#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 212 of 1
Why does that mean every set is open?
yes, sorry
(by definition)
So unions of open sets are open right?
The proof is a cute exercise
Oh, is that what discrete means in this scenario?
dont tell them
Yup
Yes, fully agree
discrete topology = every subset is open
sham gave you one of the two things you need to notice to prove the claim
the other is the important one tho
So since a metric space is a topological space, there must be a collection of open sets contained in X.
But all possible subsets are finite, so the only option is that the finite subsets are open. 🤔
probably better for your mental health 
my sympgeo prof is a very nice person so i think i'l just ask her 
So wait, does that mean a finite metric space is just a collection of isolated points?
Yeah
If you just have finitely many points, there's always going to be some ball around every point that only contains the point itself
Ohhh, that's all there is too it. 😆
I was worried I couldn't jump to that conclusion, but it makes perfect sense
Yup yup; if you have a well-defined notion of "distance", you can always just choose a ball around a point which is smaller than all the distances between all the finitely many points
It's pretty intuitive I feel
one tier below negi
Since their are only a finite number of distances for a given metric, so just choose the radius of the ball to be the minimum of the distances.
also a meme
because he got so mad he left hopf once
because he said the 0 map was nonlinear
and got roasted to hell
Maybe it was just the rest of the server which made hank bearable to me back then
he did??!
But all cringe and toxic
yeah hahaha
omg lol
I feel like you're approaching this question in the wrong direction
didn't hank used to be the name for 
you start with a set (be it finite or infinite), and then you give it a topology
This right here, Eshamrock said this is generally untrue.
or no it had like an egg thingy up top
yes
You could equip the two-point space {a,b} with the topology { {}, {a}, {a,b} }
That's a pretty standard and boring one
Is the left most entry the empty set?
it is generally untrue yes
if you space has closed points it is always true
i.e. if the set X-{x} is open always
better yet, on a set X you can just have {{}, {X}} i think
And yeah, the leftmost set is the empty set, that must be in every topology
best topology
Thats the trivial topology
oh true, the indiscrete boy
yes
Anyway I think your statement is equivalent to a space having closed points
it is
So are you saying this isn't closed?
Sorry, still trying to process
The set {a} in this example is open, but not closed, since its complement {b} is not open
Ohhhhhh!
And you can do the same with every set X that contains more than one element, if you equip it with the indiscrete topology {{}, X}, since then no single point is closed, because the complement of no single point is in this topology
That was the other example that was mentioned earlier
(i like calling this one the "indiscrete" one rather than the "trivial" one because i feel like the discrete topology is also pretty trivial so a priori i wouldn't know which one of the two you mean)
Oh, i think I get it. Because the only sets you are considering in that topology is the empty set and X itself. So $X\setminus {x}$ is not in the topology.
dackid
(assuming X\neq {x})
tru
That's a good thing to point out
but anyway
most nice spaces
have closed points
meaning that X-{x} is always an open set
in this case any finite subset is closed
(and its an if and only if)
any finite subset is closed if and only if X-{x} is open for all x in X
Okay cool. So I had the right idea, just needed to be more specific
(this is another good exercise that is just about the axioms)
So really, it's not that there is a collection of open sets in X that really matters, but it's how the collection is defined.
That makes it far more tangible to understand
Im not sure what you mean exactly
a set doesn't have a topology until you give it one
Oh for sure
and in general the same set can have many many different topologies
and they can be nothing alike
But the way the topologies are different is based on the open sets you consider in the collection
yup, that's the definition of a topology
can you have a strictly finer topology X be homeomorphic to a strictly coarser one?
I don't think about gen top stuff often
(this isn't a question directed at you dackid)
I was really struggling to see how this generalizes. Thank you so much for the help. I feel like I am getting a grasp of general topological spaces now
I feel like this shouldn't be true
We've only been dealing with metric spaces, so it has been difficult seeing how to generalize into topological spaces. This channel has been really helpful for grasping that intuition.
i feel like it should not be true too
and because of that
i am certain it is possible
point set is always bad

metric spaces have nice things like boundedness, and sequences actually work in them
and then you have non metrizable spaces 
non-hausdorff spaces 
lol
Love it
I was actually thinking about this kind of theorem
Like a big recognition principle for topological spaces
Which would generate an example
But I couldn't remember any concretely
The real example is cuter but less wtf
That's a really interesting example. Let's call Xi=:(ℝ,τi).
I think the thing that makes this work is that the continuous map c: X1→X2 induced by the identity (c for coarsening) takes the odd integers and turns them into generic points.
If we look at the T0 quotient, i.e. identify all topologically indistinguishable points, for X1 we get cofinite ℕ plus a point * whose closure is everything in the first case, and in the second case the same with 2ℕ. the map c now descends to *+ℕ → *+2ℕ, but not by multiplication with 2, but by mapping all odd numbers to *, since every odd number, is after coarsening also just a point whose closure is all of X1.
I'm wondering whether that still works when the coarsening induces a bijection on the T0 quotients, i.e. it doesn't introduce any „new“ topologically indistinguishable points.
(If taking T0 quotients is not a functor or I made any other mistake please shoot me)
Wasn't a point whose closure is everything called “generic point” or something?
