senes
yes every manifold is trivially a manifold with boundary
obviously im looking at the last coordinate here
any manifold with nonempty boundary is not a manifold
but such a thing typically admits a stratification where the boundary is a manifold of dimension 1 less, and the manifold with boundary minus the boundary is a manifold
is a manifold without boundary just a manifold?
or a specific manifold
my prof defined a closed manifold using the notion of manifold without boundary but didnt define that
how to define manifold without boundary? or what's the difference between a manifold, and a manifold without boundary?
based on this a manifold without boundary is just a manifold,is this right?
Yes
thanks!
every closed manifold is a compact manifold with boundary,but the other way doesn't work. does this seem right?
since manifold without boundary implies manifold with boundary
you mean without boundary?
In mathematics, a closed manifold is a manifold without boundary that is compact.
@gritty widget
Are there any simple examples of paracompact spaces? Or some good example to compare a compact and a paracompact space to get some intuition about the definition of paracompactness?
inb4 "manifolds!"
it's hard to find a space which isn't paracompact
haha owned i didn't say manifolds
Examples of paracompact spaces: all metric spaces, all cw complexes, all manifolds (as long as you include "second countable" in your definition of a manifold")
yeah haha
oh and: all compact spaces
all finite spaces
empty space
tterra literally all of my examples include the empty space

hello rounin 🙂
I can give more concrete examples, but honestly if you name a space it's probably paracompact
Then maybe a counter example would be better
I assume you'd say something that is not second countable
nope
Ah okay, the construction is sort of involved so I won't go over it
I can google it, np
all spaces are paracompact
the construction of the long line involves ordinals
which are a little tricky if you haven't thought about them in depth before
but I can't think of any 😢
it's ok, np, just wondered maybe I'm just failing to find something simple but I guess there's no trivial example
Yeah, the class of spaces I posted is pretty big
I think here is one: ||R with a negative infinity, with the topology where [-infty, a) is open||
Wait a second
ono
wait waht
I think R with open sets (-infinity, a) for each real a is a topology which is not paracompact
Ah ok nvm yeah I think it works. And yeah we don't even need negative infinity huh
right yeah x < sup a iff x < a for some a
so the union of rays like (-infinity, a) is the ray (-infinity, sup a)
@hallow bloom did this example make sense?
actually 8da we can do this with N too right?
Ah yeah huh
let me think about it
chmonkey probably
so what breaks here is that the refinement is not locally finite? e.g. for cover {(-\nfty,a): a \in \mathbb{R}}?
Is it a good way to learn algebraic geometry?
Lmao
That's cool
I've started studying a little bit more of algebra
More specifically commutative algebra
I am studying modules now
And I got interested in knowing like
How some of these concepts naturally arise from algebro-geometric contexts
Like local rings
And etc
I'd also like to ask
I have read stacks
I think it’s good if you know what you want to learn
Not as like a textbook to just go in order and read
How much of commutative algebra is needed in order to start studying algebraic geometry?
Like
Depends at what level
If you want to do schemes you need to be fluent with localization
I need to know the basics of commutative rings and modules over them, localization, noetherian rings
What else?
I mean
But no matter what, you’re gonna have to be prepared to be willing to prove commutative algebra on the fly
I am talking about more of a beginner's level algebraic geometry
Like algebraic curves over algebraic closed fields
If you’re dealing with varieties you don’t need as much
Or more generally algebraic varieties as you put
Oftentimes sources for that treat commutative algebra alongside it and develop what you need as you go along
If you have the equivalent of say, a year of undergrad algebra
And are comfortable with localization and maybe some dimension theory then you should be fine
Nice
I’d just keep a commutative algebra book handy
you're still gonna want some dimension theory
So you can look things up as they come up
for just varieties
also standard comm alg results like noether normalization
but some of this stuff can be picked up as you go
That kinda falls into dimension theory
yeah haha that's why I mentioned it
Noether normalization at least
But yeah
I think it’s not too hard to treat deimsnion theory tho
if a collection of open sets in this space is locally finite, it is finite. try to prove this and see why it breaks paracompactness
I think Matsumura does most of what you’d need in jjst section 5
But idk how much of the prior stuff you need to understand it
Nice
I am reading Michael Atiyah's book on commutative algebra, doing the exercises and watching some really good youtube lectures on the subject
I was kind of curious about like
Atiyah-MacDonald has like
what would be the next natural step
Ah
I am going to blindly recommend miles reid's undergrad alg geo because I like the accompanying comm alg book and I've heard good things
but I literally haven't read it so this is not a first hand account
What would be next step after reading atiyah's book to study algebraic geometry?
also don't let "undergrad" raise your hackles or whatever, it does serious AG
Any book recommendations besides hartshorne's algebraic geometry?
You could just jump into schemes if you don’t care about understanding the abstract stuff, but I would not recommend that
Which is what I did
I’ve heard that it’s good as well
@gritty widget people get weird about book names okay
I think there’s like
A royal road to algebraic geometry
ive told people the same but reversed about a book with graduate in the name
Why would I learn schemes before learning about algebraic and projective varieties?
And Shafarevich
shamrock accelerating everyone's ag arcs
except his own 😔
shamrokc ag arc has been going for like 2 years at this point and it's not really showing much progress
algebraic geometry is on the "possible reading topics for the summer" list
the books I recommended might work for you as well
Just be warned their advice could be bad, but I like prof’s advice more than randos most of the time
although you would probably want to read some comm alg first, tterra
Yeah TTerra CA is gûd
miles reid's comm alg book is also based
AM is kind of dry and everything is in the exercises
A-M makes you want to k-word yourself if you’re me
I'll take a look at Miles Reid's book
So don’t do that
I would suggest undergrad comm alg by miles reid
And also these lecture notes
it gives some geometrical intuition too
I am not so used to studying using lecture notes
Most of them have few exercises from my experience
chm might suggest matsumura but I think it's bad as a first exposure
I actually wasn’t
ah okay
And I learn a lot from doing a bunch of explicit computations and exercises
Since I don’t think TTerra has the necessary algebra background??
yeah haha
my algebra background is garbo, the course im in sucks balls lol
If that’s it, maybe try doing the exercises of Hartshorne
that's fine though, I think undergrad comm alg would be a good book at this point
Also
Like I wouldn’t recommend Matsumura if you aren’t at a point you’re very comfortable with tensor products
What would be ''the next step after CA'' you were talking about chair monkey?