Yes
found an answer 
Yayyy!
wait I think we're doing this in my bundles class rn
lmfao
I haven't been in a week

dω = K dA apparently

What ist $\mathscr J(M, \omega)$? Isn't that complex structure stuff, and is $(M, \omega)$ a symplectic MF?
lux
$(M, \omega)$ is a symplectic manifold and $\mathcal{J}(M, \omega)$ is the set of $\omega$-compatible almost-complex structures on $(M, \omega)$
(T*Terra, dqⁱ ∧ dpᵢ)
so ya
Ah, almost-complex structure was the word
We just had one lecture about that in our diffgeo course, and it was confusing
it's neat stuff
I didn't realize my class was doing thus
(or at least we were missing context about why that should be of interest. It didn't feel complicated per se)
Would've gone if I knew
the lecture i had earlier was a bit confusing
so im reading around now
i guess it's of interest because it's kind of an intersection between symplectic and kahler complex geometry?
i dont want to make any definite statements since i litrally got introduced to this a few days ago
from my incompetent pov almost complex structures, symplectic, and kähler geometry are all in the same corner, lol
kahler is symplectic
hm maybe i should have said complex geometry
not "almost kahler" 
oh yea i had them backwards
In mathematics, and more specifically in differential geometry, a Hermitian manifold is the complex analogue of a Riemannian manifold. More precisely, a Hermitian manifold is a complex manifold with a smoothly varying Hermitian inner product on each (holomorphic) tangent space. One can also define a Hermitian manifold as a real manifold with a R...

yall really be one semester ahead of me talkin about all this crap
just skip a semester
i want to be a true master.
idk, to me a lot of topics I don't know about feel like „here are arbitrary definitions A, B, C, and D is interesting because it translates between the three“, and I'm sitting here asking myself why I should care about any of these definitions
Usually takes a long time for me to answer that satisfyingly.
im just speedrunning uni
took me years to accept that I should care about char > 0
Are they still optimizing the route, or is it just grinding at that point?
i dont know anymore
but in any case the goal is sufficiently monolithic to keep me focused on actually learning math so
that monolithism is useful in keeping on the right route with such a high workload
sometimes i forget english and just say words too, and i dont realize it until a day or two later
this may be one of those times
I'm low key tempted to take the grad manifolds class at my uni instead of complex analysis next semester but that feels like an unhealthy decision 
that'd be like 6 classes total 
what does the complex analysis course cover
ngl it'd be choice to take manifolds before complex analysis
uuh lemme check

seems super fun
i'd go for that one tbh
the complex analysis course seems like pretty standard material
why not both
is the manifolds class not standard material?
the complex analysis course looks like things you can find in any complex analysis course
but it looks like the class is gonna be a topics class? idk
topics classes are comfy 😌
how hard are grad math courses compared to the ug ones?
depends on a lot of things really
depends on if it's a core/qual or not
same difficulty if you actually meet the prereqs
topics are harder but in terms of grades generally easier unless it's a core sequence
but in terms of grades generally easier
oh wtf
yeah cause they're designed for grad students who are genuinely interested in the stuff
and also professors don't want to grade
grad students taking classes post-quals don't have like
so it's a win-win for everyone
ok that's a win win then lmao
sympgeo topics course is a very pleasant break from what i'm used to
weekly homework in ug courses 
if you wanna get into grad school though i'd recommend just taking core classes since good grades in those reflect better
hmmm
idk how it works at your school but at least at my school complex analysis is a hard sequence and diffgeo is easy
I'm still a freshman so idk the reputations of these classes, ig I should ask around first
although like
I've peeked at the higher level complex analysis course
stuff looks fucking insane
in that case i'd prob recommend the complex analysis class more since diffgeo is usually for more "advanced" students
higher complex analysis 
yeah once you get past the basics complex analysis gets hard really fast
I know half of the basics. What keywords should I be afraid of?
i think subharmonic functions is where things get messy
at that point it's like real analysis but with C instead of R
ew
this horrifying arrow shit is on the front page of the MIT OCW grad cpx anal page 
horrifying??
Just because it has a lot of arrows doesn't mean it's horrifying
rather the opposite, lol
pretty tame compared to all the horrible estimates you do with entire functions
diagrams like this are nice
Cat theory stuff looks like black magic to me idk lol (if that's what this is)
what's that multipage diagram proof...
everything's category theory if you squint hard enough
interesting
ye this gives you the hodge decomposition
how is set theory category theory
just consider the category of sets
Everything is determined by morphisms of the terminal object into other objects
is that a thing? damn
ok for some reason I assumed anything with like 100 arrows and a bunch of words like Hom is cat theory
ok cool, ty guys 
I'll email my advisor and see how he feels about it. He used to teach the course
Anyway… what's that saying? I don't know the context for that picture
are the Ωs Kähler differentials?
was from this site
i've seen this guy's name pop up a bunch in reference lists for sympgeo pages 
Hm, that should be interesting. I only know the Kähler complex from the abstract derivations pov.
I should look into how these two definitions relate.