I got a bit curious
Matsumura
Or Eisenbud
If you want to read like 800 pages lol
I’m just a Matsumura simp basically haha
It’s a super good book
I mean
My idea was to like
take a topic
and focus mostly on it
for the rest of the year
And I was interested in doing it with algebraic geometry or algebraic topology
maybe eisenbud is going to be my new bible who knows
But yeah, I don't usually mind about really big books
what the fuck, undergrad comm alg doesn't talk about tensor products
at all
I might need to stop recommending this book
I usually read slow and take a months to read the entire thing
and it feels like a journey
okay well I would say this book is perfect if you fear tensor products
because
it doesn't do them
????
Tensors make me sad
I mean I liked everything I read from it
I remember that I tried learning about tensor products a year ago. And this year I tried relearning it and did so much better 😄
Mainly because
Now I got a better feeling of what a universal property is
And how important it is to prove things relating to the tensor product
instead of explicitly giving a construction of it
Which is a pain
It feels so weird when you finally grasp a concept after so much time
Definitely haha
broh wtf
this book is saying a vector field is parallel if its covariant derivative is zero along a curve on a surface
but then it says theres a unique parallel vector field for any curve
as long as the vector field lies in the tangent space at some point of the surface along the curve
i dont buy that
like take a plane as the surface and make a vector field of normals
all different lengths
have some zero vector somewhere
ok
quick question
actually
ill give overview of proof
So im asked to prove f:Z->X and g:Z->Y are continuous iff h:Z->XxY is continuous
I decided to do (<=) first
Assuming h:Z->XxY is continuous. Since XxY with product topology has continuous projection maps p1:XxY->X and p2:XxY->Y. We can take an open set U in X and p1^-1(U) is open in XxY and subsequently h^-1(p1^-1(U)) is open in Z. So an open set in X is open in Z.
Similarly we can take an open set V in Y and p2^-1(V) is open in XxY and subsequently h^-1(p2^-1(V)) is open in Z. So an open set in V is open in Z.
Ill wait for approval on this part before I give the rest
looks fine for that direction. the point is basically that f = p1h, g = p2h, and the composition of continuous maps is continuous
but p1 doesnt take X it takes XxY
My explanation for second implication is handwaving in that I pretty much let T be an open set in XxY, so T is Union of open Ai in X and Bi in Y. So f-1(Ai) and g-1(Bi) are open in Z
Also p1^-1(Ai) and p2^-1(Bi) are both open in X x Y.
So any open T is open composed of open sets which are open in Z, and since their projection mappings are continuous, they correspond to open sets in XxY, So sets in T are open in Z.
QED
Personally I dislike my explanation for the second direction because it isnt clear with notation
And Im sure it isnt perfect at communicating what I want.
but p1 doesnt take X it takes XxY
yes? Was there something wrong with what i wrote?
Yea, so the other direction is less straightforward, but to simplify things a bit, It suffices to check continuity on a basis. i.e. You only have to check continuity for open sets of the form U x V for U, V open in X and Y respectively. Again you'll want to write f = p1h, g = p2h and use continuity of this composition (along with the definition of p1, p2).
is it acceptable to consider a vector field to be a subset of a tangent bundle? or is this abusing notation/structure of bundles (considering the bundle is usually defined as a set containing all the points of a manifold paired individually with the tangent space at that point)
I mean, you can consider the image of a vector field as a particular subset of the tangent bundle I guess
vector fields are injective functions M -> TM so why not 
^ this is what i was thinking, though TM usually is like {(p, v) | p in M, v in T_p M}
right, so for each p instead of considering all v in T_pM, just consider one of em
that's a vector field
ye but the semantics r funky
in programming usually this is easier because you just can do elementOfTangentBundle[1] and get the actual vector
like
when you're dealing with typed data structures
ordered pairs etc
cadr if you want to be lispy about it
hear me out.
the correct term is apparently 'section' of a fiber/tangent bundle
but like
the terminology is harder to feel comfortable using idk
i need to read a lot more topology
Idk, section to me feels like you're taking a slice of the tangent bundle so that's why it's called a section
in haskell i'd have written this as something like
selectorTermThingy :: (PointOnManifold, TangentSpace PointOnManifold) -> Vector (TangentSpace PointOnManifold)```
goofy but w/e
where i guess a tangent bundle would be
type TangentBundle = [(PointOnManifold, TangentSpace PointOnManifold)]```
just feels like i'm doing something wrong calling it a 'subset' of TM
cuz elements of TM are ordered pairs
So are vector fields?
mmh, yes
gristle your are actually getting to something interesting here
Do you know anything about dependent types?
hardly, i used to
ah okay
Well the tangent bundle is the type family (x : M) -> T_x M
the total space (the actual space you're thinking of) is the dependent pair type Σ_x T_x M
So an element is a point in M and a point in the tangent space
UGCT!!!!!
GO THE FUCK TO BED
UGCT!,!,!
TOP TERRA
anyways gristle
A section of the bundle is a dependent function in Π_x T_x M
So to each point x it assigns a tangent vector
Hott makes a precise analogy between type families and fibrations
ah
(the tangent bundle is a fiber bundle, so in particular a fibration)
Warning: I didn't actually read the previous discussion

Thank you I haven't been drinking very much
what's the sigma thing
It's the dependent pair type
So say you have a type family
What is this
Well fix a base type A
Then a type family on A is a function A -> Type
One example is lists
If A = Type then List : A -> Type
This is like, parametric types
But there's also stuff like vectors of a fixed length
ye i saw those in idris
We have a type family Vect : N -> Type where Vect n is the length n vectors of ints
nice!
And then finally, if A = M is a manifold we have a type family T : M -> Type of tangent spaces
Does this make sense?
So if you have a type family P : A -> Type, we can consider pairs (a, x) where a : A and x : P a. The type of the second coordinate depends on the type of the first, so this isn't just a product type. It's the dependent pair type, Σ_{a : A} P a
BTW, I'm actually TAing a course on PL theory/dependent types/coq right now :)
the 'type families' remind me of type constructors
Yeah, that's when the base type A is the universe of all types
Like the list example
aha
But here the base can be something more interesting, like the type of natural numbers
(like in the vector example)
ye
oooooo
i get this now ok
yep that's very straightforward now that the notation is clear
awesome
i would like to learn coq proper
maybe in a few months or so i will devote some time to this
can you recommend an introduction to this type stuff you're talking about?
is that homotopy type theory?
Yup
yooo what kinda backlog did I miss out on here
Bundles w/ Haskell and dependent types, that's something I didn't expect
just realized this text specified very explicitly 'a vector field X on M has X(P) in T_P M for every P in M'
smh

how can one prove that the exterior derivative of an n-form can be written as such in a chart?
You use einstein summation, right?
yes
The underlying property used here is that for smooth functions $f \in C^\infty(U)$, we have $d(f dx^I) = (\partial_i f) dx^i \wedge dx^I$, when the $x_i$ are local coordinates. Is your question why that holds?
lux
Well, how have you defined the exterior derivative?
Because I know that as one possible definition
Consider a Hermitian manifold $M$ with complex structure $J$, and let $\omega,\eta$ be $1$-forms such that $J\omega=\eta$. Is there then a complex coordinate $\zeta$ and a real function $u$ such that $\omega+i\eta=e^u \dd{\zeta}$? This is what I guess a paper uses, but I'm not sure how to see this.
I am not very familiar with complex manifolds in general.
In that case I would give the hint that $f dx^I = f \wedge dx^I$
lux
since wedging with a 0 form is literally just multiplication
gustavn64
this follows from 4. axiom?
What you want follows to part from axiom 4, yes. The fact that wedging a 0-form is multiplication follows from the definition of the wedge product.
Although I'm not sure why we need the lie derivative in axiom 2 instead of just saying df(X) = X(f)
but I may forget something stupid, I'm not that solid in the foundations
If B is dense in A, does this mean that B must be open in A?
are the rational numbers an open subset of the real numbers?
(the answer is "no")
Isn’t it the case that B must never be open. Because some neighborhood of B contains some point in A.
Or is there some counter example
If B and A aren’t equal
R\{0} is open and dense in R
Nvm it should be B can never be closed
see pins in #advanced-analysis 
related to my question yesterday,I managed to prove it for holonomic basis,i.e. the coordinate induced basis on the vector fields
does anyone have ideas how to extend the proof for non-coordinate induced basis?
trying to rpove equivalence of these 2 definitions
Not A Horse
I was asked to show that if ${\tau_i }$ is a family of topologies on X, then \cap \tau_i$ is a topology on X, then $\cap \tau_i$ is also a topology on X. The correct solution is to let $U_k \in \cap \tau_i$, for all k. Then argue that $U_k \in \tau_i$, for each i and k. Then conclude that $\cup U_k \in \cap \tau_i$. But my question was whether this is necessary. After all, if we start by saying "let $U_k$ be in $\cap \tau_i$, for all k, wouldn't the union over all k of $U_k$ be in $\cap \tau_i$ right away?
you didnt close your first $
whoooops
kirafa
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I guess what I'm saying is that I don't see why we would need to use the fact that the each of the individuals tau's are topologies on X
isn't it true that if $A_i \in B$, for all i, then $\cup A_i \in B$?
kirafa
sorry, i meant to write $A_i \subseteq B$
kirafa
really? Can't we just specialize to the case where $A_i = U_k$ and $B = \cap \tau_i$?
kirafa
oh i think i'm starting to see the problem
we assumed that $U_k \subseteq \cap \tau_i$, but we're tying to show that $\cup U_k \in \cap \tau_i$ right?
kirafa
oh right
i'll try it again and see where the reasoning fails - thank you for your help
oh, i see what you mean now
i see the mistake i made
they're elements, not subsets
i was getting it confused because the elements themselves are sets
ok, i see it clearly now, thanks again
So what is your specific question? I'm not sure what you mean by „non-coordinate induced basis“
Probably means how to do it globally when you don't have a coordinate basis available, i.e. you're not in a single chart
in that case: partition of unity time my d00d
I would be confused if we needed such heavy machinery for an equality like that
especially since that is determined purely locally
I have a short, dumb question: Q is dense in R, right?
At least that would intuitively make sense to me.
Okay, thanks. Does this also imply Q is open?
Since $closure(Q) \neq Q$?
veryhappyperson
Not closed does NOT generally imply open
in fact you can make R from Q by cauchy sequences
Q is closed in itself
not exactly
there are other completions of Q depending on the choice of absolute value
at least Ostrowski's theorem shows these are the only possibilities
yeah it's not too difficult either and is actually a bit more general
you can relax it to something called a generalized absolute value and even then it still holds
I quite like that name, "OstrowskI"
May I ask another stupid question? A dense subset, A, of a metric space, S, can only be closed if S=A. Is this correct?
Thanks.
wait wdym
yes
we have a legend here
what I mean is that I used that $X=\partial_i$
ProphetX
what if I would use $X^{i} \partial_{i}$
ProphetX
the issue is then that the computation gets so tedious I get lost 😦
Yeah, I figured. I don't know the solution, and I cannot concentrate today
it's a good exercise tho, perhaps I find time to think about it 🙂
this „omit then commutator“ formula is actually one of the things I never really looked at in my DiffGeo class
shame on me I guess
yeah no worries,let me know if you have any idea how to do it 😅 thanks! 😄
I was looking at the solution to the following question:
Now intuitively, I would think that the map from the cone to X is the same as the homotopy map so that means they are equivalent. Am I correct in my deduction?