Guillemin or Campbell?
guillemin
lmao in the notes theres a page on symplectic reduction 
this looks fun
bookmarked
ty
np uwu
we defined a cell complex and the homology groups today in algtop
who is ready for "prove meyer-vietoris" on homework
im so confused
what do you actually do in class
if things like mayer are relegated to hw
if you want you can see my notes from class to get a feel
we sketched a proof of van kampen in class
but like
classification of based covering spaces--homework
weird lol
we did all of the "certain actions induce covering spaces and they relate to fundamental groups nicely" on homework
We sketched the proof of effect of gluing in disks on pi1 from Hatcher in homework
tons of stuff like this
I'm torn on this
on the one hand it sounds like good stuff to learn details of I guess
on the other hand I feel like it would make me reluctant to assign too much practice actually using these theorems
(as well as quizzes and a midterm)
we also have a good bit of practice using them
we got a lot of practice using the theorems in reviewing for the midterm
Interesting
the midterm was fully like
true/false and computational
and there are a good few like
using things
on the homeworks too
Like this homework has these problems:
- Prove Scheier index formula from group theory with alg top
- Give / prove the Galois correspondence (we've already done the other parts of the classification, so this was pretty easy)
- [from a qualifying exam] give an example of a 3-sheeted covering space which is not normal/regular
- Show that genus g surfaces have regular covers with any number of sheets
- Covering spaces using quotients by nice actions, like all of that stuff
- Lens space [apply 5 to construct a cool 3-manifold and compute it's fundamental group]
- Try and discover for yourself a relationship between the monodromy action and the action of the normalizer(pi1(covering space)) via deck transfromations on a fiber
Which I think is a good balance
of apply and prove big result
I suppose its fine
idk thats longer than most of my psetst
gotta remember we've done the classification theorem so like
by a long shot
im also very concise tho
I'm anti-concise
but 18 would make me raise my eyebrows
like I'm used to 30-40 page psets from my intro analysis class
a dude in my analysis class told me his first homework in our class was 75 pages long today
jesus
granted I had bigger margins then
thats cancer
but like
The way he described how he did stuff sounded the same as what mine was
pretend hatcher doesn't exist
But mine was 15 pages
no
for these "prove result found in any textbook" type problems
and we got the same grade
we can read it for some things, and in fact are expected to read it for some of them
(and instructed to if we need it)
on this problem we had like
for this one question
I see
lmao my rep theory final which took a fuckton of hours
ended up being like
4 pages
idk what people write on their psets to make them so long
20pt font and 2 inch margins
If you want I can share one of my psets with you in dms
im eyeballing it
to show you
lol
i think what happens is like
i spend a lot of time understanding why results are true
but once i understand it i have no problem under-explaining it
lol
so i just am very concise as long as I can back it up
normally graders seem okay with this
That doesn't mean that was the intended solution tho
if im writing a pset longer than say
20 pages
im gonna go ahead and assume im doing something wrong
i would at least reach out to a friend or something
lol
lol
75 pages is mind boggling
yeah that is a huge amount
i can't even write 75 pages for like
Mine are like
I'm just really detailed about things
what's a reu
math summer camp
except normally u get paid
over summer
instead of paying
wat
paid = small stipend
a) how is an undergrad in any way able to do research
b) who would pay money for that
does it
Yeah I have no idea how that dude squeezed out 75 pages
When I did 15
And I'm usually too verbose
i dont think any school actually makes money off their reus
by training those who go on to become researchers, and letting people know ahead of time if they don't like it
Pays off in the sense of paying back into the community
how does that pay off
same + i make diagrams and my max is like 15
I think like "pays off" as in "for the mathematical community at large"
training the next generation or whatever
ye
i was gonna say
I think it's actually an interesting challenge to do assignments as short as possible
I tried to do Hatcher's LieAlg exercises with the constraint to not use more text than the assignment
worked at least for the first chapter, lol
Hatcher's LieAlg?
Umrh, ofc not hatcher
…whatsthename…
i think the optimal writing style is like
Humphreys?
humphreys
verbose enough to explain anything actually hard
ah, you were faster
but as concise as possible shy of that
I have a copy in line of sight 😉
hmmm
I guess?
I like being detailed
but I think like
the aim of a pset versus a paper to explain something to people feels differently to me
But I completely mislike books who don't commit to either being complete or being concise
When stuff is so verbose it takes quite some time to navigate through the chapters, I become quite angry when the author leaves out nontrivial details
if I need to explain something to people I want to convince them that it's possible to check the details
if I'm writing a pset I want to make sure I can handle all the details and ensure the grader of this
otoh, when things are concise and most proofs are sketches anyway, I don't mind
gromov 
he's not wrong
What does it mean for a manifold to be conformally embedded?
So if the manifold is a Riemannian then we can just the metric to check this?
what are angles
angles are the inverse cosine of g(X, Y)/|X| |Y|
Is there a definition of "straight line" in riemannian manifolds via angles? (I would guess not, right?) As opposed to "a straight line between points is a path that minimizes length"
Are you looking for a characterization of geodesics in terms of angles or a new concept that could reasonably called a straight line?
I guess the former (maybe the latter could be interesting too if the resulting "straight lines" are not too weird)
here's a necessary condition
(T*Terra, dqⁱ ∧ dpᵢ)
the second equality comes from the fact that if you know parallel transport then you can recover the connection via that derivative (proof: choose a parallel orthonormal frame along the curve and expand)

Ah, and parallel transport is an additional structure on top of the riemannian metric?
parallel transport comes from the riemannian metric
(well from its levi civita connection, which is uniquely determined by the metric)
Oh, somehow my intuition is that the riemannian metric can't relate things between points, ie the metric at two points are sort of independent
that's what parallel transport does for you
lets you "transport" data between two tangent spaces 
so although the metric itself isn't relating data between two different points, its connection is
pulls out formula for christoffel symbols in terms of derivatives of the metric tensor
lovely
I'm having a hard time intuitively seeing how a metric tensor gives rise to a parallel transport
I guess what makes sense to me so far is if I have a geodesic, then the derivative of the geodesic at 2 points should be parallel to each other, despite that they are in different tangent spaces. But I'm not sure about the other n-1 other directions besides the derivative
i googled a bit and someone on MO says to take a peek at the appendix to arnold's mathematical methods in classical mechanics book 
I legit didn't know that there was a formal definition to „parallel transport“ that wasn't „a connection“
Are these concepts 1:1?
Or are there restrictions like parallel transport always inducing torsionless connections
Or however this works
i think there is indeed a one-to-one correspondence between connections and (suitable notions) of parallel transport
googling time 
Anyone working on mobile sensor networks/evader detection? (Just curious)
this is not topology or geometry really
What do you mean? These problems were essentially the birth of applied topology to my knowledge
It's a mix of topology, dynamical systems, and combinatorial structures. But topology is the foundation
It should, tbh. Maybe not in this chat though, I guess. I honestly don't know how network topology isn't topology though
I guess if that question is too specific, then is anyone working on applied topology?
So when considering an ultrametric space we normally have this inequality $|a+b|\leq \max{|a|,|b|}$.
However, I am dealing with p-adic numbers, and I am pretty sure this is actually an equality for p-adic distance.
dackid
If I am wrong, can you please help me break out of that intuition?
I know this is true in alot of cases
Oh really? So I guess a better question is when wouldn't this be true in ultra metric spaces?
one example where it's not true
take a = b = 1/2
in 2-adic valuation
then |1/2 + 1/2| = |1| = 1
but |1/2| = 2
Hmm, okay, so it really boils down to when the p-values are the same.
It also seems this is unique to 2-adic valuation
it's an equality when $|a| \ne |b|$
Merosity
it's not hard to show either, it's kind of a fun trick
wlog assume $|a|>|b|$ then $|a| = |a+b-b| \le \max (|a+b|, |b|)$. Since $|a|>|b|$ we know $|a|\le |a+b|$. And of course $|a+b| \le \max(|a|,|b|) = |a|$ so we have shown inequality both ways and $|a+b|=|a|$.
Merosity
Just a little more discussion in the p-adic case we can additionally look when |a|=|b| by normalizing to |a|=|b|=1 and then we can reduce a,b mod p. Then it's just looking at if they're negatives of each other mod p. When they're negatives of each other you get |a+b|<max(|a|,|b|) and when they're not negatives you get |a+b| = max(|a|,|b|)
you're welcome 👍
can anyone link me a way to see that compact manifolds have finite dimensional singular cohomology without using de rham + hodge + elliptic operators have finite dim ker and coker
tyty
Every compact manifold is homotopy equivalent to a finite CW complex, and cellular homology is equal to singular homology? That might be a nice way
Of course that first statement is quite heavy but eh
hmm
how heavy is that first statement?
You just have to prove that every manifold is homotopy equivalent to a CW complex. And manifolds by definition are essentially built by gluing together patches of euclidean space
so if this is hard to prove I'm going to be angery
idk, the gap between "intuitively clear" and "easy to prove" seems to be pretty large in topology
Hmm
I'm thinking of something silly like
Choose a metric
Cover by convex open sets
(so that all intersections of cover elements are contractible)
Try to inductively do mayer vietoris?
So the idea is something like "if a space admits a finite good cover then it has finitely generated cohomology"
The metric is just used to produce a am open cover where all finite intersections are empty or contractible
I don't know any other way to do this
possibly dumb question- how do you motivate riemannian geometry? Like, I get that riemannian metrics define a notion of size and distance on manifolds, but suppose you've never heard of the things and wanted to add more structure to a smooth manifold. Wouldn't adding a metric (in the metric space sense) that's compatible with the manifold topology be the more obvious choice?
@ terra
that doesn't give you any smooth data @shut moat is probably one intuitive reason
smooth data?
like requiring the metric agree with the topology
doesn't respect any of the structure a smooth manifold has
ah true
how do you measure lengths with a topology-metric? area? angles?
an inner product on each tangent space lets you do so infinitesimally (i.e. on each tangent space), and then you'd like to do that everywhere; putting inner products together in a smooth fashion gives you a riemannian metric
we already know from linear algebra how to measure things like angles, and a lot of things on manifolds are done infinitesimally in the linear algebra setting and then put together smoothly. from this point of view a riemannian metric is a reasonable thing to consider (imo)
i suppose something along the lines of the limiting case of $\sum_i d(\gamma(t_{i+1}), \gamma(t_i))$
~S^1

hmm
that could work, yeah
it'd be very hard to use in practice though, i feel
(not like the integral formula for arc length is any easier to use, but it's certainly simpler)
also what faye said
shamrock fields still hasn't gotten back to me


Hmm, I'm pretty sure the riemannian metric is determined by its metric space metric. I wonder whether you could figure out a condition for when metric space metrics come from a riemannian metric?
coincidentally I was just looking at a stackexchange page talking about that
hahaha
I think you could resolve this by requiring that d: MxM--> R is smooth?
oh shit
the graph of d(0, x) will be pointy near the origin
r i p
so in principle, if I have a distance function that can be induced by a riemannian metric, then there is only one metric that does so?
on a connected manifold
this is an exercise in lee irm lol
i was just looking at it
NICE
let me show
part b: if two riemannian metrics determine the same distance function then they must be equal
wtf is that weird limit notation
t decreases to 0 (i.e. approaches from the right)
what about requiring (d(x, y))^2 to be smooth
intuitively that seems like it should work
but also it was intuitive that a coarser topology can't be homeomorphic to a finer one so I guess that can't be trusted lmao
lol
I have the following exercise.
and I started off a proof like this,
I want to show that U' and V' are non-empty and in particular they contain an element that is in the class of x and y respectively, it seems easy but I can't think of a way to show this.