Since I assume that the equivalence class [z,0] will be sent to a single point in X
note that the explicit definition is additive because every operation used distributes
And if I see it correctly the you can show that it also commutes with the C^\infty(M)-multiplication
(as does every proper differential form, since its values are defined pointwise)
yes showing how it commutes with c^infty multiplication is what is truggle with
diff forms for sure do cause they're c^infty multilinear
but why wedge
I'm confused because the question misses a verb, I know what wedge means :)
We can't wedge vector fields like we can multiply them with functions so that doesn't type check for me
i meant if i proved the equivalence on exterior derivative for partial_i partila_j
to prove for x^i x^j partial_i partial_j
that would mean i could pull out x^i x^j
and apply proof from before right?
(soryr for sloppy formulation,im physicist)
Well our d\omega is then a C^\infty(U)-linear combination of the d\omega-values at the basis vector fields \partial_i (for each argument), so yes
@summer jolt yeah, a map on the quotient is equivalent to a map on S^1 x I thats omega on S^1 x 0 and constant on S^1 x 1
right so what I have to prove is multilinearity of d omega
(Sorry about interrupting its a short aside so i think its not too intrusive :p)
I don't fully grasp how to solve it yet but it's a powerful way of resucing questions of d\omega to questions of the values at the basis vector fields
we know that it maps forms to higher forms but we gotta check multilinearity
thats not an axiom is it?
Well technically we would have to check that d\omega is actually such a differential form as claimed in the codomain
Which may be half of the work here, but is nontrivial
*as claimed by saying that the codomain is \Omega^{foo}
yes exactly
I'm too drunk to want to look up the wedge formula I'm afraid.
I just remember that it was a bit complicated.
it's ok dw,i'll try to check it,it's for certain a good exercise 😅
i didn't find the whole proof in any dm book so far yet 
I feel like there must be an elegant way tho
yeah there must be
computing/brute forcing is hell
also another trivila question mb but i can't see
how can one prove uniqueness of such a map? even if we prove equivalence of these 2 definitions
The uniqueness from the axioms follows once you know that you can write every differential form as a finite linear combination of terms $f dg_1 \wedge \dots \wedge dg_k$
Lartomato
Because then: The product rule axiom implies that you can calculate the exterior derivative by calculating the exterior derivative of all the factors f, dg_1,... ,dg_n; the axiom that d^2 = 0 tells you that the exterior derivative of the dg_1,...,dg_n is zero; and the exterior derivative of f follows from the last axiom
The fact that you can write every differential form in this way can, for example, be proven with partitions of unity over coordinate sets, if you understand that locally every differential form is something like f dx_1 \wedge ... \wedge dx_n
how can one prove that? can you give a reference for the proof with partitions of unity please?
was is the relation between orientability of a surface and torsion?
do you know about the orientation double cover?
hm, I'm not sure this is exactly right but it's certainly relevant
basically if you have a manifold M you can construct a double cover it whose points are pairs of a point in M and a local orientation at that point
this is connected iff M is not orientable
this does connect orientability -> covering spaces -> pi1(X) but it's not quite right
I think for compact manifolds you can do some stuff with Z-orientability as defined in Hatcher
aha! see Corollary 3.28 in hatcher
@pale sky
no whats that?
this
but I think this statement from hatcher is more relevant
haha
exactly what i was looking for
nice!
tyty ❤️
what about orientation and torsion of a connection in a vector bundle over M 
I have a question related too. I don’t understand the relationship between two definitions of orientation. One is defined in differential geometry, each x from M define an orientation on T_x M . The another one is defined in algebraic topology, like each x from M choose a generator of H_n( M, M \ {x},Z) or something. Those two definitions, are they equivalent? How?
Never mind I need to learn algebraic topology. Someone told me that Hn(M, M \ {x}, Z) is isomorphic to Z . I don’t know that.😂
how exactly do you motivate the Urysohn lemma and its proof?
so far I've seen it used in the proof that all compact manifolds can be embedded in R^n
but like, I wouldn't have known to ask that question about normal spaces
if you know what I mean
i think munkres literally just says "thisll be needed for the urysohn metrization theorem"
and doesnt elaborate more
even though he gives a full chapter
i agree, im just explaining the munkres approach
walking backwards from the urysohn metrization theorem feels reasonable
also lol are point-set-topologists an actual thing?
Wait, you guys think urysohn lemma is unmotivated?
do you know a motivation? :o
I don't know what you would take as a good motivation, but it feels apparently "right"
And I think there are moments where you have wondered, "what is a condition under which I can have a continuous function that distinguishes these sets?" And urysohn comes to the rescue
I guess so
well ty 
I was trying to find proof for this in my textbook, but didn't find any; does anyone have proof for this: \
For any oriented link $S^{3}$ is a closure $\hat{\xi}$ of some beginning $\xi$ to a braid group $B_{n}$, for some $n$ and the oriented links $\hat{\xi}$ and $\hat{\eta}$ are equivalent if $\xi$ and $\eta$ differ by a sequence of Markov moves of: \
\begin{itemize}
\item[i{,}-] Changing an element of $B_{n}$ to a conjugate element in the group.
\item[ii{,}-] Changing $\xi \in B_{n}$ to $i_{n}(\xi) , \sigma_{n}^{\pm 1} \in B_{n , + , 1}~\text{for}~i_{n} : B_{n} \to B_{n , + , 1}$, such that it's the inclusion.
\end{itemize}
tryme
The book just blankly says that hence if you define $w : B_{n} \to \bZ$ it will be a homomorphism defined by $w(\sigma_{i}) = 1$...
tryme
Heya, diff.geo problem here I believe, on the side of geodesics
I am trying to find a way to compute the distance between two points on a sphere along the sphere (context : two points on the earth)
I've searched up on the true circle method but I conjectured another method but it's not working out, could anyone let me where the gap is in my thinking
I took my two coordinates (in form of longitude & latitude), converted them into cartesian form
Expressed those two points as position vectors, then found angle between those two points using the dot product.