It's not true
Let X be R and G=Z/2. Let the action be given by x\mapsto -x. Then this is a continuous group action.
Take a small neighborhood of 5
the intersection of this neighborhood and the respective one around -5
is empty
You are correct that you want to use finiteness in a creative way
Oh hm, I was mainly looking at this answer and the comments https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1508271/prove-that-x-g-is-hausdorff and was trying to fill in the gaps.
Would you like a hint
Sure yeah, I'm a bit lost after what you said
Finiteness is as important for playing games with hausdorffness as it is for playing games with open set intersections
Like
given a finite number of points you can find neighborhoods separating all of them
I can give more of a hint but my suggestion is you think about what it means
to have neighborhoods separating [x] and [y] in X/G
and what this lifts to in X
Maybe even draw it for a nice example like the one i gave above
Yeah I think that is my main problem, I find it very hard to visualize what X/G actually is in terms of what I think in topologies I'm used to
R^+?
oh right yeah
so
let's do this in reverse
we know we can separate 4 and 5 in R^+
what do those neighborhoods lift to in R?
like (3.5,4.5) and (4.5,5.5) for example?
Sure this works
what is their preimage in R
under the Z/2 map
(hint: every neighborhood should become |G| neighborhoods in the original space)
(-4.5, -3.5) and (3.5,4.5) same with the other one?
Yep!
So
a separating neighborhood in X/G
comes from
a bunch of separating neighborhoods in X
Oh so, if I look at the class of x and y for example and look at all the points that map to it, I want a neighbourhood of all the points that are equivalent to x and a neighbourhood of all the points equivalent to y such that they are disjoint?
Yeah kinda
so these preimages of x and y are both finite
so you can use hausdorffness to make sure you get "small enough" neighborhoods around all the preimages
and then you can make sense of a "smallest" one in some sense
idk how much hint you want i think you're very close
sorry just tryna think how I can incorporate all this into a proof
my suggestion is to draw more pictures
i am a big fan of generic looking ovals being sent to other generic looking ovals
I get the example you gave, but I'm not really sure how to draw this in a general setting
I'm trying to think of a good example that includes the technicalities I didn't give you
Basically you want to take small nbhds around all the points
make sure none of these intersect
but thats not quite enough
because like
(-3.9,-4.1) is a small enough neighborhoods around -4
and (3.5,4.5) is likewise for positive 4
but the two don't give you a well defined neighborhood in the quotient
does that make sense?
I can't really see that why that's the case no
So
basically (-3.9,-4.1) gets sent to (3.9,4.1)
which is not the same as
(3.5,4.5)
so (-3.9,-4.1) is not g(3.5,4.5) for any g
oh so they're not equivalent in a sense?
Yeah so the idea is like
you want to simultaneously choose a neighborhood of gx for all g
and likewise for y
so that they give a well defined neighborhood of the equivalence classes
in X/G
and I assume this U' does exactly that
the correctly chosen U' would yes
hm I'm trying to see why that is the case
Sorry why what is the case
U' does this
We haven't come up with a suitable U' yet
oh the intersection of all the gU's
thats empty
in general
that approach isn't going to work
it's almost the right idea though
but this was the one suggested in the stack exchange post
the very last comment
Yeah that comment is wrong
So gU, etc are open nbhd's of gx for each g and similarly for y and I can force all the gU's to be disjoint from the gV's
well
a priori you can choose $U_{g}$ and $V_{g}$ for all $g$ so that $gx\in U_{g}$ and $gy\in V_y$ and they are all pairwise disjoint
there is no guarantee that like
U_g should be gU
if that makes sense
oh and the intersections of these work?
sweetgreen simp
No
at least, not a naive intersection
they don't overlap in X
Can you think of a place where they do overlap?
in X/G?
Yes, you take the intersection in X/G
prove that these are open sets and disjoint
and contain [x] and [y]
haha
@marsh forge alright so I've gotten everything except them being disjoint, I was thinking of showing p(U_g) \cap p(V_g) is empty but this isn't necessarily true I think.
my suggestion is to proceed by contradiction
let U' be what happens when you intersect all the p(U_g) and likewise for V'
Suppose z is an element of both
hm alright let me see where this gets me
basically you can derive a few different contradictions i think
I think this works
Do induction on the number of elements in the cover
You MV on U1 cup ... cup Un and U_{n+1} to get this big LES
2 out of 3 terms are finitely generated by induction so the last one is too (this is in answer to your question @gritty widget )
@marsh forge I think this works, but I'm not 100% sure
I think the argument is more or less correct but I am not sure the set manipulations in the last sentence work
You need to be care about like
how a priori
maybe U_h intersects V_g
yeah that part I wasn't sure about
I would avoid taking unions at all and say something like, okay we have some lift of z in every single U_g and V_g. Prove that these guys are all disjoint. Then you can conclude after making an observation
lift of z means preimage?
I'm working on this bundles problem
Brofibration
Brofibration
Brofibration
Let $L$ be a line bundle on the torus defined by $\mathbb{C}\times \mathbb{C}/ (z, v) ~ (z+1, v), (z, v) ~ (z+ \tau, \phi(z)\cdot v)$
Brofibration
and the problem asks us to show that the line bundle has degree 1
and I think you can do it by computing the divisor associated to the corresponding theta function
Let $L$ be a line bundle on the torus defined by $\mathbb{C}\times \mathbb{C}/ (z, v) \sim (z+1, v), (z, v) \sim (z+ \tau, \phi(z)\cdot v)$
Brofibration
or another way might be to compute it using curvature and stuff
@marsh forge sorry I'm not able to think up a contradiction, I have that the preimage is contained in the union over g in G of all gU_h same for V_h for each h in G, but I can't think up an argument to show that the intersection of these are empty
Again my advice would be to not take unions
Note first that all the U_gs and V_hs are disjoint from eachother
note that there must be some lift of z in each
now the contradiction I have in mind follows from counting how many z's that means you have to have
and comparing it to how many z's you know you have
in order to argue with these U_g and V_g wouldn't I have to find the inverse image?
So you constructed U'\subset X/G
by starting with a bunch of disjoint stuff
and then taking intersections
you can prove from there that they have to lift to a bunch of disjoint open sets
When a smooth $m$-manifold $M$ is compact, choose ${(B_i,\varphi_i)}{i=1}^n$ a covering by coordinate balls. Use bump functions $\chi_i$ so that ${\chi_i}|{B_i}=1$. Define
\begin{equation}
F(p)=(\chi_1 \varphi_1(p),\hdots, \chi_n \varphi_n(p))\in\mathbb{R}^{nm}.
\end{equation}
We can show this is a smooth injective immersion $M\to\mathbb{R}^{nm}$, and hence an embedding since $X$ is compact. My question is, how does one show this is an immersion?
yetiyeti
question about simplicial homology computation
So I have this Delta-complex structure on a mobius band
and I've computed that
@marsh forge is it possible to demand that each U_g is disjoint from eachother or would that mess things up, then I could argue by placing different g_iz in each U_g, but then V_g cant be disjoint from U_g as one of these gz's are inside V_g? Reason I'm asking is because I think it's possible to place gz for some g in each U_g, then g'z in each V_g for another g' then everything would work out still but z would be in each p(U_g) and p(V_g). (also sorry this is probably getting pretty annoying by now)
unfortunately, this doesn't mean that im(d2) = <a, c - b1 - b2> because you run into parity issues
is there a way to deal with the parity issues?
(I'm sure there is, more asking how do I think about computing this image)
maybe instead as generators I can take <a - b1 + c, a + b2 - c>
but that is grody
that's nice tyty n.n
Ah I think I see how to do this, neat
it turns out it's not grody and everything is fine
one must just compoot
So I am having a bit of trouble. I need to show that p-adic valuations satisfy the ultrametric inequality. I am trying something, but it seems like overkill/ I don't think it is getting anywhere.
I could use some assistance on getting a good starting point
Nevermind, I went about it case by case and it worked out well

To show lim S is a closed set, Can't I just say if (p_n) converges to p,then p is a limit of S,implying p is in lim S?
But does that tell you it's closed? The argument seems a bit circular 🤔
just make sure to pay attention that p_n is a sequence of limit points, not points in S
So,p_n need not be in S?
yup
The sequence specifically needs to be in lim S
This does make the problem more interesting
You can use the facts cl(S) = S' U S and that cl commutes with union to do it.
cl(S) = S u S' = cl(cl(S)) = cl(S') u cl(S) = S'' u S' u S, and thus S'' is in S u S'
So S'' is contained in S'
Hence cl(S') = S'' u S' = S', i.e., S' is closed.
This step makes sense to me but I didn't really justify it.
closure is sus
To see it directly observe that x is not in the closure of something precisely if it can be separated from this something with an open nbhd
Oh, I was missing the backlog. I thought this was abstract talk about the Kuratowski closure axioms.
A projective curve gives us an affine curve in each chart. Do you have any good geometric intuition about these different curves?
Say we are working in P^2, a projective curve X is smooth if each of the curves three curves X_i:=X\cap U_i are smooth
I want to find a projective curve that is not smooth, but one of the X_i is smooth
Take zy^2 = x^3. This isn't smooth because it's not smooth in the chart z ≠ 0. But in the chart y ≠ 0 it is smooth since it's the curve z = x^3
does that seem right @gritty widget ?
how could one deduce that all real intervals are connected just from [a,b] being connected? (a < b) My slightly silly idea was to use it to show that R is connected from that (by the intervals [-n, n], each connected with connected union because their intersection is non-empty) and then construct continuous maps from R to each type of interval, but surely there's a nicer way?
suppose [a, b] is connected but (a, b) is disconnected - i.e. there is a pair of disjoint open subsets U, V such that their union is all of (a, b)
derive a contradiction
Path connectedness? Just construct a continuous bijection.