After that I used arclength formula for circles
still getting ~1000KM off for some reason
without knowing your computations all we can say is "check your computations"
have checked numerous times but still not sure where the problem lies
😔
the two position vectors both have length 6378 so they should be correct
true distance should be 5500km
not sure what I'm doing wrong.
I just tried the geogebra function to find the lengths
There is some fault in the vectors because my calculated length is not wrong
Maybe it's converting from longitude and latitude into spherical coordinates, do you have any idea about that?
oh my goodness, I was right, I was converting the angles wrong, I'm gonna go have a cry, thank you champ
So intuitively, why does it matter that compactness requires every cover to have a finite subcover?
This is what we started with in terms of motivation
How'd it jump from there to here
I get the idea of finite subcovers. I'm just trying to wonder why it needs to be true for every possible cover
I guess that's what is throwing me off
Well, I guess why does the provisional definition imply that it needs to be true for every cover?
Because isn't a family of open balls just one cover?
Here it does
So is the family of all open balls all the open covers of A?
Okay, that's what I was getting at. The book primarily focuses on metric spaces, so I'm not too concerned about the general sense just yet.
Is this kind of a similar idea to how the balls of a metric topology form a basis? So although there may be other open sets, just considering the balls is sufficient enough.
Okay beautiful. I just wanted to make sure. Thank you for sticking through it with me. I wasn't explaining my thought process too well :p
Yea, I agree with that
It is very easy to show the second claim is always true.
A is it's own cover
Not very interesting
True. But there are simplistic covers that don't tell us much
And it doesn't necessarily need to be true that the family of covers in inside A, just that A is in the family of covers
So as you mentioned, the topological space is a perfect example
Q for instance
Now is Q compact?
If not, what would be the thing that makes it not work?
Oh, a subset is closed iff it is compact
I forgot about that
What was it?
Oh, so it's specific to R?
Probably because of completeness I am guessing
as a hint, you can use an open cover for R that has no finite subcover to do the same thing as for Q to prove it's not compact, try drawing a picture and try covering it up
Ah, (-n, n)!
That union of sets is R, but there is no finite sub cover of the union of (-n, n) that contains R
yeah looks like it works to me, I had a different one in mind
What was yours?
Ah, yeah that works too!
well, maybe a few more than 1 needs to be removed but you get the picture lol
I sure do. Thank you you two
are the p-adics compact? 😛
Are we referring to $\mathbb{Q}_p$? If so, I don't know much about this extension
dackid
But if we are referring to the p-adic absolute values, absolutely not.
The union of (0,n) spans R_+ which contains all the possible values of p-adic distance in Q. But once you remove one, you lose part of that set
So (0,n) does not have a finite subcover for the p-adic distance
ah, what are the open sets?
like, in particular how do you know the specific radii corresponds to open sets of an open cover?
Okay sure. P-adic distance is a metric. So we can just take balls around the point 0, given by $B_n(0)$
dackid
So $\mathbb{Q}\subseteq\bigcup_{n\in \N} (0,n)$
dackid
Ayy, I did it right.
And the p-adic distance maps Q into Q
So I think it just ends up being an iteration of the same question 🤔
Actually I have a class on compactness today. Let me do that so I can clear things up. I think I see how to solve the problem, I just need to be careful
"Prove that the set of isolated points of a countable complete metric space X forms a dense subset of X." What is an isolated point? A point which has no adherent points maybe?
Or is an isolated point just a set with just one element in it?
x is isolated if it's the only point in some open set
Wait, how is that supposed to be open then?
(0,0)?
Since it is the only point, the set must be a single point set, right? But how can such a set ever be open?
consider an example, X = {0, 1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ...} with the subspace topology inherited from R. 0 is not isolated, but all other points are
e.g., 1 is isolated, since {1} is open in X. indeed, {1} = X \cap (1/2,3/2)
or in any discrete space, all points are isolated!
I still don't get how {1} can be open in any metric space? If I recall correctly, a set is open if interior of the set is equal to the set. And a point is an interior point if I can draw a ball centered at that point with some radius bigger than 0 and still be within that set. How does this work for {1}?
I am sorry if I am asking stupid questions, but I just don't get it.
Since you are dealing with metric spaces, are you familiar with the discrete metric?
That was the metric where the distance between two points was either 0 or 1, right?
Yep. And it is only 0 if they are equal
Choose a point $x\in X$. Then $B_r(x)={x}$ if $r\leq 1$.
dackid
Since this is true for every point in X, every point is an isolated point.
Thanks, that I get now. So a "single point set" is open in the discrete space. This does not apply for the "usual" metric space though, right?
Recall $B_r(x):={y\in X| d(x, y)<r}$
dackid
Nope, it does not
So an isolated point can only exist in a discrete metric? Because how is such a set then supposed to be open?
I'll take that back because it seems you are trying to prove something like that :p
Not necessarily no
It is just not generally true for all metric spaces
btw the example i gave is something you should keep in mind for your problem.
its just that connected sets have no isolated points.
R is connected, hence no isolated points
Okay, thanks guys, I will try the problem now.
it doesnt really work in R either
consider [0, 1)
well theres a relationship in that "closed" means "complement of open"
but the closedness of a given set has no relation to whether that set itself is open
So an isolated point of a metric space is the only point in an open subset of the metric space, or am I getting this wrong again?
It doesn't state it in my book -.-
a point x is isolated if {x} is open
so yes, if there exists an open subset of the space which contains only x
Okay, thanks again.
Remember how I said I had a class on compactness today? Well, the zoom servers decided to shut down 5 minutes before it started -_-
Nice.
I am sorry to annoy you again but could you give me an example for a metric space that is countable and complete?
It just says: "Prove that the set of isolated points of a countable complete metric space X forms a dense subset of X."
So I guess it may be finite?
Yes.
Does such a thing also exist for d(x,y)=|x-y|? I am still having troubles dealing with the discrete metric.
Thank you. I didn't even now Z was complete, honestly.
Well, now I know that all of them must converge, since it is complete xD
But proofs are hard -.-
Topology is a proofs course 🤷
I like reading proofs. Writing them is another thing xD
I don't think the class cares too much about your ability to read proofs 😆
Try to prove this. If you have a cauchy sequence in $(\Z,|\cdot|)$, then it is eventually constant.
dackid
That's the key piece to what slimvesus mentioned earlier
Thanks, give me a day or two, I might have figured it out by then xD I will focus on the problem I sent though first, since the next Chapter is called "The real line" and I think that involves the proof of R being complete. I might be able to copy something then.
$\lim_{m,n \to \infty} d(x_n,x_m)=0$?
veryhappyperson
Gonna wanna epsilon this to see what's going on
So, for each $\epsilon >0$, there exists an $N$ such that $d(x_n,x_m) < \epsilon$ for all $n,m \geq N$.
veryhappyperson
The metric could be anything from $[0,\infty)$
veryhappyperson
If this is true for any epsilon, what must d(x_n,x_m) be when epsilon is, say, 1/2?
Sure, but what must d(x_n,x_m) be equal to?
so 0
Well because there are no decimals in Z xD But I don't think that is what you want to hear.
It's a good deduction though
That is is cauchy, because the above mentioned limit is 0
That was the original assumption
Remember, this was what we were trying to do originally
Sure can! Because the term it converges to is in the sequence (x_n)
And it is already assumed that $(x_n)\subseteq \Z$
dackid
Okay, but why did we conclude it must be constant again?
Because for $\epsilon \leq 1$ there is an N so that $d(x_n,x_m)=0$ for all $n,m\geq N$
dackid
I think I get it. Because of the definition, I can pick epsilon < 1, and then it must be constant, right?
For sure. The epsilon just gives you an explicit understanding of what is happening
Okay, much thanks again.
Now the final take away is every Cauchy sequence is eventually constant, and so it converges
What does that tell us about the space $(\Z,|\cdot|)$
dackid
Only in a complete space though, right?
That is the definition of a complete space
A space is complete if every Cauchy sequence is convergent
So yeah, $(\Z,|\cdot|)$ is a complete space
dackid
Sorry if I butted in slimvesus. I learned this stuff recently so I kinda got a bit excited that I actually knew how to help with the problem. :P
Doesn't this then also imply that Z is closed in R, since Z is complete?
Well, is it?
-.-
Also, how do you know $\R$ is complete? Wasn't that thing you said you were all gonna prove later on.
dackid
Yes, but it was stated in this chapter, and they said they were going to proof it later xD
And if I may bother you one last time (for today), for "Prove that the set of isolated points of a countable complete metric space X forms a dense subset of X.", do I go the usual way of trying to proof Closure(set of isolated points)=X or should I try that differently?
Sounds like a solid plan
Okay, thanks.
Hey I'm learning about One-Parameter Groups of Transformations on smooth manifolds. I have a question about "infinitesimal generators" of such maps. My book mentions this
My question is the infinitesimal generation of a transformation uniquely defined?
Because it seems to me that the condition requires to fix the value of the vector field at t=0 but not elsewhere
X is uniquely defined, although i'm not sure i understand your question. the vector field isn't a function of t so i'm not sure what you mean by "fix the value of the vector field at t = 0."
what I meant was that the tangent vector that we "pick" at x is the tangent vector to the curve passing through that point
However, I don't understand how that condition alone uniquely defines the vector field.
given a one-parameter group of diffeomorphisms $\varphi\colon M \times \mathbb{R} \to M$, and a point $x\in M$, write $\varphi_x(t) = \varphi(x,t)$. then $t\mapsto \varphi_x(t)$ is a smooth curve in $M$ passing through $x$ at $t = 0$, so it defines a tangent vector, call it $X_x$, in $T_xM$, obtained by differentiating the curve $t\mapsto \varphi_x(t)$ at $t=0$
Buncho Wolves
I think that your confusion might be that X is defined by setting X_x = (\varphi_x)'_0 for all x, not just doing it for a single x in M
Ah I see! Yes, thanks that makes sense now.
BTW any idea why is this called the "infinitesimal generator"?
from lee's ISM, page 214-215: The term “infinitesimal generator” comes from the following picture: in a smooth chart, a good approximation to an integral curve can be obtained by composing many small straight-line motions, with the direction and length of each motion determined by the value of the vector field at the point arrived at in the previous step. Intuitively, one can think of a flow as a sequence of infinitely many infinitesimally small linear steps.
didn't you need to do like symplectic geo or sometihng
i am doing symplectic geo!
also i like jjk
i figured out what to do my homework on
im going to fill in some of the details on the computations my prof did
since i didnt get them the first time around, and theyre kind of related to my presentation
sounds "fun"!
if i could plug myself into diff geo computations all day long I would 😌
ohhhhhhhhhh
:himb: is from the end scene
i think the dancing in the ending is based off of one of the manga extra chapters that came out around the time the anime started airing

Let $\alpha:I\to S^2$ be a path. Supposeαis not surjective. Show that $\alpha$ is path homotopic to an injective $\beta:I\to S^2$
亜城木 夢叶
maybe a starting point is by noting that any path on S^2 that misses a point becomes a path in the plane
via stereographic projection from any point on S^2 not hit by alpha
buncho wolves is a tterra alt
🤔
Let X be an affine variety and Y a constructible subset. How could I show that Y contains an open set which is dense in the closure of Y?