oh i had a different proof in mind but ig you need to know path connected=>connected
that works too
yeah ideally it'd be appealing straight to connectivity
namis proof works
had this idea but for some reason I thought it wouldn't work
Alternatively, (a, b) is homeomorphic to R
yeah but I'd have to use explicit constructions I'd imagine, not sure if I can just quote that
I'll give that direct method another think
wait I'm completely stupid
one sec
note here that "open" means "open wrt the subspace topology"
since [a, b] and (a, b) and whatnot are being considered as subspaces of R
I'm not really sure how to "add in" a and b since that's what I assume we're trying to do (main difficulty is that {a}, {b} and {a,b} are not open in [a,b])
no, but singletons are closed, hence their complement is open, hence the intersection of their complement with an open set is open
if you cant justify why these are closed, consider (a, b+epsilon) intersect [a, b]
or alternatively (-infty, a) U (a, infty)
So {a} is clopen? But that disproves connectivity, doesn't it?
huh?
yeah I get that singletons are closed
nah not in [a,b]
okay so we can consider (a, b) as a subspace of [a, b] with the subspace topology
U and V are open in (a, b), which means there are open sets U', V' in [a, b] with U = U' intersect (a, b)
Oh my bad
you can do a casewise argument on whether these contain a, b or not
but ultimately thats a small technical detail
continue the argument and you get that [a, b] must be disconnected
a contradiction
Yes thank you!
aside: it may be logistically easier to go from (a, b) disconnected -> (a, b] disconnected -> [a, b] disconnected
or something like that
just because that lets you consider a single endpoint
and then the argument is basically the same to include the other one
nah it was supposed to be [a,b] connected -> any interval connected
think I see it now
and then consider countable unions for when one end is infinite? (idk if you're supposed to consider that case but doesn't seem to be too much of a big deal)
well if you have (a, b) connected for all (a, b)
then yea
you can just countably union
assuming youve proven that countable unions preserve connectedness at least
er wait
(a, b) U (a, b+1) U (a, b+2) U ... is simpler
ye that sort of thing
so U' \cap (a,b) and V' \cap (a,b) being disjoint means that they could only share a, b. But I don't see where to go from there - in my head you're going to have to pull out sups/infs again?
like if either U', V' have a, b you can get separations for some half-open or closed interval but I can't see how you can guarantee which one, may just be being dense
wait one sec
i see why you say it's better to go the other way around, cos you can suppose a separation [a, b] = A \cup B then A \cap (a,b) and B \cap (a,b) is a separation of (a,b). Seems a bit clunky this way round
is it not better to instead of consider [a,b] and (a,b), to consider (a - epsilon, b + epsilon) instead? Like if you have a separation (a - epsilon, b + epsilon) = A \cup B, then A \cap [a,b] and B \cap B [a,b] would separate [a,b], contradiction. Seems to work better
think I've got it that way
only adding/taking epsilon works main point being [a,b] \subset [that]
Quick question, if I have a subset A in X equipped with the subspace topology, and I know that A\cap B is open in A can I immediately conclude that B is open in X?
Ah I see alright
Is there any condition that I can impose on B such that is does hold?
That B is contained in the interior of A
why're you trying to do that Athurus?
I'm trying to prove something is a quotient map and I have that g^{-1}(U) is an intersection of the subset with something else (which I want this something else to be open)
it was a serious suggestion!
but I definitely don't have this interior thing so I can't use that
lol
so these are my notes from class:
why does f(1)=/=f(-1) imply there does not exist a lift?
you need p(f(1))=p(f(-1))
why is that?
because you're lifting p
oh oosp
anyhow though, imagine if you didn't have that condition - if f(1) != f(-1) then 1 and -1 arent "above" the same point, but we know that they must be since p makes them equal
you've seen more visual examples on e.g. S^1 already right
im confused to as why p makes them equal since we have $p(\tilde{f}(z))$ does $p(\tilde{f}(1))$ have to be $p(\tilde{f}(-1))$?
Not A Horse
the helix on S^1?
they call the covering p, -1 and 1 are both mapped to 1, so they are identified as the same, the lift should not distinguish between these? Also im confused about this word lift and covering, $p^{-1}$ goes to the covering space right? and $f$ takes it to the space as if we are lift something to the covering space?
Not A Horse
the covering space here is C/0 and p takes the covering space to the base space. a lift of f:C/0 to C/0 is a map from C/0 to the covering space so that when projected back down it is just f, i.e. p(\tilde{f}(-))=f(-).
so in this case our f(-1)=/=f(1) is originally the case, but if we suppose there is a lift, we can never project back down to satisify this?
yes
$p(\tilde{f}(-1))=f(1)$ will never be the casE?
Not A Horse
why is this true?
no its not
i mean the fact that it will never be the case
to be accurate, you need to pick a value for \tilde{f}(-1), either f(-1) or f(1)
the induced map $f_$ seems to tell us this since $f_ (n)=2n$ but i dont see why this implies the result
Not A Horse
you don't need the induced map, let me think for a sec
wait so you accept the definition of the lift right? that f=p\circ \tilde{f}?
of course
this part
ohhhh oops
i think the problem is $\tilde{f}(1)=1,-1$ but based on the drawing with the circle, it looks like $\tilde{f}(1)=1$, how can we see that $ \tilde{f}(1)=-1,$ is also valid ?
Not A Horse
i think i get how the drawing works
if u set like n=1, it takes 1 to -1, if u set n=2, it takes 1
So I kind of hit a road block. I am trying to show with the ultrametric inequality that if $d(x_n,x_{n+1})\to 0$, then the sequence $(x_n)$ is Cauchy.
dackid
@pale sky if you haven't figured it yet, i'm pretty sure the answer is just that \tilde{f} must be continuous.
oh i figured it out, its that tilde{f} is not well defined
no matter how u try to define a tilde f, it will send 1 to -1 and 1 based on that circle picture
thanks though!
in this picture, it seem like if you decide to not move, you get tildef(1)=1, if you decide to move you get tildef(1)=-1
@quasi forum To go from xn to xm, for m>=n big, you can make small steps ; but the ultrametric inequality tells you travel (at most) as far taking several small steps and taking just one small step. Thus if m is big enough you win since you can have that one step makes you travel an arbitrarily small distance
I'm so sorry, I'm not sure I am following
I kinda have the idea, but I think clarity will be helpful
you go from xm to xn by going xm, xm+1, xm+2, ... and you apply the ultrametric inequality at each step
For instance d(xm,xm+2)<=max(d(xm,xm+1),d(xm+1,xm+2))
Thank you! My friend got to the explanation basically right before you did.
But I definitely see it now. I was trying to apply the ultrametric inequality in a not very useful way earlier.
nice now you can easily prove $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = 0$ iff $\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n$ converges
Merosity
yeah
Taking a picture so I can ponder it later 😁
it should be very easy using what you just proved about cauchy sequences
if you ponder you're thinking too hard
Because it is Cauchy, there is a point where you are adding terms arbitrarily close to one another
You are right I am thinking too hard
welllll it should be a bit more rigorous than that
what does it mean for an infinite sum to converge?
its partial sums $s_n = \sum_{k=0}^n a_k$ converges
Merosity
If the sum is S, then $d(S, S_n)\to 0$
dackid
so write the condition of s_n being a cauchy sequence
maybe I'm assuming translation invariant metric
I'm sorry. It's 3 am. This may seem easy, but my brain is not having it at this hour
no it's my bad, I was assuming it was a translation invariant metric
Oh okay. So it is not generally true?
I don't think I've spent any time thinking about ultrametric spaces that weren't normed vector spaces so I don't know lol
It's true if you have a complete ultrametric space
because sn+1-sn=an tends to zero
But for instance $\sum_n p^{n}$ doesn't converge in Z for the p-adic valuation
Othenor
Um wait I'm not so sure about that one I should double check
But basically take any x in the p-adic integers Zp not in Z, take its p-adic expansion x=sum an p^n and voila
1+p+p^2+p^3+... = 1/(1-p) so if p=2 then 1/(1-2) = -1 actually does converge in Z
but can you prove that for a metric that isn't translation invariant? The critical step: $d(s_n, s_{n-1}) = d(a_n,0)$
Merosity
is there a name for the map, from a space X to its class group sending a point of that class
is the directional derivative of vector field along another just the dot product of the vectors at a point?
the directional derivative of a vector field with respect to another will be another vector field, but the dot product is a scalar
yeah, but i was thinking you just get the gradient of that one then. I'll have to go back over definitions, i dunno what im missing
Second Countable Topological Spaces implies First Countable Topological Spaces
but
First Countable Topological Spaces doesn't imply Second Countable Topological Spaces
right?
Finite Topology?
also I definitely am
My book uses:
The space (X,T) is said to be first countable iff there is a countable local base at each point of X
C is a local base at p iff each neighborhood of p contains a member of C
Have C be the collection of neighborhoods of p?
hmmm
i see where youre getting at
lemme think
A T1 space?
Do you have a link I can use to find out?
since I'm way off, im misunderstanding something.
a limit point?
i should
Discrete because it's all sets of X, including the neighborhoods of p?
What do you mean by naming it?
by "base for x" you mean any point right?
A local base C1 in X , U in C1, and x exists in C1, U, and X
the local base C exists in X and each neighborhood of x contains a member of C
can i get a hint?
Does anyone have a hint for this? We are working on a compact Riemann surface X.
If [p]-[q] is a principal divisor, does this mean we must have some function that has a pole over order 1 at q and and a zero of order 1 at p?
would it be {x}?
de Rham cohomoloy
I was wondering if this is an efficient proof for this problem or if I need to go in to more detail. If so, I am having a little trouble figuring out how to elaborate and can use some pointers
you could do it directly- d(x, A) = 0 implies that every open neighborhood of x intersects A. So x is a limit point and therefore an element of \bar{A}
The other way is pretty straightforward
is it?
I think the other direction slightly harder
still a one liner, but the justification is a bit heavier
If x is in the closure A, then every ball of radius r intersects A
And so the infinum is 0
Well in the case for the part I am doing, I am taking the contrapositive
There we go. I like this better
And then the other direction is since x is in the closure of A, there is a sequence (a_n) that converges to x. Therefore, the infinum is 0
d² = 0, ez
d=0
bespoke

god I've downloaded so many diff geo pdfs that I won't read
do all the exercises in all of them
if you can't literally latex the books from memory you haven't learned anything
the only reason it's interesting 
Isn't a lot of diff. geo. motivated by physics?
owo