Pretty much yeah
There's a typo in the exact sequence
The coefficient rings 🥪 and 🍔 are swapped in a couple places
You should email your prof and let them know
anyways, this is a pretty easy application of the universal coefficient theorem for cohomology. Check out Hatcher's book for more info
https://mathoverflow.net/a/296605 - may be being a bit stupid but I can't see where \overline \Omega = \R is actually used in the proof
doesn't seem to impact the proof at all to just cut it out, since you're mainly working on the complement of Omega
There's a lot of things I don't get there; why can we assume in the first place that \Omega is a finite union of open intervals
ah fuck okay it's just annoying notation nevermind
" Since for every x∈X∩(a,b) there is a sequence xi→x, xi≠x such that f(n)(xi)=0" This sentence after formula (3), maybe this is where density is used? I've not quite yet understood where that sequence is coming from
Ah, okay, from X cap E_n having nonempty interior in X
i conclude that i have no idea where density is used
I also cannot figure it out lol
As a side note
Yeah nvm I don't see why its relevant lol
ye thanks, thought I was missing something obvious. agree there's a lot of clunk
yea it's just not needed lol
don't get why they did this cos you can split up intervals to make it a countable union eveni f it can be written as a finite one [in fact I don't even think the fact it can be a countable union matters either]
it doesnt idk wtf is notation there lol
what was the q
this
i think they read the quantifiers the wrong way around
someone posts literally anything
HEY THIS DOESN'T BELONG HERE THIS IS A TRIVIAL QUESTION GET OUT!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
lmao where's this
i love mathematicians
oh my god i love how angry he is
OP ran over his cat and this is his revenge
i don't know why i made this
Still wondering about this. Someone save me
this is why i dont stackexchange
i dont want to get yelled at for poor pedagogy standards in an answer i gave 4 fucking years ago
lmao
that blog looks really extremely cringe to me
"haha, having fun with math things? gamifying the concept of explaining math to others? absurd. to me, math is suffering"
Kowalski, analysis
honestly
i can't help but read that paragraph in a heavy french accent
like, this post, is just so garbage
mathoverflow is a platform on the internet; every platform on the internet needs some sort of guidelines and rules, if it wants to make the experience for the user nice; therefore, it may be worthwhile for the people who care about this platform to sometimes debate about these guidelines
idk sorry i'm cringing
okay but like
MO def is toxic with the "is this a good fit" stuff
and it is rarely constructive
and MO is like dying as a result of it lol
as in, you think they take it too seriously? maybe, i'm not involved enough i suppose
MO says it's about research maths but isn't it more >= graduate-level maths generally? The question I linked is nowhere near research level lol
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/231078/recent-observation-of-gravitational-waves but asking "should this question about gravitational waves be on MO?" seems like a very reasonable thing to do
i've always taken it as "if you're a post-graduate level math-person, and you're wondering about a question which feels very specific or difficult to you, then MO is an okay fit"
This is not even the case
yeah this is my understanding too
its often like a pissing competition
of course you can't ever perfectly know if your super sophisticated question can be solved with bebby's first arithmetic, or the other way round
about what is "good enough" for MO
which leads to very few people ever feeling comfortable posting a Q there instead of MSE
no true scotsman etc.
Certainly there are "graduate level" questions that would be laughed off of MO
i do admit, i always find MO scary to post in, but i've never had any personal bad experiences there
Yeah I find MSE scary enough I dread to think in a few years where my questions might warrant posting to MO :p
i find that if you explain where you're coming from, or why you feel like your question is complicated to you, then you usually get understanding answers
that may not always be the case tho i'm sure; like all communities, it's made up of people, and math people are really unpleasant sometimes
if you havent worked on a problem for at least 60 hours and cross referenced 10 different textbooks and skimmed 300 pages of arxiv
youre not allowed to post it on MO
thems the breaks
.pin
the end goal is to make it so that only literal open problems can be asked on MO
and drive humanity's mathematics knowledge forward through the incentive structure that is MO reputation
The end goal is to define all of mathematics as at the level of a fist year calculus class
someone put RH on mathoverflow and bounty it
ill reply that it seems at the level of a first year calculus course
that is so funny
We will eventually understand that all of known mathematics is "first year calculus" and that open problems are simply an infinitesimally fattened version of first year calculus

are all specializations modeled by DVRs?
i.e. if I have a scheme X
and a point x which specializes to y
then is there a DVR R and a map Spec R --> X such that the generic point gets mapped to x
and the maximal ideal gets mapped to y
hmm okay the stacks projects says that it is true if we assume that X is locally noetherian
Hi everyone, can somebody help me with scheme theory? I have an elementary doubt
This is much more on-topic here than it was in #category-theory, so I’m going to follow up on the conversation I had a couple days ago on equivariant convolutional neural networks here. An introductory reading list for equivariant DL
@marsh forge @limpid vault @gritty widget
Practical Papers:
Group Equivariant Convolutional Neural Networks https://arxiv.org/abs/1602.07576
Probabilistic symmetries and invariant neural networks https://arxiv.org/abs/2004.05154
A Group-Theoretic Framework for Data Augmentation https://arxiv.org/abs/1907.10905
Gauge Equivariant Convolutional Networks and the Icosahedral CNN: https://arxiv.org/abs/1902.04615
Generalizing Convolutional Neural Networks for Equivariance to Lie Groups on Arbitrary Continuous Data: https://arxiv.org/abs/2002.12880
ML Theory:
On the Generalization of Equivariance and Convolution in Neural Networks to the Action of Compact Groups https://arxiv.org/abs/1802.03690
A General Theory of Equivariant CNNs on Homogeneous Spaces https://arxiv.org/abs/1811.02017
Theoretical Aspects of Group Equivariant Neural Networks https://arxiv.org/abs/2004.05154
Intertwiners between Induced Representations https://arxiv.org/abs/1803.10743
On the Benefits of Invariance in Neural Networks https://arxiv.org/abs/2005.00178
Transformers:
SE(3)-Transformers: 3D Roto-Translation Equivariant Attention Networks https://arxiv.org/abs/2006.10503
LieTransformer: Equivariant self-attention for Lie Groups https://arxiv.org/abs/2012.10885
Group Equivariant Stand-Alone Self-Attention For Vision https://arxiv.org/abs/2010.00977
Prior convo: #category-theory message
We introduce Group equivariant Convolutional Neural Networks (G-CNNs), a
natural generalization of convolutional neural networks that reduces sample
complexity by exploiting symmetries. G-CNNs use...
Group equivariant neural networks have been explored in the past few years
and are interesting from theoretical and practical standpoints. They leverage
concepts from group representation theory,...
Data augmentation is a widely used trick when training deep neural networks:
in addition to the original data, properly transformed data are also added to
the training set. However, to the best of...
The principle of equivariance to symmetry transformations enables a
theoretically grounded approach to neural network architecture design.
Equivariant networks have shown excellent performance and...
The translation equivariance of convolutional layers enables convolutional
neural networks to generalize well on image problems. While translation
equivariance provides a powerful inductive bias...
oh boy a lot of reasing
show us your doubts
i think in general they're modeled by henselisations of local rings
but over the separable closure it aligns with a dvr
or maybe the other way
It’s definitely not necessary to read it all, but I had this reading list lying around and I figured I might as well be thorough
The first and last paper under “theory” are the most interesting ones, IMO.
Hahaha no its a good thing, thank you
Since we can find an affine subset U defined by a noetherian ring A containing y (x also since y belongs to the closure of {x}) therefore we can assume that X is an noetherian affine scheme.
I remember that local noetherian rings are DVRs
So could we just take R to be the localization of A/p at the point q/p
Local Noetherian rings are not DVRs
You need to enforce more conditions like being a domain and having principal maximal ideal or being integrallt closed and dim 1
Oh then forget what I said😂,I would like to know the answer either
I mean I agree
Definitely restrict to looking at affine Noetherian schemes
But idk what to do from there
Me neither...
a noetherian valuation ring is a dvr right? bc finitely generated ideals are principal, so it's a PID?
Yes DVR implies PID
this is true
i do not see how it is relevant to my question
I'm asking about valuation rings in general
Btw Hartshorne seems difficult to me. Lots of people say that it shouldn’t be, but I still need to ask :Is there any easier materials to read? What books do you read?
Finally! I thought that something was wrong about me, about my brain.
no absolutely not
I have cried in the math lounge at my school doing hartshorne problems
@tough imp is a hartshorne master and he will tell you it is a very hard and frustrating book
I see. Any other recommendations?
Lmao
I am@not a master
I am simply a victim
Anyway Hartshorne very hard
Makes me want to cry sometimes but instead I scream into my pillow
If you’re still on chapter II maybe check out Algebraic Geometry I by Görtz and Wedhorn
It doesn’t touch cohomology but is pretty thorough on Schemes
It’s also a lot more functorial which is eventually the true path and super useful
But it could be a bit too abstract if you’re starting out, but it does work it’s way up to that
Besides that there’s this other book I haven’t personally used but
A book by Bosch, I think it might just be called Algebraic Geometry
It seems pretty good
😂😂
This was a real question tho
If it’s like II.5 or II.6 for example those were insanely hard sections for me
I think II.6 is pretty much everyone’s hardest section
It’s a topological space living over your space (meaning it has a map to the space, call this space X) such that this map (think of it as a projection) looks like the projection map X x F locally
So depending on what kind of bundle you talk about what F is here is a bit different
But let’s just say F is a topological space right now, maybe the real line then you have this map X x F -> X which just projects the first coordinate
Think of X as like some blob, then X x F looks like this blob but like as a cylinder above it and the projection map just squashes it
This isn’t the greatest photo, I couldn’t find a good one, but look at the top left
The base space X is like that circle on the bottom, then X x F sits above it, it looks like a bunch of copies of X stacked on top of each other right? You have a real line sitting over every point of X if F is the real line
So a bundle is something which locally looks like this, we call this kind of a bundle the “trivial bundle” because it’s well... the simplest one
So now more generally we’ll say that B is a bundle over X if we have this map f:B -> X such that
There’s an open cover of X by sets U_i such that
f^-1(U_i) is homeomorphic to U_i x F in such a way that this triangle commutes
The fact that this triangle commutes says that doing the map f from f^-1(U_i) actually behaves like the projection from U_i x F to U_i
So over U_i, B looks like the trivial bundle over U_i
The different words “vector, fiber, etc” basically tell you what F is
If it’s a vector bundle then F is a (real) vector space
For a fiber bundle I think there’s no conditions
So the mapping from $f^{-1}(U_i \to U_i)$ is what?
KingArthur
It’s just f
Because the other thing is basically projection
Restricted to f^-1(U_i)
But the other thing is
When you stipulate a certain kind of bundle you might also want these identifications of f^-1(U_i) to U_i x F to play nice
So have you seen a manifold?
Like a smooth manifold or w/e
I'm in intro topology and sadly no
with respect to the differential structure of R^n
And what this means is like
Given a point on your manifold it might live in these two patches
Which youve identified with some open subset of R^n
You want to make sense of differentiable functions near x
So identifying a nbd of x with R^n we can kinda do that right?
We know what a differentiable function is on R^n
The problem is what if you had a function defined near x and under one identification to R^n it was differentiable
And for a different one it wasn’t?
We don’t want that, so we enforce that all these various identifications of patches of our manifold to open sets in R^n sort of “smoothly vary”
Aka it respects the differential structure on R^n
This is just fancy talk to say that no matter what identification you use, something will always be either differentiable, or not differentiable
So the reason I brought that up is let’s say you wanted a vector bundle B
You’ve identified lots of patches f^-1(U_i) with U_i x F
But maybe we want those to be sort of compatible in some sense
So I think you might want to enforce some extra conditions on the nature of those homeomorphisms, but i don’t quite remember lol
Point is though, if you zoom in on X, a whatever bundle over X is something with a map to X which looks like the projection X x F -> X
i think you can do this with induction 🤔
base case is easy
and then i think a 2n-gon is the connected sum of a 2(n-1)-gon and a 2-gon
not sure tho
don't even know how to write this formally
you dont need induction
think simple
maybe if you want some motivation what if it wasnt compact what does that tell you about the polygon ...
solution: ||it's a quotient of a compact surface||






